Pages

Thursday, February 25, 2010

INDIA ECONOMIC SURVEY 2009-10





Untitled Document




FOR ECONOMIC SURVEY 2009-10 - CLICK HERE


Cricket – ODI Records – Celebrating Sachin’s 200 Runs

Cricket – ODI Records – Celebrating Sachin’s 200 Runs

We have observed that in many recent exams, there were questions from cricket. Most of the questions revolved around records, personal achievement of cricket players, famous milestones etc.

We would advise all of you to keep an eye on the current matches being played and note down the records created and milestones achieved by famous players.

Here is a list of some important records.

And, yes, this post has been inspired by Sachin’s Double Century in ODI. We all love Sachin! Don’t we?

Sachin Tendulkar’s Records (as on Feb 24, 2010)
Highest ODI Runs: 17598

Highest Individual Score: 200*

Highest 100s: 46

Highest 50s: 93

Highest partnership: 338 (with Rahul Dravid)

ODI Records (as on Feb 24, 2010):
1. Highest individual score
Rank Runs Player Match Venue Season
1 200* India Sachin Tendulkar India v South Africa Gwalior 2010
2 194* Zimbabwe Charles Coventry Zimbabwe v Bangladesh Bulawayo 2009
3 194 Pakistan Saeed Anwar Pakistan v India Chennai 1997
4 189* West Indies Cricket Board Vivian Richards West Indies v England Manchester 1984

2. Highest innings Totals (>400 Runs)
Rank Score Teams Venue Season
1 443-9 (50 overs) Sri Lanka v Netherlands Amstelveen 2006
2 438-9 (49.5 overs) South Africa v Australia Johannesburg 2005-06
3 434-4 (50 overs) Australia v South Africa Johannesburg 2005-06
4 418-5 (50 overs) South Africa v Zimbabwe Potchefstroom 2005
5 414-7 (50 overs) India v Sri Lanka Rajkot 2009
6 413-5 (50 overs) India v Bermuda Port of Spain 2007
7 411-8 (50 overs) Sri Lanka v India Rajkot 2009
8 402-2 (50 overs) New Zealand v Ireland Aberdeen 2008
9 401-3 (50 overs) India v South Africa Gwalior 2010

3. Lowest innings totals
Rank Score Teams Venue Season
1 35 (18 overs) Zimbabwe v Sri Lanka Zimbabwe 2004
2 36 (18.4 overs) Canada v Sri Lanka Sri Lanka 1975
3 38 (15.4 overs) Zimbabwe v Sri Lanka Sri Lanka 2001
4 43 (19.5 overs) Pakistan v West Indies Australia 1993
5 44 (24.5 overs) Zimbabwe v Bangladesh Bangladesh 2009

4.Most Centuries in ODIs
Rank Centuries Innings Player Period
1 46 431 Sachin Tendulkar from 1989 to -
2 29 340 Ricky Ponting from 1995 to -
3 28 444 Sanath Jayasuriya from 1989 to -
4 22 311 Sourav Ganguly from 1992 to 2008
5 21 246 Herschelle Gibbs from 1996 to -

5. Highest partnerships
Rank Runs Players Opposition Venue Season
1 338 (2nd wicket) Sachin Tendulkar & Rahul Dravid v New Zealand Hyderabad 1999
2 318 (2nd wicket) Rahul Dravid & Sourav Ganguly v Sri Lanka Tonton 1999
3 274 (1st wicket) James Marshall & Brendon McCullum v India Aberdeen 2008

We may not be able to keep this list up to date. You can refer to ODI Records for current records which are updated regularly.

Wednesday, February 24, 2010

EXAM SYLLABUS FOR ORIENTAL INSURANCE COMPANY

EXAM SYLLABUS FOR ORIENTAL INSURANCE COMPANY

There will be a Objective Type written examination, which would consist of questions from syllabus with the following topics:

(i) Reasoning

(ii) English language

(iii) General awareness

(iv) Professional Knowledge for the post from Group A to C.

Group A: Since the qualification required is MCA/MIT/MCM, the paper will consist of question from IT/Computers.

Group B: Qualification required is B.Com/M. Com, the paper will consist of question from Commerce Stream.

Group C: Qualification required is LLB/LLM, the paper will consist of question from Law Stream.

(v) Numerical Ability Test (for Group D ONLY) in place of Professional Knowledge Test.

