Thursday, April 29, 2010
NTPC TECHNICAL EXAM PAPER
NTPC Previous Paper 4 May 2008 (Technical)
NTPC PAPER ON 4th MAY KOLKATA
Technical ( control and instrumentation):
1. expression for ?(n): u(n)-u(n-1)/ u(n-1)-u(n+1)/ u(n)+u(n+1)/...
2. numerical on a photodiode: to calculate the responsivity/sensitivity when a specified no of incident photons cause a specified no of electron generation.
3. for a radioactive sample which decays to 12.5% of its initial value in x days, the half life is given by..
4. connect two 1? resistors in series, then connect two 1H inductors across one of the resistors such that the ckt looks like a 1? resistor in series with a ?-section of a resistor and two inductors. With the series resistance on the i/p side, calc the transfer function of this ckt
5. AC signal conditioning is used for inductive and capacitive/resistive/piezoelectric transducers/all of the above.
6. lower useful input limit of a transducer is determined by
7. air-cored inductors are used for low frequency/high frequency/equal frequency operations.
8. given 4 pole-zero plots identify which one corresponds to the driving point impedance of a series resonant ckt.
9. given four unit-circle plots identify the one corresponding to a bandpass filter.
10. the sequence (2,3,4,3) is circularly even/circularly odd/circularly zero/both circularly even and odd.
11. z-transform of 3n u(n).
12. match the following with their characteristics: LED/LCD/nixie tube/optical fibre.
13. a 4 kHz signal is sampled at thrice the Nyquist rate and sent through a channel with error ?1%. Calc the bandwidth of the channel.
14. given an op-amp ckt obtain an expression for o/p voltage.
15. no. of encirclements made about the origin of the nyquist plot of the open loop TF:1/[(s-1)(s+2)(s+3)].
16. given a two port network in the form of a T find o/p admittance in terms of y-parameters.
17. for a repeater in a PCM cable identify the correct sequence of actions amongst threshold/equalization/etc.
18. o/p of a delta modulator when a ramp input is fed to it.
19. steady state error with ramp i/p for a type-0 system.
20. creeping occurs in energy meters bcoz.
21. ultrasonic method of flow measurement cannot be used in liquids with air bubbles/has less attenuation in air compared to liquid-identify the false statement (if any) among these.
22. major cause of losses in a fibre optic cable: dispersion/total internal refraction/presence of core and cladding/
23. which layer in the OSI model is concerned with printer buffering,etc: network/session/transport/
24. given some function F(j?) calc its inverse CTFT.
25. relation between laplace and z-transform: s=z/ s=ln z/ s=( ln z/T) /
26. maxm and minm probability error among ASK,PSK,FSK,DPSK etc
27. which of the following is a non linear modulation scheme: PAM/QAM/PCM/
28. match the following functions: e-t , e-t + et, sin(?t) with causal and stable system, causal and unstable system, etc.
29. given a ckt with a 50 ? resistor in series between two voltage sources of 10 V and 5 V magnitude calc power delivered by 5 V source.
30. laplace transform of e-3tu(t)+e2tu(-t).
31. which photodetector has output affected by own intrinsic noise: PN/APD/PIN/all.
32. inverse laplace transform of 1/s2[d/ds(e-3s/s)]
33. when I mode is added to proportional control system stability increases/ decreases/ steady state performance deteriorates/damping increases.
34. reset control is another name for integral/derivative/proportional/. Control.
35. time response of system having transfer function 625/(s2+25) will be of the form
36. given some transfer function calc the peak response time.
37. the nyquist sampling rate of the function [sin(at)/t]2 will be
38. the feedback topology that results in increased i/p and o/p impedance is current series/voltage series/current shunt voltage shunt.
39. numerical on cardiac output calculation given heart rate and volume per beat.
40. in an ECG instrumentation amplifier the differential gain is provided by 1st stage/2nd stage/mismatched resistors/output stage.
41. repeat ques 40 above for the classic 3-op amp instrum amplifier.
42. EMG signals are of the order of mV/V/?V/
43. computer assisted tomography is used for
44. numerical on electrostatic instrument, to calculate deflection given spring constant, torque etc.
45. to prevent loading of a ckt i/p impedance of a CRO should bee high/low/inductive/capacitive.
46. addition of a zero to a 2nd order underdamped system results in increase/decrease of rise time and increase/decrease of peak overshoot.
47. for PI ctrl we obtain improved bandwidth/improved steady state performance/ worsened steady state performance/
48. SNR of normal AM system is comparable/3 dB lower/3 dB higher/6 dB lower over DSB-SC and SSB system.
49. which is an effective measure of the noise related performance of an amplifier: SNR/noise ratio/thermal noise/shot noise.
50. given baseband signal freq and carrier freq calc which of the freq given will not be present for conventional AM.
51. distinction between FM and PM at high frequencies.
52. which of these has the least propagation delay RTL/ECL/I2L/CMOS.
53 switching speed of CMOS is affected/unaffected by changes in supply voltage.
54. which of these provides a measure of heart rate P/QRS complex/T/none of these.
55. given a ckt of a logarithmic amplifier you had to identify what ckt was it.
56. JFET can operate in depletion/enhancement/both/none of the above modes.
57. when a BJT operates in saturation the junctions are fwd biased/reverse biased/
58. BIBO stability criterion implies that poles are within/outside/on the unit circle.
59. for faithful amplification of low amplitude signals the cut-off/active/saturation regions of a transistor is used.
60. lissajous pattern of a signal rotates 36 times per minute. if the oscillator frequency is 560 kHz then the unknown freq is
61. % resolution of a 10 bit ADC.
62. to obtain 10 mV resolution on 5 V range how many bit DAC is to be used..
63. why is LCD preferred to LED.
64. how will 0.6973 be displayed on 10 V range of a 4 digit multimeter.
65. which of the following cannot be used for an automatic feedback temp ctrl system thermocouple/thermometer/thermistor/IC sensor.
66. y(n)=x(-n+3) is an example of a linear/non linear and shift variant/invariant system.
67. the falling body method is used to determine viscosity/humidity/.
68. which of these methods of viscosity measurement gives greatest accuracy falling body method/rotating cylinder method/both/
69. some question on gas chromatography
70.a device having a rotor with 3 Y-connected coils and a stator is likely to be a synchro/RVDT/control transformer/
71. in a twisted ring counter the initial count is 1000. after the 4th clock pulse its state will be.
72. a 240 kHz signal is given into a 3 bit binary ripple counter. The lowest o/p freq obtainable is.
73. for parity bit checking which of the following gates can be used XOR/NAND/OR/XNOR.
74. why is a BJT called so..
75. identify the expression for gauge factor of a strain gauge among the given options.
76. in a semiconductor strain gauge as tensile strain is applied what changes take place in the n and p areas..
77. how does a radioactive level gauging system work
78. a capacitive transducer measuring level works on the principle of change in distance between plates/change in dielectric strength/
79. for maximum power transfer in an AC circuit the condition to be satisfied is ZL+ZS=0/XL+XS=0/none of these/.where l and s refers to load and source resp.
80. find the transfer function from a block diagram.
81. synchronous ctrs are preferred to asynchronous ctrs bcoz they are faster/glitches at the output can be avoided/both/none of these.
82. the lissajous figure formed on an oscilloscope looks like the English figure of 8. if the vertical channel input is 1 kHz the horizontal input freq is.
83. IE=IC for a transistor in saturation/cutoff/active/both saturation and active regions.
84. reproducibility of measurements is called accuracy/precision/linearity/none of these.
85. which of these is not strictly a static characteristic accuracy/precision/tolerance/linearity.
86. the shunt coil in a Q meter has resistance of the order of m?/?/k?/..
87. for measuring inductance of high Q coils the bridge used is Maxwell-wien/Schering/
88. which of these measures inductance in terms of capacitance Maxwell and hay/Maxwell and Schering/hay and Schering/
89. in a flip-flop with preset and clear inputs both are applied simultaneously/clear is cleared when preset is applied/preset is cleared when clear is applied/.
90. what happens when the RET instruction is encountered by 8085
91. a 1024*8 memory chip needs how many address lines
92. what happens when the PUSH instruction is encountered by 8051.
93. in FM relation between no of sidebands w.r.t. modulating freq
94. numerical on DPSK.
95. a multiplexer accepts input data and provides one output all the time/one output at a time/many outputs at a time/many outputs all the time.
96. pulse modulation is essentially a process of multiplexing/.
97. wave shape is altered by clipper/clamper/voltage doubler/amplifier.
98. 4 signals of frequencies 100,100,200 and 400 Hz are sampled at nyquist rate and sent through TDM on a channel.the bandwidth of the channel is
99. superposition can be applied to a ckt with initial conditions/non-linear ckt/
100. kelvins double bridge is used for the measurement of
101. which of these is not an active transducer thermocouple/solar cell/RTD/none of these.
102. oscillator using positive feedback has gain of 0/?/undefined value/
103. wien bridge oscillator should initially have closed loop gain >3/<3/=3/
104. some question on gain margin and phase shift of a system.
105. fourier series expansion of even function has sine terms only/cosine terms only/no odd harmonics/
106. full wave rectifier gives clean dc o/p/dc o/p with small ripple/positive half and inverted negative half of i/p as o/p.
107. which of these values of ? gives damped oscillations: 0/1/1.6/0.6
108. for a transformer of ratio 1:a and excited by a source V with impedances Z1 and Z2 on the primary and secondary side value of a for maxm power transfer should be..
109. fourier transform of cos(?0t) is
110. at t=0 the step response of a 1st order system is.
111. 555 can be used as a monostable/astable/freq dividing ckt/all of these.
112. in a PT when the secondary is open ckted with the primary excited what will happen.
113. if a system is marginally stable then the nature of oscillations will be
114. linear encoders mostly use straight binary/BCD/gray code.
115. for an accelerometer working in displacement mode the ratio of forcing freq to natural freq should be..
Thats all I can remember! One fact which I wish to mention is that many questions contained options which were repeated, e.g. Both a) and b) were 5. it was difficult making a choice in these cases.
Aptitude(70 ques):
Most of the questions were straightforward. There were questions involving profit and loss, ratio-proportion, DI from pie-charts, one RC passage and other questions from verbal. The ones involving verbal were quite confusing, as none of the options seemed to fit the question,e.g there were some questions in which you had to find the word farthest in meaning to a given word. The word given was judicious, and the options were illegal, obscure, case and some other. The same was the case with the other four questions of this sort.
Overall it was an ok sort of paper, though the negligible weightage given to instrumentation related questions was somewhat surprising.
NTPC PAPER ON 4th MAY KOLKATA
Technical ( control and instrumentation):
1. expression for ?(n): u(n)-u(n-1)/ u(n-1)-u(n+1)/ u(n)+u(n+1)/...
2. numerical on a photodiode: to calculate the responsivity/sensitivity when a specified no of incident photons cause a specified no of electron generation.
3. for a radioactive sample which decays to 12.5% of its initial value in x days, the half life is given by..
4. connect two 1? resistors in series, then connect two 1H inductors across one of the resistors such that the ckt looks like a 1? resistor in series with a ?-section of a resistor and two inductors. With the series resistance on the i/p side, calc the transfer function of this ckt
5. AC signal conditioning is used for inductive and capacitive/resistive/piezoelectric transducers/all of the above.
6. lower useful input limit of a transducer is determined by
7. air-cored inductors are used for low frequency/high frequency/equal frequency operations.
8. given 4 pole-zero plots identify which one corresponds to the driving point impedance of a series resonant ckt.
9. given four unit-circle plots identify the one corresponding to a bandpass filter.
10. the sequence (2,3,4,3) is circularly even/circularly odd/circularly zero/both circularly even and odd.
11. z-transform of 3n u(n).
12. match the following with their characteristics: LED/LCD/nixie tube/optical fibre.
13. a 4 kHz signal is sampled at thrice the Nyquist rate and sent through a channel with error ?1%. Calc the bandwidth of the channel.
14. given an op-amp ckt obtain an expression for o/p voltage.
15. no. of encirclements made about the origin of the nyquist plot of the open loop TF:1/[(s-1)(s+2)(s+3)].
16. given a two port network in the form of a T find o/p admittance in terms of y-parameters.
17. for a repeater in a PCM cable identify the correct sequence of actions amongst threshold/equalization/etc.
18. o/p of a delta modulator when a ramp input is fed to it.
19. steady state error with ramp i/p for a type-0 system.
20. creeping occurs in energy meters bcoz.
21. ultrasonic method of flow measurement cannot be used in liquids with air bubbles/has less attenuation in air compared to liquid-identify the false statement (if any) among these.
22. major cause of losses in a fibre optic cable: dispersion/total internal refraction/presence of core and cladding/
23. which layer in the OSI model is concerned with printer buffering,etc: network/session/transport/
24. given some function F(j?) calc its inverse CTFT.
25. relation between laplace and z-transform: s=z/ s=ln z/ s=( ln z/T) /
26. maxm and minm probability error among ASK,PSK,FSK,DPSK etc
27. which of the following is a non linear modulation scheme: PAM/QAM/PCM/
28. match the following functions: e-t , e-t + et, sin(?t) with causal and stable system, causal and unstable system, etc.
29. given a ckt with a 50 ? resistor in series between two voltage sources of 10 V and 5 V magnitude calc power delivered by 5 V source.
30. laplace transform of e-3tu(t)+e2tu(-t).
31. which photodetector has output affected by own intrinsic noise: PN/APD/PIN/all.
32. inverse laplace transform of 1/s2[d/ds(e-3s/s)]
33. when I mode is added to proportional control system stability increases/ decreases/ steady state performance deteriorates/damping increases.
34. reset control is another name for integral/derivative/proportional/. Control.
35. time response of system having transfer function 625/(s2+25) will be of the form
36. given some transfer function calc the peak response time.
37. the nyquist sampling rate of the function [sin(at)/t]2 will be
38. the feedback topology that results in increased i/p and o/p impedance is current series/voltage series/current shunt voltage shunt.
39. numerical on cardiac output calculation given heart rate and volume per beat.
40. in an ECG instrumentation amplifier the differential gain is provided by 1st stage/2nd stage/mismatched resistors/output stage.
41. repeat ques 40 above for the classic 3-op amp instrum amplifier.
42. EMG signals are of the order of mV/V/?V/
43. computer assisted tomography is used for
44. numerical on electrostatic instrument, to calculate deflection given spring constant, torque etc.
45. to prevent loading of a ckt i/p impedance of a CRO should bee high/low/inductive/capacitive.
46. addition of a zero to a 2nd order underdamped system results in increase/decrease of rise time and increase/decrease of peak overshoot.
47. for PI ctrl we obtain improved bandwidth/improved steady state performance/ worsened steady state performance/
48. SNR of normal AM system is comparable/3 dB lower/3 dB higher/6 dB lower over DSB-SC and SSB system.
49. which is an effective measure of the noise related performance of an amplifier: SNR/noise ratio/thermal noise/shot noise.
50. given baseband signal freq and carrier freq calc which of the freq given will not be present for conventional AM.
51. distinction between FM and PM at high frequencies.
52. which of these has the least propagation delay RTL/ECL/I2L/CMOS.
53 switching speed of CMOS is affected/unaffected by changes in supply voltage.
54. which of these provides a measure of heart rate P/QRS complex/T/none of these.
55. given a ckt of a logarithmic amplifier you had to identify what ckt was it.
56. JFET can operate in depletion/enhancement/both/none of the above modes.
57. when a BJT operates in saturation the junctions are fwd biased/reverse biased/
58. BIBO stability criterion implies that poles are within/outside/on the unit circle.
59. for faithful amplification of low amplitude signals the cut-off/active/saturation regions of a transistor is used.
60. lissajous pattern of a signal rotates 36 times per minute. if the oscillator frequency is 560 kHz then the unknown freq is
61. % resolution of a 10 bit ADC.
62. to obtain 10 mV resolution on 5 V range how many bit DAC is to be used..
63. why is LCD preferred to LED.
64. how will 0.6973 be displayed on 10 V range of a 4 digit multimeter.
65. which of the following cannot be used for an automatic feedback temp ctrl system thermocouple/thermometer/thermistor/IC sensor.
66. y(n)=x(-n+3) is an example of a linear/non linear and shift variant/invariant system.
67. the falling body method is used to determine viscosity/humidity/.
68. which of these methods of viscosity measurement gives greatest accuracy falling body method/rotating cylinder method/both/
69. some question on gas chromatography
70.a device having a rotor with 3 Y-connected coils and a stator is likely to be a synchro/RVDT/control transformer/
71. in a twisted ring counter the initial count is 1000. after the 4th clock pulse its state will be.
72. a 240 kHz signal is given into a 3 bit binary ripple counter. The lowest o/p freq obtainable is.
73. for parity bit checking which of the following gates can be used XOR/NAND/OR/XNOR.
74. why is a BJT called so..
75. identify the expression for gauge factor of a strain gauge among the given options.
76. in a semiconductor strain gauge as tensile strain is applied what changes take place in the n and p areas..
77. how does a radioactive level gauging system work
78. a capacitive transducer measuring level works on the principle of change in distance between plates/change in dielectric strength/
79. for maximum power transfer in an AC circuit the condition to be satisfied is ZL+ZS=0/XL+XS=0/none of these/.where l and s refers to load and source resp.
80. find the transfer function from a block diagram.
81. synchronous ctrs are preferred to asynchronous ctrs bcoz they are faster/glitches at the output can be avoided/both/none of these.
82. the lissajous figure formed on an oscilloscope looks like the English figure of 8. if the vertical channel input is 1 kHz the horizontal input freq is.
83. IE=IC for a transistor in saturation/cutoff/active/both saturation and active regions.
84. reproducibility of measurements is called accuracy/precision/linearity/none of these.
85. which of these is not strictly a static characteristic accuracy/precision/tolerance/linearity.
86. the shunt coil in a Q meter has resistance of the order of m?/?/k?/..
