Saturday, July 31, 2010

ESIC LDC Maths Paper 2008

1. 41.2 x 0.15 =?
(A) 6.18
(B) 0.618
(C) 0.0618
(D) 61.80

2. 75% of 48 = ?
(A) 64
(B) 48
(C) 36
(D) 0.36

3. If 24 men do a work in 40 days, in how many days will 30 men do it?
(A) 50
(B) 40
(C) 32
(D) 28

4. A train travels 82.6 lan/hour. How many metres will it travel in 15 minutes?
(A) 20.65
(B) 206.50
(C) 2065
(D) 20650

5. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank if the capadty of the bucket is 13.5 litres?
(A) 13.5
(B) 24
(C) 12
(D) cannot be determined because the capacity of tank is not given.

6. A mother is three times as old as her son. After 15 years she will be twice as old as her son. What is the present age in years of the mother?
(A) 30
(B) 44
(C) 50
(D) 60

7. The breadth of a rectangular hall is %th its length. If the area of the hall is 300 sq m, what is the difference between the length and breadth of the hall?
(A) 15
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3

8. 9: 15 : : 45 : ?
(A) 3
(B) 27
(C) 9
(0) 75

9. Divide a sum of Rs 832 between A and B in the ratio of 1/3 :1.5'
(A) Rs 520, Rs 312
(B) Rs 500, Rs 300
(C) Rs 530, Rs ~OO
(0) Rs 510, Rs 315

10. I paid Rs 27.20 as sales tax on a watch worth Rs 340. Find the rate of sales tax.
(A) 10%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(0) 12%

11. Amit deposited Rs 150 per month in a bank for 8 months under the recurring deposit scheme. What will be the maturity value if the rate of interest is 8% per annum.
(A) Rs 1236
(B) Rs 1200
(C) Rs 1000
(d) Rs 1500

12.. Through what angle does the minute hand of a dock turn in 5 minutes?
(A) 30'
(B) 35'
(C) 36'
(0) 32"

13. The surface area of a cube is 150 sm2• Its volume
(A) 150 cm3
(B) 125 em3
(C) 64 em3
(0) 216 em3

14. Two lines intersect:
(A) at a
(B) in a line
(C) at infinite number of points
(d) at two points

15. 6 dozen eggs are bought for Rs 48. How much will 132 eggs cost?
(A) Rs 80
(B) Rs 78
(C) Rs 82
(D) Rs 88

16. From the sum of 17 and -12, subtract 48
(A) - 20
(B) - 17
(C) - 48
(D) - 43

17. Plato was born in 429 B.C. and expired in 348 B.c. How long did he live?
(A) 81 years
(B) 79 years
(C) 80 years
(D) 82 years

18. Two whole numbers are such that one is two times the other. If their difference is 19, their sum is:
(A) 19
(B) 38
(C) 57
(D) 76

19. If a circle and a square have the same perimeter then:
(A) Their areas are equal
(B) The area of the circle is twice that of the square
(C) The area of the square is twice that of the cirde
(d) None of these

20. A closed box made of wood of uniform thickness has length, breadth and height 12 em, 10 em and 8 em respectively. If the thickness of the wood is 1 em, the inner surface area is:
(A) 456 cm2
(B) 376 em2
(C) 264 em2
(D) 696 em2

21. At 2.15 AM the hour and minute hands of a clock form an angle of:
(A) 30'
(B) 22.5
(C) 7.5
(0) 5'

22. Successive discounts of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of:

23. Hamid sells 2 horses at the same price. On one he makes a profit of 10% and on the other he suffers a loss of 10"16 . Which one of the following statemnets is true?
(A) He makes n profit, no loss
(B) He makes a profit of 1%
(C) He suffers a loss of 1%
(d) He suffers a loss of 2%

24. Find the least number which when divided by 12, leaves a remainder of 7; when divided by 15, leaves a remainder of 10 and when divided by 16, leaves a remainder of 11.
(A) 115
(B) 235
(C) 247
(0) 475

25. In what time will a train 100 metres long with a speed of 50 km/hour cross a pillar?
(A) 7 seconds
(B) 72 seconds
(C) 12 seconds
(D) 20 seconds


DRDO exam mainly based on two stages 1. Written test  2. Interview
Marks you score in DRDO SET Written test is not carried forward but is just used for screening candidates for Interview. Final selection is based on the performance in the interview only.
DRDO SET Written test is 3-hour long with two sections:
Section A: Subject Knowledge (from your discipline of Engineering)
Section B: Aptitude for Applied Research & Development.
DRDO SET test has total 150 Objective-type questions for 500 total marks. Type of DRDO SET questions along with marks per question is given below section-wise in following analysis:
DRDO SET Exam Pattern
As you can find from above, there is more mark (400) in your DRDO SET Subject paper (Section-A) compared to your DRDO SET Aptitude paper (Section-B), having only 100 marks. Also, marks per SET Subject questions is more (4 marks) compared to SET Aptitude questions (2 marks). So you can easily find on which section to give more stress – you should be really strong on your Engineering Subjects!
Also, beware! DRDO SET has negative marking. Minus 1 mark for each wrong Section-A answer, while Minus 1/2 mark for each wrong Section-B answer!
DRDO SET exam Interview Questions:
After you get selected in the SET written test, you would be called for Interview and your final selection would be based on the Interview alone.


Looking for a Government Job but not sure where to find them? Here are a few links of Government of India websites, that will ensure that your search for a Government job is bang on target.
Careers in State Government

Department of Labour, Employment & Training, Andaman & Nicobar Islands

The Directorate of Employment & Training, Gujarat

Career Prospects in Indian Navy

Department of Labour, Karnataka

Department of Employment & Self-Employment, Maharashtra

Labour & Employment Department, Nagaland

Labour Department, Pondicherry

Department of Appointment, Uttar Pradesh

Employment Department, Punjab

Rajasthan Public Service Commission

Careers in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)

Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL)

GAIL(India) Limited

Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board





Careers in Indian Railways

Railway Recruitment Board, Ajmer

Railway Recruitment Board, Bangalore

Careers in Union Government

Union Public Service Commission

Careers in the Armed Forces

Careers in Indian Air Force

Indian Army Careers

Career Prospects in Indian Navy

Careers in State Government

Jammu and Kashmir Government

Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board

Orissa Public Service Commission

Department of Employment and Training, Tamil Nadu

Tuesday, July 20, 2010

Intelligence Bureau Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (Executive) Exam

Intelligence Bureau Assistant Central Intelligence Officer
(Executive) Grade-II Exam., 2010
(Held on 24-1-2010)

English Language & Comprehension : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

1. Though there is hourly bus service on this route (A) / a number of people are still suffering (B) / as there is no bus shelter here. (C) No error. (D)

2. The boss took strict measures (A) / with a view to ensuring punctuality (B) / on the part of his subordinates. (C) No error. (D)

3. People prefer to be identified (A) /by their caste community or religion first (B) / rather to be known as Indians first. (C) No error. (D)

4. Mrs. Dorai would rather (A) / spend a quiet evening (B) / than attending a party. (C) No error. (D)

5. Being idle sometimes is agreeable (A) / but being idle all the times (B) / might become monotonous. (C) No error. (D)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

(A) Contradictory
(B) Doubtful
(C) Impious
(D) Orthodox

(A) Cultured
(B) Libertine
(C) Sober
(D) Educated

(A) Convalescence
(B) Recouperation
(C) Healing
(D) Palpitation

(A) Disentangle
(B) Impersonate
(C) Complicate
(D) Impose

(A) Disrupt
(B) Disgorge
(C) Dismiss
(D) Display

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

11. (A) Clientele
(B) Clientale
(C) Cleintele
(D) Clientelle

12. (A) Punctileous
(B) Punctilious
(C) Punctillious
(D) Punctileus

13. (A) Haemorrage
(B) Hemorhage
(C) Hemmorage
(D) Haemorrhage

14. (A) Fascimile
(B) Facsimele
(C) Facsimile
(D) Facksimile

15. (A) Hoseire
(B) Hosier
(C) Hosair
(D) Hasier

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer sheet.