Note:

1. The first three tests i.e. Test of Reasoning, English Language and General Awareness will be common for all the candidates.

2. The Test of Professional Knowledge will be specific to each of the Group (A to C) as may be applicable.

3. The exam will be set in both English and Hindi.

Descriptive Test:

The test in English language shall be Descriptive paper comprising of

Essay
Précis &
Comprehension etc.
On the basis of performance in written examination, candidates will be called for interview and final selection will be made on overall performance in written examination and interview.

Thursday, February 18, 2010

AP GRAMEENA VIKAS BANK CLERKS NOTIFICATION





Untitled Document




FOR AP GRAMEENA VIKAS BANK CLERKS NOTIFICATION - CLICK HERE


Monday, February 15, 2010

Oriental Bank of Commerce P.O. Exam., 2009

Oriental Bank of Commerce P.O. Exam., 2009
(Held on 13-12-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper


Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and worksites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many States. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families ? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act-upto Rs. 3,000/- per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances.

It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank.

However delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non-maintenance of muster rolls and job cards etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries–the workload has remained without the ‘inducements’. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.


The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model wherein bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with, where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.

1. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers ?
(A) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(B) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(C) They have been unable to provide for their families
(D) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages ?
(A) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(B) Improper record keeping
(C) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(D) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(E) Delays in work measurement
Ans : (D)

3. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been ?
(A) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(B) Increased workload for local government officials
(C) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(D) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence(s) of delayed wage payments ?
(1) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(2) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(3) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)

5. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments ?
(A) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff.
(B) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(C) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(D) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(E) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages
Ans : (E)

6. which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
(1) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(2) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(3) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS ?
(A) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(B) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(C) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(D) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(E) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Ans : (A)

8. What solution has the author suggested to expedite NREGS wage payments ?
(A) Empower the Central Employment Guarantee Council to monitor the NREGS
(B) Implement payment of wages in cash at all worksites
(C) Restrict the amount of funds to local government bodies in order to curb frauds
(D) Provide attendance records to workers so that they have proof to claim their wages
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. What is the author’s view about the government’s solution to the problem of delayed wage payments ?
(A) He agrees with it as workers will not have to bear the expense of travelling long distances to claim their wages
(B) He is not in favour of it as funds can be misappropriated by agents
(C) He welcomes it as the time consuming work measurement process will be done away with
(D) He feels it does not address the core issues plaguing the scheme
(E) He feels it will ensure flawless implementation of the scheme
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following can be said about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme ?
(1) Skilled engineers are not compensated under this scheme.
(2) The scheme should be implemented only in famine prone areas.
(3) Employers have not complied with all the requirements of the scheme.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (2) and(3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. Isolated
(A) Lonely
(B) Separated
(C) Detached
(D) Hidden
(E) Rare
Ans : (E)

12. Confined
(A) Locked
(B) Restricted
(C) Detained
(D) Captured
(E) Imprisoned
Ans : (B)

13. Desert
(A) Betray
(B) Escape
(C) Barren
(D) Abandon
(E) Vacant
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Convenient
(A) Troublesome
(B) Annoying
(C) Appropriate
(D) Easy
(E) Distant
Ans : (A)

15. Deliberate
(A) Unsteady
(B) Abrupt
(C) Mistake
(D) Chosen
(E) Accidental
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Unless the government monitored the loan waiver scheme well, it is likely to be a success.
(A) For the government to monitor
(B) Unless the government monitors
(C) Though the government monitored
(D) If the government monitors
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

17. The main objective of hiring this consultant is in assessing that this data can be computerised.
(A) assessing that
(B) an assessment of
(C) to assess how
(D) for assessing that when
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

18. The designs finally ready and we shall submit them for approval tomorrow, well before the specified deadline.
(A) Designs finally will be
(B) Designs are finally
(C) Final designs
(D) Designing finally
(E) No correction required.
Ans : (B)

19. Most irrigation projects have delayed due to lack of adequate government funding.
(A) have been delayed from
(B) will be delayed for
(C) were delaying due to
(D) are delayed because of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

20. Many Indian companies import components from China as they are cheap compared to those manufactured locally.
(A) as they are cheap as
(B) because it is cheaper
(C) since these are cheaper
(D) which is cheap
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Your marketing strategy (A) should be devised (B) dependent (C) on the kind of business you own. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

