Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. State Service (Pre.) Exam.

Geography 

(Exam Held on 11-01-2009)

1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

MPPSC Exam Solved Paper 2011

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
 
1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
(Ans) : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
(Ans) : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
(Ans) : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
(Ans) : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
(Ans) : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
(Ans) : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
(Ans) : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
(Ans) : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
(Ans) : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
(Ans) : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
(Ans) : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
(Ans) : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
(Ans) : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
(Ans) : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
(Ans) : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
(Ans) : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
(Ans) : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
(Ans) : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
(Ans) : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
(Ans) : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
(Ans) : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
(Ans) : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
(Ans) : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
(Ans) : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
(Ans) : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
(Ans) : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
(Ans) : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
(Ans) : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
(Ans) : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
(Ans) : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
(Ans) : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
(Ans) : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
(Ans) : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
(Ans) : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
(Ans) : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
(Ans) : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
(Ans) : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally me(Ans)—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
(Ans) : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
(Ans) : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
(Ans) : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
(Ans) : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
(Ans) : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
(Ans) : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
(Ans) : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
(Ans) : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
(Ans) : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
(Ans) : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
(Ans) : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
(Ans) : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
(Ans) : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
(Ans) : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
(Ans) : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
(Ans) : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
(Ans) : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
(Ans) : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
(Ans) : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(Ans) : (A)

MPPSC Exam Solved Paper 2011

Public Administration

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)

61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)

62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)

64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)

66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)

67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)

68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)

69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)

70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)

71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)

73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)

75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)

76. ‘Efficiency record’ method for determining the merit for promotion is practised in—
(A) The USA
(B) France
(C) The UK
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

77. “Officials make work for each other.” This is said by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Parkinson
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (C)

78. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration started functioning at Mussoorie from—
(A) June 12, 1959
(B) Sept. 13, 1959
(C) Sept. 1, 1959
(D) February 12, 1959
Ans : (C)

79. In the USA, the ‘spoils system’ was discarded in favour of the ‘merit principle’ by the followings Act—
(A) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(B) Pendleton Act, 1883
(C) Hatch Act, 1939
(D) Civil Service Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

80. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Ans : (C)

81. ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans : (A)

82. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Ans : (B)

83. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Ans : (D)

84. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term ‘Cabinet’ mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans : (C)

85. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Ans : (D)

86. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Ans : (D)

87. Who among the following said that, “Company form of public enterprise is a fraud on the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) Chhagla Commission
(C) Ashok Chanda
(D) Morarjee Desai
Ans : (C)

88. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Ans : (D)

89. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (C)

90. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Ans : (C)

91. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

92. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Ans : (C)

93. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Ans : (D)

94. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Ans : (C)

95. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Ans : (D)

96. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Ans : (C)

97. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Ans : (A)

98. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Ans : (B)

99. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Ans : (D)

100. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans : (B)

101. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. Who among the following is known as ‘the father of local selfgovernment’ in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (C)

103. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Ans : (C)

104. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Ans : (B)

105. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the—
(A) Union List of the VII Schedule
(B) State List of the VII Schedule
(C) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

106. Which among of the following is not considered as part of the Civil Society ?
(A) Non-Government Organisations
(B) Caste associations
(C) Legislature
(D) Family
Ans : (C)

107. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Ans : (C)

108. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state’s requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state’s tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Ans : (D)

109. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj bodies seeks to ensure—
(A) Economic welfare of women and children
(B) Gender parity in rural society
(C) Participation of women in public life
(D) Empowerment of women as an individual
Ans : (C)

110. Mayor-in-Council form of government means—
(A) Cabinet form of government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of government at the municipal level
(C) Making Mayor unaccountable to his colleagues
(D) Presidential form of government at the municipal level
Ans : (A)

111. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Ans : (C)

112. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by—
(A) District Board
(B) State Legislature
(C) Governor
(D) Municipal Council
Ans : (B)

113. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

114. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct about civil society organisations ?
(A) They are sovereign bodies
(B) They are voluntary but nonprofit-making agencies
(C) They work in close proximity with people
(D) They create awareness; educate and sensitise people on common issues and act as catalysts of social change
Ans : (A)

116. The ‘Recall’ provision to remove the elected office-bearers from the local self-government institution has been executed in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

117. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Ans : (C)

118. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

119. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Ans : (A)

120. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Ans : (D)

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

Indian History
(Exam Held on 20-2-2011)

1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in—
(A) Sindh Province of Pakistan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Afghanistan
Ans : (A)

3. Which deity was not worshipped by the Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Indra
(B) Marut
(C) Varun
(D) Pashupati
Ans : (D)

4. The Vedanga consists of the—
(A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
(D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
Ans : (A)

5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is—
(A) Pattinappalai
(B) Tirumurugarruppadai
(C) Maduraikanchi
(D) Tolkappiyam
Ans : (D)


6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan—
(A) Kalams
(B) Bhaggas
(C) Lichhivis
(D) Bulis
Ans : (C)

7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as—
(A) Bhagwatisutra
(B) Uvasagadasao
(C) Adi Purana
(D) Kalpasutra
Ans : (D)

8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)

9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was—
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Parshwanath
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Nagarjuna
Ans : (D)

10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in—
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Vinayapitaka
(C) Abhidhammapitaka
(D) Suttapitaka
Ans : (B)

11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganga
Ans : (C)

12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was—
(A) Cyrus
(B) Darius I
(C) Cambyses
(D) Xerxes
Ans : (B)

13. Alexander remained in India for—
(A) 29 months
(B) 39 months
(C) 19 months
(D) 10 months
Ans : (C)

14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern—
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Lahore
(C) Multan
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (A)

15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed
(B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers
(C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara
(D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara
Ans : (D)

16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to—
(A) in the Nirukta of Yaska
(B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was—
(A) Perundevanar
(B) Kamban
(C) Sundaramurthi
(D) Bharavi
Ans : (A)

18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ?
(A) Lumbini Pillar edict
(B) Sarnath Pillar edict
(C) Girnar Rock edict
(D) Sanchi Pillar edict
Ans : (A)

19. Who of the following was not a patron of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Kharvela
(C) Kanishka
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans : (A)

20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Deimachus
(D) Antiochus I
Ans : (C)

21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of—
(A) Rajukas
(B) Pradeshikas
(C) Yuktas
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

22. The last king of Mauryan empire was—
(A) Devavarman
(B) Brihadrath
(C) Kunala
(D) Shalishuk
Ans : (B)

23. The historian Kalhan was—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Brahmin
(C) Jain
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was—
(A) Shatkarni I
(B) Simuka
(C) Shatkarni II
(D) Rudradaman I
Ans : (B)

25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as—
(A) Kadphises I
(B) Kadphises II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Vasishka
Ans : (B)

26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was—
(A) Simuka
(B) Panini
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (C)

27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was—
(A) Dattamitra
(B) Gudadhya
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Sarvavarman
Ans : (B)

28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to—
(A) China
(B) Kashmir
(C) Ceylon
(D) Gandhar
Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ?
(A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka
(B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka
(C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha
(D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha
Ans : (D)

30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ?
(A) An office
(B) A luxury item
(C) A coin
(D) A port
Ans : (C)

31. Which port was known to the author of “Periplus of the Erithrian Sea” as Padouke ?
(A) Tamralipti
(B) Arikmedu
(C) Broach
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)