16. We know that he is the one responsible for the discord but as he is well-connected all we can do is send him to Coventry.(A) transfer him
(B) commend him
(C) boycott him
(D) dismiss him

17. A Prime Minister cannot ride rough shod over his ministerial colleagues for long.
(A) deal unkindly with
(B) take for granted
(C) be hamhanded with
(D) exploit wilfully

18. The say, join the Army to drink life to the lees.
(A) to have the best of fun and fortune
(B) to enjoy a life of drinking and dancing
(C) to have a life full of adventures
(D) to have the best of life

19. He was down in the mouth as he was defeated in the elections.
(A) unable to speak
(B) very depressed
(C) very angry
(D) very confused

20. The noble man gave up the ghost.
(A) left the ghost
(B) lived like a ghost
(C) invited ghost
(D) died

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer sheet.

21. The time between midnight and noon—
(A) Afternoon
(B) Antipodes
(C) Ante-meridiem
(D) Antenatal

22. One who is a dabbler in arts, science or literature—
(A) Dilettante
(B) Aesthete
(C) Maestro
(D) Connoisseur

23. Fear of height—
(A) Agoraphobia
(B) Hydrophobia
(C) Acrophobia
(D) Pyrophobia

24. Still existing and known—
(A) Extent
(B) Extant
(C) Eternal
(D) Immanent

25. A remedy for all ills—
(A) Narcotic
(B) Panacea
(C) Medicine
(D) Quack

Directions—(Q. 26–30) The Ist and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S.
These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer sheet.

26. 1. There are some places that experience heavy rains throughout the year.
P. So, the local administration should take steps to provide a proper drainage system to clear the stagnant water.
Q. If water stagnates on the road sides, it leads to the spread of infectious diseases.
R. Additionally, measures should be taken to spray disinfectants.
S. In such places, people adapt themselves to moist weather.
6. By taking such steps, spread of diseases can be checked.

27. 1. Addiction to alcoholic drinks affects the social life of the people.
P. Gradually drinking becomes a habit.
Q. The person becomes an addict.
R. When once it becomes a habit, it is difficult to give up.
S. A person begins to drink just for the fun of it.
6. If he doesn’t have his bottle of drink, he becomes restless.

28. 1. Braille lost his eyesight accidentally as a child.
P. In his days, the few books that were available for blind people were printed in big, raised type.
Q. After that he became a teacher.
R. The letters used were t hose of the ordinary alphabet.
S. Nevertheless, he was able to complete his education at a school for the blind in Paris.
6. Braille’s idea was to use raised dots instead of raised letters.

29. 1. What are the strategies to strengthen reading habits among early literates, school dropouts and even adults ?
P. Normally, subtitles for a film, say in Hindi, will be in some other language, say, English.
Q. According to a research survey, SLS ‘‘doubles and even triples the role of reading improvement that children may be achieving through formal education.’’
R. But SLS harps on the argument that since the film viewers are familiar with the script, they can read the
words in their favourite dialogues and films.
S. One of the novel and effective strategies is Same Language Subtitles (SLS), which was introduced in Ahmedabad in 1996.
6. Since, a huge number of children and adults watch TV for entertainment even in the rural
areas of India, why not use this resource to get an educational benefit out of it ?

30. 1. Disappointment doesn’t equal failure.
P. When you feel disappointed, you can either seek comfort or seek a solution.
Q. First, step back, stop what you’re doing, and try to obtain some comfort-but don’t get
trapped into staying comfortable.
R. The best approach includes some of both.
S. Seen in a positive light, it can stimulate learning and growth.
6. Having licked your wounds, prepare for another effort based on a new solution to the


Directions—(Q. 31–35) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer sheet.
31. Who will have broken the Gramophone record ?
(A) By whom the Gramophone record has been broken ?
(B) By whom have the Gramophone record been broken ?
(C) By whom will have the Gramophone record been broken ?
(D) By whom has the Gramophone record been broken ?

32. People once believed that the sun was a God—
(A) The sun is once being believed to be a God
(B) The sun has once been believed to be a God
(C) It was once believed that the sun was a God
(D) It is once believed that the sun is a God

33. Can we send this parcel by air mail ?
(A) By air mail, can this parcel be sent ?
(B) Can this parcel be send by air mail ?
(C) Can this parcel be sent by air mail ?
(D) Can by air mail, this parcel be sent ?

34. People ought not to speak about such things in public—
(A) Such things ought to be not spoken about in public by people
(B) Such things ought not to be spoken about in public
(C) Such things ought to be spoken about not in public
(D) Let such things not be spoken about in public by people

35. I shall be complimented by all when I win the game—
(A) Everyone will compliment me when the game is won by me
(B) All shall compliment me when I win the game
(C) All are complimenting me when the game is won
(D) All will have complimented me when I win the game

Directions—(Q. 36–40) You have one brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer sheet.
Passage :
A rat’s thick, furry body brushed his cheek, its whiskered nose sniffing at his mouth. Quivering with revulsion, Kunta snapped his teeth together desperately and the rat ran away. In rage, Kunta snatched and kicked against the shackles that bound his wrists and ankles. Instantly, angry exclamations and jerking came back from whomever he was shackled to. The shock and pain adding to his fury, Kunta lunged upward, his head bumping hard against wood-right on the spot where he had been clubbed by the ‘toubol’ back in the woods.

Gasping the snarling, he and the unseen man next to him battered their iron cuffs at each other until both slumped back in exhaustion. Kunta felt himself starting to vomit again, and he tried to force it back, hut couldn’t. His already emptied belly squeezed up a thin, sour fluid that drained from the side of his mouth as he lay wishing that he might die.

He told himself that he mustn’t lose control again if he wanted to save his strength and his sanity. After a while, when he felt he could move again, he very slowly and carefully explored his shackled right wrist and ankle with his left hand. They were bleeding. He pulled lightly on the the left ankle and wrist of the man he had fought with. On Kunta’s left, chained to him by the ankles, lay some other man, someone who kept up a steady moaning and they were all so close that their shoulders, arms, and legs touched if any of them moved even a little.

36. How many people are there definitely with Kunta ?
(A) No one else
(B) One other person
(C) Two other persons
(D) Many others

37. In the passage, Kunta vomited again because he—
(A) was not keeping well
(B) was very hungry
(C) was angry with someone
(D) had fought with someone

38. The man is referred to as ‘unseen’ because—
(A) Kunta didn’t know him
(B) Kunta wouldn’t turn his head to see him
(C) It was dark
(D) Kunta was tied

39. Where is Kunta ?
(A) In the open air
(B) In a prison
(C) In a confined space
(D) Not mentioned in the text

40. Kunta was desperate when a rat came near him because—
(A) he quivered with revulsion
(B) he was angry and hungry
(C) he was shackled and helpless
(D) he was tied to someone else

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

A modern example of the process of evolution by natural selection in action is provided by the peppered moth. The moth is …41… pale in colour, a mottled grey which …42… the moth to settle, wings outstret-ched, …43… the bark of lichen covered trees and …44… unnoticed. It can thus save itself from many …45… birds. However, many years ago some British …46… found that there does exist a second…47… of this moth, with dark sooty wings. Research has …48… established that both belong to the …49… species, but the dark moth lives in …50… surroundings, where the trunks of the trees on which they live are dark with industrial grime.

41. (A) only
(B) normally
(C) really
(D) obviously

42. (A) permits
(B) allows
(C) enables
(D) obstructs

43. (A) in
(B) on
(C) about
(D) under

44. (A) be
(B) hide
(C) run
(D) come

45. (A) ordinary
(B) circulatory
(C) predatory
(D) stationary

46. (A) naturalists
(B) ornithologists
(C) excavators
(D) scholars

47. (A) group
(B) section
(C) variety
(D) society

48. (A) however
(B) now
(C) then
(D) since

49. (A) same
(B) similar
(C) like
(D) one

50. (A) rural
(B) mechanical
(C) agricultural
(D) urban

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D)

Monday, July 19, 2010

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2010

The examination will consist of a written examination and skill test on Computer for the post of Data Entry Operator and Typing Test for the post of Lower Division Clerks.