22. The file contents (A) a revised (B) estimate (C) of the banking industry’s manpower requirements (D) for the next year. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

23. To better understand the challenges (A) of starting a new venture (B) he read (C) up extensively. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

24. Since our financial resources (A) are limitless (B) we cannot afford (C) this alternative. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

25. His main reasoning (A) for applying (B) for this promotion is the possibility (C) of an overseas posting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. Voluntary measures such as codes of conduct have failed to address these issues and deliver change.
2. However they can also cause serious problems with their irresponsible behaviour.
3. Companies are a powerful force for good.
4. There are several instances of companies undermining worker’s rights and damaging the environment.
5. The Comapnies Bill 2009 is thus a means to address issues of corporate governance and ensure companies are accountable for the financial performance and social impact.
6. They provide jobs, boost economies and aid social and environmental development.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–`40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Despite the merger (A) / the airline has reported (B) / sizeable losses and is unable (C) / to pay their employees. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. We have recently began (A) / the process of recruiting (B) / insurance agents for (C) / our North-Eastern branches. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. The company’s decision to issue (A) / bonus shares clearly indicates (B) / the management’s confident (C) / about the future. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

34. Inspite that organisations are aware (A) / of the importance of IT (B) / they often do not know (C) / how to deploy it effectively. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. Keeping in mind that India (A) / is one of the world’s fastest (B) / growing economies many international (C) / companies are invested in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

36. Although interlinking of rivers will (A) / help tackle drought, the government (B) / has not paid much (C) / attention to this project. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

37. The rise in prices of food items is (A) / likely the cause of inflation (B) / to exceed eight percent (C) / during the next quarter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. Many people believe that (A) / the nationalisation of banks (B) / in the 1960s have proteced India (C) / from the current financial crisis. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. RBI in favour (A) / of amending currently (B) / policies governing operations of (C) / foreign banks in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

40. These recently upgraded branch offices (A) / have been fully computerised (B) / and are connected to headquarters (C) / to ensure proper monitoring. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The …(41)… of India as an econonmic superpower is not reflected in the …(42)… of life enjoyed by its 1.2 billion citizens according to the Human Development Index which …(43)… India very low among 182 countries. In our performance oriented world, measurement issues have taken on …(44)… importance as what we measure affects what we do. In fact the French President has established an international commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress owing to his …(45)… and that of others with the current state of statistical information about the economy and society.

The big question concerns …(46)… Gross Domestic Product (GDP) provides a good measure of living standards. In many cases GDP statistics seem to …(47)… that the economy is doing far better than most citizens feel it is. Moreover the focus on GDP creates conflicts-while political leaders are told to maximise it, citizens also demand that …(48)… be paid to enhancing security, reducing air, water and noise pollution all of which actually …(49)… GDP growth. Statistics are …(50)… to summarise what is going on in our complex society, it is therefore obvious that we can’t reduce everything to a single number–GDP.

41. (A) tribute
(B) pursuit
(C) perception
(D) conversion
(E) title
Ans : (E)

42. (A) loss
(B) quality
(C) spirit
(D) span
(E) joy
Ans : (B)

43. (A) counted
(B) scored
(C) qualified
(D) regard
(E) ranked
Ans : (E)

44. (A) negligible
(B) great
(C) unduly
(D) trivial
(E) considerably
Ans : (B)

45. (A) obedience
(B) confidence
(C) belief
(D) dissatisfaction
(E) compliance
Ans : (D)

46. (A) that
(B) unless
(C) because
(D) against
(E) whether
Ans : (E)

47. (A) suggest
(B) recommend
(C) think
(D) point
(E) refer
Ans : (A)

48. (A) compensation
(B) respect
(C) debt
(D) attention
(E) expense
Ans : (D)

49. (A) recover
(B) lower
(C) attain
(D) decline
(E) shrunk
Ans : (B)

50. (A) inferred
(B) difficult
(C) interpret
(D) reveal
(E) intended
Ans : (E)

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam., 2009

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam., 2009

(Held on 29-11-2009)

English Language : Solved Paper



Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived a herd of elephants at the bottom of the majestic Himalayas. Their leader was a rare white elephant who was an extremely kind-hearted soul. He greatly loved his mother who had grown blind and feeble and could not look out for herself. Each day this white elephant would go deep into the forest in search of food. He would look for the best of fruits to send to his mother through other elephants of the herd. But his mother never received any. This was because the other members of the herd would always eat them up themselve. Each night, when he returned home he would be surprised to hear that his mother had been starving all day. He was absolutely disgusted with his herd. Then one day, he decided to leave them all behind and disappeared in the middle of the night along with his dear mother. He took her to Mount Candorana to live in a cave besides a beautiful lake.