32 Chandragupta-II married his daughter Prabhavati to—
(A) Rudrasena-I
(B) Rudrasena-II
(C) Agnimitra
(D) Nagsena
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following law givers of the post-Gupta period declared that Sudras were not slaves by nature ?
(A) Medhatithi
(B) Vigynaeshwar
(C) Narad
(D) Jimutwahan
Ans : (A)

34. Who was the founder of Gahadwala dynasty who made Kannauj the main centre of his power ?
(A) Jaichandra
(B) Vijaychandra
(C) Chandradev
(D) Govind
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the following Rashtrakut kings defeated the Pratihar ruler Nagabhatta I ?
(A) Indra II
(B) Krishna III
(C) Amoghvarsha I
(D) Govind III
Ans : (D)

36. Who among the following rulers patronized Jayadev, the composer of ‘Geetgovinda’ ?
(A) Laxman Sen
(B) Kharvel
(C) Kumarpala
(D) Shashank
Ans : (A)

37. Who out of the following ousted Jainism from Mysore ?
(A) Naynars
(B) Lingayats
(C) Alwars
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans : (D)

38. Which was the word used for the royal military troops of the Cholas ?
(A) Kattupaddi
(B) Kaikkolar
(C) Bhrtaka
(D) Kadgham
Ans : (B)

39. The Chola rulers undertook extensive land survey to ascertain—
(A) Right of ownership
(B) Government’s share of revenue
(C) Production of grains
(D) Limit of the sources of irrigation
Ans : (B)

40. Which of the following taxes of Chola period was for educational purpose ?
(A) Devadana
(B) Salabhoga
(C) Brahmadeva
(D) Sarvamanya
Ans : (A)

41. The writer of Tabqat-i-Nasiri was—
(A) Barani
(B) Nizamuddin
(C) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(D) Isami
Ans : (C)

42. The following works were written by Ziauddin Barani—
(A) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Qiranussadain
(B) Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Ashiqa
(C) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(D) Futuhus-salatin and Tarikhi-Firozshahi
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following books were written by Amir Khusro ?
(A) Ashiqa, Qiranussadain, Khazain-ul-Futuh
(B) Qiranussadain, Ashiqa, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi
(C) Khazainul Futuh, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Ashiqa
(D) Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Nuh-i-Siphr, Ashiqa
Ans : (A)

44. Who wrote ‘Qanun-i-Humayuni’ ?
(A) Gulbadan Begum
(B) Yahya
(C) Khwandmir
(D) Nizamuddin
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following books was written by Ishwardas Nagar ?
(A) Futuhat-i-Alamgiri
(B) Bir Binod
(C) Chhatra Prakash
(D) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri
Ans : (A)

46. With whom of the following Muhammad Ghori aligned against Khusrau Shah ?
(A) King of Gujarat
(B) King of Multan
(C) King of Peshawar
(D) King of Jammu
Ans : (D)

47. At the time of Muhammad Ghori’s invasion against Prithviraj Chauhan who of the following ruled Kannauj ?
(A) The Chandellas
(B) The Pratihars
(C) The Palas
(D) The Gahadwalas
Ans : (D)

48. Who of the following contested with Qutubuddin Aibak for Punjab ?
(A) Ikhtiyaruddin
(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz
(C) Nasiruddin Qubacha
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Who were the Nav Musalmans of the following ?
(A) Descendants of Mongols who settled near Delhi and embraced Islam
(B) Hindu converts to Islam
(C) Khalji Sultans
(D) Ilbari Sultans
Ans : (A)

50. Who was appointed as ambassador to China during the time of Mohammad bin Tughlaq ?
(A) Barbosa
(B) Barani
(C) Ibn Batutah
(D) Abdur Razzak
Ans : (C)

51. Bahlul Lodi’s significant achievement was the successful war against the underwritten kingdom of—
(A) Mewat
(B) Jaunpur
(C) Chandwar
(D) Sambhal
Ans : (B)

52. Rulers of which kingdom built Atala Masjid and Lal Darwaza Masjid ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Khandesh
(C) Malwa
(D) Jaunpur
Ans : (D)

53. Rai Bharmal wrote on Muslim Literary traditions in the following language—
(A) Persian
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Arabic
(D) Turkish
Ans : (A)

54. ‘Chaitanya Charitamrita’ was authored by—
(A) Wasweshwara
(B) Madhav
(C) Ramanand
(D) Krishnadas Kaviraj
Ans : (D)

55. Who succeeded Nizamuddin Aulia ?
(A) Sheikh Farid
(B) Sheikh Nasiruddin Chiraghi-Delhi
(C) Sheikh Salim Chishti
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

56. Raidas, Sena and Kabir were the followers of—
(A) Namdeo
(B) Ramanuj
(C) Vallabhacharya
(D) Ramanand
Ans : (D)

57. When was Vijayanagar visited by Abdurrajjak ?
(A) 1443
(B) 1433
(C) 1423
(D) 1427
Ans : (A)

58. Tuluva dynasty was founded by—
(A) Narasa Nasyaka
(B) Immadi Narsimha
(C) Vir Narsimha
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

59. Who founded the independent Bahamani kingdom in South India ?
(A) Abu Muzaffar Alauddin Bahmanshah
(B) Mujahid Shah
(C) Muhammad Shah I
(D) Adil Shah
Ans : (A)

60. Who founded the independent Muslim kingdom of Malwa ?
(A) Hoshangshah
(B) Mahmudshah
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) Dilawarkhan
Ans : (D)

61. Babur had three wives. Which one of the following was not his wife ?
(A) Maham
(B) Gulrus
(C) Gulbadan
(D) Dilbar
Ans : (C)

62. Who was Mehdi Khwaza ?
(A) Ruler of Bihar
(B) Prime Minister of Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Brother-in-law of Humayun
(D) Brother of Babur
Ans : (C)

63. Humayun ascended the throne at Agra on—
(A) 7th January 1530
(B) 29th December 1530
(C) 23rd September 1530
(D) 16th February 1530
Ans : (B)

64. Which of the following statements is true of the Sher Shah Suri ?
(A) He was a fanatic Muslim
(B) He was a staunch Muslim but not a fanatic
(C) He was a staunch Muslim and ill-treated Hindus
(D) He was intolerant towards other religions
Ans : (B)

65. Which out of the following was not one of the purposes of ‘Sarais’ built during Sher Shah ?
(A) Post-house
(B) For travellers
(C) For officers
(D) Warehouse for arms and ammunition
Ans : (D)

66. Who was not appointed as Vazir during Akbar’s reign ?
(A) Bahadurkhan Uzbeg
(B) Shamsuddin Atkakhan
(C) Todarmal
(D) Nizamuddin Khalifa
Ans : (A)

67. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(A) Akbar—Ralph Fich
(B) Darashikoh—Manucci
(C) Jahangir—Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Shah Jahan—Jourdon
Ans : (D)

68. Which of the following statements is true of Akbar’s policy towards the Hindus ?
(A) He abolished the pilgrim tax but not the Jaziya
(B) He abolished the Jaziya, but not the pilgrim tax
(C) He abolished both the Jaziya and the pilgrim tax
(D) He neither abolished the pilgrim tax nor the Jaziya
Ans : (C)

69 Who was the author of ‘Nuskhai-Dilkusha’ ?
(A) Khafi Khan
(B) Murshidkuli Khan
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Bhimsen Burhanpuri
Ans : (D)

70. Guru Govind Singh was killed in 1708 at—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Keeratpur
(C) Nanded
(D) Anandpur
Ans : (C)

71. Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdusamad were the court painter during the time of—
(A) Humayun, Akbar
(B) Akbar, Jahangir
(C) Jahangir, Shah Jahan
(D) Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following elements was not found in Akbar’s architecture ?
(A) Use of red sandstone
(B) Hindu elements
(C) Foliated arches
(D) Charbagh surrounding the tombs
Ans : (C)

73. Who composed ‘Ganga Lahri’ ?
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Surdas
(C) Panditraj Jagannath
(D) Haridasa
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following was not a silver coin during Akbar ?
(A) Jalal
(B) Dam
(C) Darab
(D) Pandau
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following revolts had agrarian causes at its root ?
(A) Rajput revolt
(B) Satnami and Jat revolt
(C) Sikh revolt
(D) Maratha revolt
Ans : (B)

76. From whom Shahji received the jagir of Poona ?
(A) Mughals
(B) Adilshah
(C) Nizamshahi
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (B)

77. What is ‘Mokasa’ ?
(A) Jagir
(B) Religious practice
(C) Cavalry
(D) Religious endowment
Ans : (A)

78. Who was not alive at the time of Shivaji’s Coronation ?
(A) Ganga Bhatt
(B) Tukaram
(C) Ramdas
(D) Dadaji Konddeva
Ans : (D)

79. Which of the following Peshwas is connected with the treaty of Sagola ?
(A) Balaji Bajirao
(B) Balaji Vishwanath
(C) Bajirao I
(D) Bajirao II
Ans : (A)

80. In which year Ahilyabai Holkar breathed her last ?
(A) 1792
(B) 1793
(C) 1794
(D) 1795
Ans : (D)

81. The French East India Company was formed in—
(A) 1664 AD
(B) 1660 AD
(C) 1656 AD
(D) 1680 AD
Ans : (A)

82. La Bourdonnais was the Governor of—
(A) Madras
(B) Pondicherry
(C) Mauritius
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

83. Mir Kasim removed his court from Calcutta to—
(A) Patna
(B) Dacca
(C) Monghir
(D) Purnea
Ans : (C)

84. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between—
(A) English and the French
(B) English and the Marathas
(C) English and the Nawab of Carnatic
(D) English and Hyderali
Ans : (A)

85. At the battle of Biddera the English crushed the power of—
(A) French
(B) Dutch
(C) Portuguese
(D) Danes
Ans : (B)

86. The Treaty of Surat was concluded by the British with the following Maratha chief—
(A) Narayan Rao
(B) Madhav Rao
(C) Nana Phadnvis
(D) Raghoba
Ans : (D)

87. The triple alliance against Tipu was formed by Cornwallis consisted of the following—
(A) The English, Nizam and the Marathas
(B) The English, Nizam and Awadh
(C) The English, Nizam and Carnatic
(D) The English, Marathas and Carnatic
Ans : (A)

88. In the Second Sikh War the decisive battle was fought at—
(A) Chilianwala
(B) Peshawar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Multan
Ans : (C)

89. In the Third Maratha War, the English defeated Peshwa Bajirao II at—
(A) Mahidpur
(B) Sitabuldi
(C) Kirki
(D) Bassein
Ans : (D)

90. The Treaty of Shrirangpattam took place in—
(A) 1791
(B) 1792
(C) 1793
(D) 1794
Ans : (D)

91. Which of the following states was not annexed to British Empire by Dalhousie under the doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Baghat
(B) Nagpur
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Benaras
Ans : (D)

92. Which one of the following rebellions is associated with Sidhu and Kanhu ?
(A) Munda Rebellion
(B) Kole Rebellion
(C) Santhal Rebellion
(D) Bhil Rebellion
Ans : (C)

93. The following officer was connected with the suppression of Thugee—
(A) Hastings
(B) Sleeman
(C) Bentinck
(D) Aukland
Ans : (C)

94. Which of the following British Officers was not in favour of annexation of Awadh ?
(A) Outram
(B) Napier
(C) Hugh Rose
(D) Sleeman
Ans : (D)

95. Charles Metcalf was the Governor General of India during—
(A) 1835-36
(B) 1839-40
(C) 1837-38
(D) 1832-33
Ans : (A)

96. Sindh was invaded during the following Governor General’s time—
(A) Lord Aukland
(B) Lord Ellenborough
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans : (B)

97. The Second Burmese War was fought in the year—
(A) 1849
(B) 1850
(C) 1851
(D) 1852
Ans : (B)

98. Which one of the following Acts abolished the trading rights of the East India Company ?
(A) Regulating Act of 1773
(B) Charter Act of 1813
(C) Charter Act of 1833
(D) Charter Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ryotwari Settlement : Madras
(B) Talukdari Settlement : Bombay
(C) Permanent Settlement : Bengal
(D) Mahalwari Settlement : North-Western Province
Ans : (B)

100. The gradual increase in rural indebtedness in India under the British rule was due to—
1. Fragmentation of Landholdings
2. Decline of cottage industries
3. Lack of development of irrigational facilities
4. Introduction of cash crops Which of these are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

101. At Lucknow the revolt of 1857 broke out on—
(A) May 30, 1857
(B) June 4, 1857
(C) May 15, 1857
(D) June 15, 1857
Ans : (B)

102. The Asiatic Society of Bengal in Calcutta was founded by—
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Sir Williams Jones
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Keshabchandra Sen
Ans : (B)

103. The Theosophical Society allied itself to the—
(A) Christian revival movement
(B) Islamic revival movement
(C) Hindu revival movement
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

104. Which of the following statements about the Ramakrishna Mission is wrong ?
(A) It held the pure Vedantic doctrine as its ideal
(B) It aimed at the development of the highest spirituality in man
(C) It prohibited the worship of images
(D) It recognised modern developments in Science and Technology
Ans : (C)

105. Fifth Session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1889 at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Madras
(C) Bombay
(D) Dacca
Ans : (C)

106. The moderates and extremists were united in the Congress Session of—
(A) Lahore
(B) Bombay
(C) Allahabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

107. Who among the following was not in Khilafat Committee ?
(A) Majhar ul Haq
(B) Hasrat Mohani
(C) Maulana Shauqat Ali
(D) Hakim Azmalkhan
Ans : (A)

108. Who among the following was the president of All India Trade Union Congress in 1929 ?
(A) M. N. Roy
(B) N. M. Joshi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans : (B)

109. Swaraj Party was formed by—
(A) C. R. Das
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

110. ‘Lucknow Pact’ was concluded between—
(A) Congress and the British Government
(B) Muslim League and the British Government
(C) Congress and the Muslim League
(D) Congress, the Muslim League and the British Government
Ans : (C)

111. An All Party Conference appointed a sub-committee with Ali Imam, Tejbahadur Sapru and Subhash Bose. Who was presiding this subcommittee ?
(A) Maulana Azad
(B) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(C) Madan Mohan Malviya
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

112. Who among the following participated in all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil : Second Lahore Conspiracy Case
(B) Surya Sen : Chatgaon Case
(C) Bhagat Singh : Kakori Conspiracy Case
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad : Delhi Bomb Case
Ans : (B)

114. When were the Congress Governments formed in seven out of eleven provinces ?
(A) July 1935
(B) July 1936
(C) July 1937
(D) July 1938
Ans : (C)

115. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chelmsford : Rowlatt Act
(B) Lord Reading : Delhi Darbar
(C) Lord Willington : Arriving of Prince of Wales in India
(D) Lord Hardinge : II Round Table Conference
Ans : (A)