The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below :
NOTE-I : The Paper will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only. The
questions will be set both in English & Hindi.
NOTE-II: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.
Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the

General Intelligence: 
It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type.
The test will include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space
visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory,
discriminating observation, relationship concepts, verbal and figure classification,
arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test will also include questions
designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their
relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

English Language :
In addition to the testing of candidates' understanding of the English
Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct
usage, etc. his/her writing ability would also be tested.

Numerical Aptitude:
This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number
Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship
between Numbers, Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and
Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs,
Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, etc.

General Awareness:
Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general
awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be
designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and
experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will
also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to
Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian
Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a
special study of any discipline.

NOTE: For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability and opting for SCRIBE there will be no
component of Maps/Graphs/Diagrams/Statistical Data in the General Intelligence &
Reasoning / General Awareness Paper.

Data Entry Speed of 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressions per hour on Computer.
The ‘Speed of 8000 key depressions per hour on Computer’ will be adjudged on the basis of the
correct entry of all the key depressions in computer as per the given text passage and the
duration of the said Test will be 15 (Fifteen) minutes and printed passage of running text matter
in English containing about 2000-2200 strokes/key-depressions would be given to each
candidate who would enter the same in the Computer.

The “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test would be of qualifying nature. Candidates allowed to take this
test, will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on Computer, to be provided by the
Commission or the agency authorized by the Commission to conduct such skill test at the
Centre/venue so notified.

Only those candidates who qualify in the written part of examination and secure minimum
qualifying marks as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion, will be eligible to take
the Skill Test, i.e. Part-II of the examination.

Only such candidates as qualify in the Skill Test at a speed of not less than 8000 key depressions
per hour will be eligible for being recommended for appointment as per their position in the
merit list.

None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part of the
examination will be exempted from the Skill Test as passing of the skill test is precondition and
one of the essential qualifications for appointment to the post of Data Entry Operator.

NOTE-I: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written
examination, as may be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, will be called for skill test.

Provided that candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, OBC, ExS and PH
may be called for the Skill Test by the Commission by applying relaxed standards if the
Commission is of the opinion that sufficient number of candidates of these categories are not
likely to be called for the skill test on the basis of general standard in order to fill up the
vacancies reserved for these categories (i.e. SC, ST, PH, ExS and OBC).





Saturday, July 17, 2010

West Bengal P.C.S. Miscellaneous Services Recruitment Exam

West Bengal P.C.S. Miscellaneous Services Recruitment Exam., 2007
General Studies : Solved Paper

(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. The Chief Justice of Pakistan’s Supreme Court suspended last year by President Musharraf was—
(A) Shaukat Aziz
(B) Anees Fahim
(C) Ifthikar Chaudhury
(D) Farooq Leghari
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organizations has set the target of reducing Greenhouse gas emissions by 50% by the year 2050 ?
(A) United Nations
(C) G-8
Ans : (C)

3. The Sunfeast Open Tournament (2007) was won by—
(A) Vania King
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Mariya Korytheseva
(D) Maria Kirilenke
Ans : (D)

4. Who was the Men’s national senior Billiards champion in 2007 ?
(A) Pankaj Advani
(B) Ashok Shandilya
(C) Abhijeet Gupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. Ustad Amzad Ali Khan is an exponent of—
(A) Santoor
(B) Sarod
(C) Violin
(D) Tabla
Ans : (B)

6. Which book is written by Satyendra Nath Dutta ?
(A) Agnibina
(B) Kuhu-O-Keka
(C) Sagar-Theke-Fera
(D) Trijama
Ans : (B)

7. Which State is regarded as the land of five rivers ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Assam
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)

8. The largest rice producing State in India is—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

9. China’s national game is—
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Polo
(D) Table Tennis
Ans : (D)

10. The oldest oilfield in India is—
(B) Makum
(C) Digboi
(D) Dibrugarh
Ans : (C)

11. Density of population is highest in which State of India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

12. Given that the absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. What is the refractive index of glass with reference to water ?
(A) 2/3
(B) 8/9
(C) 9/8
(D) ¾
Ans : (C)

13. In the alkane series methane is followed by—
(A) Propane
(B) Butane
(C) Benzene
(D) Ethane
Ans : (D)

14. The Secretary-General of the Commonwealth is—
(A) Don McKinnon
(B) Kamalesh Sharma
(C) Avinash Chander
(D) Vijay Kelkar
Ans : (B)

15. The term ‘Penhold Grip’ is associated with—
(A) Tennis
(B) Rowing
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Hockey
Ans : (C)

16. A force of 5 N acts on a body for 0•2 secs. The change in momentum of the body is—
(A) 1 kg ms-1
(B) 0.1 kg ms-1
(C) 10 kg ms-1
(D) The given data is insufficient
Ans : (D)

17. Organic compound used for welding and artificially ripening of fruits is—
(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(D) C2H4
Ans : (D)

18. In rabbit, the digestion of cellulose takes place in—
(A) Rectum
(B) Ileum
(C) Colon
(D) Caecum
Ans : (C)

19. Rolland Garros is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Tennis
(D) Rowing
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following elements is essential for animals but not in plants ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Calcium
(D) Iodine
Ans : (C)

21. Keenan stadium is located at—
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) Cuttack
(C) Patna
(D) Ranchi
Ans : (A)

22. The circulation of blood in closed circulatory system was discovered by—
(A) Francis Darwin
(B) William Harvey
(C) G. Mendel
(D) Hippocrates
Ans : (B)

23. Vitamin K is necessary for blood clotting because it plays a vital role in the synthesis of—
(A) Thromboplastin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Prothrombin
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

24. Iris is the anterior part of—
(A) Retina
(B) Choroid
(C) Sclera
(D) Cornea
Ans : (A)

25. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located ?
(A) Tip
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
Ans : (A)

26. The following is not a member of the European Union :
(A) Turkey
(B) Cyprus
(C) Slovakia
(D) Ireland
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following States has the largest size of population ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

28. Which city is called Gateway of India ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

29. Who is the famous South Indian musician and saint, who was an exponent of Carnatic music ?
(A) Tyagaraja
(B) B. Subramanium
(C) R. Ramachandran
(D) P. Venkataraman
Ans : (A)

30. ‘Geeta-Govindam’ by Kavi Jaydev was written in—
(A) Bengali
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Maithili
(D) Apabhramsa
Ans : (B)

31. When was ‘Purna Swaraj’ day first celebrated ?
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) August 15, 1930
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) January 26, 1930
Ans : (D)

32. The native land of ‘Jim Corbett’ is—
(A) England
(B) India
(C) Germany
(D) France
Ans : (B)

33. Dr. M. S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharat Natyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
Ans : (D)

34. We find ‘Indir-Thakrun’ in—
(A) Aranyak
(B) Pather-Panchali
(C) Ichamati
(D) Devajan
Ans : (B)

35. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides to the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution ?
(A) 360
(B) 368
(C) 390
(D) 348
Ans : (B)

36. ‘Hans Christian Andersen’ was born in—
(A) Poland
(B) Russia
(C) Denmark
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)

37. Anhydrous CaO may be used to dry—
(A) H2S gas
(B) NH3 gas
(C) CO2 gas
(D) HCl gas
Ans : (B)

38. In bacteria, which of the following photosynthesis is present ?
(A) PS I
(C) Both PS I and PS II
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

39. The only Sultan of Delhi who exempted his subject from nearly 24 taxes was—
(A) Mubarak Shah Khalji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (C)

40. To whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)

41. The fuel in a nuclear reactor is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Heavy water
(C) Cadmium
(D) Uranium
Ans : (D)

42. Which of the following occupies 22•4 litres at N.T.P. ?
(A) 17 gms NH3
(B) 22 gms CO2
(C) 1.7 gms NH3
(D) 4.4 gms CO2
Ans : (A)

43. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising the—
(A) Members of the Lok Sabha only
(B) Members of the Rajya Sabha only
(C) Elected Members of both Houses of Parliament and Members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States
(D) Members of both Houses
Ans : (C)

44. One of the famous tragedies of Shakespeare is—
(A) The Merchant of Venice
(B) Macbeth
(C) The Tempest
(D) As You Like It
Ans : (B)

45. Water equivalent of a body is measured in—
(A) Degrees centrigrade
(B) Calories
(C) Grams
(D) Dynes
Ans : (C)

46. Which of the following countries has recently signed the Kyoto Protocol ?
(A) India
(C) China
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)

47. The proposed site for private port in West Bengal is—
(A) Falta
(B) Kakdwip
(C) Kulpi
(D) Sagar Island
Ans : (C)

48. The most populous city of India in 2001 is—
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (D)

49. Editor of the Magazine ‘Sambad-Pravakar’ was—
(A) Debendra Nath Thakur
(B) Akshoy Kumar Dutta
(C) Pearychand Mitra
(D) Iswar Chandra Gupta
Ans : (D)

50. When the temperature of a metalrises, its electrical resistance—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Does not change
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

51. Which of the following is electrovalent ?
(A) Oxygen molecule
(B) Sodium chloride
(C) Water
(D) Ammonia
Ans : (B)

52. Neutrons in an atom—
(A) Are equal to the number of electrons and protons
(B) Revolve about the nucleus in fixed orbit
(C) Contribute to nuclear charge
(D) Vary in number with different isotopes
Ans : (B)

53. Who edited ‘Harijan Patrika’ ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bipin Pal
Ans : (B)

54. Which of the following countries was recently suspended from the Commonwealth ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) South Africa
(C) India
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (A)

55. Name the Indian playwright, actor and director, recipient of Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1972), Kamala Devi Award ‘71, Homi Bhabha Fellowship for creative work and Bharatiya Jnanpith Award (1999).
(A) Shekhar Kapur
(B) Amol Palekar
(C) Girish Karnad
(D) Kamal Hasan
Ans : (C)

56. Production of heat due to flow of electric current through a conductor is given by—
(A) Joule effect
(B) Joule-Thomson effect
(C) Seebeck effect
(D) Peltier effect
Ans : (A)

57. Who launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 ?
(A) Frontier Gandhi
(B) Surendranath Banerjee
(C) Woomesh Chandra Banerjee
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

58. Who is the eminent Bengali dramatist who wrote ‘Abong Indrajit’ ?
(A) Manoj Mitra
(B) Prapto Mitra
(C) Badal Sarkar
(D) Mohit Chattopadhyay
Ans : (C)

59. The Chief Minister of Kerala is—
(A) H. D. Kumaraswamy
(B) M. Karunanidhi
(C) A. K. Anthony
(D) V. S. Achuthanandan
Ans : (D)

60. What will be the final temperature when 80 calories of heat is taken out from 1 gm of water at 0°C ?
(A) – 1°C
(B) – 80°C
(C) 1°C
(D) 0°C
Ans : (D)

61. ‘Subsidiary Alliance’ system was introduced by—
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord Curzon
(C) Lord Hastings
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (D)

62. Who is the eminent Marathi screen play writer and journalist, who received the K. K. Birla Foundation’s Saraswati Samman Award for his play ‘Kanyadan’ ?
(A) Girish Karnad
(B) Vijay Tendulkar
(C) Anna Sahib Kirloskar
(D) Neelu Phule
Ans : (B)

63. Which of the following Indian Police Service Officer has recently announced voluntary retirement ?
(A) K. N. Misra
(B) Ashok Pradarshni
(C) Kiran Bedi
(D) Badal Das
Ans : (C)

64. The famous Ilbert Bill Controversy arose during the tenure of—
(A) Lord Mayo
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Dufferin
(D) Lord Ripon
Ans : (D)

65. Generally who are the members of the Gram Sabha ?
(A) All the heads of families of the respective villages
(B) All the voters in the respective villages
(C) All adult males in the villages
(D) Nominated members
Ans : (B)

66. Aqua regia is a mixture of—
(A) One part HNO3 and three parts HCl
(B) Three parts HNO3 and one part HCl
(C) One part H2SO4 and three parts HCl
(D) Three parts H2SO4 and one part HCl
Ans : (A)

67. A. C. is used in homes because—
(A) It is safe
(B) It is easily reproducible
(C) It is cheap
(D) It is economical in transmission
Ans : (D)

68. The Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded by—
(A) H. V. Derozio
(B) Rammohan Roy
(C) Debendranath Thakur
(D) Swami Vivekananda
Ans : (C)

69. The Chief Election Commissioner is—
(A) Elected by the Parliament
(B) Appointed by the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(C) Appointed by the President
(D) Nominated by the Prime Minister
Ans : (C)

70. Which dance is in the form of dance drama in Kerala and is usually performed in the open and lasts the whole night ?
(A) Mohiniattam
(B) Kathakali
(C) Ottam Thullal
(D) Kuchipudi
Ans : (B)

71. Author of the novel ‘Madame Bovary’ is—
(A) Emil Zola
(B) Flaubert
(C) Kafka
(D) Victor Hugo
Ans : (B)

72. The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by—
(A) The Governor of the State
(B) The President of India
(C) The Chief Ministers of the States
(D) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ans : (A)

73. The birthplace of which of the following English writers in Mumbai will be converted into a museum dedicated to him ?
(A) Rudyard Kipling
(B) Robert Browning
(C) Jim Corbett
(D) William Blake
Ans : (A)

74. Kuchipudi is a dance from—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (D)

75. The new Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—
(A) V. N. Kaul
(B) V. K. Joshi
(C) D. K. Sikri
(D) V. Rai
Ans : (D)

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008(Held on 11-1-2009)Political Science 

1. Which one is not the principle of Parliamentary government in a democracy ?
(A) Collective responsibility of Executive
(B) Fixed Tenure
(C) Prime Minister as Primes inter pares
(D) Judicial guarantee of Fundamental Rights
Ans : (B)

2. The Executive in Presidential form of government is powerful because—
(A) the Legislature is weak
(B) judges are appointed by the President
(C) it enjoys the fixity of tenure
(D) the procedure of impeachment is cumbersome
Ans : (C)

3. Presidential form of government is based on the principle of—
(A) accountability of Executive to Judiciary
(B) independence of the Executive
(C) separation of powers
(D) sovereignty of the Legislature
Ans : (B)

4. “Politics is struggle for power”, was said by—
(A) Morgenthau
(B) Quincy Wright
(C) Sprout
(D) Thomson
Ans : (A)

5. “Politics is concerned with the authoritative allocation of values for a society.” This definition of politics has been given by—
(A) David Easton
(B) Harold Lasswell
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (A)

6. According to Structural-Functional approach which of the following does not constitute ‘input functions’ of a political system ?
(A) Political socialisation
(B) Political development
(C) Interest aggregation
(D) Political communication
Ans : (B)

7. Who of the following is regarded as an exponent of empty liberty ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Hegel
(D) Green
Ans : (B)

8. Which one of the following books is not written by Machiavelli ?
(A) The Prince
(B) The Discourses
(C) The Art of War
(D) Behemoth
Ans : (D)

9. The view that “the State is a necessary evil”, is associated with—
(A) Individualists
(B) Anarchists
(C) Marxists
(D) Sophists
Ans : (A)

10. The philosophy that stands diametrically opposite to liberalism is—
(A) Individualism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Marxism
(D) Fascism
Ans : (C)

11. Who of the following first propounded the organic theory of State ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Plato
(C) Marx
(D) Herbert Spencer
Ans : (B)

12. Social Contract theory is based on—
(A) Nationalism
(B) Constitutionalism
(C) Individualism
(D) Socialism
Ans : (C)

13. Who of the following first used the term ‘Socialism’ ?
(A) Kropotkin
(B) Robert Owen
(C) Marx
(D) Bentham
Ans : (B)

14. Which one of the following is not an agency of public opinion ?
(A) Press
(B) Judiciary
(C) Political Party
(D) T.V. and Radio
Ans : (B)