It so happened that one day, when the white elephant was feeding, he heard loud cries. A forester from Benaras had lost his way in the forest and was absolutely terrified. The white elephant told him not to worry as he knew every inch of this forest and could take him to safety. He then lifted him on to his back and carried him to the edge of the forest from where the forester went on his merry way back to Benaras.


On reaching the city, he heard that King’s personal elephant had just died and the King was looking for a new elephant. His heralds were roaming the city, announcing that any man who had seen or heard of an elephant fit for a king should come forward with the information. The forester was very excited and immediately went up to the King and told him about the white elephant that he had seen on Mount Candorana. The King was quite pleased with the information and immediately dispatched a number of soldiers and elephant trainers along with the forester. After travelling for many days, the group reached the lake besides which the elephants resided. They slowly crept down to the edge of the lake and hid behind the bushes. The white elephant was collecting lotus shoots for his mother’s meal and could sense the presence of humans. When he looked up, he spotted the forester and realized that it was he who had led the King’s men to him. He was very upset at the ingratitude but decided not to put up a struggle as many of the men would be killed. And he was just too kind to hurt anyone. So he decided to go along with them to Benaras and then seek a solution to this problem.

On reaching the beautiful city of Benaras, the trainers laid out a feast for their new State elephant but he refused to touch a morsel. He did not respond to any kind of stimuli, be it the fragrant flowers or the beautiful and comfortable stable. He just sat there looking completely despondent. The King was extremely concerned. He offered the elephant food from the royal table and asked him why he grieved in this manner. The white elephant replied that he would not eat a thing until he met his mother back home on Mount Candorana as she must be hungry because she was blind and had no one to feed her and take care of her. He was afraid that she would die. The compassionate King was touched by the elephant’s story and assured him that his soldiers would bring his old mother to the palace as soon as possible. The king kept his promise and his soldiers took good care of his mother as well for as long as she lived. She blessed the kind King with peace, prosperity and joy till the end of his days. In this way the white elephant could serve the king and also enjoy the royal perks at the king’s palace along with his mother.

1. What did the white elephant do when he realised that his mother had been starving even though he had been sending food for her ?
(A) He punished his herd members and told them to leave the jungle
(B) He went to Benaras to report the happenings of the herd to the King
(C) With the help of the King’s soldiers, he got the herd members killed
(D) He and his mother left the herd behind
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. What did the King do when the forester told him about a white elephant ?
(A) He rewarded the forester with lots of valuables
(B) He sent his soldiers to the forest to bring the white elephant to Benaras
(C) He sent his soldiers to the forest to hunt down the white elephant
(D) He ordered the forester to bring the white elephant to him from the forest
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. Why did the white elephant’s mother never receive the fruits sent by her son ?
(A) The other members of the herd would eat up the fruits themselves instead of taking them to her
(B) The King’s soldiers blocked her food supply in order to make her weak and capture her to be taken to the King
(C) Because the King would never let any food sent by the white elephant reach his mother
(D) Because the ungrateful forester sold the fruits collected by the white elephant in Benaras
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Why was the forester terrified and crying for help in the forest ?
(A) He was scared to see a white elephant
(B) The elephant had lifted him forcefully to his back
(C) He wanted to warn the white elephant against the King’s men
(D) He had lost his way and wanted someone’s help
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. Why did the white elephant collect food for his mother daily ?
(A) The king did not provide food to the elephant’s mother
(B) All the elephants from the herd refused to collect food for the old mother elephant
(C) The elephant’s mother could not fend for herself
(D) The white elephant’s mother would not accept food from anyone but her son
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Why did the white elephant not put up a struggle against the King’s soldiers ?
(A) He did not want anyone to get hurt in the struggle
(B) He was blind and feeble and thus could not put up a struggle
(C) He surrendered as he realised that he would not be able to fight so many soldiers
(D) He feared that the King may kill his mother if he did not go to the palace
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Why was the white elephant upset to see the forester alongwith the King’s soldiers ?
(A) He had invited only the forester and not the King’s soldiers to the forest
(B) The king’s soldiers had arrested the forester for concealing the whereabouts of the white elephant
(C) He did not expect such ingratitude from the forester as he had helped him once
(D) The forester, alongwith the soldiers had captured the white elephant’s mother
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. Why was the white elephant unhappy and refused to eat in the King’s palace ?
(A) He was unhappy with the royal treatment and expected more comforts
(B) He was worried about his mother who was blind and weak
(C) He was protesting against the forester’s ingratitude towards him
(D) The King’s soldiers had injured him and his mother while captivating both of them
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The forester could never go back to Benaras from the forest
(B) The white elephant’s herd members were co-operative and honest
(C) The forester ultimately became a good friend of the white elephant
(D) The white elephant’s mother was finally left alone in the forest
(E) None is true
Ans : (E)