116. Subhash Chandra Bose inaugurated the government of Free India at—
(A) Burma
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

117. In December 1931 two school girl students killed the District Judge in Komilla by shooting—
(A) Suniti Choudhary and Bina Das
(B) Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Choudhary
(C) Bina Das and Kalpana Datta
(D) Kalpana Datta and Shanti Ghosh
Ans : (B)

118. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chuar Revolt : Orissa
(B) Sanyasi Revolt : Bihar
(C) Parlakhemundi Revolt : Orissa
(D) Rampa Revolt : Karnatak
Ans : (B)

119. The following countries undertook the responsibility of organising the Bandung Conference—
(A) Indonesia, Burma, Cambodia
(B) India, Burma, Indonesia
(C) Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Cambodia
(D) China, Japan, Thailand
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution declares it is a primary duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the “Improvement of the Public Health” ?
(A) Article 46
(B) Article 47
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 49
Ans : (B)

MADHYA PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION PRELIMINARY EXAM SOLVED PAPER

(Exam  Held on 20-2-2011)

1. How many days will picture message stay in private inbox ?
(A) 28 Days
(B) 30 Days
(C) 15 Days
(D) 7Days
2. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time ?  
(A) Cache memory
(B) Magnetic bubble memory
(C) Magnetic core memory
(D) Random access memory
3. 'Microsoft Word' is an example  of-  
(A) An operation system
(B) An input device
(C) A processing device
(D) Application software
4. What do you understand by hacking?  
(A) Searching
(B) Security
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
5. Size of virtual memory depends  on-  
(A) Address lines
(B) Database
(C) Disc space
(D) All of these
6. Which of the following is not a search engine?  
(A) Google
(B) Altavista
(C) Science direct
(D) Orkut
7. ........ .is the process of carrying out commands.  
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Decoding
(D) Executing
8. What can we send through video  mail?  
(A) Graphics
(B) Video clips
(C) Video messages
(D) All of these
9. Which of the following temples is not located at Khajuraho ?
(A) Kandaria Mahadev
(B) Chaunsatha Yogini
(C) Dashavatar
(D) Chitragupta
10. Alha-Udal belonged to­
(A) Chanderi
(B) Vidisha
(C) Mahoba
(D) Panna
11. Find the next letter of the following series- J, F, M, A, M, J, J .
(A) J
(B) A 
(C) S
(D) 0
12. Who built Gujari Mahal ?
(A) Suraj Sen
(B) Man Singh
(C) Tej Karan
(D) Akbar
13. Where is Tansen's Tomb loca­ted?
(A) Gwalior
(B) Shivpuri
(C) Bhopal
(D) Agra
14. Which leader of Madhya Pradesh became the Defence Minister first and later Home Minister in Nehru's Cabinet?
(A) Prakash Chandra Sethi
(B) Ravi Shankar Shukla
(C) Kailash Nath Katju
(D) Dwarka Nath Mishra
15. In 1956, which part of Madhya Pradesh was merged in Maha­rashtra?
(A) Malwa
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Vidarbha
(D) Chanderi
16. Which tourist spot of Madhya Pradesh is most popular for foreign tourists?
(A) Sanchi
(B) Datia
(C) Orchha
(D) Khajuraho
17. Which dynasty gave India its famous temples of Khajuraho ?
(A} Parmaras
(B) Mauryas
(C) Chandelas
(D) Holkars
18. What is the full form of e-mail?
(A) Electronic mail
(B) Electric mail
(C) Electromagnetic mail
(D) None of these
19. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is a-
(A) Member of Lok Sabha from Punjab
(B) Member of Rajya Sabha from Punjab
(C) Member of Rajya Sabha from Rajasthan
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha from Assam
20. How much percentage of votes did the Republican candidate get in Presidential elections in America held in 2008 ?
(A) 52 per cent
(B) 50·5 per cent
(C) 47 per cent
(D) 51 per cent
21. Saina Nehwal played-
(A) Badminton quarter final in Beijing Olympics
(B) Semi-final in Beijing Olymp­ics
(C) All Women Badminton final
(D) All Women Tennis final
22. How many ways in which a batsman can get out in cricket?
(A) 5
(B) 6 
(C) 8
(D) 10
23. Jeev Milkha Singh is a­
(A) Chess Player
(B) Golf Player
(C) Grand Prix Racer
(D) Racer
24 Present Chairman of Rajya Sabha is-
(A) Meera Kumar
(B) N azma Heptullah
(C) Hamid Ansari
(D) Pratibha Patil
25. How many test wickets has Anil Kumble taken?
(A) 618
(C) 620
(B) 619
(D) 621
26. For how many years did Gandhiji live in South Africa?
(A) 20 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 16 years
(D) 15 years
27. How much population of Madhya Pradesh lives below poverty line ?
(A) 36·5 per cent
(B) 37·5 per cent
(C) 38·5 per cent
(D) 40 per cent
28. Geologically Madhya Pradesh is a part of-
(A) Vindhyan Rocks
(B) Gondwanaland
(C) Deccan Trap
(D) None of these
29. Cotton Research Centre of M. P. is situated in-
(A) Khandwa
(B) Khargone
(C) Jabalpur
(D) Indore
30. The highest temperature on the earth is recorded at-
(A) Equator
(B) 10° North Latitude
(C) 20° North Latitude
(D) 25° North Latitude
31. Summer Solstice falls every year on-
(A) 23rd September
(B) 21st March
(C) 4th July
(D) 21st June
32. Planet Saturn is-
(A) Cooler than Pluto
(B) Cooler than Neptune
(C) Hotter than Neptune
(D) Hotter than Jupiter
33. What is the distance of earth from the sun ?
(A) 107·7 million mln
(B) 142·7 million mln
(C) 146·6 million mln
(D) 14% million mln
34. What is the number of oceans on the earth?
(A) 5
(C) 7
(B) 6
(D) None of these
35. India is in size-
(A) Fifth largest cotmtry of the world
(B) Sixth largest conntry of the world
(C) Seventh largest country of the world
(D) None of the above
36. Which acid substan,ce is fonnd in Vinegar ?
(A) Lactic Acid
(B) Citric Acid
(C) Maleic Acid
(D) Acetic Acid
37. What is the pH value of human blood?
(A) 7·36 to 7·42
(B) 8·36 to 8·42
(C) 6·36 to 6·42
(D) None of these
38. Who discovered penicillin?
(A) Alexander Graham Bell
(B) Alexander Fleming
(C) Christofer McDonald
(D) Albert Einstein
39. Who signed Indo-US nuclear deal in 2008 from Indian side?
(A) Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
(B) President Pratibha Patil
(C) Foreign Minister Pranab Mukharjee
(D) Committee for Nuclear deals
40. In which event Abhinav Bindra won gold medal ?
(A) Blank Aim Shooting
(B) Air Rifle Shooting
(C) Heavy Rifle Shooting
(D) Pistol Shooting
41. Total length of Narmada river in Madhya Pradesh is-
(A) 1077 kIn
(B) 1071 kIn
(C) 1075 kIn
(D) 1072 kIn
42. Who is Pushpa Kamal Oahal 'Prachanda' ?
(A) Hindi Poet
(B) Revolutionary thinker
(C) Nepalese Prime Minister
(D) None of these
43. Who won bronze medal in Bei­jing Olympics 2008 Wrestling?
(A) Akhil Kumar
(B) Susheel Kumar 
(C) JoginderSingh
(D) Vijay Singh
44. Who is Mahinda Rajapaksa ?
(A) Sri Lankan Ambassador in India
(B) Sri Lankan Foreign Minister
(C) Sri Lankan Army Chief
(D) Sri Lankan President
45. On which date did Chandrayaan enter the lunar orbit?
(A) 3 November
(B) 6 November
(C) 8 November
(D) None of these
46. What is lithotrypsi ?
(A) Art of writing on stones
(B) Breaking of kidney stone through rays
(C) Carbon dating of stones
(D) Trimming stones for household use
47. Word 'blog' is combination of two words-
(A) Web-log
(B) Wave-log
(C) Web-blog
(D) Wed-lock
48. What is the name of NASA vehicle on Mars ?
(A) Phoenix
(B) Roger
(C) Florida
(D) John Canady
49. What is fever?
(A) Inflammation of skin
(B) Inflammation of blood platelets
(C) Pain
(D) Inflammation of blood cells
50. Whom did Vishwanathan Anand defeat to become World Champion in 2010 ?
(A) Gary Kasparov
(B) Gary Karpov
(C) Veselin Topalow
(D) Anatoli Kaspov