87. for measuring inductance of high Q coils the bridge used is Maxwell-wien/Schering/
88. which of these measures inductance in terms of capacitance Maxwell and hay/Maxwell and Schering/hay and Schering/
89. in a flip-flop with preset and clear inputs both are applied simultaneously/clear is cleared when preset is applied/preset is cleared when clear is applied/.
90. what happens when the RET instruction is encountered by 8085
91. a 1024*8 memory chip needs how many address lines
92. what happens when the PUSH instruction is encountered by 8051.
93. in FM relation between no of sidebands w.r.t. modulating freq
94. numerical on DPSK.
95. a multiplexer accepts input data and provides one output all the time/one output at a time/many outputs at a time/many outputs all the time.
96. pulse modulation is essentially a process of multiplexing/.
97. wave shape is altered by clipper/clamper/voltage doubler/amplifier.
98. 4 signals of frequencies 100,100,200 and 400 Hz are sampled at nyquist rate and sent through TDM on a channel.the bandwidth of the channel is
99. superposition can be applied to a ckt with initial conditions/non-linear ckt/
100. kelvins double bridge is used for the measurement of
101. which of these is not an active transducer thermocouple/solar cell/RTD/none of these.
102. oscillator using positive feedback has gain of 0/?/undefined value/
103. wien bridge oscillator should initially have closed loop gain >3/<3/=3/
104. some question on gain margin and phase shift of a system.
105. fourier series expansion of even function has sine terms only/cosine terms only/no odd harmonics/
106. full wave rectifier gives clean dc o/p/dc o/p with small ripple/positive half and inverted negative half of i/p as o/p.
107. which of these values of ? gives damped oscillations: 0/1/1.6/0.6
108. for a transformer of ratio 1:a and excited by a source V with impedances Z1 and Z2 on the primary and secondary side value of a for maxm power transfer should be..
109. fourier transform of cos(?0t) is
110. at t=0 the step response of a 1st order system is.
111. 555 can be used as a monostable/astable/freq dividing ckt/all of these.
112. in a PT when the secondary is open ckted with the primary excited what will happen.
113. if a system is marginally stable then the nature of oscillations will be
114. linear encoders mostly use straight binary/BCD/gray code.
115. for an accelerometer working in displacement mode the ratio of forcing freq to natural freq should be..
Thats all I can remember! One fact which I wish to mention is that many questions contained options which were repeated, e.g. Both a) and b) were 5. it was difficult making a choice in these cases.
Aptitude(70 ques):
Most of the questions were straightforward. There were questions involving profit and loss, ratio-proportion, DI from pie-charts, one RC passage and other questions from verbal. The ones involving verbal were quite confusing, as none of the options seemed to fit the question,e.g there were some questions in which you had to find the word farthest in meaning to a given word. The word given was judicious, and the options were illegal, obscure, case and some other. The same was the case with the other four questions of this sort.
Overall it was an ok sort of paper, though the negligible weightage given to instrumentation related questions was somewhat surprising.
NTPC PAPER
NTPC Previous Paper 6 Feb 2008
NTPC PAPER
1 An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase,decrease,remains same,none)
2 Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment?(wl/4)
3 Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)
4 Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)
5 When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )
6 For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing,carburizing,neutral,none)
7. Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics
8. When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=?
L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3
9.Product simplification does not mean??
Product characterization
10 Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing?
CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.
11. Concurrent engineering means?
(Manufacturing, designing, both,none)
12. Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity-
(process layout,line+process,functional layout)
13. 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
14 For which material is negative allowance provided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
15. What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)
16. What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
17. Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)
18. Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)
19. What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
20. As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)
21. Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
22. A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?
(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)
23. A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)
24. Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing?
(increases,decreases,no change)
25. Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
26. Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)
27. Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
28. Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)
29. EOQ=?
30 Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)
31. Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)
32. Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)
33. self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)
34 The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)
35. when steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)
36. In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)
37. Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )
38. Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton
39. Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )
40. High speed centrifugal pump has _?
(vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
41. Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_?
(Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
42. When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_
43. When entropy of a system increases_?
(unavailable energy increases )
44. Rolling is a process widely used for_?
(I section,tubes)
45. Tool nomenclature_?
46. In francis turbine movement of steam?
47. For low power consumption _?
(rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
47. Continuous chips occur in_?
(High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
48. Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_?
(fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)
49. In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_?
(nitrogen,oxygen)
50. Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_?
(corrosion)
51. Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_?
(decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
52. which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material?
(Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)
53. When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified?
(Endurance limit)
54. where is stress concentration maximum?
(notches, stress reducing throughcuts)
55. Power transmitted through a belt drive_?
P(T2-T1)
56. According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is
(Wcr = C?2EI/l2)
57. During sensible heating, specific humidity_?
(remains constant)
58. COP of a refrigerator is _?
(greater than 1 )
59. The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_?
(less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)
60. The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_?
(maximum,min)
61. for a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_?
(? f(X),f(Y),f(Z)=0,?M=0)
62. For a statically determinate set of forces-
(there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)
63. 1-2-3 analysis is used for_?
(1.break even analysis, ??)
64. A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120???
65. A problem n determining time in a queue??
66. Energy equation for a laminar flow is _?
(Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)
67. Undercuts in welding occurs due to_?
(low welding current,high welding current)
68. Work holding equipment in shearing??
69. At the centre of a nozzle _?
(Mach no<1 >=1;=1)
NTPC PAPER
1 An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase,decrease,remains same,none)
2 Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment?(wl/4)
3 Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)
4 Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)
5 When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )
6 For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing,carburizing,neutral,none)
7. Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics
8. When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=?
L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3
9.Product simplification does not mean??
Product characterization
10 Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing?
CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.
11. Concurrent engineering means?
(Manufacturing, designing, both,none)
12. Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity-
(process layout,line+process,functional layout)
13. 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
14 For which material is negative allowance provided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
15. What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)
16. What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
17. Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)
18. Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)
19. What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
20. As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)
21. Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
22. A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?
(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)
23. A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)
24. Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing?
(increases,decreases,no change)
25. Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
26. Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)
27. Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
28. Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)
29. EOQ=?
30 Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)
31. Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)
32. Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)
33. self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)
34 The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)
35. when steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)
36. In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)
37. Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )
38. Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton
39. Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )
40. High speed centrifugal pump has _?
(vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
41. Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_?
(Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
42. When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_
43. When entropy of a system increases_?
(unavailable energy increases )
44. Rolling is a process widely used for_?
(I section,tubes)
45. Tool nomenclature_?
46. In francis turbine movement of steam?
47. For low power consumption _?
(rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
47. Continuous chips occur in_?
(High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
48. Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_?
(fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)
49. In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_?
(nitrogen,oxygen)
50. Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_?
(corrosion)
51. Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_?
(decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
52. which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material?
(Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)
53. When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified?
(Endurance limit)
54. where is stress concentration maximum?
(notches, stress reducing throughcuts)
55. Power transmitted through a belt drive_?
P(T2-T1)
56. According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is
(Wcr = C?2EI/l2)
57. During sensible heating, specific humidity_?
(remains constant)
58. COP of a refrigerator is _?
(greater than 1 )
59. The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_?
(less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)
60. The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_?
(maximum,min)
61. for a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_?
(? f(X),f(Y),f(Z)=0,?M=0)
62. For a statically determinate set of forces-
(there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)
63. 1-2-3 analysis is used for_?
(1.break even analysis, ??)
64. A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120???
65. A problem n determining time in a queue??
66. Energy equation for a laminar flow is _?
(Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)
67. Undercuts in welding occurs due to_?
(low welding current,high welding current)
68. Work holding equipment in shearing??
69. At the centre of a nozzle _?
(Mach no<1 >=1;=1)
NTPC Previous Electrical Engg. Paper
NTPC Previous Paper 12 April 2009
Electrical Engineering
1. What is causal system?
2. Shunt reactor is used in EHV transmission line for
3. 20w, 40W, & 200w lamps are connected to three phases if neutral wire breaks then which lamp will fuse first? 1) 20 2)40 3)200 three lamps will fuse together.
4. Synchronous machine can be operated at both lagging and leading power factor
5 What does synchronous speed mean?
6. Frequency of emf generated per rotation of rotor is equal to.
7. DC machine having wave winding is wounded as lap winding what will be the effect on emf generated
8 Which is remain unchanged in transformer action?
9. In transformer windings are connected.?
10. In general how transformer is rated?
11. What is given on the name plate of motor? 1) KW 2) KVA 3) output shaft power
12. Short circuit test of transformer gives what?
13. Transformer core are laminated for what purpose?
14. What is supply voltage for heavy industry .1) 33KV 2) 11KV 3) 132 KV 4) 66KV
15. Basic structure SCR as a two transistor i.e. how they are connected?
16. What is Triac?
17. System admittance is (G+jB) what is reactive power absorbed if the voltage is V KV? (1) V (square)*B (2) V (square)*g .
18. In series R-L circuit what is phase difference between the voltage drop across R and L?
19. Power factor is cosine (delta ) delta is the angle between 1) phase voltage phase current 2)
Line voltage lone current 3) phase voltage line current 4) line voltage phase current.
20. Laplace of exp (-at)?
21. For series R-L-C circuit the load will be capacitive if the frequency is 1) greater than the resonant frequency 2) less than the resonant frequency 3).
22. In Wiens bridge which circuit elements determine the frequency range?
23. What is the output if two booster having duty cycle K and (K-1) are connected in series?
24. If a DC shunt motor is loaded from unloaded condition what will be effect of on terminal voltage?
25. A second wire system having one pole one right half of the s-plane. When the system will be stable?
26. A system having repetitive pole what will be effect on the gain at the cross over frequency?
27. Hollow conductor is used to reduce corona loss how does it reduce the loss?
28. In DC machine how voltage is related to flux?
29. Nature of current and voltage in the armature and at the terminal in DC machine.
30. Motor acts on the principle of ..rule
31. Which instrument measure both ac and dc?
32. How the rotation of induction motor is reversed?
33. If 3-phaseof a 3- phase balance load are reversed what will be the effect on the line current?
34. If the rating of VAR absorber is 50MVAR at 400KV. What will the VAR absorbed by the absorber at 300KV?
35. In regenerative breaking of DC series motor what is done?
36. Definitions of Fourier transform?
37. Laplace of f(t) is F(S) what is Laplace of f(t+T) .
38. Z-transform of sampled function x(n) for n>0.
39. Laplace transform of impulse function.
40. Z-transform of unity.
41. How many slip rings are there in 3phase synchronous motor?
42. How the speed of synchronous motor is controlled?
43. Speed control of induction motor?
44. When power supply is supplied to heater coil it glows while simple wire does not glow. Why?
45. A synchronous generator having inertia constant 4 and having rating of 100MVA. What will be energy stored by the machine?
46. A transformer having ratio 20:1. The secondary load is 0.6 ohm and the voltage across it is 6 V what will be the primary current?
47. A RC circuit having r=0.8ohm, c=2.5micofarad what will be the time constant?
48. Find load impedance if c=0.1 micro farad?
49. Two capacitors connected in series the equivalent capacitance is 0.03uf and when connected in parallel the equivalent capacitance is 0.16uf find out the ratio of the two capacitance?
50. An L-c circuit having frequency 1/sqrt (LC) what will the equivalent impedance?
51. An inverting op-am having input with resistance in series and a capacitance in feedback operates as a.?
52. A current having fundamental and third harmonics what will be the rms value of the current?
53. Peak to peak value of voltage if rms voltage is 100V.
54. Rms voltage.
55. What is the approx efficiency of nuclear power plant?
56. What is the average current of a single phase full wave rectifier firing at angle alpha?
57. What is the function of freewheeling diode?
58. When SCR stops conduction? (holding current)
59. For measuring current why shunt resistance is used?
60. For economic operation of plant what is the condition?(taking into account the penalty factor)
61. Incremental fuel cost of two plants is given and a load is given. Find out the load sharing for economic operation of the plant?
62. A two port network is represented by ABCD parameters. What will be condition for the two port network to be symmetrical?
63. Size of the conductor is determined by .
64. Which Surface is suitable for grounding?
Electrical Engineering
1. What is causal system?
2. Shunt reactor is used in EHV transmission line for
3. 20w, 40W, & 200w lamps are connected to three phases if neutral wire breaks then which lamp will fuse first? 1) 20 2)40 3)200 three lamps will fuse together.
4. Synchronous machine can be operated at both lagging and leading power factor
5 What does synchronous speed mean?
6. Frequency of emf generated per rotation of rotor is equal to.
7. DC machine having wave winding is wounded as lap winding what will be the effect on emf generated
8 Which is remain unchanged in transformer action?
9. In transformer windings are connected.?
10. In general how transformer is rated?
11. What is given on the name plate of motor? 1) KW 2) KVA 3) output shaft power
12. Short circuit test of transformer gives what?
13. Transformer core are laminated for what purpose?
14. What is supply voltage for heavy industry .1) 33KV 2) 11KV 3) 132 KV 4) 66KV
15. Basic structure SCR as a two transistor i.e. how they are connected?
16. What is Triac?
17. System admittance is (G+jB) what is reactive power absorbed if the voltage is V KV? (1) V (square)*B (2) V (square)*g .
18. In series R-L circuit what is phase difference between the voltage drop across R and L?
19. Power factor is cosine (delta ) delta is the angle between 1) phase voltage phase current 2)
Line voltage lone current 3) phase voltage line current 4) line voltage phase current.
20. Laplace of exp (-at)?
21. For series R-L-C circuit the load will be capacitive if the frequency is 1) greater than the resonant frequency 2) less than the resonant frequency 3).
22. In Wiens bridge which circuit elements determine the frequency range?
23. What is the output if two booster having duty cycle K and (K-1) are connected in series?
24. If a DC shunt motor is loaded from unloaded condition what will be effect of on terminal voltage?
25. A second wire system having one pole one right half of the s-plane. When the system will be stable?
26. A system having repetitive pole what will be effect on the gain at the cross over frequency?
27. Hollow conductor is used to reduce corona loss how does it reduce the loss?
28. In DC machine how voltage is related to flux?
29. Nature of current and voltage in the armature and at the terminal in DC machine.
30. Motor acts on the principle of ..rule
31. Which instrument measure both ac and dc?
32. How the rotation of induction motor is reversed?
33. If 3-phaseof a 3- phase balance load are reversed what will be the effect on the line current?
34. If the rating of VAR absorber is 50MVAR at 400KV. What will the VAR absorbed by the absorber at 300KV?
35. In regenerative breaking of DC series motor what is done?
36. Definitions of Fourier transform?
37. Laplace of f(t) is F(S) what is Laplace of f(t+T) .
38. Z-transform of sampled function x(n) for n>0.
39. Laplace transform of impulse function.
40. Z-transform of unity.
41. How many slip rings are there in 3phase synchronous motor?
42. How the speed of synchronous motor is controlled?
43. Speed control of induction motor?
44. When power supply is supplied to heater coil it glows while simple wire does not glow. Why?
45. A synchronous generator having inertia constant 4 and having rating of 100MVA. What will be energy stored by the machine?
46. A transformer having ratio 20:1. The secondary load is 0.6 ohm and the voltage across it is 6 V what will be the primary current?
47. A RC circuit having r=0.8ohm, c=2.5micofarad what will be the time constant?
48. Find load impedance if c=0.1 micro farad?
49. Two capacitors connected in series the equivalent capacitance is 0.03uf and when connected in parallel the equivalent capacitance is 0.16uf find out the ratio of the two capacitance?
50. An L-c circuit having frequency 1/sqrt (LC) what will the equivalent impedance?
51. An inverting op-am having input with resistance in series and a capacitance in feedback operates as a.?
52. A current having fundamental and third harmonics what will be the rms value of the current?
53. Peak to peak value of voltage if rms voltage is 100V.
54. Rms voltage.
55. What is the approx efficiency of nuclear power plant?
56. What is the average current of a single phase full wave rectifier firing at angle alpha?
57. What is the function of freewheeling diode?
58. When SCR stops conduction? (holding current)
59. For measuring current why shunt resistance is used?
60. For economic operation of plant what is the condition?(taking into account the penalty factor)
61. Incremental fuel cost of two plants is given and a load is given. Find out the load sharing for economic operation of the plant?
62. A two port network is represented by ABCD parameters. What will be condition for the two port network to be symmetrical?
63. Size of the conductor is determined by .
64. Which Surface is suitable for grounding?
NTPC | Diploma Trainee Exam Pattern
NTPC | Diploma Trainee Exam Pattern
National Thermal Power Corporation conducts the exam for the recruitment of Diploma Trainees in different fields. The pattern of trainee exam in this post will help you to prepare systematically for NTPC recruitment exam.
NTPC Diploma Trainee written test pattern:
NTPC written test consists of a two hour paper with objective type questions. The paper has two parts: Technical & Aptitude. While the questions of Aptitude test is common, questions of the Technical test would depend on which among the four disciplines (Electrical, Mechanical, Civil, C&I) you belong to.
Part-I (Technical) of NTPC Written test paper consists of 68 & Part-II (Aptitude) consists of 32 objective type questions. Thus there are 100 total questions to be answered in 120 minutes.
Note: There is negative marking: 1/4th mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. So be careful while choosing the answer.
For Aptitude test, the questions asked are of type Test of reasoning, data interpretation.
NTPC PAPER : 2007 AT NEW DELHI :
It constitutes of 170 questions (120 Tech + 50 Aptitude)
Time : 2 Hrs
For tech part the syllabus is same as of the GATE and for Aptitude Part R. S. Aggarwal is more than sufficient. As time duration is very short so time management is very important.
APTITUDE SECTION :
For this section no special attention is required only rs aggarwal is enough and it also has easy level of English section.