10. Which of the following best describes the King as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Ungrateful
(B) Weak & feeble
(C) Dishonest
(D) Sympathetic
(E) Ingenious
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. DISAPPEARED
(A) Hid
(B) Departed
(C) Escaped
(D) Disintegrated
(E) Strayed
Ans : (C)

12. SPOTTED
(A) Blemished
(B) Experienced
(C) Appeared
(D) Projected
(E) Saw
Ans : (E)

13. STRUGGLE
(A) Hardship
(B) Adversity
(C) Fight
(D) Striving
(E) Argument
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. FEEBLE
(A) Strong
(B) Intense
(C) Unbreakeable
(D) Preserved
(E) Substantial
Ans : (A)

15. EDGE
(A) Blunt
(B) Beginning
(C) Indoors
(D) Interiors
(E) Rim
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. If you would have taken the medicine, you could have gone to school today.
(A) If you would take
(B) Had you taken
(C) If you would be taking
(D) If you been taking
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

17. Earning lots of money is one of the desires which are never satisfied—
(A) which are never satisfy
(B) who are never satisfied
(C) who is never satisfies
(D) which is never satisfied
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

18. The passage was so difficult that I could not comprehend it in the first reading—
(A) as difficult that
(B) so difficult as
(C) as difficult as
(D) very difficult that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

19. Besides his wife, his children and other relatives also attends the function—
(A) too attends
(B) also attending
(C) also attended
(D) too attending
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

20. Good leaders are always attentive towards his subordinates’ needs
(A) A god leader is
(B) Good leaders is
(C) Some good leader are
(D) All good leaders are
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. He was unable (A) to give satisfactory (B) explanation for his absense (C) from the meeting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

22. Much (A) countries are starting to turn (B) their attention (C) to new sources (D) of energy. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

23. As the ship was sinking (A) fast, the captain (B) gave orders to abandon (C) it immediately. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. The council (A) denied having any hand (B) in the recently (C) unearthed scandle. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. Their (A) has been a series of abductions (B) of young children (C) of the schools in the area. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) The man immediately got off the car, slapped the young boy who had thrown the brick and asked him why he did so ?
(2) The boy then requested the driver to help him since he was unable to lift his injured brother alone.
(3) The river stood to watch the young boy push the wheelchair down the road and decided to never repair the dent.
(4) A man was driving down a higway when a brick smashed on the side of his expensive, brand new car.
(5) Moved beyond words, the driver apologised to the young boy and quickly lifted his brother and provided first aid to him.
(6) The boy was in tears and said that he had to do so as no one on the highway had stopped to help his handicapped brother who had slipped from his wheelchair.

26. Which of the folloiwng should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Hostility between the (A) / two groups have (B) / increased in the (C) / past few months. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. Her class is very special (A) / because it has children (B) / with many different (C) / abilities and skills. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. Many peoples were (A) / brought to safety (B) / by the army helicopters (C) / from the flood hit area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

34. It is difficult to (A) / understand the problems (B) / that the physically challenged people (C) / encounters in their daily life. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. I had gone only a little way (A) / down the street (B) / when I realised that (C) / I had not lock the door. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

36. Mammoths were a (A) / species of elephants (B) / who lived millions of years ago (C) / but are now extinct. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

37. The sink is (A) / so dirty that (B) / one needs a very strong (C) / abrasive to cleaning it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

38. The talks ended (A) / abruptly when on of (B) / the delegate walked (C) / out in protest. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. A twenty year old (A) / absconder was caught (B) / in a local restaurant (C) / this morning. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

40. If she will secure more than (A) / 90% marks in the exams (B) / I will give her (C) / a suitable reward. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Findout the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there was a huge tree on the …(41)… of a river. The tree made a comfortable home for the family of birds who had built their nests on its branch. The birds were living there happily as the tree with its widespread branches provided …(42)… to them from scorching sun and heavy rains.