15. The first systematic classification of government was given by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Montesquieu
Ans : (B)

16. Which one of the following functions is performed by political parties ?
(A) To render help to poor people
(B) To run hospitals
(C) To manage newspapers
(D) To assist candidates in contesting elections
Ans : (D)

17. ‘The concept of liberty’ includes—
(A) absence of unjust restraints
(B) maximum justice
(C) national liberation
(D) absence of restraints
Ans : (A)

18. The best explanation of ‘Equality’ is—
(A) identity of treatment
(B) parity of remuneration
(C) fulfilment of minimum needs
(D) abiding by rules
Ans : (C)

19. Marxian socialism is called ‘scientific socialism’, because Marx—
(A) considered personal experiences as his laboratory
(B) opposed religion and metaphysical issues
(C) rejected idealistic, vague and utopian assumptions
(D) accepted dictatorship of the proletariat
Ans : (C)

20. The Retributive Theory of Justice is based on—
(A) the principle of deterrent punishment
(B) the principle of revenge
(C) the principle that punishment should aim at reforming the criminals
(D) the principle of ‘hate the sin and not the sinner’
Ans : (B)

21. Classless society according to Marx denotes—
(A) a tribal society
(B) a casteless society
(C) a society where there is only one class–the working class
(D) a society in which all classes are in equal proportion
Ans : (C)

22. Rousseau’s ‘General Will’ means—
(A) Will of the sovereign
(B) Will of the general public
(C) Will of majority
(D) Collective good of the people
Ans : (D)

23. The Deterrent Theory of Justice is based upon the principle of—
(A) Tit for tat
(B) Severe and exemplary punishment to prevent the reoccurrence of crime
(C) That criminals should be reformed
(D) That criminals should be treated leniently
Ans : (B)

24. Theory of Political Development means—
(A) Development of the whole state
(B) Development of the consciousness amongst the people
(C) Development of the whole society through the instrumentality of the State
(D) Development of political elite
Ans : (C)

25. Divine Origin theory of the State holds that—
(A) State was created by a saint named Divine
(B) State was created by Pope
(C) State was created by God
(D) State was created by majority vote
Ans : (C)

26. Oligarchy is a system where—
(A) representatives of the common people dominate
(B) aristocratic class dominates
(C) working class dominates
(D) peasantry dominates
Ans : (B)

27. A Totalitarian State is one in which—
(A) total power of the state is vested in one person
(B) state has total power over its subjects
(C) state caters to the total needs of its subjects
(D) state has complete control over its resources
Ans : (B)

28. The characteristic which is of the ‘List System’ but not of ‘Single Transferable Vote System’ is—
(A) it is proportional representation
(B) the constituency must be multiple-member
(C) quota is calculated
(D) votes are cast to the party and not the candidate
Ans : (D)

29. The scholar who first propounded the single transferable vote system is—
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Thomas Hare
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (C)

30. The ideology of Democratic Socialism lays emphasis on—
(A) basis of society is not competition, but cooperation
(B) state is a necessary evil
(C) violent revolution
(D) class-struggle theory
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Hobbes ?
(A) Men entered into a single contract
(B) Sovereign enjoyed absolute powers
(C) Men can appoint their ruler
(D) The contract was one-sided
Ans : (C)

32. Which of the following contains the elements of the historical theory of the origin of the State ?
(A) Kinship, religion, war, political consciousness
(B) War, customs, kingship, dictates of natural law
(C) Kingship, force, mutual agreements, political leadership
(D) Blood-relations, contractual agreements, religion, anarchy
Ans : (A)

33. The basic principle of liberalism is—
(A) social justice
(B) equality
(C) individual freedom
(D) nationalism
Ans : (C)

34. Modern Individualism demands freedom for—
(A) Group
(B) Individual
(C) People
(D) Working class
Ans : (A)

35. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Bodin
(D) Machiavelli
Ans : (B)

36. Who propagated “the greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?
(A) Marxists
(B) Utilitarians
(C) Liberals
(D) Pluralists
Ans : (B)

37. Input-output model is chiefly attributed to—
(A) Peter Merkl
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) David Apter
Ans : (C)

38. What are the essential elements of the State ?
(A) Population, territory, constitution, power
(B) Population, territory, government, sovereignty
(C) Population, territory, political party, sovereignty
(D) Population, power, authority, sovereignty
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following theories of origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?
(A) Divine theory of origin of state
(B) Force theory
(C) Evolutionary theory
(D) Social contract theory
Ans : (C)

40. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Laski
(C) Austin
(D) MacIver
Ans : (A)

41. Mrs. Annie Besant was associated with—
(A) Servants of India Society
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (B)

42. Who presides over the joint session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?
(A) President of India
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Leader of Ruling Party
Ans : (B)

43. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—
(A) State has a religion of its own
(B) State has nothing to do with religion
(C) State has irreligious
(D) State tolerates religions without professing any particular religion
Ans : (D)

44. Who was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) B. N. Rao
Ans : (B)

45. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
Ans : (A)

46. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)

47. In India the power of judicial review is enjoyed by the—
(A) High Court only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Supreme Court and High Court only
(D) Parliament
Ans : (C)

48. In which part of the Indian Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare state ?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IX
(D) Part VI
Ans : (B)

49. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—
(A) Part I of the Constitution
(B) Part III of the Constitution
(C) Part IV of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

50. Which one of the following commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Shah Commission
(C) Bachhavat Commission
(D) Jain Commission
Ans : (A)

51. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Service Commission
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (C)

52. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Life
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Expression
Ans : (C)

53. Indian system is—
(A) Federal
(B) Quasi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal with unitary bias
Ans : (D)

54. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission of 1945 ?
(A) Sir Stafford Cripps
(B) A.V. Alexander
(C) Lord Pathik Lawrence
(D) C. Atlee
Ans : (D)

55. The partition of India was first hinted—
(A) at the II Round Table Conference
(B) in the Cripps Proposals
(C) in the Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) in the Mountbatten formula
Ans : (D)

56. The demand of the Swarajist Party was—
(A) Poorna Swaraj
(B) Parliamentary Institutions
(C) Dominion Status
(D) Communal Electorates
Ans : (C)

57. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Union Planning Minister
Ans : (B)

58. Mohd. Ali Jinnah propounded the ‘Two-Nation’ theory in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1928
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
Ans : (C)

59. Who among the following was not a moderate ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Feroz Shah Mehta
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (A)

60. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in India under—
(A) Morley-Minto Reforms
(B) Montford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission Plan
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (B)

61. The Simon Commission was sent to India to—
(A) study the communal problem
(B) negotiate with Gandhiji about representation of backward classes
(C) review the progress of Montford reforms
(D) report on Home Rule to the British Parliament
Ans : (C)

62. The leaders of the Khilafat movement were—
(A) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(B) Gandhi and Annie Beasant
(C) Maulana Azad and Sarojini Naidu
(D) Ali Brothers
Ans : (D)

63. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(A) Fascism—Mussolini
(B) Anarchism—Bakunin
(C) Socialism—Thomas Moore
(D) Pluralism—Kropotkin
Ans : (D)

64. The importance of Bureaucracy has greatly increased in present times on account of—
(A) the emergence of democratic state
(B) the emergence of welfare state
(C) the emergence of police state
(D) the emergence of liberal economic system
Ans : (B)

65. Freedom of Press in India is—
(A) specifically provided in the Constitution
(B) implied in the right to freedom of expression
(C) available under the Acts of Parliament
(D) available under executive orders
Ans : (B)

66. Universal Adult Franchise in India was granted by—
(A) The Act of 1919
(B) The Act of 1935
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) Constitutional Amendment in 1971
Ans : (C)

67. Representative Institutions in India were introduced for the first time by the—
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Government of India Act 1858
(C) Indian Council Act 1861
(D) Indian Council Act 1892
Ans : (D)

68. Who is the legal sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) President and Parliament
(C) Constitution of India
(D) People of India
Ans : (B)