TECHNICAL SECTION :
For this section u have to b good in the basics. No hard question were asked but u should b careful about your time . It has also some part of very basic general knowledge. The questions were from following topics
10-12 Questions about microprocessor(8085)
3 Questions about RS232 standard
7-10 Questions of GK
4-6 Questions on opamp
10-15 Questions on Digital Communications
2-5 Questions on microwaves
15-20 Questions on Analog Devices
20-23 Questions on Digital Electronics (flip flops,gates,mux,no system etc)
1 Questions on ISO OSI Model
5-8 Questions on Control System
10-12 Questions on Signals and their Processing
AND SOME QUESTIONS ON PASSAGES & LIKE
1. Passage
2. Word meaning based (antonym and synonyms) fetter, fester, lucid, anomaly, elucidate etc
3. Word analogy based
4. What is a tunnel diode
5. What is a Zener diode
6. Effect of + and – feedback on stability
7. Composition of gobar gas
8. Function of differential in the vehicle
9. Function of stack register
10. Fun of instruction pointer
11. Fun of rst6.5,7.5
12. Wht is an interrupt
13. Output vtg calc on op amp
14. How a pulse train can b generated using registers
15. Conversion of oct to hex,hex to binary
16. Fun of quantizer in pcm
17. Why fm is less prone to noise
18. Fun of limiter in detection of FM
19. What is envelop detector
20. Phase shift of 1/s^2
21. Signal limited to 1000 hz sampled at nyquist rate. quantizer has 128 level .calculate the bit rate of the system.
22. 1.5 V battery supply same power to R1 and R2 separately(R1>R2).calc the internal resistance of battery
23. A wire is cut in two halves. one half is again stretched to th twice of length .calc the resistance.
National Thermal Power Corporation conducts the exam for the recruitment of Diploma Trainees in different fields. The pattern of trainee exam in this post will help you to prepare systematically for NTPC recruitment exam.
NTPC Diploma Trainee written test pattern:
NTPC written test consists of a two hour paper with objective type questions. The paper has two parts: Technical & Aptitude. While the questions of Aptitude test is common, questions of the Technical test would depend on which among the four disciplines (Electrical, Mechanical, Civil, C&I) you belong to.
Part-I (Technical) of NTPC Written test paper consists of 68 & Part-II (Aptitude) consists of 32 objective type questions. Thus there are 100 total questions to be answered in 120 minutes.
Note: There is negative marking: 1/4th mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. So be careful while choosing the answer.
For Aptitude test, the questions asked are of type Test of reasoning, data interpretation.
NTPC PAPER : 2007 AT NEW DELHI :
It constitutes of 170 questions (120 Tech + 50 Aptitude)
Time : 2 Hrs
For tech part the syllabus is same as of the GATE and for Aptitude Part R. S. Aggarwal is more than sufficient. As time duration is very short so time management is very important.
APTITUDE SECTION :
For this section no special attention is required only rs aggarwal is enough and it also has easy level of English section.
TECHNICAL SECTION :
For this section u have to b good in the basics. No hard question were asked but u should b careful about your time . It has also some part of very basic general knowledge. The questions were from following topics
10-12 Questions about microprocessor(8085)
3 Questions about RS232 standard
7-10 Questions of GK
4-6 Questions on opamp
10-15 Questions on Digital Communications
2-5 Questions on microwaves
15-20 Questions on Analog Devices
20-23 Questions on Digital Electronics (flip flops,gates,mux,no system etc)
1 Questions on ISO OSI Model
5-8 Questions on Control System
10-12 Questions on Signals and their Processing
AND SOME QUESTIONS ON PASSAGES & LIKE
1. Passage
2. Word meaning based (antonym and synonyms) fetter, fester, lucid, anomaly, elucidate etc
3. Word analogy based
4. What is a tunnel diode
5. What is a Zener diode
6. Effect of + and – feedback on stability
7. Composition of gobar gas
8. Function of differential in the vehicle
9. Function of stack register
10. Fun of instruction pointer
11. Fun of rst6.5,7.5
12. Wht is an interrupt
13. Output vtg calc on op amp
14. How a pulse train can b generated using registers
15. Conversion of oct to hex,hex to binary
16. Fun of quantizer in pcm
17. Why fm is less prone to noise
18. Fun of limiter in detection of FM
19. What is envelop detector
20. Phase shift of 1/s^2
21. Signal limited to 1000 hz sampled at nyquist rate. quantizer has 128 level .calculate the bit rate of the system.
22. 1.5 V battery supply same power to R1 and R2 separately(R1>R2).calc the internal resistance of battery
23. A wire is cut in two halves. one half is again stretched to th twice of length .calc the resistance.
syllabus for NTPC for HR executives exam
The syllabus for NTPC for HR executives exam is as under:
Part I is separate for separate discipline
Part-I
Questions: 55
Type: multiple-choice questions
1. Human Resource Management
2. Human Resource Planning
3. Recruitment & Selection
4. Human Resource Development: Strategies and Systems
5. Performance Management & Appraisal
6. Training and Development
7. Management of Compensations and Benefits
8. Rewards & Recognition
9. Organizational Structure Design and Change
10. Management Process and Organizational Behavior
11. Management of Change and Organization Effectiveness
12. Managing Interpersonal and Group Processes
13. Emotional Intelligence and Managerial Effectiveness
14. Transactional Analysis
15. Industrial Relations & Trade Unions
16. Labour Laws
17. Conflict Management
18. Collective Bargaining and Negations process
19. Grievance Management
20. Business Policy and Strategic Analysis
21. Corporate Evolution and Strategic Management
22. Cross Cultural and Global Management
23. International Business Environment
24. Business Ethics, Corporate Governance & Social Responsibility
25. Understanding Society and Social Structure
26. Managerial Economics, Financial Management and Accounting
27. Quantitative Methods & Research Methodology
28. Management Information Systems
29. Human Resource Information System
30. Total Quality Management
Part II is same for all disciplines
Part-II
Questions: 35
Topics: Executive Aptitude Test
* Reading comprehension
* Verbal/Non verbal reasoning
* Numerical ability
* Data Interpretation
* General Awareness
Part I is separate for separate discipline
Part-I
Questions: 55
Type: multiple-choice questions
1. Human Resource Management
2. Human Resource Planning
3. Recruitment & Selection
4. Human Resource Development: Strategies and Systems
5. Performance Management & Appraisal
6. Training and Development
7. Management of Compensations and Benefits
8. Rewards & Recognition
9. Organizational Structure Design and Change
10. Management Process and Organizational Behavior
11. Management of Change and Organization Effectiveness
12. Managing Interpersonal and Group Processes
13. Emotional Intelligence and Managerial Effectiveness
14. Transactional Analysis
15. Industrial Relations & Trade Unions
16. Labour Laws
17. Conflict Management
18. Collective Bargaining and Negations process
19. Grievance Management
20. Business Policy and Strategic Analysis
21. Corporate Evolution and Strategic Management
22. Cross Cultural and Global Management
23. International Business Environment
24. Business Ethics, Corporate Governance & Social Responsibility
25. Understanding Society and Social Structure
26. Managerial Economics, Financial Management and Accounting
27. Quantitative Methods & Research Methodology
28. Management Information Systems
29. Human Resource Information System
30. Total Quality Management
Part II is same for all disciplines
Part-II
Questions: 35
Topics: Executive Aptitude Test
* Reading comprehension
* Verbal/Non verbal reasoning
* Numerical ability
* Data Interpretation
* General Awareness
GIC/LIC/ OIC AAO EXAM GENERAL AWARENESS
General Awareness
Questions asked in GIC/LIC/OIC AAO Exam, May 2009
1.The first metal to be used by man was:
(a) aluminium
(b) copper
(c) iron
(d) silver
2.The present base year for calculating wholesale
price index number is:
(a) 1993-94
(b) 1991-92
(c) 1961-62
(d) 1950-51
3.For respiration in deep sea, divers use mixture
of:
(a) Oxygen and helium
(b) Oxygen and hydrogen
(c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
(d) Oxygen and nitrogen
4.Who committed the most daring murder of Sir
Curzen Wyllie in 1907 in a public meeting in London?
(a) B.N. Dutta
(b) M.L. Dhingra
(c) Sardar Ajit Singh
(d) S.C. Chatterjee
5.The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice
and:
(a) 12 Judges
(b) 15 Judges
(c) 20 Judges
(d 25 Judges
6.The International Day for Elimination of Racial
Discrimination is observed on:
(a) 20th February (b) 21st February
(c) 20th March
(d) 21st March
7.‘New Horizons’ spacecraft was launched by
NASA to study which of the following planet?
(a) Mars
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mercury
8.Which of the following statements are true about
‘2011 Cricket World Cup’?
A. India will host the 2011 World Cup Final.
B. The two semi-final of the mega event will be held
in Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
C. The opening ceremony will be held in
Bangladesh.
D. UAE will host the matches which will be played
between India and Pakistan.
(a) only A, B and C
(b) only B, C and D
(c) only A, C and D
(d) only A and D
9.Which of the following trophies is related with
the game of ‘Football’?
(a) Mumbai Gold Cup
(b) Everest Cup
(c) Merdeka Cup
(d) V.C.C. Cup
10.On which date is Life Insurance Corporation of
India completed its 50 years?
(a) 5th July
(b) 3rd August
(c) 1st September
(d) 15th September
11.The minimum temperature at which a com-
bustible substance catches fire is called:
(a) fireless temperature
(b) ignition temperature
(c) static temperature
(d) optimum temperature
12.The temple of Konark was built by Narasimha
of the:
(a) Maratha Dynasty
(b) Chola Dynasty
(c) Ganga Dynasty
(d) Vijaynagar Empire
13.Rigveda Samhita denotes one-fourth of its
hymns to:
(a) Rudra
(b) Marut
(c) Agni
(d) Indra
14.Ahalyabai, the saintly queen of Maheshwar
(Central India) belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Scindhya dynasty
(b) Peshwa dynasty
(c) Holkar dynasty
(d) Rajput dynasty
15.Which one of the following is not a constitu-
tional body?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Finance Commission
16.‘Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)‘ has
not yet been signed by:
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Canada
(d) United Kingdom
17.Jadugoda mines are famous for:
(a) iron ore
(b) mica deposits
(c) gold deposits
(d) uranium deposits
18.What is the Value Added Tax (VAT)?
(a) A single tax that replaces State Taxes like
surcharge, turnover tax, etc.
(b) A simple, transparent, easy to pay tax imposed
on consumers.
(c) A new initiative taken by the government to
increase the tax burden of high income groups.
(d) A new tax to be imposed on the producers of
capital goods.
19.What is the name of the World’s smallest
republic which has an area of 21 sq.km.?
(a) Vatican City (b) Palermo
(c) Namur
(d) Nauru
20.On Jan 10, 2007 India crossed another mile-
stone with the successful launch of PSLV-C7 which
injected into orbit for the first time four satellites, Car-
tosat-2, SRE-1, Lapan-Tubsat and Pehuensat-1. Which
one of them is an earth observation satellite?
(a) Cartosat-2
(b) SRE-1
(c) Lapan-Tubsat
(d) Pehuensat-1
21.Which bank has launched India’s first loan
disbursement card recently?
(a) SBI
(b) UTI
(c) IDBI
(d) ICICI
22.Who has been named “Businessman of the Year
for 2006” by Forbes Asia?
(a) Nandan Nilekani
(b) Mukesh Ambani
(c) Vijay Mallya
(d) Azim Premji
23.Who is the 37th Chief Justice of India?
(a) Ram Jethmalani (d) Y.K. Sabharwal
(c) Bijibhai Patnaik (d) K.G. Balkrishnan
24.‘Diet’ is a joint session of the Parliament of
which nation?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Vietnam
(d) Germany
25.Who is the author of the book, Amitabh—The
Making of a Superstar?
(a) Tushar Raheja
(b) Vijay Singhvi
(c) Susmita Das Gupta
(d) Raj Kamal Jha
26.Ban-ki-Moon who took oath on 14th December
as U.N. Secretary General belonged to:
(a) South Africa
(b) South Korea
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Yugoslavia
27.The first woman in the world to successfully do
a free fall para-jump over the South Pole from a height
of 12,000 feet in a minus 33 degree Celsius tempera-
ture, is:
(a) Sheetal Mahajan (b) Manisha Lamba
(c) Kangna Ranaut (d) Neha Ahuja
28.Paris is situated on the river:
(a) Danube
(b) Seine
(c) Tiber
(d) Avon
ANSWERS
1. (b)2. (a)3. (d)4. (b)5. (d)6. (d)
7. (b)8. (a)9. (c)10. (c)11. (b)
12. (c)13. (d)14. (c)15. (c)16. (a)
17. (d)18. (a)19. (d)20. (c)21. (d)
22. (a)23. (d)24. (b)25. (c)26. (b)
27. (a)28. (b)
Questions asked in GIC/LIC/OIC AAO Exam, May 2009
1.The first metal to be used by man was:
(a) aluminium
(b) copper
(c) iron
(d) silver
2.The present base year for calculating wholesale
price index number is:
(a) 1993-94
(b) 1991-92
(c) 1961-62
(d) 1950-51
3.For respiration in deep sea, divers use mixture
of:
(a) Oxygen and helium
(b) Oxygen and hydrogen
(c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
(d) Oxygen and nitrogen
4.Who committed the most daring murder of Sir
Curzen Wyllie in 1907 in a public meeting in London?
(a) B.N. Dutta
(b) M.L. Dhingra
(c) Sardar Ajit Singh
(d) S.C. Chatterjee
5.The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice
and:
(a) 12 Judges
(b) 15 Judges
(c) 20 Judges
(d 25 Judges
6.The International Day for Elimination of Racial
Discrimination is observed on:
(a) 20th February (b) 21st February
(c) 20th March
(d) 21st March
7.‘New Horizons’ spacecraft was launched by
NASA to study which of the following planet?
(a) Mars
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mercury
8.Which of the following statements are true about
‘2011 Cricket World Cup’?
A. India will host the 2011 World Cup Final.
B. The two semi-final of the mega event will be held
in Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
C. The opening ceremony will be held in
Bangladesh.
D. UAE will host the matches which will be played
between India and Pakistan.
(a) only A, B and C
(b) only B, C and D
(c) only A, C and D
(d) only A and D
9.Which of the following trophies is related with
the game of ‘Football’?
(a) Mumbai Gold Cup
(b) Everest Cup
(c) Merdeka Cup
(d) V.C.C. Cup
10.On which date is Life Insurance Corporation of
India completed its 50 years?
(a) 5th July
(b) 3rd August
(c) 1st September
(d) 15th September
11.The minimum temperature at which a com-
bustible substance catches fire is called:
(a) fireless temperature
(b) ignition temperature
(c) static temperature
(d) optimum temperature
12.The temple of Konark was built by Narasimha
of the:
(a) Maratha Dynasty
(b) Chola Dynasty
(c) Ganga Dynasty
(d) Vijaynagar Empire
13.Rigveda Samhita denotes one-fourth of its
hymns to:
(a) Rudra
(b) Marut
(c) Agni
(d) Indra
14.Ahalyabai, the saintly queen of Maheshwar
(Central India) belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Scindhya dynasty
(b) Peshwa dynasty
(c) Holkar dynasty
(d) Rajput dynasty
15.Which one of the following is not a constitu-
tional body?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Finance Commission
16.‘Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)‘ has
not yet been signed by:
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Canada
(d) United Kingdom
17.Jadugoda mines are famous for:
(a) iron ore
(b) mica deposits
(c) gold deposits
(d) uranium deposits
18.What is the Value Added Tax (VAT)?
(a) A single tax that replaces State Taxes like
surcharge, turnover tax, etc.
(b) A simple, transparent, easy to pay tax imposed
on consumers.
(c) A new initiative taken by the government to
increase the tax burden of high income groups.
(d) A new tax to be imposed on the producers of
capital goods.
19.What is the name of the World’s smallest
republic which has an area of 21 sq.km.?
(a) Vatican City (b) Palermo
(c) Namur
(d) Nauru
20.On Jan 10, 2007 India crossed another mile-
stone with the successful launch of PSLV-C7 which
injected into orbit for the first time four satellites, Car-
tosat-2, SRE-1, Lapan-Tubsat and Pehuensat-1. Which
one of them is an earth observation satellite?
(a) Cartosat-2
(b) SRE-1
(c) Lapan-Tubsat
(d) Pehuensat-1
21.Which bank has launched India’s first loan
disbursement card recently?
(a) SBI
(b) UTI
(c) IDBI
(d) ICICI
22.Who has been named “Businessman of the Year
for 2006” by Forbes Asia?
(a) Nandan Nilekani
(b) Mukesh Ambani
(c) Vijay Mallya
(d) Azim Premji
23.Who is the 37th Chief Justice of India?
(a) Ram Jethmalani (d) Y.K. Sabharwal
(c) Bijibhai Patnaik (d) K.G. Balkrishnan
24.‘Diet’ is a joint session of the Parliament of
which nation?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Vietnam
(d) Germany
25.Who is the author of the book, Amitabh—The
Making of a Superstar?