Answer: 

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (C) ,33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (C) 

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Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. State Service (Pre.) Exam 2008 Solved Paper

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. State Service (Pre.) Exam.(Held on 11-1-2009)
General Studies 

1. India was part of an ancient super continent called Gondwanaland. It included present day—
(A) South America
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

2. Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges ?
(A) Malwa plateau
(B) Chhota Nagpur plateau
(C) Deccan plateau
(D) Peninsular plateau
Ans : (A)

3. Which state of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Meghalaya
(C) West Bengal
(D) Sikkim
Ans : (D)

4. The leading state in wheat production in India is—
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)

5. Which state is the largest producer of tobacco in India ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (B)

6. One horned rhinoceros is found in the following states—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura
(B) West Bengal and Assam
(C) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
(D) West Bengal and Tripura
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following is different from the remaining three ?
(A) Haematite
(B) Magnetite
(C) Limonite
(D) Bauxite
Ans : (D)

8. States with the highest and lowest density of population in India are respectively—
(A) Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh
(B) West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim
(D) West Bengal and Sikkim
Ans : (B)

9. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Hirakud Project
(b) Haldia Refinery
(c) Tarapur Nuclear Station
(d) Kudremukh Hills
1. West Bengal
2. Orissa
3. Karnataka
4. Maharashtra
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (C)

10. Arrange the following in decreasing order of size and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Jupiter
2. Uranus
3. Earth
4. Saturn
Codes :
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2
(B) 4, 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (C)

11. Arrange the following from west to east and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. London
2. Lisbon
3. Frankfurt
4. Beirut
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3
Ans : (B)

12. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Kenya
(b) Uganda
(c) Uzbekistan
(d) Ukraine
1. Tashkent
2. Nairobi
3. Kiev
4. Kampala
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (B)

13. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha as stipulated in the Constitution of India is—
(A) 547
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following political parties is not a national party as recognized by the Election Commission of India ?
(A) Nationalist Congress Party
(B) Bahujan Samaj Party
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) Samajwadi Party
Ans : (D)

15. Consider the following statements with respect to qualification to become the member of Rajya Sabha and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. should be at least 30 years of age
2. should be registered as a voter on the list of voters in the state from which the candidate is to be elected
3. should not hold office of profit under the state
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : (*)

16. The 44th Amendment in the Constitution of India removed the following right from the category of Fundamental Right—
(A) Freedom of speech
(B) Constitutional remedies
(C) Property
(D) Freedom of religion
Ans : (C)

17. Which among the following sectors contributes most to the GDP of India ?
(A) Primary sector
(B) Secondary sector
(C) Tertiary sector
(D) All three contribute equally
Ans : (C)

18. Which is the final authority in India to approve Five Year Plans ?
(A) Union Council of Ministers
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. Who is called the pioneer of liberalization of Indian Economy ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(C) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(D) P. Chidambaram
Ans : (A)

20. Green Index has been developed by—
(A) World Bank’s environmentally and socially sustainable development division
(B) United Nations environment programme
(C) United Nations development programme
(D) Kyoto Protocol
Ans : (B)

21. Public Distribution System is aimed at—
(A) Providing food security to the poor
(B) To prevent hoarding and black-marketing
(C) To prevent overcharging by traders
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

22. Who among the following released “Citizens guide to fight corruption” ?
(A) Ministry of Family Welfare
(B) Consumer Co-operative Societies
(C) Central Vigilance Commission
(D) Transparency International
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following is not included in Human Development Index ?
(A) Life Expectary
(B) Real per Capita Income
(C) Social Inequality
(D) Adult Literacy
Ans : (C)

24. Bharat Nirman includes (select the correct answer from the codes given below)—
1. Bring an additional one crore hectares under assured irrigation
2. To provide road connectivity to all villages that have a population of 2000
3. To give telephone connectivity to the remaining villages
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

25. What is the size of the eleventh five year plan of India ?
(A) Rs. 3,64,471 crore
(B) Rs. 36,447 crore
(C) Rs. 36,44,718 crore
(D) Rs. 3,64,47,185 crore
Ans : (C)

26. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. In Beijing Olympics, Abhinav Bindra won gold medal in 10 metres rifle shooting.
2. In Beijing Olympics, Sushil Kumar won bronze medal in fly weight boxing.
Codes :
(A) 1 is correct
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. When did India last win a hockey gold medal at the Olympics ?
(A) 1964 Tokyo
(B) 1972 Munich
(C) 1976 Montreal
(D) 1980 Moscow
Ans : (D)

28. This great hockey player was the prolific goal scorer (24 goals approximately) in 1932 and 1936 Olympics. There was demand in the media to celebrate his birth centenary on 8th September 2008. He spent his later life in Gwalior. Identify him‚
(A) Dhyan Chand
(B) Captain Roop Singh
(C) Gurmeet Singh
(D) A.I.S. Dara
Ans : (A)

29. Virendra Sehwag scored his second triple century in the test cricket. He became only the third player in the history to do so. The other two are—
(A) Brian Lara and Gary Sobers
(B) Donald Bradman and Wally Hammond
(C) Gary Sobers and Wally Hammond
(D) Donald Bradman and Brian Lara
Ans : (D)

30. Who among the following won the Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award last year (2008) ?
(A) M.S. Dhoni
(B) Vishwanathan Anand
(C) Abhinav Bindra
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
Ans : (A)

31. Consider the following statements with reference to Beijing Olympics and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Michael Phelps won eight gold medals.
2. Usain Bolt became the fastest man by winning 100 m and 200 m races.
3. Roger Federer won gold medal in Men’s Singles Tennis.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : (A)

32. Who won the ONGC-IBSF World Billiards Championship in September 2008 at Bangaluru ?
(A) Pankaj Advani
(B) Geet Sethi
(C) Rupesh Shah
(D) Peter Gilchrist
Ans : (A)

33. Who won the mixed doubles at US Open 2008 ?
(A) Leander Paes—Cara Black
(B) Leander Paes—Lisa Raymond
(C) Mahesh Bhupathi—Martina Hingis
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi—Mary Pierce
Ans : (A)