69. Idealist theory of Rights lays emphasis on man’s—
(A) social development
(B) economic development
(C) civil development
(D) moral development
Ans : (D)

70. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birthright’ was given by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Bipin Chandra Pal
Ans : (C)

71. The partition of Bengal was annulled in—
(A) 1907
(B) 1908
(C) 1910
(D) 1911
Ans : (D)

72. Who, among the following, was the founder of Ghadar Party ?
(A) Lala Har Dayal
(B) Ram Chandra
(C) Bikaji Cama
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (A)

73. The first Satyagraha campaign of Gandhiji was started in—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Dandi
(D) Baroda
Ans : (A)

74. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of—
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Ram Krishna Mission
(D) Prarthana Samaj
Ans : (B)

75. The Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of ‘Complete Independence’ in its session held at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Bombay
Ans : (A)

76. Which what the April 13, 1919 is associated in the history of freedom struggle of India ?
(A) Start of Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Countrywide Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Adoption of pledge for complete freedom of the country
(D) Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
Ans : (D)

77. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?
(A) For the harsh attitude of British
(B) Because of pact between Congress and British
(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura
(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following is not matched properly ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi—Noncooperation Movement
(B) Vinoba Bhave—Bhoodan
(C) M.N. Roy—Partyless Democracy
(D) J.L. Nehru—Democratic Socialism
Ans : (C)

79. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?
(A) 52nd
(B) 62nd
(C) 72nd
(D) 73rd
Ans : (D)

80. In which year Madhya Pradesh State has made Panchayati Raj Act after 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1998
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? The President of India can—
(A) summon each House of Parliament
(B) address both the Houses of Parliament
(C) prorogue either House of Parliament
(D) dissolve both the Houses of Parliament
Ans : (D)

82. The Presiding Officer of the Upper House of Indian Parliament is—
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (B)

83. The Act of 1919 provided for—
(A) Annulment of Veto power of the Governor General
(B) Bicameral legislature at the centre
(C) End of communal representation
(D) Introduction of dyarchy at the centre
Ans : (B)

84. The Communal Electorate System was introduced by the British in India for the first time through—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1909
(D) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)

85. The Political Party commands absolute majority in Lok Sabha. It means—
(A) membership is more than 50%
(B) majority in membership
(C) majority support
(D) 50% membership
Ans : (A)

86. Parliament of India consists of—
(A) Legislative Assembly, Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(C) President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker, Lok Sabha, Council of State
Ans : (C)

87. The State, which elects the largest members of Lok Sabha, is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

88. The ‘Trusteeship Theory’ signifies—
(A) property as theft
(B) state ownership of means of production
(C) abolition of private property
(D) owners consider wealth ‘for society’
Ans : (D)

89. Cripps proposals is a ‘post-dated cheque’ on a failing bank. This is the view of—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajgopalachari
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)

90. The Prime Minister of India is—
(A) appointed
(B) elected
(C) nominated
(D) selected
Ans : (A)

91. In India, the Money Bill is first introduced in—
(A) the Rajya Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha
(C) simultaneously in both the Houses of Parliament
(D) the Finance Commission
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following writs literally means : ‘We command’ ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)

93. Where is the International Court of Justice situated ?
(A) The Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Ans : (A)

94. When was SAARC formally established ?
(A) December 1980
(B) August 1983
(C) December 1985
(D) July 1987
Ans : (C)

95. Who of the following gave the idea of partyless democracy ?
(A) J. L. Nehru
(B) Lenin
(C) Jayaprakash Narayana
(D) M. K. Gandhi
Ans : (C)

96. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 14
Ans : (A)

97. India began NAM in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1954
(C) 1973
(D) 1978
Ans : (A)

98. Sino-Indian war occurred in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1948
(D) 1947
Ans : (B)

99. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least—
(A) thrice each year with an interval of not more than two months between the two sessions
(B) twice each year with an interval of not more than three months between the two sessions
(C) twice each year with an interval of not more than four months between the two sessions
(D) twice each year with an interval of not more than six months between the two sessions
Ans : (D)

100. Which one the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Simon Commission, 1927
(B) Namak Satyagrah, 1930
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact, 1931
(D) Wavell Plan, 1944
Ans : (D)

101. “Law is the command of the sovereign.” It was said by—
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) W. Austin
(C) J. Bentham
(D) T. Acquinas
Ans : (B)

102. Hobbes has been called an individualist because—
(A) he permits Natural Rights to the individual
(B) he allows Right to Revolt against the sovereign
(C) his Monarch has been given absolute powers by the people
(D) his entire philosophy focuses on the security of the individual in the state
Ans : (D)

103. According to Rousseau the State of Nature has to be terminated because—
(A) Human nature was wicked
(B) Natural rights were in danger
(C) Art and culture were to be preserved
(D) Inequality created the institution of property
Ans : (D)

104. According to Karl Marx, State—
(A) is a result of surplus value
(B) is a permanent agency of exploitation of the poor
(C) is a class organisation which was to wither away
(D) is a product of social contract between rich and powerful
Ans : (C)

105. Which one of the following is a Liberal thinker ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Thomas Moore
(C) George Sorel
(D) A. R. Orage
Ans : (A)

106. A welfare state is a/an—
(A) democratic state
(B) socialist state
(C) secular state
(D) administrative state
Ans : (A)

107. “Socialism is like a hat which has lost its shape because everybody wears it.” Who said this ?
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Proudhoun
(C) C.E.M. Joad
(D) Alexander Gray
Ans : (C)

108. Guild Socialism is a half way house between—
(A) Democracy and Socialism
(B) Socialism and Marxism
(C) Collectivism and Syndicalism
(D) Marxism and State Socialism
Ans : (C)

109. A socialist state believes in giving—
(A) maximum functions to the State
(B) minimum functions to the State
(C) negative functions to the State
(D) no functions to the State
Ans : (A)

110. Proportional representation is also called as—
(A) MacDonald method
(B) Hare plan
(C) Single voting
(D) List system
Ans : (B)

111. Who was the author of ‘Arthashastra’ ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Patanjali
(D) Malthus
Ans : (A)

112. Socialism as a political philosophy is not opposed to—
(A) Capitalism
(B) Feudalism
(C) Social engineering
(D) Competition
Ans : (C)

113. Fabian socialists believe in—
(A) inevitability of gradualness
(B) non-violence for social status quo
(C) revolutionary reforms
(D) minimum consumption
Ans : (A)

114. A democratic form of government can be contrasted from a totalitarian form of government on the basis of—
(A) Constitutionalism
(B) Electoral system
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Opposition parties
Ans : (C)

115. Minorities and special interests can be best represented on democratic bodies by a system of—
(A) plural voting
(B) professional representation
(C) proportional representation
(D) separate electorates
Ans : (C)

116. The book entitled ‘Grammar of Politics’ was written by—
(A) E. Barker
(B) H. Laski
(C) H. Lasswell
(D) A. Appodari
Ans : (B)

117. Mr. H. G. Sorel was a—
(A) Guild socialist
(B) Syndicalist
(C) Fabian socialist
(D) Utopian socialist
Ans : (B)

118. “Nothing against the state, nothing beyond the state, everything within the state” was the political philosophy of—
(A) Hegel
(B) Marx
(C) Mussolini
(D) Mao
Ans : (A)

119. Marxism and Fascism agree about—
(A) the nature of state
(B) the role of religion
(C) the utility of wars
(D) the totalitarian character of government
Ans : (D)

120. The socialists consider the state as—
(A) a necessary evil
(B) an unnecessary evil
(C) a divine institution
(D) a positive good
Ans : (D)

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008
(Held on 7-1-2009)
Political Science : Solved Paper
1. Who among the following supported ‘partyless democracy’ ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse Tung
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

2. Who among the following identified democracy with corruption, machine politics and gangsterism ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Laski
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) C. W. Mills

3. Who among the following is associated with the ‘Iron Law of Oligarchy’ ?
(A) Michels
(B) Mosca
(C) Mills
(D) Laski

4. Who among the following gave the concept of ‘mass mind’ ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Mosca
(C) Michels
(D) Gassef