(a) Tushar Raheja
(b) Vijay Singhvi
(c) Susmita Das Gupta
(d) Raj Kamal Jha
26.Ban-ki-Moon who took oath on 14th December
as U.N. Secretary General belonged to:
(a) South Africa
(b) South Korea
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Yugoslavia
27.The first woman in the world to successfully do
a free fall para-jump over the South Pole from a height
of 12,000 feet in a minus 33 degree Celsius tempera-
ture, is:
(a) Sheetal Mahajan (b) Manisha Lamba
(c) Kangna Ranaut (d) Neha Ahuja
28.Paris is situated on the river:
(a) Danube
(b) Seine
(c) Tiber
(d) Avon
ANSWERS
1. (b)2. (a)3. (d)4. (b)5. (d)6. (d)
7. (b)8. (a)9. (c)10. (c)11. (b)
12. (c)13. (d)14. (c)15. (c)16. (a)
17. (d)18. (a)19. (d)20. (c)21. (d)
22. (a)23. (d)24. (b)25. (c)26. (b)
27. (a)28. (b)
Wednesday, April 28, 2010
IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS & HEAD QUARTERS IN INDIA
IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS IN INDIA
Education
● Commission of Scientific and Technical Words Terminology—New Delhi
● Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages—Hyderabad
● Institute of National Sanskrit—New Delhi
● National Sanskrit Vidyapeeth—Tirupati
● Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit Vidyapeeth—New Delhi
● Rashtriya Bal Bhavan—New Delhi
● Institute of Central Indian Language—Mysore
● Indian Council of Higher Research—Shimla
● Indian Institute of Social Sciences and Research—New Delhi
● Council of Indian Philosophy Research—New Delhi and Lucknow
● Indian Institute of Science—Bengaluru
● Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management—Gwalior
● Central Hindi Institute—Agra
Environmental Institutes
● Arid Zone Research Institute—Jodhpur
● Central Pollution Control Board—Delhi
● Central Museum Authority—New Delhi
● Rehabilitation Institute of Social Forestry and Ecology—Allahabad
● G. B. Pant Himdoya Environment and Development Institute—Almora
● Himalayan Forest Research Centre—Shimla
● Indian Forest Research and Education Council—Dehradun
● Institute of Indian Forest Management—Bhopal
● Institute of Indian Plywood Industry and Research—Bengaluru
● Institute of Forest Genetic Tree Breeding—Coimbatore
● Forest Productive Centre—Ranchi
● Institute of Forest Research and Human Resource Development—Chindwara
● Institute of Rainforest—Jorhat
● Institute of Lumbering Science and Technology—Bengaluru
● Institute of National Science & Technology—Faridabad
● Indian Botanical Survey—Kolkata
● Indian Anthropology Survey—Kolkata
● Indian Forest Survey—Jorhat
● Tropical Institute—Jabalpur
Defence Institutes
● Air Force Academy—Hyderabad
● Air Force Technical College—Bengaluru
● College of Military Engineering—Pune
● Defence Management Institute—Sikandrabad
● Defence Services Staff College—Wellington
● Directorate General N.C.C.—New Delhi
● Electrical and Mechanical Engineering School—Baroda
● Hindustan Aeronatic Limited—Bengaluru
● Indian Air Force Training Centre—Chennai
● Indian Military Academy—Dehradun
● Institute of Armament Technology—Pune
● Military College of Electrical and Mechanical Engineering—Sikandrabad
● Directorate of National Cadet Core—New Delhi
● National Defence Academy—Kharagwasala
● Naval College of Engineering—Lonavala
● Officers Training Academy—Chennai
Art and Culture
● Institute of National Museum History for Art Conservation and Science Museum—New Delhi
● Allahabad Museum—Allahabad
● Asiatic Society—Kolkata
● Indian Anthropology Survey—Kolkata
● Indian National Archives—New Delhi
● Central Buddh Education Institute—Leh
● Central High Tibetean Educational Institute—Varanasi
● Central Secretariat Library (1981)—New Delhi
● Cultural Institute and Training Centre (1979)—New Delhi
● Delhi Public Library—New Delhi
● Gandhian Recollection and Philosophy Recollection—New Delhi
● Institute of Indian Diamond—Surat
● Indian Museum—Kolkata
● Indira Gandhi National Art Centre—New Delhi
● Indira Gandhi National Human Museum—Bhopal
● Jawahar Lal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy (1954)—Imphal
● Kala Chitra Foundation—Chennai
● Khudabaksh Oriental Public Library—Patna
● Lalit Kala Academy (1954)—New Delhi
● Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad Asian Studies Institute—Kolkata
● National Drama Vidyalaya (1959)—New Delhi
● National Science Museum Parishad—Kolkata
● National Modern Art Technique (1954)—Kolkata
● National Library (1948)—Kolkata
● National Museum—New Delhi
● National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Heritage—Lucknow
● National School of Drama—New Delhi
● Nav-Nalanda Mahabihar—Bihar
● Nehru Memorial Museum and Library—New Delhi
● Raja Rammohan Rai Library Foundation—Kolkata
● Ram Krishan Mission Sanskrit Institute (1938)—Kolkata
● Rampur Raja Library—Rampur
● Sahitya Academy (1954)—New Delhi
● Salarjanj Museum—Hyderabad
● Sangeet Natak Academy—New Delhi
● Victoria Memorial Hall—Kolkata
Food and Civil Supply
● Indian Standard Bureau—Delhi
● Indian Examination House—Kolkata
Health and Family Welfare
● Central Health Education Bureau—New Delhi
● National Medical Science Academy—New Delhi
● National Ayurvedic Institute—Jaipur
● National Siddh Institute—Chennai
● National Yunani Institute—Bengaluru
● Morarji Desai National Yog Institute—New Delhi
● National Natural Medical Institute—Pune
● National Homeopathic Institute—Kolkata
● National Ayurvedic Vidyapeeth—New Delhi
● Hindustan Organic Chemicals Ltd.—Rasoyni (Maharashtra)
Industries
● South India Textile Research Association—Coimbatore
● North India Cloth Research Institute—Ghaziabad
● Silk and Art Silk Mills Research Association—Mumbai
● Indian Jute Industry Research Association—Kolkata
● Wool Research Institute—Thane
● National Chemicals and Fertilizers Ltd.—Trombay
● Pesticide Technology Institute—Gurgaon
● Hindustan Antibiotic Ltd.—Pimpri, Pune
● Plastic Engineering and Technology Institute—(Sepate) Chennai
● Indian Bureau of Mines—Nagpur
● National Aluminium Co. Ltd.—Orissa
● Hindustan Zinc Ltd.—Udaipur
Law and Justice
● National Justice Academy—Bhopal
● Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy—Hyderabad
● Lok Nayak Jai Prakash Narain National Crime and Justice Institute—New Delhi
Labour
● Labour Bureau Institute—Chandigarh and Shimla
● V. V. Giri National Labour Institute—Noida (U. P.)
● Central Labour Board—Nagpur
● Director General of Mines Security—Dhanbad
● Central Education Media Institute—Chennai
● Institute of Central government Training and Research—Kolkata
Mass Communication
● Publication Deptt.—New Delhi
● Film Department—Mumbai
● National Film Archieves—Pune
● Indian Committee of Children Film—Mumbai
● Directorate of Publications and Visual Publicity—Delhi
● Directorate of Regional Publicity—New Delhi
● Testimony Board of Central Movie—Mumbai
● Institute of Indian Film and Television—Pune
● Satyajeet Ray Film and Television Institute— Kolkata
Institute of Science and Technology
● Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science—Kolkata
● Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology—Pune
● Indian Astro-physics Institute—Bengaluru
● Jawahar Lal Nehru Developed Scientific Research Centre—Bengaluru
● Indian Institute of Geomagnetism—Mumbai
● Indian Science Academy—Bengaluru
● Indian National Science Academy—New Delhi
● Indian Science Congress Association—Kolkata
● Indian National Engineering Academy—New Delhi
● Indian National Oceanic Information Service Centre—Hyderabad
● Indian Oceanic Technical Institute—Chennai
● National Antarctic and Ocean Research Centre—Goa
● National Biological Science Centre—Bengaluru
● National Institute of Reservation—New Delhi
● Centre of National Cell Science—Pune
● Centre of National Mental Research—Manesar
● National Plant-Genome Research Centre—New Delhi
● National Earthquake Science Data Centre—New Delhi
● Indian Science Academy—Allahabad
● Survey Training Institute—Hyderabad (with the help of U.N.D.P.)
● Bose Institute—Kolkata
● Agarkar Research Institute—Pune
● Sri Chitra Triunal Medical Science and Technical Institute—Tiruvananthapuram
● Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology—Dehradun
● N. N. Bose National Fundamental Science Centre—Kolkata
● Birbal Sahani Institute of Paleo-botany—Lucknow
● Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment Council—New Delhi
● Science Expansion (Vigyan Prasar)—New Delhi
● Liquid Crystal Research Institute—Bengaluru
● Aryabhatta Research Observatory—Nainital
● Director of Atomic Mineral Investigation and Research—Hyderabad
● Indian Uranium Corporation Ltd.—Jaduguda
● Heavy Water Board—Mumbai
● Nuclear Fuel Campus—Hyderabad
● Bhabha Atomic Research Centre—Mumbai
● Shri Ram Institute of Chemical Research—New Delhi
● Institute for Plasma Research (I. P. R.)—Ahmedabad
● Harish Chand Research Institute—Chennai
● Physics Institute—Bhubaneshwar
● Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre—Kolkata
● Deptt. of Atomic Energy—Mumbai
● Project Directorate, Integrated Coastal and Sea Coast Management—Chennai
● Sea-biotic Resources and Ecology Centre—Cochin
● Hindustan Zinc Limited—Udaipur
● D. N. A. Finger Print and Centre—Hyderabad
● Biotic Resources and Continuous Development Centre—Imphal
● Life Science Institute—Bhubaneshwar
● Physical Research Laboratory—Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
● S. V. National Technical Institute—Surat
● Saha Nuclear Physics Institute—Kolkata (W. Bengal)
● Cosmic Rays Research Institute—Gauribidanow
● Shri Ram Chennai Research Institute—New Delhi
● Tata Institute of Fundamental Research—Mumbai
● Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology—Kocchi
● Institute of Mathematical Science—Chennai
● Institute of Physics—Bhubaneshwar
● National Biology Centre—Bengaluru
● Uranium Corporation of India Ltd.—Jaduguda (Jharkhand)
● Vishveshraiya National Technical Institute—Nagpur
Transport
● Diesel Locomotive Works—Varanasi
● Chitranjan Locomotive Works—Chitranjan
● Rail Coach Factory—Kapurthala
● Integral Coach Factory—Perambur, Kapurthala
● Rail Wheel Factory—Bengaluru
● Marine Engineering and Research Institute—Kolkata
● Marine Engineering and Research Institute—Mumbai
● Lal Bahadur Shastri Coastal Research and Higher Study Institute—Mumbai
● Indian Inland Waterways Authority—Noida
● Maritime Training Institute Powai—Mumbai
● Hindustan Shipyard Limited—Visakhapatnam
● Central Inland Water Transport Corporation—Kolkata
● Civil Aviation Security Bureau—Delhi
● National Aviation Management and Research Institute—Delhi
● Fire Training Centre—New Delhi
● Fire Service Training School—Narainpur (Kolkata)
● Indira Gandhi National Flying Academy—Furshatganj (U. P.)
● Indian Tourism and Travel Management Institute—Gwalior
● National Water Sporting Institute—Goa
Water Resources
● Central Soil and Material Research Centre—New Delhi
● Central Water and Electric Research Centre—Kharagwasala (Pune)
● National Project Construction Corporation Ltd.—New Delhi
● National Hydrology Institute—Roorkee (Uttarakhand)
Welfare
● National Blind Institute—Dehradun
● National Orthopedic Disabled Institute—Kolkata
● Aliyawarjung National Hard of Hearing Institute—Mumbai
● National Mental Disabled Institute—Sikandrabad
● National Rehabilitation Training and Research Institute—Cuttack
● Physically Disabled Institute—New Delhi
● Multi-disabled Strengthen Institute—Chennai
● National Public Cooperation and Child Development Institute—New Delhi
Youth Work and Play
● Rajeev Gandhi National Youth Development Institute—Perambur
● Laxmibai National Physical Education Institute (1957)—Gwalior
Energy
● National Thermal Power Corporation—New Delhi
● Electric Finance Corporation Ltd.—New Delhi
Communication
● Telecommunication Engineering Centre—New Delhi
● National Telecommunication Finance and Management Academy—Hyderabad
● High Level Telecommunication Training Centre—Ghaziabad
● Advance Level Telecommunication Training Centre—Ghaziabad
● Bharat Ratna Bhim Rao Ambedkar Telecommunication Training Institute—Jabalpur
Education
● Commission of Scientific and Technical Words Terminology—New Delhi
● Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages—Hyderabad
● Institute of National Sanskrit—New Delhi
● National Sanskrit Vidyapeeth—Tirupati
● Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit Vidyapeeth—New Delhi
● Rashtriya Bal Bhavan—New Delhi
● Institute of Central Indian Language—Mysore
● Indian Council of Higher Research—Shimla
● Indian Institute of Social Sciences and Research—New Delhi
● Council of Indian Philosophy Research—New Delhi and Lucknow
● Indian Institute of Science—Bengaluru
● Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management—Gwalior
● Central Hindi Institute—Agra
Environmental Institutes
● Arid Zone Research Institute—Jodhpur
● Central Pollution Control Board—Delhi
● Central Museum Authority—New Delhi
● Rehabilitation Institute of Social Forestry and Ecology—Allahabad
● G. B. Pant Himdoya Environment and Development Institute—Almora
● Himalayan Forest Research Centre—Shimla
● Indian Forest Research and Education Council—Dehradun
● Institute of Indian Forest Management—Bhopal
● Institute of Indian Plywood Industry and Research—Bengaluru
● Institute of Forest Genetic Tree Breeding—Coimbatore
● Forest Productive Centre—Ranchi
● Institute of Forest Research and Human Resource Development—Chindwara
● Institute of Rainforest—Jorhat
● Institute of Lumbering Science and Technology—Bengaluru
● Institute of National Science & Technology—Faridabad
● Indian Botanical Survey—Kolkata
● Indian Anthropology Survey—Kolkata
● Indian Forest Survey—Jorhat
● Tropical Institute—Jabalpur
Defence Institutes
● Air Force Academy—Hyderabad
● Air Force Technical College—Bengaluru
● College of Military Engineering—Pune
● Defence Management Institute—Sikandrabad
● Defence Services Staff College—Wellington
● Directorate General N.C.C.—New Delhi
● Electrical and Mechanical Engineering School—Baroda
● Hindustan Aeronatic Limited—Bengaluru
● Indian Air Force Training Centre—Chennai
● Indian Military Academy—Dehradun
● Institute of Armament Technology—Pune
● Military College of Electrical and Mechanical Engineering—Sikandrabad
● Directorate of National Cadet Core—New Delhi
● National Defence Academy—Kharagwasala
● Naval College of Engineering—Lonavala
● Officers Training Academy—Chennai
Art and Culture
● Institute of National Museum History for Art Conservation and Science Museum—New Delhi
● Allahabad Museum—Allahabad
● Asiatic Society—Kolkata
● Indian Anthropology Survey—Kolkata
● Indian National Archives—New Delhi
● Central Buddh Education Institute—Leh
● Central High Tibetean Educational Institute—Varanasi
● Central Secretariat Library (1981)—New Delhi
● Cultural Institute and Training Centre (1979)—New Delhi
● Delhi Public Library—New Delhi
● Gandhian Recollection and Philosophy Recollection—New Delhi
● Institute of Indian Diamond—Surat
● Indian Museum—Kolkata
● Indira Gandhi National Art Centre—New Delhi
● Indira Gandhi National Human Museum—Bhopal
● Jawahar Lal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy (1954)—Imphal
● Kala Chitra Foundation—Chennai
● Khudabaksh Oriental Public Library—Patna
● Lalit Kala Academy (1954)—New Delhi
● Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad Asian Studies Institute—Kolkata
● National Drama Vidyalaya (1959)—New Delhi
● National Science Museum Parishad—Kolkata
● National Modern Art Technique (1954)—Kolkata
● National Library (1948)—Kolkata
● National Museum—New Delhi
● National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Heritage—Lucknow
● National School of Drama—New Delhi
● Nav-Nalanda Mahabihar—Bihar
● Nehru Memorial Museum and Library—New Delhi
● Raja Rammohan Rai Library Foundation—Kolkata
● Ram Krishan Mission Sanskrit Institute (1938)—Kolkata
● Rampur Raja Library—Rampur
● Sahitya Academy (1954)—New Delhi
● Salarjanj Museum—Hyderabad
● Sangeet Natak Academy—New Delhi
● Victoria Memorial Hall—Kolkata
Food and Civil Supply
● Indian Standard Bureau—Delhi
● Indian Examination House—Kolkata
Health and Family Welfare
● Central Health Education Bureau—New Delhi
● National Medical Science Academy—New Delhi
● National Ayurvedic Institute—Jaipur
● National Siddh Institute—Chennai
● National Yunani Institute—Bengaluru
● Morarji Desai National Yog Institute—New Delhi
● National Natural Medical Institute—Pune
● National Homeopathic Institute—Kolkata
● National Ayurvedic Vidyapeeth—New Delhi
● Hindustan Organic Chemicals Ltd.—Rasoyni (Maharashtra)
Industries
● South India Textile Research Association—Coimbatore
● North India Cloth Research Institute—Ghaziabad
● Silk and Art Silk Mills Research Association—Mumbai
● Indian Jute Industry Research Association—Kolkata
● Wool Research Institute—Thane
● National Chemicals and Fertilizers Ltd.—Trombay
● Pesticide Technology Institute—Gurgaon
● Hindustan Antibiotic Ltd.—Pimpri, Pune
● Plastic Engineering and Technology Institute—(Sepate) Chennai
● Indian Bureau of Mines—Nagpur
● National Aluminium Co. Ltd.—Orissa
● Hindustan Zinc Ltd.—Udaipur
Law and Justice
● National Justice Academy—Bhopal
● Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy—Hyderabad
● Lok Nayak Jai Prakash Narain National Crime and Justice Institute—New Delhi
Labour
● Labour Bureau Institute—Chandigarh and Shimla
● V. V. Giri National Labour Institute—Noida (U. P.)
● Central Labour Board—Nagpur
● Director General of Mines Security—Dhanbad
● Central Education Media Institute—Chennai
● Institute of Central government Training and Research—Kolkata
Mass Communication
● Publication Deptt.—New Delhi
● Film Department—Mumbai
● National Film Archieves—Pune
● Indian Committee of Children Film—Mumbai
● Directorate of Publications and Visual Publicity—Delhi
● Directorate of Regional Publicity—New Delhi
● Testimony Board of Central Movie—Mumbai
● Institute of Indian Film and Television—Pune
● Satyajeet Ray Film and Television Institute— Kolkata
Institute of Science and Technology
● Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science—Kolkata
● Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology—Pune
● Indian Astro-physics Institute—Bengaluru
● Jawahar Lal Nehru Developed Scientific Research Centre—Bengaluru
● Indian Institute of Geomagnetism—Mumbai
● Indian Science Academy—Bengaluru
● Indian National Science Academy—New Delhi
● Indian Science Congress Association—Kolkata
● Indian National Engineering Academy—New Delhi
● Indian National Oceanic Information Service Centre—Hyderabad
● Indian Oceanic Technical Institute—Chennai
● National Antarctic and Ocean Research Centre—Goa
● National Biological Science Centre—Bengaluru
● National Institute of Reservation—New Delhi
● Centre of National Cell Science—Pune
● Centre of National Mental Research—Manesar
● National Plant-Genome Research Centre—New Delhi
● National Earthquake Science Data Centre—New Delhi
● Indian Science Academy—Allahabad
● Survey Training Institute—Hyderabad (with the help of U.N.D.P.)