34. Madhya Pradesh won record number of medals in the 33rd National Games at Guwahati in 2007. In which game did Madhya Pradesh win maximum gold medals ?
(A) Karate
(B) Wushu
(C) Shooting
(D) Athletics
Ans : (A)

35. Which among the following awards is given to sportspersons by the Government of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Vikram Award
(C) Dronacharya Award
(D) Khel Ratna Award
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following is not a style of swimming ?
(A) Free-style
(B) Back stroke
(C) Front stroke
(D) Butterfly
Ans : (C)

37. Who won the AFC Challenge Cup Football Championship in August 2008 ?
(A) India
(B) Tajikistan
(C) Turkmenistan
(D) DPR Korea
Ans : (A)

38. Who is the first Indian woman chess player to cross 2600 ELO rating ?
(A) Koneru Humpy
(B) Tania Sachdev
(C) P. Harika
(D) S. Vijay Laxmi
Ans : (A)

39. Where was 2nd All Star Asian Athletics Championship organized in September 2008 ?
(A) Pune
(B) Bangaluru
(C) Indore
(D) Bhopal
Ans : (D)

40. Who among the following cricketers from Madhya Pradesh has not played for India in a test match ?
(A) Narendra Hirwani
(B) Amay Khurasiya
(C) Mushtaq Ali
(D) Rajesh Chauhan
Ans : (B)

41. Two new districts were formed in Madhya Pradesh in the year 2008. Identify—
(A) Alirajpur and Burhanpur
(B) Burhanpur and Anooppur
(C) Singrauli and Anooppur
(D) Singrauli and Alirajpur
Ans : (D)

42. Which of the following cities is closest to IST (Indian Standard Time) meridian ?
(A) Rewa
(B) Sagar
(C) Ujjain
(D) Hoshangabad
Ans : (A)

43. Which of the following national highways has the longest length in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) NH-3 Agra-Gwalior-Dewas-Bombay (Mumbai)
(B) NH-7 Varanasi-Rewa-Jabalpur-Salem
(C) NH-12 Jabalpur-Bhopal-Jaipur
(D) NH-26 Jhansi-Sagar-Lakhnadon
Ans : (A)

44. Consider the time of sun rise in Sidhi and Jhabua, and choose the correct option—
(A) Sidhi will have sun rise 1 hour earlier
(B) Jhabua will have sun rise 1 hour earlier
(C) Sidhi will have sun rise ½ hour earlier
(D) Jhabua will have sun rise ½ hour earlier
Ans : (D)

45. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Chhindwara
(b) Mandala
(c) Jhabua
(d) Shivpuri
1. Bhil
2. Bharia
3. Gond
4. Sahariya
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (C)

46. Sanskrit University has been set up at—
(A) Gwalior
(B) Ujjain
(C) Rewa
(D) Jabalpur
Ans : (B)

47. Which of the following is not a world heritage site ?
(A) Khajuraho temples
(B) Bhimbetka caves
(C) Sanchi stupa
(D) Mandu palace
Ans : (D)

48. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Bhoj
(b) Durgawati
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Ashok
1. Ujjain
2. Vidisha
3. Dhar
4. Gondwana
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

49. Which of the following rivers does not fall into river Yamuna ?
(A) Ken
(B) Betwa
(C) Son
(D) Chambal
Ans : (C)

50. Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river ?
(A) Bargi
(B) Omkareshwar
(C) Indira Sagar
(D) Ban Sagar
Ans : (D)

51. ‘Badhai’ is—
(A) Folk dance of Bundelkhand
(B) Folk dance of Malwa
(C) Festival celebrated in Bhopal on 2nd day after Diwali
(D) Folk music of Bundelkhand
Ans : (A)

52. Which among the following districts of Madhya Pradesh has a problem of soil erosion ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Bhopal
(C) Morena
(D) Khandwa
Ans : (C)

53. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITDM)
(b) Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM)
(c) Indian Institute of Management (IIM)
(d) Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER)
1. Indore
2. Bhopal
3. Jabalpur
4. Gwalior
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (B)

54. Which National Park/Sanctuary has been selected to house Gir lions ?
(A) Pench
(B) Kanha
(C) Bandhavgarh
(D) Palpur Kuno
Ans : (D)

55. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Zari Batua
(b) Bhairavagarh prints
(c) Handicrafts of Bagh
(d) Sarees of Chanderi
1. Ujjain
2. Dhar
3. Bhopal
4. Ashok Nagar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (A)

56. Who amongst the following has served longest as Chief Minister ?
(A) Pandit Ravishankar Shukla
(B) Arjun Singh
(C) Dr. Kailashnath Katju
(D) Digvijay Singh
Ans : (D)

57. Which party amongst the following is neither nationally recognised party nor a party recognized for the state of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Bahujan Samaj Party
(B) Samajwadi Party
(C) Gondwana Ganatantra Party
(D) Communist Party of India
Ans : (C)

58. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
In Madhya Pradesh :
1. Zila Panchayat Adhyaksha (President) is elected through indirect election.
2. 50% seats are reserved for women in Panchayati Raj.
3. Sarpanch is elected through direct election.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : (D)

59. Where is the automobile industry cluster of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Pithampur
(B) Malanpur
(C) Mandideep
(D) Maneri
Ans : (A)

60. Of which crop is Madhya Pradesh the largest producer in the country ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Soyabean
Ans : (D)

61. Arrange the following districts in decreasing order of per hectare fertilizer consumption and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Indore
2. Dindori
3. Hoshangabad
4. Mandala
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2
(B) 4, 2, 1, 3
(C) 4, 1, 3, 2
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (A)

62. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Jamunapari
(b) Bhadawari
(c) Kadaknath
(d) Malwi
1. Cow
2. Goat
3. Buffalo
4. Poultry
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)

63. Coal Bed Methane has been found in—
(A) Shahdol
(B) Sagar
(C) Jabalpur
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (A)

64. Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of the following minerals in the country—
(A) Coal and Diamond
(B) Copper and Iron
(C) Coal and Copper
(D) Copper and Diamond
Ans : (D)

65. Which of the following sectors has been given the maximum allocation in the XI five year plan of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Health
(B) Education
(C) Power
(D) Irrigation
Ans : (C)

66. Which of the following places has 500 MW unit for electricity generation ?
(A) Birsinghpur
(B) Sarani
(C) Chachai
(D) Chhindwara
Ans : (A)

67. Which among the following districts has most adverse sex ratio ?
(A) Morena
(B) Balaghat
(C) Jhabua
(D) Rewa
Ans : (A)

68. Which among the following districts has the highest literacy rate ?
(A) Bhopal
(B) Narsinghpur
(C) Jabalpur
(D) Indore
Ans : (B)

69. How many districts of Madhya Pradesh are covered under NREGA ?
(A) All districts
(B) 18 districts
(C) 31 districts
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

70. Which of the following cities is not covered under JNNURM ?
(A) Indore
(B) Jabalpur
(C) Gwalior
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)

71. In an open ground, Rakesh walks 20 metres towards north, takes a left turn and walks 40 metres; again takes a left turn and walks 50 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 110 metres
(B) 70 metres
(C) 50 metres
(D) 40 metres
Ans : (C)

72. Fill up the blank—
5 7 74
11 8 185
…… 6 205
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 12
Ans : (A)

73. Fill in the blank—
McCain : Obama : : Palin :………
(A) Gore
(B) Rice
(C) Biden
(D) Clinton
Ans : (C)

74. Fill up the blank—
5 9 21 37 81 ……
(A) 163
(B) 153
(C) 183
(D) 203
Ans : (B)

75. Which diagram best represents the relationship of Doctors, Engineers and Professors ?




















Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 76 to 78) : Consider the following data about marks obtained (out of 100) :

Marks	Subjects
	History	Geography	Economic
10–19 20–29 30–39 40–49 50–59 60–69 70–79 80–89 90–100	1 1 1 10 27 48 9 3 0	2 3 2 12 20 42 17 2 0	1 4 1 9 16 48 17 4 0

Pass marks is 40.
First division marks is 60.