5. A constitutional government stands for—
(A) a limited government
(B) a government run according to the provisions of the constitution
(C) a government run according to the wishes of the rulers
(D) a government run according to the wishes of the party bosses

6. Who said, “Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains.” ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Marx

7. Which one of the following is the main feature of deliberative democracy ?
(A) Parliamentary sovereignty
(B) Executive supremacy
(C) Judicial autonomy
(D) People’s effective participation

8. Which one of the following is not a Political Right ?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to contest election
(C) Right to equality before Law
(D) Right to form a political party

9. Which one of the following is not a state ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Tibet
(D) Iraq

10. Who said, “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.” ?
(A) Engels
(B) Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Trotsky

11. Who among the following was a great supporter of the Divine Theory of Origin of the State ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Hobbes
(D) James I

12. Marx advocated the establishment of a—
(A) Classless society
(B) Stateless society
(C) Casteless society
(D) Classless and Stateless society

13. Marx propounded the theory of class struggle mainly in—
(A) The Economic and Political Manuscript
(B) The Communist Manifesto
(C) Das Capital
(D) The Poverty of Philosophy

14. Which one of the following is not a Civil Right ?
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to speech
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to hold public office

15. Who said, “Socialism in like a hat that has lost its shape, because everybody wears it.” ?
(A) Laski
(B) Joad
(C) Marx
(D) Gandhi

16. Which one of the following is regarded as a landmark event in the development of socialism ?
(A) The Glorious Revolution of 1688
(B) The French Revolution of 1789
(C) The American Declaration of Independence of 1776
(D) The Russian Revolution of 1917

17. Who said, “Means are after all everything. As the means, so the end; there is no walls of separation between means and ends.” ?
(A) Nehru
(B) Marx
(C) Tilak
(D) Gandhi

18. Who called Mahatma Gandhi ‘a half-naked fakir ?
(A) Stalin
(B) Nehru
(C) Roosevelt
(D) Churchill

19. Which one of the following is not a statement of Karl Marx ?
(A) The state will wither away
(B) There will be a classless and stateless society
(C) Capitalism digs its own grave
(D) Globalisation is another form of capitalism

20. Which of the following were the first two states to introduce the Panchayati Raj ?
(A) Rajasthan and Punjab
(B) Rajasthan and Bihar
(C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh

21. Marx borrowed Dialectical Method from—
(A) Locke
(B) Rousseau
(C) Hegal
(D) Green

22. In a parliamentary form of government, ministers are appointed by—
(A) the head of the State at his discretion
(B) the head of the government
(C) the legislature
(D) the head of the state on the recommendation of the head of the government

23. Which one of the following is an essential feature of the presidential system ?
(A) Collective responsibility
(B) Fixed term
(C) Accountability to legislature
(D) Nominal head of the state

24. The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary form of Government remain in office—
(A) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the head of the state
(B) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the voters
(C) so long as they fulfill promises made to the electorate
(D) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the popular house of the legislature

25. In a parliamentary system, the accountability of the Prime Minister to the Lower House is—
(A) direct and continuous
(B) indirect
(C) intermittent
(D) only during the sitting of the Lower Hosue

26. Bicameralism is an essential feature of—
(A) Parliamentary system
(B) Presidential system
(C) Federal system
(D) Unitary system

27. Who gave the Slogan of ‘do or die’ in 1942 ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

28. According to Lucian Pye, the elements of political development are—
(A) Participation, integration and industrialization
(B) Political unification, participation and national welfare
(C) Political unification, economic development and national welfare
(D) Equality, capacity and differentiation

29. Who among the following talked of ‘development trap’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Fred Riggs
(C) Myron Weiner
(D) Edward Shils

30. The split between the moderates and the extremists of the Indian National Congress took place at the—
(A) Surat session
(B) Delhi session
(C) Calcutta session
(D) Bombay session

31. The first President of the Indian National Congress was—
(A) A. O. Hume
(B) W. C. Banerjee
(C) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya

32. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(A) It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
(B) It abolished the Federal Court
(C) It introduced bicameralism
(D) It further extended the principle of communal representation

33. Who among the following is an acclaimed analyst of political parties ?
(A) Lasswell
(B) Laski
(C) Huntington
(D) Duverger

34. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of—
(A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

35. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Rajya Sabha alone
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Joint sitting of Parliament

36. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The President of India is elected for a term of five years
(B) He can resign his office by writing under hand addressed to the Prime Minister of India
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit
(D) He shall not be a member of any House of Parliament

37. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Lahore session of the Congress and opted a resolution of Purna Swaraj
(B) Simon Commission was appointed in 1927
(C) Dyarchy was introduced by the 1919 Act
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was elected President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946

38. Who among the following administered the Oath of Office to Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Chief Justice of Federal Court

39. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 ?
(A) It ended the British rule
(B) It provided for the partition of India
(C) It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India
(D) It abolished the office of the Governor-General

40. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The Union Ministers are appointed by the President of India
(B) They hold office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The President cannot appoint any one not recommended by the Prime Minister
(D) The Constitution provides for individual and collective responsibility of Ministers

41. There is a single Constitution for the Union and the States with the exception of—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Sikkim
(D) Jammu and Kashmir

42. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after—
(A) two years
(B) four years
(C) five years
(D) six years

43. There were two Deputy Prime Ministers during the Prime Ministership of—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V. P. Singh
(D) Chandrashekhar

44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Organisation of the High Courts —Union list
(B) Police —State list
(C) Price control —Concurrent list
(D) Stock exchange —State list

45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Article 17—Abolition of Untouchability
(B) Article 21—Protection of Life and Personal liberty
(C) Article 24—Right to elementary education
(D) Article 29—Protection of culture of minorities

46. Who among the following became the first acting President of India ?
(A) B. D. Jatti
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) M. Hidayatullah
(D) C. Rajagopalachari

47. What is the proper order of the following stages in the enactment of Budget ?
1. Voting of the demands for grants.
2. General discussion.
3. Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(B) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(C) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 3

48. Which one of the following committees does not consist of representatives of both the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

49. Which one of the following is not the jurisdiction of the High Court of a State ?
(A) Original jurisdiction
(B) Appellate jurisdiction
(C) Supervisory jurisdiction
(D) Advisory jurisdiction

50. Who among the following has been Chief Minister for the Longest period ?
(A) Bansilal
(B) N. D. Tiwari
(C) Sheikh Abdullah
(D) Jyoti Basu

51. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of a Minister towards a matter of public importance ?
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Calling attention notice
(C) Half-an-hour discussion
(D) Censure motion

52. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

53. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 45th
(D) 46th

54. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The President of India
(D) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs

55. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions suggested the creation of local Finance Commission ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission (I)
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee

56. Sarkaria Commission was set up for reviewing the relations between the—
(A) President and the Prime Minister
(B) Legislature and the Executive
(C) Executive and the Judiciary
(D) Centre and the States

57. The government of which Prime Minister had fallen in the Lok Sabha during debate for want of just one vote ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) V. P. Singh

58. The traditional view of the scope of International Politics does not include the study of—
(A) International Law
(B) International Organisations
(C) Geo-politics
(D) Political Economy

59. Who among the following uses the terms ‘International Relations’ and ‘International Politics’ interchangeably ?
(A) Hans Morgenthau
(B) John Burton
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Palmer and Perkins

60. Which one of the following is not a natural element of power ?
(A) Political parties
(B) Resources
(C) Population
(D) Geography

61. Who is the exponent of Realist Theory ?
(A) Mortan Kaplan
(B) Hans Morgenthau
(C) Martin Shubik
(D) John Burton

62. Who among the following is the exponent of Game theory ?
(A) Martin Shubik
(B) Karl Deutsch
(C) Palmer and Perkins
(D) Joseph Frankel

63. Which one of the following, according to Morgenthau, is not a vital component of national interest ?
(A) Physical identity
(B) Political identity
(C) Cultural identity
(D) Individual identity