● Bose Institute—Kolkata
● Agarkar Research Institute—Pune
● Sri Chitra Triunal Medical Science and Technical Institute—Tiruvananthapuram
● Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology—Dehradun
● N. N. Bose National Fundamental Science Centre—Kolkata
● Birbal Sahani Institute of Paleo-botany—Lucknow
● Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment Council—New Delhi
● Science Expansion (Vigyan Prasar)—New Delhi
● Liquid Crystal Research Institute—Bengaluru
● Aryabhatta Research Observatory—Nainital
● Director of Atomic Mineral Investigation and Research—Hyderabad
● Indian Uranium Corporation Ltd.—Jaduguda
● Heavy Water Board—Mumbai
● Nuclear Fuel Campus—Hyderabad
● Bhabha Atomic Research Centre—Mumbai
● Shri Ram Institute of Chemical Research—New Delhi
● Institute for Plasma Research (I. P. R.)—Ahmedabad
● Harish Chand Research Institute—Chennai
● Physics Institute—Bhubaneshwar
● Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre—Kolkata
● Deptt. of Atomic Energy—Mumbai
● Project Directorate, Integrated Coastal and Sea Coast Management—Chennai
● Sea-biotic Resources and Ecology Centre—Cochin
● Hindustan Zinc Limited—Udaipur
● D. N. A. Finger Print and Centre—Hyderabad
● Biotic Resources and Continuous Development Centre—Imphal
● Life Science Institute—Bhubaneshwar
● Physical Research Laboratory—Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
● S. V. National Technical Institute—Surat
● Saha Nuclear Physics Institute—Kolkata (W. Bengal)
● Cosmic Rays Research Institute—Gauribidanow
● Shri Ram Chennai Research Institute—New Delhi
● Tata Institute of Fundamental Research—Mumbai
● Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology—Kocchi
● Institute of Mathematical Science—Chennai
● Institute of Physics—Bhubaneshwar
● National Biology Centre—Bengaluru
● Uranium Corporation of India Ltd.—Jaduguda (Jharkhand)
● Vishveshraiya National Technical Institute—Nagpur
Transport
● Diesel Locomotive Works—Varanasi
● Chitranjan Locomotive Works—Chitranjan
● Rail Coach Factory—Kapurthala
● Integral Coach Factory—Perambur, Kapurthala
● Rail Wheel Factory—Bengaluru
● Marine Engineering and Research Institute—Kolkata
● Marine Engineering and Research Institute—Mumbai
● Lal Bahadur Shastri Coastal Research and Higher Study Institute—Mumbai
● Indian Inland Waterways Authority—Noida
● Maritime Training Institute Powai—Mumbai
● Hindustan Shipyard Limited—Visakhapatnam
● Central Inland Water Transport Corporation—Kolkata
● Civil Aviation Security Bureau—Delhi
● National Aviation Management and Research Institute—Delhi
● Fire Training Centre—New Delhi
● Fire Service Training School—Narainpur (Kolkata)
● Indira Gandhi National Flying Academy—Furshatganj (U. P.)
● Indian Tourism and Travel Management Institute—Gwalior
● National Water Sporting Institute—Goa
Water Resources
● Central Soil and Material Research Centre—New Delhi
● Central Water and Electric Research Centre—Kharagwasala (Pune)
● National Project Construction Corporation Ltd.—New Delhi
● National Hydrology Institute—Roorkee (Uttarakhand)
Welfare
● National Blind Institute—Dehradun
● National Orthopedic Disabled Institute—Kolkata
● Aliyawarjung National Hard of Hearing Institute—Mumbai
● National Mental Disabled Institute—Sikandrabad
● National Rehabilitation Training and Research Institute—Cuttack
● Physically Disabled Institute—New Delhi
● Multi-disabled Strengthen Institute—Chennai
● National Public Cooperation and Child Development Institute—New Delhi
Youth Work and Play
● Rajeev Gandhi National Youth Development Institute—Perambur
● Laxmibai National Physical Education Institute (1957)—Gwalior
Energy
● National Thermal Power Corporation—New Delhi
● Electric Finance Corporation Ltd.—New Delhi
Communication
● Telecommunication Engineering Centre—New Delhi
● National Telecommunication Finance and Management Academy—Hyderabad
● High Level Telecommunication Training Centre—Ghaziabad
● Advance Level Telecommunication Training Centre—Ghaziabad
● Bharat Ratna Bhim Rao Ambedkar Telecommunication Training Institute—Jabalpur
Vizag Steel Plant Management Trainees (Technical) Exam preparation plan
Vizag Steel Plant Recruitment 2010: 195 Management Trainees (Technical)
Syllabus and Selection Procedure:
The selection process will consist of Two Stage Written Test (Preliminary and Final) followed by an Interview.
Preliminary Written Test:
1. General Awareness
2. Mental Ability
3. General English
4. Verbal and Non Verbal Reasoning
5. Basics of Engineering
(A. MECHANICAL Engineering
B. CIVIL Engineering
C. INSTRUMENTATION Engineering
D. CHEMICAL Engineering
E. PRODUCTION Engineering
F. ELECTRICAL Engineering
G. IT (Information Technology) / Computers)
Final Written Test:
Final written test shall comprise separate papers for each discipline over and above one paper on Aptitude and Knowledge in English.
Note: There will be negative marking for wrong answers
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Section - I
Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)
1. Four prime numbers are written in ascending order of their magnitudes the product of the first three is 385 and that of the last three is 1001. The largest given prime number is
a. 11
b. 13
c. 17
d. 19
2. Mahavir deposited in the bank from Monday to Saturday the amounts of Rs. 87.80, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 3677.98, Rs. 92899.01, Rs. 66 and Rs. 554945.19 respectively. Find his total deposit for this week
a. Rs. 651879.61
b. Rs. 652779.61
c. Rs. 650879.51
d. Rs. 655889.71
3. Amar deposited in Vijay Bank Rs. 259206.16 on Monday. Rs. 201890.48 on Tuesday, Rs. 284.16 on Wednesday. He withdrew Rs. 50000.00 on Thursday. He again deposited Rs. 230.01 on Friday and Rs. 72.62 on Saturday. Find his total balance in the bank for this week
a. Rs. 501783.43
b. Rs. 501683.43
c. Rs. 511693.43
d. Rs. 511683.43
4. I was born on October 17, 1927. How old I was on Jan. 26, 1978?
a. 49 years and 101 days
b. 50 years and 100 days
c. 50 years and 101 days
d. 50 years and 103 days
5. Find the total of the following amount
Rs. 1230.79, Rs. 11368.08, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 10314.89, Rs. 64.8, Rs. 101.00 and Rs. 3677.98
a. Rs. 27961.1
b. Rs. 26961.17
c. Rs. 26951.17
d. Rs. 25961.17
6. How many pieces, each of length 4.5 m can be cut of 225 m of wire?
a. 40
b. 54
c. 56
d. 50
7. Parkash and Girish were travelling together. Prakash paid Rs. 200 for their stay in a hotel and Girish paid taxi fare of Rs. 80. If they have to share these expenses equally, then
a. Prakash should pay Rs. 60 to Girish
b. Girish should pay Rs. 120 to Prakash
c. Girish should pay Rs. 60 to Prakash
d. Prakash should pay Rs. 120 to Girish
8. Sum of the numbers from 1 to 20 is
a. 210
b. 110
c. 220
d. 105
9. Which of the following is equal to 115 x 15?
a. 105 x 10 + 115 x 5
b. 11 x 515
c. 1151 x 5
d. 110 x 15 + 5 x 15
10. The unit's digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is
a. 0
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
11. The smallest natural number by which the product of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible is
a. 16
b. 32
c. 48
d. 96
12. The number of prime factors of (6)10 x (7)17 x (55)27 is
a. 54
b. 64
c. 81
d. 91
13. The total income of Hazari and Murari is Rs. 3000. Hazari spends 60% of his income and Murari spends 80% of his income. If their savings are equal. Find the income of Hazari
a. Rs. 2000
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 1500
d. Rs. 1000
14. Bholanath save 25% if his income, but due to dearness the expenses increased by 25%, still he saves Rs. 30. Find his income
a. Rs. 400
b. Rs. 480
c. Rs. 450
d. Rs. 475
15. In a city 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich 10% are illiterate. What percentage of the poor population is illiterate?
a. 36%
b. 60%
c. 40%
d. None of these
Section - II
Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)
Directions (Q 1-5): Find the missing characters from the following series
1. ab _ a _ b _ a _ bba
a. aaab
b. baba
c. abba
d. baab
2. _ bc _ _ bb _ aabc
a. abab
b. caab
c. acac
d. aaab
3. cc _ a _ cabccb _ cca _ c _ ba
a. cbaba
b. bacbc
c. bcabc
d. abcbc
4. cba _ cb _ ccb _ c _
a. caac
b. cbca
c. cbac
d. cabc
5. aa _ cb _ aa _ _ bba _ ccb _
a. cabaac
b. ababab
c. cbccab
d. aaabca
6. If day before yesterday was Sunday then next Monday will be after ____ days.
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
7. If Sept 9 was Friday then the last Tuesday of the same Month will fall on
a. 25
b. 26
c. 27
d. 28
8. If the month of May begins on Sunday then the third Friday will fall on
a. 19
b. 20
c. 21
d. 22
9. If January 31 in a particular year falls on a Saturday then January 1 will be
a. Sunday
b. Tuesday
c. Thursday
d. Monday
10. At 6 PM the hour hand of a clock will point towards
a. North
b. South
c. SW
d. SE
11. A boy walked 400 m north from his home, then he turned right and walked 100 m, then he turned left and walked 500 m. in which direction is he walking now
a. North
b. South
c. NE
d. NW
12. A car starts from a point A. Then it moves 4 KM towards South. Then it turns right and moves 3 KM. How far is it from point A now.
a. 3 KM
b. 4 KM
c. 5 KM
d. 0 KM
13. 3, 10, 29, 66, _
a. 137
b. 127
c. 103
d. 218
14. 41, 29, 19, 11, _
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3
15. ZXUQ : ACFJ : : NLIE : :
a. KMQT
b. KMPU
c. LMPT
d. KMPT
Vizag Steel Plant MT Recruitment Books
Answers
Section - I Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)
1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b
6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. d, 10. b
11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. b, 15. a
Section - II Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)
1. b, 2. c, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c
6. c, 7. c, 8. b, 9. c, 10. b
11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14. a, 15. d
Syllabus and Selection Procedure:
The selection process will consist of Two Stage Written Test (Preliminary and Final) followed by an Interview.
Preliminary Written Test:
1. General Awareness
2. Mental Ability
3. General English
4. Verbal and Non Verbal Reasoning
5. Basics of Engineering
(A. MECHANICAL Engineering
B. CIVIL Engineering
C. INSTRUMENTATION Engineering
D. CHEMICAL Engineering
E. PRODUCTION Engineering
F. ELECTRICAL Engineering
G. IT (Information Technology) / Computers)
Final Written Test:
Final written test shall comprise separate papers for each discipline over and above one paper on Aptitude and Knowledge in English.
Note: There will be negative marking for wrong answers
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Section - I
Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)
1. Four prime numbers are written in ascending order of their magnitudes the product of the first three is 385 and that of the last three is 1001. The largest given prime number is
a. 11
b. 13
c. 17
d. 19
2. Mahavir deposited in the bank from Monday to Saturday the amounts of Rs. 87.80, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 3677.98, Rs. 92899.01, Rs. 66 and Rs. 554945.19 respectively. Find his total deposit for this week
a. Rs. 651879.61
b. Rs. 652779.61
c. Rs. 650879.51
d. Rs. 655889.71
3. Amar deposited in Vijay Bank Rs. 259206.16 on Monday. Rs. 201890.48 on Tuesday, Rs. 284.16 on Wednesday. He withdrew Rs. 50000.00 on Thursday. He again deposited Rs. 230.01 on Friday and Rs. 72.62 on Saturday. Find his total balance in the bank for this week
a. Rs. 501783.43
b. Rs. 501683.43
c. Rs. 511693.43
d. Rs. 511683.43
4. I was born on October 17, 1927. How old I was on Jan. 26, 1978?
a. 49 years and 101 days
b. 50 years and 100 days
c. 50 years and 101 days
d. 50 years and 103 days
5. Find the total of the following amount
Rs. 1230.79, Rs. 11368.08, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 10314.89, Rs. 64.8, Rs. 101.00 and Rs. 3677.98
a. Rs. 27961.1
b. Rs. 26961.17
c. Rs. 26951.17
d. Rs. 25961.17
6. How many pieces, each of length 4.5 m can be cut of 225 m of wire?
a. 40
b. 54
c. 56
d. 50
7. Parkash and Girish were travelling together. Prakash paid Rs. 200 for their stay in a hotel and Girish paid taxi fare of Rs. 80. If they have to share these expenses equally, then
a. Prakash should pay Rs. 60 to Girish
b. Girish should pay Rs. 120 to Prakash
c. Girish should pay Rs. 60 to Prakash
d. Prakash should pay Rs. 120 to Girish
8. Sum of the numbers from 1 to 20 is
a. 210
b. 110
c. 220
d. 105
9. Which of the following is equal to 115 x 15?
a. 105 x 10 + 115 x 5
b. 11 x 515
c. 1151 x 5
d. 110 x 15 + 5 x 15
10. The unit's digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is
a. 0
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
11. The smallest natural number by which the product of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible is
a. 16
b. 32
c. 48
d. 96
12. The number of prime factors of (6)10 x (7)17 x (55)27 is
a. 54
b. 64
c. 81
d. 91
13. The total income of Hazari and Murari is Rs. 3000. Hazari spends 60% of his income and Murari spends 80% of his income. If their savings are equal. Find the income of Hazari
a. Rs. 2000
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 1500
d. Rs. 1000
14. Bholanath save 25% if his income, but due to dearness the expenses increased by 25%, still he saves Rs. 30. Find his income
a. Rs. 400
b. Rs. 480
c. Rs. 450
d. Rs. 475
15. In a city 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich 10% are illiterate. What percentage of the poor population is illiterate?
a. 36%
b. 60%
c. 40%
d. None of these
Section - II
Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)
Directions (Q 1-5): Find the missing characters from the following series
1. ab _ a _ b _ a _ bba
a. aaab
b. baba
c. abba
d. baab
2. _ bc _ _ bb _ aabc
a. abab
b. caab
c. acac
d. aaab
3. cc _ a _ cabccb _ cca _ c _ ba
a. cbaba
b. bacbc
c. bcabc
d. abcbc
4. cba _ cb _ ccb _ c _
a. caac
b. cbca
c. cbac
d. cabc
5. aa _ cb _ aa _ _ bba _ ccb _
a. cabaac
b. ababab
c. cbccab
d. aaabca
6. If day before yesterday was Sunday then next Monday will be after ____ days.
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
7. If Sept 9 was Friday then the last Tuesday of the same Month will fall on
a. 25
b. 26
c. 27
d. 28
8. If the month of May begins on Sunday then the third Friday will fall on
a. 19
b. 20
c. 21
d. 22
9. If January 31 in a particular year falls on a Saturday then January 1 will be
a. Sunday
b. Tuesday
c. Thursday
d. Monday
10. At 6 PM the hour hand of a clock will point towards
a. North
b. South
c. SW
d. SE
11. A boy walked 400 m north from his home, then he turned right and walked 100 m, then he turned left and walked 500 m. in which direction is he walking now
a. North
b. South
c. NE
d. NW
12. A car starts from a point A. Then it moves 4 KM towards South. Then it turns right and moves 3 KM. How far is it from point A now.
a. 3 KM
b. 4 KM
c. 5 KM
d. 0 KM
13. 3, 10, 29, 66, _
a. 137
b. 127
c. 103
d. 218
14. 41, 29, 19, 11, _
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3
15. ZXUQ : ACFJ : : NLIE : :
a. KMQT
b. KMPU
c. LMPT
d. KMPT
Vizag Steel Plant MT Recruitment Books
Answers
Section - I Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)
1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b
6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. d, 10. b
11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. b, 15. a
Section - II Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)
1. b, 2. c, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c
6. c, 7. c, 8. b, 9. c, 10. b
11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14. a, 15. d
Indian Economy -STUDY MATERIAL
Indian Economy -STUDY MATERIAL
13th Finance Commission's Functions and the Implications of its Moves
What is the role of the commission? The Constitution provides that certain tax revenues of the Union government be shared between the Centre and the states. President constitutes the finance commission under Article 280 of the Constitution to recommend what percentage of such revenues should go to the states and also how the funds are shared among the states.
Why the resources are shared between the Centre and states? This is necessary due to the fact that the bulk of taxation powers are with the Centre, but expenditure is in the domain of states. In fact, most federal systems need a mechanism to address the issue of vertical distribution of resources. Canada has a federal system very similar to that of India. There, too, a mechanism is in place to address the issue of vertical imbalance and horizontal equity — how the resources are shared amongst states themselves. Australia is another such federal setup.
What are the other key responsibilities? Finance commission is also required to lay down the principles governing the grants-in-aid to states out of the consolidated fund of India. It should also suggest measures to augment the resources of states to supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities. At times the government can also ask the finance commission to make suggestions on specific issues. The Thirteenth Finance Commission was asked to make recommendations on accounting of off budget subsidies.