76. Which subject has the highest pass percentage ?
(A) History
(B) Geography
(C) Economics
(D) All are equal
Ans : (A)

77. Which subject has most first divisioners ?
(A) History
(B) Geography
(C) Economics
(D) All are equal
Ans : (C)

78. In which subject is the average of marks scored maximum ?
(A) History
(B) Geography
(C) Economics
(D) All are equal
Ans : (C)

79. A school has 12 teachers. One of them retires at the age of 62 years and a new teacher replaces him. The change reduces the average age of the staff by 3 years. What is the age of the new teacher ?
(A) 22 years
(B) 24 years
(C) 26 years
(D) 28 years
Ans : (C)

80. A 50 metres long train passes over a bridge at a velocity of 30 km/hour. If it takes 36 seconds to cross the bridge, the length of the bridge is—
(A) 200 m
(B) 250 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 350 m
Ans : (B)

81. A football league has 12 teams. Tournament is to be played on double round robin followed by the two top teams playing the Final. Round robin means that each team plays every other team. How many matches will be played in the tournament ?
(A) 132
(B) 133
(C) 67
(D) 66
Ans : (A)

Directions—Based on the following information, answer the question 82 to 85 :
Sachin, Rahul, Virendra, Anil and Ishant are wearing Red, Blue, White, Black and Brown pants and caps (not in order). No one is wearing the cap and the pant of the same colour. All of them are wearing pants of different colours and caps of different colours. Every one of them is carrying one of the items namely Bat, Ball, Stumps, Gloves and Pads.
Further, it is given that :
(i) Sachin is wearing brown cap.
(ii) Ishant is not wearing a blue or red pant.
(iii) Gloves is being carried by the one who is wearing blue pant.
(iv) Rahul is wearing white cap.
(v) Virendra is wearing black pant.
(vi) Anil is wearing red cap and brown pant.
(vii) One who is wearing red pant is carrying pads.
(viii) One who is wearing brown pant is carrying bat.

82. What is the colour of Virendra’s cap ?
(A) Red
(B) White
(C) Blue
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans : (C)

83. What item is being carried by the person wearing white pant ?
(A) Stumps
(B) Ball
(C) Gloves
(D) Stumps or Ball
Ans : (D)

84. Who is wearing the blue pant ?
(A) Sachin
(B) Ishant
(C) Sachin or Rahul
(D) Rahul or Ishant
Ans : (C)

85. If Rahul is wearing red pant, what is the correct combination ?
(A) Sachin—Brown cap—Black pant
(B) Anil—Red cap—Blue pant
(C) Virendra—Blue cap—Brown pant
(D) Ishant—Black cap—White pant
Ans : (D)

86. Under National e-Governance Plan, SWAN is—
(A) State Wide Area Network
(B) Systems Wide Area Network
(C) State Wise Area Network
(D) Systems Wise Area Network
Ans : (A)

87. Under National e-Governance Plan, CSC is—
(A) Citizen Service Centre
(B) Common Service Centre
(C) Community Service Centre
(D) Computer Service Centre
Ans : (B)

88. Google company has launched a new browser in third quarter of 2008. It is—
(A) Chrome
(B) Lycos
(C) Alta-vista
(D) Mozilla Firefox
Ans : (A)

89. First fully computer literate district in the country is—
(A) Ernakulam
(B) Villupuram
(C) Thiruvallur
(D) Malappuram
Ans : (D)

90. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Narayan Murthy
(b) Azim Premji
(c) Ramlingam Raju
(d) Ramadurai
1. Wipro
2. TCS
3. Infosys
4. Satyam Computers
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)

91. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. . Net (Dot Net) Framework has been developed by Microsoft
2. Java is an open source technology developed by Sun Microsystems
Codes :
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) None is correct
Ans : (C)

92. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Proxy server provides TCP/IP address
2. Proxy server processes clients requests by forwarding the requests to other servers.
Codes :
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) None is correct
Ans : (C)

93. An exclusively private network used by employees of a company in a single location will be classified as—
(A) Internet
(B) Local Area Network
(C) Wide Area Network
(D) ARPANET
Ans : (B)

94. In a database, field is—
(A) label
(B) table of information
(C) group of related records
(D) category of information
Ans : (D)

95. A million bytes is approximately—
(A) Gigabyte
(B) Kilobyte
(C) Megabyte
(D) Terabyte
Ans : (C)

96. To increase the length of a network without loss of signal strength, we would use—
(A) Repeater
(B) Router
(C) Gateway
(D) Switch
Ans : (A)

97. If a domain name ends with .edu.us, then it is—
(A) An international organization
(B) A non-profit organization
(C) An educational institute in Australia
(D) An educational institute in USA
Ans : (D)

98. Word Processors, Spread sheets are examples of—
(A) System Software
(B) Application Software
(C) Platform Software
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

99. Which of the following is not an output device ?
(A) Drum pen plotter
(B) CRT monitor
(C) Earphones
(D) Digital camera
Ans : (D)

100. One of the first viruses to attract wide spread public attention was designed to infect MS-DOS on 6th March 1992. Name of the virus is—
(A) Brain
(B) Catch me if you can
(C) Michaelangelo
(D) Friday the thirteenth
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 101 to 110) : The following ten questions consist of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these questions using the code below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

101. Assertion (A) : In India, electricity distribution companies calculate the consumption of electricity in kWh.
Reason (R) : Electrical System in India works at a frequency of 60 Hz.
Ans : (C)

102. Assertion (A) : A plant which has nitrogen deficiency will show symptoms like stunted growth and pale green and yellow leaves.
Reason (R): Nitrogen is responsible for green leaf growth.
Ans : (A)

103. Assertion (A) : Gypsum is added to cooled clinkers of cement.
Reason (R) : Gypsum speeds up the setting time of cement.
Ans : (A)

104. Assertion (A) : People with AB blood groups are universal recipients.
Reason (R) : Red blood cell of blood group AB has no antigen and so agglutination does not occur with any other blood group.
Ans : (C)

105. Assertion (A) : Wind patterns are clockwise in southern hemisphere and anticlockwise in northern hemisphere.
Reason (R) : The directions of wind patterns in northern and southern hemisphere are governed by Coriolis effect.
Ans : (A)

106. Assertion (A) : Protest, led by Lala Lajpat Rai, was organized in Lahore in 1928 against Simon Commission.
Reason (R) : Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member in it.
Ans : (A)

107. Assertion (A) : Foodgrain production per capita in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average.
Reason (R) : The productivity of foodgrains in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average.
Ans : (A)

108. Assertion (A) : The Indian Constitution is basically federal in form.
Reason (R) : Article 352 has provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in states.
Ans : (B)

109. Assertion (A) : Lehman Brothers (an investment banking company of US) filed for chapter 11 bankruptcy protection in September 2008.
Reason (R) : Subprime lending was one of the major causes of financial crisis.
Ans : (A)