64. Which one of the following Committees has admitted the existence of a nexus between the politicians, bureaucrats and criminals ?
(A) Vohra Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Narshimhan Committee
(D) Kripalani Committee

65. C.T.B.T. was signed in—
(A) 1994
(B) 1996
(C) 1997
(D) 1998

66. Which one of the following is not a method of peaceful settlement of disputes ?
(A) Limited arms conflict
(B) Negotiations
(C) Arbitration
(D) Mediation

67. Which one of the following is not a regional organisation ?

68. Which one of the following is not the concern of UNESCO ?
(A) Climate change
(B) Education
(C) Culture
(D) Science

69. The 14th SAARC summit was held at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Beijing
(D) Colombo

70. Who was the first Foreign Minister of India ?
(A) Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Sardar Sawarn Singh
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

71. Which one of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel ?
(A) Non-aggression
(B) Non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
(C) Peaceful co-existence
(D) Promotion of world peace

72. Which one of the following is not the objective of WTO ?
(A) Trade without discrimination
(B) Fair competition
(C) Price control
(D) Market access

73. Who among the following was elected as President of the UN General Assembly in 1953 ?
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(B) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(C) B. N. Chakravarty
(D) Krishna Menon

74. Which one of the following is not an element of Democratic Socialism ?
(A) Welfare state
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Social justice
(D) Revolutionary change

75. Who among the following initially mooted the policy of structural adjustments ?
(A) Third World Countries
(B) Developed Countries
(C) United States of America
(D) IMF and World Bank

76. Who among the following talked of ‘Political decay’ ?
(A) Huntington
(B) David Apter
(C) Organski
(D) Lucian Pye

77. A pressure group works for the welfare of—
(A) Weaker sections of the society
(B) All sections of the society
(C) Its members only
(D) Government employees

78. When did the Charter of the United Nations Organisation come into force ?
(A) 24 October, 1950
(B) 24 October, 1944
(C) 24 October, 1946
(D) 24 October, 1945

79. The oldest approach to the study of Political Science is—
(A) Historical approach
(B) Philosophical approach
(C) Legal approach
(D) Institutional approach

80. Who among the following defines politics in terms of ‘authoritative allocation of values’ ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) Laski
(C) David Easton
(D) Plato

81. “Who gets what, when and how” is the subject matter of politics.
Who among the following held the above view ?
(A) David Easton
(B) Lasswell
(C) Laski
(D) MacIver

82. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism ?
(A) Class struggle
(B) Surplus value
(C) Laissez faire
(D) Materialistic Interpretation of History

83. “The state originated for the bare needs of life and continues in existence for the sake of good life.” These are the words of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Laski
(D) Garner

84. The traditional view of politics is concerned with the study of—
(A) State and Government
(B) Organisations and Groups
(C) Ideologies
(D) Institutions

85. Who among the following is called the ‘Father of Political Science’ ?
(A) Socrates
(B) Plato
(C) Aristotle
(D) Machiavelli

86. “The state is prior to the individual.”
This was the view of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Garner
(D) MacIver

87. Who said that life in the nature of state was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Machiavelli

88. Who among the following supported positive liberty ?
(A) T. H. Green
(B) Karl Marx
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. Laski

89. Which one of the following is not a function of political parties ?
(A) Political socialization
(B) Regulation of behaviour of the people
(C) Interest articulation
(D) Interest aggregation

90. Who among the following regarded right to life, right to liberty and right to property as natural rights ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Mill

91. Who among the following defined law as “a command given by a superior to an inferior” ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Dicey
(D) Bryce

92. Who among the following held the view that equality is unnatural and undesirable ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Gandhi
(D) Laski

93. “Will, not force, is the basis of the state.” These are the words of—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegal
(C) Green
(D) Mill

94. Who among the following is an exponent of popular sovereignty ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Hobbes
(D) Rousseau

95. Austin described the theory of sovereignty in his book—
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Two Treatises on Government
(C) De Republica
(D) Grammar of Politics

96. Who among the following is the author of ‘Aspects of Political Development’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) David Easton
(C) Laski
(D) David Apter

97. According to Herbert Morrison, bureaucracy is the price of—
(A) Monarchy
(B) Federalism
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Parliamentary democracy

98. The traditional home of ‘patronage bureaucracy’ has been—
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) U.K.

99. Which one of the following is not a feature of Max Weber’s theory of bureaucracy ?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Division of work
(C) Promotion
(D) Commitment to ruler

100. Who among the following formulated the most systematic doctrine of sovereignty ?
(A) Grotius
(B) Bodin
(C) Austin
(D) Locke

Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) Right to equality before law is a civil right.
9. (C) Tibet is not a state because it does not possess the sovereignty, which is the most important attribute of state. Although, it has three other attributes of state-government, population and territory.
10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D)
13. (B) The first sentence of the Communist Manifesto, begins with “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.”
14. (D) The right to hold public office is a political right.
15. (B)
16. (D) The Russian Revolution of 1917 was organised by Lenin and was largely based on the ideas of Karl Marx. The Russian Revolution was the first successful socialist revolution in the world, which led to the establishment of the first socialist state in Russia.
17. (D) 18. (D)
19. (D) Globalisation, as a dominant tendency is a phenomenon of late 20th century. This tendency was not visible during Marx’s times.
20. (C) The Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 2nd Oct., 1959 at Nagaur, Rajasthan. Andhra Pradesh also organised Panchayati Raj in 1959 itself. This new pattern of Panchayati Raj was based on the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957.
21. (C)
22. (D) India has adopted the parliamentary form of government. In India, the President is the head of the state and the Prime Minister is the head of the government.
23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (C) Bicameralism denotes the two chambers of the legislature. In federal system, the central legislature consists of two houses. The Upper House consists of the representatives of the states.
27. (D)
28. (D) According to Lucian Pye, the political development is the result of interaction among three elements—level of equality in general political process, capacity of the political system and level of differentiation in the structures of the system.
29. (B) The concept of ‘development trap’ was given by Fred Riggs, which refers to the imbalance between the elements of equality and capacity in the process of political development.
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (B) The Government of India Act, 1935 did not abolish the Federal Court, but provided for the establishment of a Federal Court under the proposed Federation. However, the Federal part of the Act was never enforced. It should be noted that bicameralism at the central level was introduced by the Act of 1919, however, the Act of 1935 introduced bicameralism at provincial level.
33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (B) The President submits his resignation to the Vice-President and vice-versa.
37. (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly whereas, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of Constituent Assembly in 1946.
38. (C) 39. (C)
40. (D) According to Art 75(1), the Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. According to Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. However, Article 75(3) provides for the collective responsibility of the Ministers, not for their individual responsibility.
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C)
46. (B) V. V. Giri was the first acting President from 3 May, 1969 to 20 July, 1969. Thereafter the Chief Justice of Supreme Court, M. Hidayatullah became the acting President from 20 July, 1969 to 24 August, 1969.
47. (A)
48. (A) The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all from Lok Sabha.
49. (D) According to Article 143, the Advisory Jurisdiction is given to the Supreme Court.
50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A)
56. (D) The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in 1983 and it submitted its report on Centre-State relations in 1988.
57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A)
67. (D) NPT or Non-Proliferation treaty, 1968 is a nuclear disarmamemt treaty. It is not an organisation.
68. (A)
69. (A) The 14th SAARC Summit was held on 3-4 April, 2007 and 15th Summit was held on 2-3 August, 2008 at Colombo.
70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (B)
74. (D) Democratic socialism believes in peaceful methods of change. It opposes revolutionary changes and violence.
75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C) 81. (B)
82. (C) The idea of Laissez faire, the non-intervention of State is economic affairs, was given by Adam Smith. This idea is the core of negative liberalism.
83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A)
88. (A) According to Green, the Liberty is the positive power of doing or enjoying something worth doing and enjoying.
89. (B) However, it should be noted that the interest articulation is also not the function of political parties in specific sense. Almond has Stated that interest articulation is the function of pressure groups.
90. (B) 91. (B)
92. (B) Aristotle did not support the idea of equality among people. In fact, he supported the system of slavery.
93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (C)