Are the recommendations of finance commission binding? The recommendations of the finance commission are not binding on the government. But, the recommendations have the force of precedent and governments generally go by the suggestions. The recommendations relating to distribution of Union taxes and duties and grants-in-aid can be implemented by a presidential order.
When was the First Finance Commission appointed? What is the timeline for recommendations? The First Finance Commission was constituted on 22 November 1951 under the chairmanship of KC Neogy. Thirteen finance commissions have been appointed so far at five-year intervals. Recommendations are valid for a period of five years. The recommendations of the current finance commission will be for the five year period beginning April 1, 2010.
13 finance commission report
The 13th Finance Commission (TFC), whose report was tabled in Parliament recently, has
broken new ground by building incentives into the transfer mechanism. Most of its key recommendations have been accepted by the government.
The States stand to get a larger share of central taxes than before.
Apart from increasing their share of the divisible pool of tax revenues from 30.5 per cent to 32 per cent, the Commission has proposed an additional 2-2.5 per cent for local bodies. Grants-in-aid to States are projected at Rs.315,581 crore over the next five years. The shared taxes and central grants together will take the overall devolution to States from 37.6 per cent to 39 per cent of the central divisible tax revenues.
The TFC does not want any inconsistency between the amounts released to the States and the percentage share in the net tax revenues recommended by it. The States have been impressed upon to comply with the norms set by the Commission if they are to avail themselves of the full benefit of certain transfers. It has called upon the Centre not to lean heavily on surcharges and cesses since collections under these heads are not shared with the States.
The transfer formula, which emphasises fiscal discipline on the part of the States, has been so worked out that non-Plan revenue grants will be made available to fewer States.The system of incentive-based transfer seeks to reward States that comply with the norms prescribed by the TFC.
The Commission has earmarked Rs.50,000 crore of central grants to compensate States for any revenue shortfall on account of switching to the Goods and Services Tax. The compensation will be available even if there is no shortfall, provided the State concerned adopts the GST model the TFC has prepared. This however is going to prove contentious. The empowered committee of State Finance Ministers has worked out its own model wherein tax rates are higher than in the TFC's version. The States want a much higher share of the divisible tax receipts to be transferred to them. Nor will they be happy that the Commission has remained silent on their long standing demands, namely decision-making powers in respect of centrally-sponsored schemes. The government has accepted its suggestion to put a cap on the combined debt of the Centre and the States at 48 per cent of the GDP that is to be achieved by 2014-15.
Budget &survey
1. The three challenges identified by the finance minister in his recent budget
The first, widely noted and much applauded by corporate India, concerned finding means to cross the ‘double-digit growth barrier’.
The second, less glamorous and hence less discussed, is in harnessing economic growth to make development more inclusive.
The third, which attracted little notice and comment, relates to ‘weaknesses in government systems, structures and institutions’ that he recognised as a ‘bottleneck of our public delivery mechanisms’.
2. Coveted position in forex, gold
In its efforts to improve foreign exchange reserves, India has now become the 10th largest gold-holding nation in the world.
It has also emerged as the fourth-largest foreign exchange reserves holder only after China, Japan and Russia, says the Economic Survey 2009-10.
3. A critical area
By allocating 46 per cent of the total plan expenditure to infrastructure development,
Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee has clearly shown how imperative this is to return to a higher growth trajectory.
That highways, railways, and power got a lion's share of the allocations for 2010-11 signals a clear priority to connectivity and electricity. Rural roads too got a quantum jump in funding.
No less significant is the government's commitment to involving the private sector all the more in infrastructure development. Witness Mr. Mukherjee's statement: “With development and economic reforms, the focus of economic activity has shifted towards the non-governmental actors, bringing into sharper focus, the role of government as an enabler.” So, the objective seems to be to create an “enabling ethos” for Public Private Partnership (PPP).
Going by the Rs.1,73,552 crore allocation for upgrading both urban and rural infrastructure, it is evident that the government wants to accelerate development of high quality physical infrastructure such as roads, ports, airports, railways and power.
In this mix, the road and energy sectors come in for special attention for two reasons — some of the ongoing programmes are critical and there has been a perpetual shortfall in the achievement of targets over successive Five-Year Plan periods.
The last two years have seen a substantial increase in investment in infrastructure, but as a proportion of the GDP the figure is just around six per cent, three per cent short of the requirement.
The Finance Minister has raised the budget allocation for the road transport sector from Rs.17,520 crore to Rs. 19,894 crore — a 13 per cent increase. The government, notably the Highways, and the Planning Commission have targeted a construction pace of 20 kilometres-a-day of the National Highways.
Though a massive highways upgradation and expansion programme was launched way back in 1999 and subsequently revamped in 2006, the progress has not been satisfying. Litigation and implementation delays continue to hamper the effort.
Similarly, on the power front, there has been a major shortfall in reaching the targets for the 8th, 9th, and 10th Five-year Plans. Even the 11th Plan target is unlikely to be reached. The allocations for the power sector have been doubled for the coming year, and a major impetus given to new and renewable energy.
It is not enough for governments to just allocate funds. Infrastructure projects must be made attractive for private and foreign investors, and the States need to be fully involved in implementing and monitoring them.
4. MSMEs & the budget
Firstly, the outlay for the MSME sector has been enhanced by around Rs 600 crore to Rs 2,400 crore, presumably to implement recommendations of the prime minister’s taskforce.
Secondly, the policy of 2% interest subventions for exports announced last year for MSMEs and certain employment-intensive sectors such as handicrafts, carpets, etc, have been extended for one more year.
Thirdly, it is announced that the Reserve Bank of India is considering more licences to banks including non-banking finance companies. Such a move would eventually benefit MSMEs the most.
Fourthly, an amendment is proposed whereby an eligible small scale industry (SSI) unit can avail cenvat credit against purchase of capital goods in full (100%) in the same financial year of receipt of such capital goods (earlier, it was 50% in the year of receipt and rest was allowed in subsequent year only).
Fifthly, SSIs are allowed to pay the duty on the goods cleared by them once in a quarter instead of the monthly basis.
Finally, the proposed independent evaluation office under the deputy chairman of the Planning Commission might as well bring in the much-needed transparency and result-orientation in promotional policies. Currently, implementation of most of the schemes is in a mess, including those meant for MSMEs.
5. PSUs to buy 20% from small units
The government is reportedly considering a proposal whereby all public sector companies, including railways and entities under the defence ministry, will have to procure 20% of their total requirements from MSEs. The size of public procurement in India is huge and it could provide a fillip to the sector.
The policy will cover a wide range of supplies, services and works required by governments, local authorities and public organizations. According to estimates, MSEs are set to benefit from a Rs 34,000 crore windfall annually once the policy comes into effect.
Currently, there are about 26 million micro, small and medium enterprises in the country, which contribute about 45% of the country’s total manufactured output and about 40% of the export income. The sector employs over 42 million people.
Panel on BSNL submits report
The Sam Pitroda-led high-level committee, formed to suggest the restructuring of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) has submitted a detailed report to Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
The report is said to comprise suggestions on BSNL's controversial IPO issue and the 9.3-crore GSM line tender, which has been put on hold following a directive from the Central Vigilance Commission
Kobelco sets up facility at Sri City
Kobelco Construction Equipment India Pvt. Ltd., a subsidiary of Kobelco Group of Japan, is setting up an equipment machinery facility at the fast coming up multi-product special economic zone (SEZ) of Sri City at Tada in Andhra Pradesh.
The SEZ with a domestic tariff zone (DTZ) is coming up on 6,000 acres.
the proposed plant will have a local content of 70 per cent. It will import critical items such as engines, hydraulic pumps and the like.
Banks can lend below base rate too
Loans against fixed deposits, loans given by a bank to its own employees, as well as restructured loans, where borrowers get more time and pay lower rates to avert defaults, can be given at interest rates that are below the base rate — the new benchmark rate for pricing loans.
While allowing these exemptions, RBI has also deferred the date for implementation of the base rate by banks to July 1. Earlier, RBI had said the base rate system would come into effect from April 1 — a deadline, which most banks found difficult to meet.
The regulator has, however, ruled out any lending to corporates below the base rate.
For a bank, the base rate will be its minimum cost at which it can lend and the risk premium on a loan would be the mark up over the base rate. The base rate, which will replace the prime lending rate (PLR), is aimed at bringing more transparency in loan pricing. At present, around 70% of the loans are below PLR which ranges between 11.75% and 12.25%.
The base rate should be calculated by banks taking into account the cost of deposits, profit margin and establishment cost among other things.
Jaipur to have country's first low-cost airport
India's first low-cost airport is all set to come up near Jaipur in Rajasthan. The civil aviation ministry has cleared a proposal to set up the airport 60 km off Jaipur. The no-frills facility is expected to cost just Rs 500 crore and have a 7000 ft runway in the first phase.
The proposed airport is only 12 km from National Highway 8, which connects Jaipur to Delhi. The promoter of the airport, Rajasthan Aviation Infrastructure (India), has tied up with Fraport AG of Germany for technical consultancy and is planning to get the airport up and running by 2014.
What is the share of Indian Railways in the country's traffic?
It currently has a low share of 30% of country’s freight market and an insignificant 16-18% of total passenger business.
Government to infuse 35K crore into banks over two years
The central government has reportedly chalked out a two-year plan to infuse around Rs 35,000 crore of capital in public sector banks to enable them to meet the economy’s credit requirement.
Banks’ capital structure consist of Tier-I and Tier-II capital. The major components of Tier-I capital are equity share capital, equity share premium and statutory reserves. It is not just these, there can be innovative forms of Tier I capital too such as perpetual debt instruments, or perpetual non-cumulative preference shares etc.
According to Basel-II requirements, banks need to maintain a CAR of 12%, including Tier-I and Tier-II capital.
Core capital
THIS is the term that is used to describe a bank’s net-owned funds. Each bank is required to have a certain amount of capital in relation to loans and investments that it makes during the course of its business. The extent of capital required is prescribed in the form of a capital adequacy ratio (capital: loans and investments) This capital adequacy can be achieved through a combination of equity and subordinated debt. The equity portion (paid-up capital and reserves) cannot be less than half of the prescribed minimum capital adequacy requirement. Internationally too, after the financial crisis, the focus is shifting from capital requirement to ‘Tangible Common Equity’ which excludes any form of debt.
Business deals beckon firms at Hyderabad civil aviation exhibition
HYDERABAD:
The stage is set for the commencement of India Aviation 2010, the second edition of the international civil aviation exhibition and conference, at the Begumpet airport .
After the success of the first edition in October 2008, India Aviation 2010 will include static and flying display of over 40 aircraft, providing an ideal platform for companies to further their commercial aircraft activities and support services.
Eurocopter, Pawan Hans to form venture
Eurocopter, world's leading helicopter manufacturer announced that it would form ventures with Pawan Hans Helicopters for maintenance repair and overhaul (MRO) and training facilities either in Mumbai or Delhi.
Union Budget, 2010
On February 26, 2010, Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee presented a Budget that broadly focused on fiscal stabilization. The Union Budget was presented at a time when the Indian economy was on the path of revival and almost all demand indicators had turned significantly positive. Investment and consumption demand was also on a revival mode. The buoyancy in the manufacturing sector and up-tick in import and export were also working well for economic growth prospects. In the current economic scenario, what was required from the Budget was a further push for consumption and investment. The Budget announcements tried to do just that.
Highlights:
Additional Rs 1,65,000 cr for bank re-capitalisation
Rs 3000 cr for agricultural impetus
Farm loan payments to be extended for six months
Fertilizer subsidy to be reduced
Rs 100 cr woman farmer fund scheme
Coal regulatory authority to be set up
Clean energy fund to be established
Interest subvention of 2% to be extended for handicrafts and SMEs
Rs 200 cr for Tamil Nadu textile sector
Interest subvention for housing loans up to 1 lacs
Allocation to defence raised to Rs 1.47 lakh cr
Defence capex raised to Rs 60,000 cr
Divestment target of Rs 25,000 cr
Rs 1200 cr assistance for drought in Bundelkhand
Rs 48000 cr for Bharat Nirman
NREGA scheme allocation raised to Rs 41,000 cr
Allocation to health Rs 22,300 cr
Allocation for school education up from Rs 26,800 cr to Rs 31036 cr
Allocation to power sector at Rs 5130 cr
Rs 10,000 cr allocated for Indira Awaas Yojna
Social Security Fund to have corpus of over Rs 1000 cr
Rs 2400 cr for MSMEs
Government to contribute Rs 1000 per month for pension security
Rs 5400 cr allocated for urban development
Rs 66100 cr allocated for rural development
Rs 1900 cr allocated for UID project
Gross tax receipts Rs 7.46 lakh cr
Government to set up National Mission for delivery of justice
15% rise in planned expenditure
Fiscal deficit target of 5.5% in FY11
Excise on all non smoking tobacco raised
Televisions to be costlier
Mobile phones to become cheaper
Cement to be costlier
Refrigerators to be costlier
Jewellery to be more expensive
Monorail granted project import status
CDs to be cheaper
Excise duty on CFL halved to 4%
Bank farm loan target: Rs 3.75,lakh crore
Nutrient based fertiliser subsidy scheme to come into force from April 1, 2010
To build 20 km of highway every day
Income tax on income upto Rs 1.6 lakh: Nil
Income tax on income above Rs 1.6 lakh and upto Rs. 5 lakh: 10 per cent
Income tax on income above Rs.5 lakh and upto Rs. 8 lakh: 20 per cent
Income tax on income above Rs. 8 lakh: 30 per cent
Economic Survey 2010
Economy likely to grow by up to 8.75 per cent in 2010-11.
Full recovery; return to 9 per cent growth in 2011-12.
Broad recovery gives scope for gradual stimulus roll back.
High double-digit food inflation in 2009-10 major concern.
Signs of food inflation spreading to other sectors.
Farm & allied sector production falls 0.2% in 2009-10.
Need serious policy initiatives for 4% agriculture growth.
Moots direct food subsidy via food coupons to households.
Favours making available food in open market.
Favours monthly ration coupons usable anywhere for poor.
Gross fiscal deficit pegged at 6.5 pc of GDP in 2009-10.
India 10th largest gold holding nation at 557.7 tonnes.
Exports in April-December 2009 down 20.3 per cent.
Imports in April-December 2009 down 23.6 per cent.
Trade gap narrowed to USD 76.24 bn in April-December.
32.5% savings & 34.9% investment (of GDP in 2008-09) put India in league of world's fastest growing nations.
Government initiates steps to boost private investment in agriculture.
Wants credit available at reasonable rates on time for private sector to invest in agriculture.
Slowdown in infrastructure that began in 2007, arrested.
Domestic oil production to rise 11 per cent in 2009-10.
Gas output up 52.8 per cent to 50.2 billion cubic meters with RIL starting production.
India world's 2nd largest wireless network with 525.1 million mobile users.
Virtually every second Indian has access to phone.
Auction for 3G spectrum to provide existing and foreign players to bring in new technology and innovations.
13th Finance Commission's Functions and the Implications of its Moves
What is the role of the commission? The Constitution provides that certain tax revenues of the Union government be shared between the Centre and the states. President constitutes the finance commission under Article 280 of the Constitution to recommend what percentage of such revenues should go to the states and also how the funds are shared among the states.
Why the resources are shared between the Centre and states? This is necessary due to the fact that the bulk of taxation powers are with the Centre, but expenditure is in the domain of states. In fact, most federal systems need a mechanism to address the issue of vertical distribution of resources. Canada has a federal system very similar to that of India. There, too, a mechanism is in place to address the issue of vertical imbalance and horizontal equity — how the resources are shared amongst states themselves. Australia is another such federal setup.
What are the other key responsibilities? Finance commission is also required to lay down the principles governing the grants-in-aid to states out of the consolidated fund of India. It should also suggest measures to augment the resources of states to supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities. At times the government can also ask the finance commission to make suggestions on specific issues. The Thirteenth Finance Commission was asked to make recommendations on accounting of off budget subsidies.
Are the recommendations of finance commission binding? The recommendations of the finance commission are not binding on the government. But, the recommendations have the force of precedent and governments generally go by the suggestions. The recommendations relating to distribution of Union taxes and duties and grants-in-aid can be implemented by a presidential order.
When was the First Finance Commission appointed? What is the timeline for recommendations? The First Finance Commission was constituted on 22 November 1951 under the chairmanship of KC Neogy. Thirteen finance commissions have been appointed so far at five-year intervals. Recommendations are valid for a period of five years. The recommendations of the current finance commission will be for the five year period beginning April 1, 2010.
13 finance commission report
The 13th Finance Commission (TFC), whose report was tabled in Parliament recently, has
broken new ground by building incentives into the transfer mechanism. Most of its key recommendations have been accepted by the government.
The States stand to get a larger share of central taxes than before.
Apart from increasing their share of the divisible pool of tax revenues from 30.5 per cent to 32 per cent, the Commission has proposed an additional 2-2.5 per cent for local bodies. Grants-in-aid to States are projected at Rs.315,581 crore over the next five years. The shared taxes and central grants together will take the overall devolution to States from 37.6 per cent to 39 per cent of the central divisible tax revenues.
The TFC does not want any inconsistency between the amounts released to the States and the percentage share in the net tax revenues recommended by it. The States have been impressed upon to comply with the norms set by the Commission if they are to avail themselves of the full benefit of certain transfers. It has called upon the Centre not to lean heavily on surcharges and cesses since collections under these heads are not shared with the States.
The transfer formula, which emphasises fiscal discipline on the part of the States, has been so worked out that non-Plan revenue grants will be made available to fewer States.The system of incentive-based transfer seeks to reward States that comply with the norms prescribed by the TFC.
The Commission has earmarked Rs.50,000 crore of central grants to compensate States for any revenue shortfall on account of switching to the Goods and Services Tax. The compensation will be available even if there is no shortfall, provided the State concerned adopts the GST model the TFC has prepared. This however is going to prove contentious. The empowered committee of State Finance Ministers has worked out its own model wherein tax rates are higher than in the TFC's version. The States want a much higher share of the divisible tax receipts to be transferred to them. Nor will they be happy that the Commission has remained silent on their long standing demands, namely decision-making powers in respect of centrally-sponsored schemes. The government has accepted its suggestion to put a cap on the combined debt of the Centre and the States at 48 per cent of the GDP that is to be achieved by 2014-15.