110. Assertion (A) : CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) is the world’s largest particle Physics laboratory.
Reason (R) : CERN is French aeronym of the name of the provisional body founded 2 years before the organization came into existence.
Ans : (A)

111. Formation of Ozone hole is maximum over—
(A) India
(B) Africa
(C) Antarctica
(D) Europe
Ans : (C)

112. Steel is mainly an alloy of Iron and—
(A) Chromium
(B) Nickel
(C) Manganese
(D) Carbon
Ans : (D)

113. Aryabhatta was launched on—
(A) 19th April, 1975
(B) 6th December, 1957
(C) 31st January, 1958
(D) 2nd October, 1980
Ans : (A)

114. ‘Project Tiger’ in India was started in—
(A) 1970
(B) 1973
(C) 1981
(D) 1984
Ans : (B)

115. Gas released during Bhopal gas tragedy was—
(A) Methyl isothiocyanate
(B) Ethyl isothiocyanate
(C) Methyl isocyanate
(D) Ethyl isocyanate
Ans : (C)

116. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Speed of light
(D) Speed with respect to speed of light
Ans : (B)

117. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice melts ?
It—
(A) rises
(B) falls
(C) remains the same
(D) first rises and then falls
Ans : (C)

118. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Anaemia
(b) Goiter
(c) Night blindness
(d) Beri-beri
1. Vitamin B deficiency
2. Iron deficiency
3. Iodine deficiency
4. Vitamin A deficiency
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)

119. Which of the following lens is used to minimize Myopia ?
(A) Convex lens
(B) Concave lens
(C) Cylindrical lens
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

120. India’s first atomic power station is—
(A) BARC
(B) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
(C) Narora Atomic Power Station
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

121. A fan produces feeling of comfort during hot weather because—
(A) Fan supplies cold air
(B) Our perspiration evaporates rapidly
(C) Out body radiates more heat
(D) Conductivity of air increases
Ans : (B)

122. Which among the following countries is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group ?
(A) China
(B) New Zealand
(C) Ireland
(D) Iran
Ans : (D)

123. Which river in Bihar changed its course in the year 2008 and caused calamity ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Gandak
(C) Kosi
(D) Ghaghra
Ans : (C)

124. United Nations declared the year 2008 as the International Year of—
(A) Sanitation
(B) Drinking water
(C) Literacy
(D) Reduction of infant mortality
Ans : (A)

125. Violence against Christians erupted in Orissa after the murder of Swami Lakshmanananda Saraswati in August 2008. Which district was the worst affected ?
(A) Keonjhar
(B) Bargarh
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Kandhamal
Ans : (D)

126. Which film received the best feature film award at the 54th National Film Awards ?
(A) Pulijanmam (Malayalam)
(B) Kabul Express
(C) Lage Raho Munna Bhai
(D) Podokkhep (Bengali)
Ans : (A)

127. According to the Article 82 of the Constitution of India, the allocation of seats in Lok Sabha to the states is on the basis of the ……… census.
(A) 1961
(B) 1971
(C) 1981
(D) 1991
Ans : (B)

128. Russia recognized independence of Georgia’s two territories in August 2008. The two territories are—
(A) Kosovo and Dushanbe
(B) Kosovo and South Ossetia
(C) Abkhazia and Dushanbe
(D) South Ossetia and Abkhazia
Ans : (D)

129. Which country was the first after the ban on India was lifted by the Nuclear Suppliers Group, to sign an agreement that would allow supply of civil nuclear technology to India ?
(A) USA
(B) Italy
(C) Russia
(D) France
Ans : (D)

130. What is the cut-off date for recognition of rights under “The Scheduled Tribes and other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006” ?
(A) 13th September, 1976
(B) 13th December, 2006
(C) 13th September, 2005
(D) 13th December, 2005
Ans : (D)

131. Who amongst the following did not share Nobel Prize for Physics in 2008 ?
(A) Tohide Yasakawa
(B) Makoto Kabayashi
(C) Toshihide Maskawa
(D) Yoichiro Nambu
Ans : (A)

132. Name of the spacecraft for India’s mission moon is—
(A) Chandrayaan-I
(B) Chandrayaan-II
(C) Antariksha
(D) Change I
Ans : (A)

133. Who among the following was Secretary, Economic Affairs, Government of India and then became Governor, Reserve Bank of India in September 2008 ?
(A) Y.V. Reddy
(B) D. Rangarajan
(C) T.K. Nair
(D) D. Subbarao
Ans : (D)

134. To which place did Ratan Tata decide to move the Nano Project from Singur ?
(A) Pithampur
(B) Pune
(C) Sanand
(D) Gopalpur
Ans : (C)

135. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Mohenjo Daro, Harappa, Ropar and Kalibangan are important places of Indus Valley Civilization
2. Harappan people developed planned cities with network of streets and drainage system
3. Harappan people did not know use of metals
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : (A)

136. Which Indian king defeated Seleucus, the administrator of Sindh and Afghanistan appointed by Alexander ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Ashok
(C) Bindusar
(D) Chandragupta
Ans : (D)

137. Which English Governor of East India Company in India was expelled by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Aungier
(B) Sir John Child
(C) Sir John Gayer
(D) Sir Nicholas Waite
Ans : (B)

138. First decisive military success of English East India Company in India is marked by—
(A) Battle of Buxar
(B) Battle of Plassey
(C) Battle of Panipat
(D) Battle of Haldighati
Ans : (A)

139. Bhils revolted against the British in—
(A) M.P. and Maharashtra
(B) M.P. and Bihar
(C) Bihar and Bengal
(D) Bengal and Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

140. The modern historian who called the revolt of 1857 as the first war of indepdence was—
(A) Dr. R.C. Majumdar
(B) Dr. S.N. Sen
(C) V.D. Savarkar
(D) Ashok Mehta
Ans : (C)

141. The newspaper brought out by Bal Gangadhar Tilak to promote nationalism was—
(A) Yugantar
(B) Deshbhakti
(C) Kesari
(D) Kranti
Ans : (C)

142. Why did Mahatma Gandhi withdraw Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 ?
(A) Most of the leaders were arrested and were in prison
(B) British agreed to partly fulfil the demands
(C) Because of Chauri-Chaura violence
(D) He saw no chance of success of the movement
Ans : (C)

143. Arrange the following in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Dandi March
2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
3. Quit India Movement
4. Swadeshi Movement
Codes :
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 4, 2, 1, 3
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (B)

144. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Brahmobandhab Upadhyay
(d) Muhammad Ali
1. New India
2. Comrade
3. Vande Mataram
4. Sandhya
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (A)

145. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Partition of Bengal
(c) Dual government in Bengal
(d) Social Reforms
1. Curzon
2. Clive
3. Dalhousie
4. Bentinck
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (C)

146. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Subhash Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
2. Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
Codes :
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

147. Jammu and Kashmir became an integral part of India on—
(A) 26th October, 1948
(B) 26th November, 1948
(C) 26th October, 1947
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

148. The first declared war between India and Pakistan was fought in the year—
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1966
(D) 1971
Ans : (B)

149. Which important latitude divides India into two almost equal parts ?
(A) 23° 30′ South
(B) 33° 30′ North
(C) 0°
(D) 23° 30′ North
Ans : (D)

150. The westernmost point of India is—
(A) 68° 7′ W in Gujarat
(B) 68° 7′ W in Rajasthan
(C) 68° 7′ E in Gujarat
(D) 68° 7′ E in Rajasthan
Ans : (C)