Budget &survey
1. The three challenges identified by the finance minister in his recent budget
The first, widely noted and much applauded by corporate India, concerned finding means to cross the ‘double-digit growth barrier’.
The second, less glamorous and hence less discussed, is in harnessing economic growth to make development more inclusive.
The third, which attracted little notice and comment, relates to ‘weaknesses in government systems, structures and institutions’ that he recognised as a ‘bottleneck of our public delivery mechanisms’.
2. Coveted position in forex, gold
In its efforts to improve foreign exchange reserves, India has now become the 10th largest gold-holding nation in the world.
It has also emerged as the fourth-largest foreign exchange reserves holder only after China, Japan and Russia, says the Economic Survey 2009-10.
3. A critical area
By allocating 46 per cent of the total plan expenditure to infrastructure development,
Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee has clearly shown how imperative this is to return to a higher growth trajectory.
That highways, railways, and power got a lion's share of the allocations for 2010-11 signals a clear priority to connectivity and electricity. Rural roads too got a quantum jump in funding.
No less significant is the government's commitment to involving the private sector all the more in infrastructure development. Witness Mr. Mukherjee's statement: “With development and economic reforms, the focus of economic activity has shifted towards the non-governmental actors, bringing into sharper focus, the role of government as an enabler.” So, the objective seems to be to create an “enabling ethos” for Public Private Partnership (PPP).
Going by the Rs.1,73,552 crore allocation for upgrading both urban and rural infrastructure, it is evident that the government wants to accelerate development of high quality physical infrastructure such as roads, ports, airports, railways and power.
In this mix, the road and energy sectors come in for special attention for two reasons — some of the ongoing programmes are critical and there has been a perpetual shortfall in the achievement of targets over successive Five-Year Plan periods.
The last two years have seen a substantial increase in investment in infrastructure, but as a proportion of the GDP the figure is just around six per cent, three per cent short of the requirement.
The Finance Minister has raised the budget allocation for the road transport sector from Rs.17,520 crore to Rs. 19,894 crore — a 13 per cent increase. The government, notably the Highways, and the Planning Commission have targeted a construction pace of 20 kilometres-a-day of the National Highways.
Though a massive highways upgradation and expansion programme was launched way back in 1999 and subsequently revamped in 2006, the progress has not been satisfying. Litigation and implementation delays continue to hamper the effort.
Similarly, on the power front, there has been a major shortfall in reaching the targets for the 8th, 9th, and 10th Five-year Plans. Even the 11th Plan target is unlikely to be reached. The allocations for the power sector have been doubled for the coming year, and a major impetus given to new and renewable energy.
It is not enough for governments to just allocate funds. Infrastructure projects must be made attractive for private and foreign investors, and the States need to be fully involved in implementing and monitoring them.
4. MSMEs & the budget
Firstly, the outlay for the MSME sector has been enhanced by around Rs 600 crore to Rs 2,400 crore, presumably to implement recommendations of the prime minister’s taskforce.
Secondly, the policy of 2% interest subventions for exports announced last year for MSMEs and certain employment-intensive sectors such as handicrafts, carpets, etc, have been extended for one more year.
Thirdly, it is announced that the Reserve Bank of India is considering more licences to banks including non-banking finance companies. Such a move would eventually benefit MSMEs the most.
Fourthly, an amendment is proposed whereby an eligible small scale industry (SSI) unit can avail cenvat credit against purchase of capital goods in full (100%) in the same financial year of receipt of such capital goods (earlier, it was 50% in the year of receipt and rest was allowed in subsequent year only).
Fifthly, SSIs are allowed to pay the duty on the goods cleared by them once in a quarter instead of the monthly basis.
Finally, the proposed independent evaluation office under the deputy chairman of the Planning Commission might as well bring in the much-needed transparency and result-orientation in promotional policies. Currently, implementation of most of the schemes is in a mess, including those meant for MSMEs.
5. PSUs to buy 20% from small units
The government is reportedly considering a proposal whereby all public sector companies, including railways and entities under the defence ministry, will have to procure 20% of their total requirements from MSEs. The size of public procurement in India is huge and it could provide a fillip to the sector.
The policy will cover a wide range of supplies, services and works required by governments, local authorities and public organizations. According to estimates, MSEs are set to benefit from a Rs 34,000 crore windfall annually once the policy comes into effect.
Currently, there are about 26 million micro, small and medium enterprises in the country, which contribute about 45% of the country’s total manufactured output and about 40% of the export income. The sector employs over 42 million people.
Panel on BSNL submits report
The Sam Pitroda-led high-level committee, formed to suggest the restructuring of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) has submitted a detailed report to Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
The report is said to comprise suggestions on BSNL's controversial IPO issue and the 9.3-crore GSM line tender, which has been put on hold following a directive from the Central Vigilance Commission
Kobelco sets up facility at Sri City
Kobelco Construction Equipment India Pvt. Ltd., a subsidiary of Kobelco Group of Japan, is setting up an equipment machinery facility at the fast coming up multi-product special economic zone (SEZ) of Sri City at Tada in Andhra Pradesh.
The SEZ with a domestic tariff zone (DTZ) is coming up on 6,000 acres.
the proposed plant will have a local content of 70 per cent. It will import critical items such as engines, hydraulic pumps and the like.
Banks can lend below base rate too
Loans against fixed deposits, loans given by a bank to its own employees, as well as restructured loans, where borrowers get more time and pay lower rates to avert defaults, can be given at interest rates that are below the base rate — the new benchmark rate for pricing loans.
While allowing these exemptions, RBI has also deferred the date for implementation of the base rate by banks to July 1. Earlier, RBI had said the base rate system would come into effect from April 1 — a deadline, which most banks found difficult to meet.
The regulator has, however, ruled out any lending to corporates below the base rate.
For a bank, the base rate will be its minimum cost at which it can lend and the risk premium on a loan would be the mark up over the base rate. The base rate, which will replace the prime lending rate (PLR), is aimed at bringing more transparency in loan pricing. At present, around 70% of the loans are below PLR which ranges between 11.75% and 12.25%.
The base rate should be calculated by banks taking into account the cost of deposits, profit margin and establishment cost among other things.
Jaipur to have country's first low-cost airport
India's first low-cost airport is all set to come up near Jaipur in Rajasthan. The civil aviation ministry has cleared a proposal to set up the airport 60 km off Jaipur. The no-frills facility is expected to cost just Rs 500 crore and have a 7000 ft runway in the first phase.
The proposed airport is only 12 km from National Highway 8, which connects Jaipur to Delhi. The promoter of the airport, Rajasthan Aviation Infrastructure (India), has tied up with Fraport AG of Germany for technical consultancy and is planning to get the airport up and running by 2014.
What is the share of Indian Railways in the country's traffic?
It currently has a low share of 30% of country’s freight market and an insignificant 16-18% of total passenger business.
Government to infuse 35K crore into banks over two years
The central government has reportedly chalked out a two-year plan to infuse around Rs 35,000 crore of capital in public sector banks to enable them to meet the economy’s credit requirement.
Banks’ capital structure consist of Tier-I and Tier-II capital. The major components of Tier-I capital are equity share capital, equity share premium and statutory reserves. It is not just these, there can be innovative forms of Tier I capital too such as perpetual debt instruments, or perpetual non-cumulative preference shares etc.
According to Basel-II requirements, banks need to maintain a CAR of 12%, including Tier-I and Tier-II capital.
Core capital
THIS is the term that is used to describe a bank’s net-owned funds. Each bank is required to have a certain amount of capital in relation to loans and investments that it makes during the course of its business. The extent of capital required is prescribed in the form of a capital adequacy ratio (capital: loans and investments) This capital adequacy can be achieved through a combination of equity and subordinated debt. The equity portion (paid-up capital and reserves) cannot be less than half of the prescribed minimum capital adequacy requirement. Internationally too, after the financial crisis, the focus is shifting from capital requirement to ‘Tangible Common Equity’ which excludes any form of debt.
Business deals beckon firms at Hyderabad civil aviation exhibition
HYDERABAD:
The stage is set for the commencement of India Aviation 2010, the second edition of the international civil aviation exhibition and conference, at the Begumpet airport .
After the success of the first edition in October 2008, India Aviation 2010 will include static and flying display of over 40 aircraft, providing an ideal platform for companies to further their commercial aircraft activities and support services.
Eurocopter, Pawan Hans to form venture
Eurocopter, world's leading helicopter manufacturer announced that it would form ventures with Pawan Hans Helicopters for maintenance repair and overhaul (MRO) and training facilities either in Mumbai or Delhi.
Union Budget, 2010
On February 26, 2010, Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee presented a Budget that broadly focused on fiscal stabilization. The Union Budget was presented at a time when the Indian economy was on the path of revival and almost all demand indicators had turned significantly positive. Investment and consumption demand was also on a revival mode. The buoyancy in the manufacturing sector and up-tick in import and export were also working well for economic growth prospects. In the current economic scenario, what was required from the Budget was a further push for consumption and investment. The Budget announcements tried to do just that.
Highlights:
Additional Rs 1,65,000 cr for bank re-capitalisation
Rs 3000 cr for agricultural impetus
Farm loan payments to be extended for six months
Fertilizer subsidy to be reduced
Rs 100 cr woman farmer fund scheme
Coal regulatory authority to be set up
Clean energy fund to be established
Interest subvention of 2% to be extended for handicrafts and SMEs
Rs 200 cr for Tamil Nadu textile sector
Interest subvention for housing loans up to 1 lacs
Allocation to defence raised to Rs 1.47 lakh cr
Defence capex raised to Rs 60,000 cr
Divestment target of Rs 25,000 cr
Rs 1200 cr assistance for drought in Bundelkhand
Rs 48000 cr for Bharat Nirman
NREGA scheme allocation raised to Rs 41,000 cr
Allocation to health Rs 22,300 cr
Allocation for school education up from Rs 26,800 cr to Rs 31036 cr
Allocation to power sector at Rs 5130 cr
Rs 10,000 cr allocated for Indira Awaas Yojna
Social Security Fund to have corpus of over Rs 1000 cr
Rs 2400 cr for MSMEs
Government to contribute Rs 1000 per month for pension security
Rs 5400 cr allocated for urban development
Rs 66100 cr allocated for rural development
Rs 1900 cr allocated for UID project
Gross tax receipts Rs 7.46 lakh cr
Government to set up National Mission for delivery of justice
15% rise in planned expenditure
Fiscal deficit target of 5.5% in FY11
Excise on all non smoking tobacco raised
Televisions to be costlier
Mobile phones to become cheaper
Cement to be costlier
Refrigerators to be costlier
Jewellery to be more expensive
Monorail granted project import status
CDs to be cheaper
Excise duty on CFL halved to 4%
Bank farm loan target: Rs 3.75,lakh crore
Nutrient based fertiliser subsidy scheme to come into force from April 1, 2010
To build 20 km of highway every day
Income tax on income upto Rs 1.6 lakh: Nil
Income tax on income above Rs 1.6 lakh and upto Rs. 5 lakh: 10 per cent
Income tax on income above Rs.5 lakh and upto Rs. 8 lakh: 20 per cent
Income tax on income above Rs. 8 lakh: 30 per cent
Economic Survey 2010
Economy likely to grow by up to 8.75 per cent in 2010-11.
Full recovery; return to 9 per cent growth in 2011-12.
Broad recovery gives scope for gradual stimulus roll back.
High double-digit food inflation in 2009-10 major concern.
Signs of food inflation spreading to other sectors.
Farm & allied sector production falls 0.2% in 2009-10.
Need serious policy initiatives for 4% agriculture growth.
Moots direct food subsidy via food coupons to households.
Favours making available food in open market.
Favours monthly ration coupons usable anywhere for poor.
Gross fiscal deficit pegged at 6.5 pc of GDP in 2009-10.
India 10th largest gold holding nation at 557.7 tonnes.
Exports in April-December 2009 down 20.3 per cent.
Imports in April-December 2009 down 23.6 per cent.
Trade gap narrowed to USD 76.24 bn in April-December.
32.5% savings & 34.9% investment (of GDP in 2008-09) put India in league of world's fastest growing nations.
Government initiates steps to boost private investment in agriculture.
Wants credit available at reasonable rates on time for private sector to invest in agriculture.
Slowdown in infrastructure that began in 2007, arrested.
Domestic oil production to rise 11 per cent in 2009-10.
Gas output up 52.8 per cent to 50.2 billion cubic meters with RIL starting production.
India world's 2nd largest wireless network with 525.1 million mobile users.
Virtually every second Indian has access to phone.
Auction for 3G spectrum to provide existing and foreign players to bring in new technology and innovations.
ARITHMETIC PRACTICE QUESTIONS
ARITHMETIC PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B
1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B
Sunday, April 25, 2010
ARITHMETIC QUESTIONS
ARITHMETIC QUESTIONS
The type of questions asked in this question bank is on the same pattern generally followed in exam.
1. The two sides of a right triangle containing the right angle measure 3 cm and 4 cm. The radius of the incircle of the triangle is
A. 3.5 cm
B. 1.75 cm
C. 1cm
D. 0.875 cm
Ans.C
2. The distance between the tops of two trees 20 m and 28 m high is 17 m. The horizontal distance between the trees is
A. 9m
B.11 m
C. l5 m
D. 3l m
Ans.C
3. A 25 m long ladder is placed against vertical wall inside a room such that the foot of the ladder is 7 m from the foot of the wall. lf the top of the ladder slides 4 m downwards, then the foot of the ladder will slide by
A. 2 m
B. 4 m
C. 8 rn
D. 16 m
Ans.C
4. If two diameters of a circle intersect each other at right angles, then the quadrilateral formed by joining their end points is a
A. Rhombus
B. Rectangle
C. Square
D. Parallelogram
Ans.C
5. Of all the chords of a circle passing through given point in it, the smallest is that which
A, Is trisected at the point
B. Is bisccted at the point
C. Passes through the centre
D. None of these
Ans.D
6 If the system 2x + 3y - 5 = 0, 4x + ky - l0 = 0
has an infinite number of solutions, then
A. k= 3/2
B. k is not equal to 3/2
C. k is not equal to 6
D. k = 6
Ans.D
7. In covering a distance of 30 km, Amit takes 2 hours more than Suresh. If Amit doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Suresh. Amit`s speed is
A. 5 kmph
B. 7.5 kmph
C, 6 kmph
D. 6.25 kmph
Ans.A
8. What least number must be subtracted from each of the numbers I4, I7, 34 and 42 so that the remainders may be proportional?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 7
Ans.C
9. In a mixture of 60 liters the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1: 2, then the quantity of water (in liters) to be further added is
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 60
Ans.D
10. The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is I :\/3. The angle of elevation of the sun is
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Ans.A
11. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent would the width be decreased so as to maintain the same area?
A 35%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. l20%
Ans.A
12. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 mg. Its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 times the shorter side. The length of the carpet is
A. 5 m
B. 12 m
C. 13m
D). 14.5 m
Ans.B
13. The opposite pairs of sides of' a square are increased by 40% and 30% respectively. The area of the resulting rectangle exceeds the area of the square by
A. 42%
B. 62%
C. 82%
D. 72%
Ans.C
14. The length of a rope by which a cow must be tethered in order that it may be able to graze an area of 9856 sq. metres is
A. 56 m
B. 64 m
C. 88 m
D. 68 m
Ans.A
15. How many bricks, each measuring 24 cm x 1.5 cm x 8 cm, will be needed to construct a wall 8 m long, 6 m high and 23 cm wide while 5% of the total wall contains mortar?
A. 5000
B. 5250
C. 4750
D. 5350
Ans.C
16. The dimensions of an open box are 52 cm x 40 cm x 29 cm. Its thickness is 2 cm. lf 1 cucm of metal used in the box weighs 0.5 g then the weight of the box is
A. 6.832 kg
B. 7.576 kg
C. 7.76 kg
D. 8.56 kg
Ans.A
17. How many metres of cloth 2.5 m wide will be needed to make a conical tent with base radius 7 m and height 24 m?
A. 120 m
B. 180m
C. 220m
D. 550
Ans.A
18. A society of 356 voters has to choose a President. 5 candidates are seeking office. If all the voters exercise their votes. then what is the least number of votes that a successful candidate could receive and yet have more votes than any other candidate?
A. 71
B. 72
C. 81
D. 82
Ans.B
19. Gunjan went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6 percent , then what was the cost of the tax free items?
A. Rs. l5
B. Rs. 20
C. Rs. 15.70
D. Rs. 19.70
Ans.D
20. In an examination, there were 100 boys and 900 girls. 50% of the boys and 40% till the girls passed the examination. The percentage of candidate’s failed is
A. 45%
B. 45.5%
C. 54.5%
D. 59.2%
Ans.C
21. A discount series ol` 10%. 20% and 40% is equal to a equal to a single discount of
A. 50%
B. 56.80%
C. 60%
D. 70.28%
Ans.B
22. The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. The percentage of reduction that at family should effect in the use of cooking oil so as not to change its expenditure on cooking oil is
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%
Ans.B
23. Two men undertake to as a piece of work for Rs.200. One alone can do it in days and the other in 8 days. With the help of a boy, they finish it in 3 days. How much is the share of the boy?
A. Rs. 45
B. RS. 40
C. Rs. 30
D. Rs. 25
Ans.D
24 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank, in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together, then how long will it take to fill the tank?
A. 50 minutes
B. I2 minutes
C. 25 minutes
D.15 minutes
Ans.B
25. A grocer bought 10 kg of apples for Rs. 81 out of which one kg were found rotten. lf he wishes to make a profit of 10%, then he should sell it at per kg.
A. Rs. 9.00
B. Rs. 9.90
C. Rs. 10.10
D. Rs. 10.20
Ans.B
26. Sixteen cylindrical cans, each with a radius of unit, are placed inside a cardboard box four in a row. If the cans touch the adjacent cans and/or the walls of the box, then which of the following could be the interior area of the bottom of the box in square units?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Ans.C
27. An express train travelled at an average speed of l00 kilometres per hour, stopping for 3 minutes after every 75 kilometres. How long did it take to reach its .destination 600
kilometres from the starting point?
A. 6 hr. 21 min.
B. 6 hr. 24 min.
C. 6 hr. 30 min.
D. 6 hr. 27 min.
Ans.A
28. Two cars are travelling along the same road. The first one, which travels at the rate of 30 kmph, starts 6 hours ahead of the second one, which travels at the rate of 50 kmph. How long will it take the second ear to catch up with the first one?
A. 6 hours
B. 9 hours
C.12 hours
D. 15 hours
Ans.B
29. The sum of the 6th and the 15th elements of an arithmetic progression is equal to the sum of the 7th, 10th and 12th elements of the same progression. Then which element of the • series should necessarily he equal to zero?
A. 10th
B. 8th
C. 1st
D. None of the above
Ans.B
30. In a 800 m race, around a stadium having the circumference of 200 m, the top runner meets the last runner on the 5th minute of the race. If the top runner runs at twice the speed of the last runner, then what is the time taken by the top runner to finish the race?
A. 20 min
B. I5 min
C. l0 min
D. 5 min
Ans.C
The type of questions asked in this question bank is on the same pattern generally followed in exam.
1. The two sides of a right triangle containing the right angle measure 3 cm and 4 cm. The radius of the incircle of the triangle is
A. 3.5 cm
B. 1.75 cm
C. 1cm
D. 0.875 cm
Ans.C
2. The distance between the tops of two trees 20 m and 28 m high is 17 m. The horizontal distance between the trees is
A. 9m
B.11 m
C. l5 m
D. 3l m
Ans.C
3. A 25 m long ladder is placed against vertical wall inside a room such that the foot of the ladder is 7 m from the foot of the wall. lf the top of the ladder slides 4 m downwards, then the foot of the ladder will slide by
A. 2 m
B. 4 m
C. 8 rn
D. 16 m
Ans.C
4. If two diameters of a circle intersect each other at right angles, then the quadrilateral formed by joining their end points is a
A. Rhombus
B. Rectangle
C. Square
D. Parallelogram
Ans.C
5. Of all the chords of a circle passing through given point in it, the smallest is that which
A, Is trisected at the point
B. Is bisccted at the point
C. Passes through the centre
D. None of these
Ans.D
6 If the system 2x + 3y - 5 = 0, 4x + ky - l0 = 0
has an infinite number of solutions, then
A. k= 3/2
B. k is not equal to 3/2
C. k is not equal to 6
D. k = 6
Ans.D
7. In covering a distance of 30 km, Amit takes 2 hours more than Suresh. If Amit doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Suresh. Amit`s speed is
A. 5 kmph
B. 7.5 kmph
C, 6 kmph
D. 6.25 kmph
Ans.A
8. What least number must be subtracted from each of the numbers I4, I7, 34 and 42 so that the remainders may be proportional?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 7
Ans.C
9. In a mixture of 60 liters the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1: 2, then the quantity of water (in liters) to be further added is
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 60
Ans.D
10. The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is I :\/3. The angle of elevation of the sun is
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Ans.A
11. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent would the width be decreased so as to maintain the same area?
A 35%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. l20%
Ans.A
12. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 mg. Its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 times the shorter side. The length of the carpet is
A. 5 m
B. 12 m
C. 13m
D). 14.5 m
Ans.B
13. The opposite pairs of sides of' a square are increased by 40% and 30% respectively. The area of the resulting rectangle exceeds the area of the square by
A. 42%
B. 62%
C. 82%
D. 72%
Ans.C
14. The length of a rope by which a cow must be tethered in order that it may be able to graze an area of 9856 sq. metres is
A. 56 m
B. 64 m
C. 88 m
D. 68 m
Ans.A
15. How many bricks, each measuring 24 cm x 1.5 cm x 8 cm, will be needed to construct a wall 8 m long, 6 m high and 23 cm wide while 5% of the total wall contains mortar?
A. 5000
B. 5250
C. 4750
D. 5350
Ans.C
16. The dimensions of an open box are 52 cm x 40 cm x 29 cm. Its thickness is 2 cm. lf 1 cucm of metal used in the box weighs 0.5 g then the weight of the box is
A. 6.832 kg
B. 7.576 kg
C. 7.76 kg
D. 8.56 kg
Ans.A
17. How many metres of cloth 2.5 m wide will be needed to make a conical tent with base radius 7 m and height 24 m?
A. 120 m
B. 180m
C. 220m
D. 550
Ans.A
18. A society of 356 voters has to choose a President. 5 candidates are seeking office. If all the voters exercise their votes. then what is the least number of votes that a successful candidate could receive and yet have more votes than any other candidate?
A. 71
B. 72
C. 81
D. 82
Ans.B
19. Gunjan went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6 percent , then what was the cost of the tax free items?
A. Rs. l5
B. Rs. 20
C. Rs. 15.70
D. Rs. 19.70
Ans.D
20. In an examination, there were 100 boys and 900 girls. 50% of the boys and 40% till the girls passed the examination. The percentage of candidate’s failed is
A. 45%
B. 45.5%
C. 54.5%
D. 59.2%
Ans.C
21. A discount series ol` 10%. 20% and 40% is equal to a equal to a single discount of
A. 50%
B. 56.80%
C. 60%
D. 70.28%
Ans.B
22. The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. The percentage of reduction that at family should effect in the use of cooking oil so as not to change its expenditure on cooking oil is
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%
Ans.B
23. Two men undertake to as a piece of work for Rs.200. One alone can do it in days and the other in 8 days. With the help of a boy, they finish it in 3 days. How much is the share of the boy?
A. Rs. 45
B. RS. 40
C. Rs. 30
D. Rs. 25
Ans.D
24 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank, in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together, then how long will it take to fill the tank?
A. 50 minutes
B. I2 minutes
C. 25 minutes
D.15 minutes
Ans.B
25. A grocer bought 10 kg of apples for Rs. 81 out of which one kg were found rotten. lf he wishes to make a profit of 10%, then he should sell it at per kg.
A. Rs. 9.00
B. Rs. 9.90
C. Rs. 10.10
D. Rs. 10.20
Ans.B
26. Sixteen cylindrical cans, each with a radius of unit, are placed inside a cardboard box four in a row. If the cans touch the adjacent cans and/or the walls of the box, then which of the following could be the interior area of the bottom of the box in square units?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Ans.C
27. An express train travelled at an average speed of l00 kilometres per hour, stopping for 3 minutes after every 75 kilometres. How long did it take to reach its .destination 600
kilometres from the starting point?
A. 6 hr. 21 min.
B. 6 hr. 24 min.
C. 6 hr. 30 min.
D. 6 hr. 27 min.
Ans.A
28. Two cars are travelling along the same road. The first one, which travels at the rate of 30 kmph, starts 6 hours ahead of the second one, which travels at the rate of 50 kmph. How long will it take the second ear to catch up with the first one?
A. 6 hours
B. 9 hours
C.12 hours
D. 15 hours
Ans.B
29. The sum of the 6th and the 15th elements of an arithmetic progression is equal to the sum of the 7th, 10th and 12th elements of the same progression. Then which element of the • series should necessarily he equal to zero?
A. 10th
B. 8th
C. 1st
D. None of the above
Ans.B
30. In a 800 m race, around a stadium having the circumference of 200 m, the top runner meets the last runner on the 5th minute of the race. If the top runner runs at twice the speed of the last runner, then what is the time taken by the top runner to finish the race?
A. 20 min
B. I5 min
C. l0 min
D. 5 min
Ans.C
RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009
RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009
RRB previous papers Solved papers GK Current affairs
Based on Memory
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Find the odd-one out?
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer
2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan
3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning
4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta
5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur
6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu
7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid
11. Hemoglobin containing iron is—
(A)Antibody
(B) Nucleic Acid
(C)Protein
(D) Hormone
12. The only Indian Governor General was?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
13. From when ‘Rashtriya GraminRozgar Yojna’ is being run
throughout the country?
(A) 1—4—2007
(B) 2—10—2007
(C) 1—4—2008
(D) 14—11—2007
14.. ‘Bharat Nirman Karyakram’ was launched keeping in view the following—
(A) During 2008-09 10 million extra jobs
(B) During 2005-09 10 million extra irrigation
(C) During 11th plan 1 lakh km road in villages
(D) During 11th plan IT park in all districts
15. Who among the following won a Gold Medal in Olympic 2008?
(A) Milkha Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Sania Mirza
16.. Mansarovar lake is located in?
(A)Nepal
(B) India
(C)Tibet
(D) Bhutan
17. Next Commonwealth games will be played in?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Karanchi
(C)Seol
(D) Melbourne
18. Which of the following is a National Capital ?
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Washington DC
(D) California
19. In India Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year—
(A)1959AD
(B) 1960AD
(C)1956AD
(D) 1952 AD
20. which of the following is not an immediate neighbour of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Iran
21. How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 21
22.Which of the following plan resulted in India’s independence?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) MountbattenPlan
(D) None of these
23. ELISA is—
(A) Fat Precipitation Test
(B) Immunological Test
(C) Osteomalacia Test
(D) None of these
24. The main source of Direct Foreign Investment in India is—
(A)USA
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Mauritius
25. Histology is a study of?
(A)Blood
(B) Tissues
(C)Cells
(D) Protein
26. Plague is a disease caused by?
(A) Cattle flea
(B) Dog flea
(C) Rat flea
(D) None of these
27. The famous Gayatri Mantra’ is found in which of the following Vedas?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
28. Which is the rate of Heart beats of a child during birth?
(A) 120 times
(B) 140 times
(C) 90 times
(D) 130 times
29. Which of the following is the hottest planet?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Earth
(D) Venus
30. What is the main basis of the dividing the atmospheric layers?
(A) Air pressure
(B) Composition
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
31, The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called ?
(A) Bandwidth
(B) Interlacing
(C) Response time
(0) Scanning
32. From 2009 the two new members of NATO are?
(A) Austria and Greece
(B) Bulgaria and Turkey
(C) Crotia and Albania
(D) Romania and Poland
33. In Beijing Olympics, the winner of gold medal in football (for men)was—
(A) Argentina
(B) Belgium
(C)Brazil
(D) Nigeria
34. In the General Election, 2009 the Lok Sabha seats won by the Congress are?
(A) 204 seats
(8) 206 seats
(C) 203 seats
(D) None of these
35. Which one of the following Slates of India has been recently awarded UN OSCAR by the United Nations Secretary General for the best Human Development report?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Gujarat
(C)Kerala
(D) Sikkim
36. Who among the following was chosen ‘Business Leader of the Year’ in ‘The Economic Times Award, 2007’?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Mukesh Dhirubhai Ambani
(0) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani
37. Which of the following cricketers has experience of hitting 8 sixes in an over in an international cricket match?
(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Yuvaraj Singh
(D) Gautam Gambhir
38. Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate according to 2001 census?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamilnadu
(D) Meghalaya
39. The capital of the Pallavas was?
(A)Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C)Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
40. The back surface of mirrors are coated with a thin layer of?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Red oxide
(D) Silver nitrate
41. ‘Gidda’ is a folk dance from which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
42. India’s first mobile court was inaugurated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
43. The Sun Feast Open, 2007 was won by?
(A) Vania King
(B)Mariya Koryttseva
(C) Sania Mirza
(D)Maria Kirilenko
44. In which state is the Kanger Ghati National Park situated ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
45. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(D) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
46. Venus Williams won Wimbledon,2008 women’s singles title by defeating?
(A) Ana Ivanovic
(B)Elena Dementieva
(C) Justice Henin
(D)Serena Williams
47. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, as approved by the Union Cabinet, will be set up at?
(A) Amethi
(B) Jais
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rae Bareli
48. In Uttar Pradesh, the artificial rubber factory is situated at—
(A)Bareilly
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Modinagar
(D) Gorakhpur
49. Nathu La was reopened in 2006 for trans border trade between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Nepal
50. The term ‘Plastic Money’ applies to—
(A) Bank draft made of plastic coated paper
(B) Currency notes printed on plastic coated paper
(C) Currency notes impregnated with plastic thread
(D) Credit Cards mainly issued by the banks
1:D
2:C
3:C
4:A
5:B
6:A
7:B
8:B
9:C
10:C
11:C
12:B
13:C
14:C
15:B
16:C
17:A
18:C
19:D
20:D
21:C
22:C
23:B
24:D
25:B
26:C
27:A
28:D
29:D
30:C
31:A
32:C
33:A
34:D
35:A
36:C
37:C
38:B
39:B
40:D
41:A
42:D
43:D
44:D
45:C
46:D
47:D
48::C
49::B
50:D
RRB previous papers Solved papers GK Current affairs
Based on Memory
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Find the odd-one out?
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer
2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan
3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning
4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta
5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur
6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu
7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid
11. Hemoglobin containing iron is—
(A)Antibody
(B) Nucleic Acid
(C)Protein
(D) Hormone
12. The only Indian Governor General was?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
13. From when ‘Rashtriya GraminRozgar Yojna’ is being run
throughout the country?
(A) 1—4—2007
(B) 2—10—2007
(C) 1—4—2008
(D) 14—11—2007
14.. ‘Bharat Nirman Karyakram’ was launched keeping in view the following—
(A) During 2008-09 10 million extra jobs
(B) During 2005-09 10 million extra irrigation
(C) During 11th plan 1 lakh km road in villages
(D) During 11th plan IT park in all districts
15. Who among the following won a Gold Medal in Olympic 2008?
(A) Milkha Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Sania Mirza
16.. Mansarovar lake is located in?
(A)Nepal
(B) India
(C)Tibet
(D) Bhutan
17. Next Commonwealth games will be played in?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Karanchi
(C)Seol
(D) Melbourne
18. Which of the following is a National Capital ?
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Washington DC
(D) California
19. In India Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year—
(A)1959AD
(B) 1960AD
(C)1956AD
(D) 1952 AD
20. which of the following is not an immediate neighbour of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Iran
21. How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 21
22.Which of the following plan resulted in India’s independence?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) MountbattenPlan
(D) None of these
23. ELISA is—
(A) Fat Precipitation Test
(B) Immunological Test
(C) Osteomalacia Test
(D) None of these
24. The main source of Direct Foreign Investment in India is—
(A)USA
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Mauritius
25. Histology is a study of?
(A)Blood
(B) Tissues
(C)Cells
(D) Protein
26. Plague is a disease caused by?
(A) Cattle flea
(B) Dog flea
(C) Rat flea
(D) None of these
27. The famous Gayatri Mantra’ is found in which of the following Vedas?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
28. Which is the rate of Heart beats of a child during birth?
(A) 120 times
(B) 140 times
(C) 90 times
(D) 130 times
29. Which of the following is the hottest planet?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Earth
(D) Venus
30. What is the main basis of the dividing the atmospheric layers?
(A) Air pressure
(B) Composition
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
31, The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called ?
(A) Bandwidth
(B) Interlacing
(C) Response time
(0) Scanning
32. From 2009 the two new members of NATO are?
(A) Austria and Greece
(B) Bulgaria and Turkey
(C) Crotia and Albania
(D) Romania and Poland
33. In Beijing Olympics, the winner of gold medal in football (for men)was—
(A) Argentina
(B) Belgium
(C)Brazil
(D) Nigeria
34. In the General Election, 2009 the Lok Sabha seats won by the Congress are?
(A) 204 seats
(8) 206 seats
(C) 203 seats
(D) None of these
35. Which one of the following Slates of India has been recently awarded UN OSCAR by the United Nations Secretary General for the best Human Development report?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Gujarat
(C)Kerala
(D) Sikkim
36. Who among the following was chosen ‘Business Leader of the Year’ in ‘The Economic Times Award, 2007’?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Mukesh Dhirubhai Ambani
(0) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani
37. Which of the following cricketers has experience of hitting 8 sixes in an over in an international cricket match?
(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Yuvaraj Singh
(D) Gautam Gambhir
38. Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate according to 2001 census?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamilnadu
(D) Meghalaya
39. The capital of the Pallavas was?
(A)Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C)Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
40. The back surface of mirrors are coated with a thin layer of?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Red oxide
(D) Silver nitrate
41. ‘Gidda’ is a folk dance from which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
42. India’s first mobile court was inaugurated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
43. The Sun Feast Open, 2007 was won by?
(A) Vania King
(B)Mariya Koryttseva
(C) Sania Mirza
(D)Maria Kirilenko
44. In which state is the Kanger Ghati National Park situated ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
45. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(D) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
46. Venus Williams won Wimbledon,2008 women’s singles title by defeating?
(A) Ana Ivanovic
(B)Elena Dementieva
(C) Justice Henin
(D)Serena Williams
47. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, as approved by the Union Cabinet, will be set up at?
(A) Amethi
(B) Jais
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rae Bareli
48. In Uttar Pradesh, the artificial rubber factory is situated at—
(A)Bareilly
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Modinagar
(D) Gorakhpur
49. Nathu La was reopened in 2006 for trans border trade between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Nepal
50. The term ‘Plastic Money’ applies to—
(A) Bank draft made of plastic coated paper
(B) Currency notes printed on plastic coated paper
(C) Currency notes impregnated with plastic thread
(D) Credit Cards mainly issued by the banks
1:D
2:C
3:C
4:A
5:B
6:A
7:B
8:B
9:C
10:C
11:C
12:B
13:C
14:C
15:B
16:C
17:A
18:C
19:D
20:D
21:C
22:C
23:B
24:D
25:B
26:C
27:A
28:D
29:D
30:C
31:A
32:C
33:A
34:D
35:A
36:C
37:C
38:B
39:B
40:D
41:A
42:D
43:D
44:D
45:C
46:D
47:D
48::C
49::B
50:D
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