One day, when the …(43)… was overcast, it rained very heavily. Some monkeys, who were playing nearby the tree, got …(44)… and ran for shelter under the tree. All of them were …(45)… with cold. When the birds saw the monkeys in pitiable condition, one of the birds said, “O Monkeys ! If we can build our nest with small beaks,then why can’t you. By God’s grace, you have two hands and two legs. Why don’t you make a nice shelter for yourselves ?

On hearing this, the monkeys got …(46)… and swore to teach the birds a lesson. They said to themsleves. “These birds are not afraid of the rain or of cold wind. They are living comfortably that is why they are …(47)… us like this. Let the rain stop, we’ll show them how to build home”. As soon as the rain stopped, the monkeys …(48)… up the tree and …(49)… the nests of the birds. They also broke the birds’ eggs and threw the young ones down.

The poor birds flew here and there in misery. They were full of …(50)… for their words and realized that they should not have given advice that was not asked for. Advice should only be given to the learned, the wise and those who ask for it.

41. (A) waters
(B) middle
(C) bank
(D) bottom
(E) inside
Ans : (C)

42. (A) shelter
(B) house
(C) habitat
(D) filter
(E) fruits
Ans : (A)

43. (A) tree
(B) birds
(C) rain
(D) river
(E) sky
Ans : (E)

44. (A) shocked
(B) drenched
(C) drowned
(D) flooded
(E) immersed
Ans : (B)

45. (A) shaking
(B) wet
(C) angry
(D) shivering
(E) soaked
Ans : (D)

46. (A) inspired
(B) sorry
(C) annyed
(D) defensive
(E) tearful
Ans : (C)

47. (A) violating
(B) injuring
(C) drenching
(D) boasting
(E) criticizing
Ans : (E)

48. (A) travelled
(B) climbed
(C) ascended
(D) attacked
(E) mounted
Ans : (B)

49. (A) constructed
(B) occupied
(C) built
(D) destroyed
(E) inhabited
Ans : (D)

50. (A) regret
(B) pride
(C) pleasure
(D) hatred
(E) revenge
Ans : (A)

ANDHRA BANK PO EXAM 25-11-2007

ANDHRA BANK PO EXAM

General Awareness
25-11-2007

1. The Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation Meeting was organi-zed in September 2007 in which of the following places ?
(A) Sydney
(B) New York
(C) Tokyo
(D) Beijing
(E) None of these

2. One of the main issues discussed in the 40th Ministerial Meeting of the ASEAN held in August, 2007 was—
(A) America’s over stay in Iraq
(B) Presidential Election in Pakistan
(C) Draft blue print of the ASEAN Charter
(D) The 123 Agreement between India and USA
(E) None of these

3. Mrs. Pratibha Patil has taken over as the—
(A) 10th President of India
(B) 11th President of India
(C) 12th President of India
(D) 13th President of India
(E) 15th President of India

4. The President of India in one of her speeches in recent past emphasized that a new Farm Policy is needed to make agri-culture more productive. What, in her opinion are the areas which need our immediate attention ?
(1) Credit at low interest rate
(2) Enhancement of technical skills
(3) Free import of wheat and other food grains
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2(E) All 1, 2 & 3

5. Who amongst the following jour-nalists is the recipient of the “Prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award” for 2007 ?
(A) Mark Tully
(B) P. Sainath
(C) Barkha Dutt
(D) Prabhu Chawla
(E) None of these

6. How many intertwined rings are shown in the Olympic Flag used these days in the games ?
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Seven
(D) Three
(E) None of these

7. India’s grandmaster Vishwana-than Anand won the Rapid World Chess Championship by defeating—
(A) Anatoly Karpov
(B) Robert Fischer
(C) Boris Spassky
(D) Varily Smysloy
(E) Levon Aronian

8. The finals of the Asia Cup Hockey–2007 was played bet-ween—
(A) India–Malaysia
(B) Malaysia–Pakistan
(C) Pakistan–India
(D) South Korea–India
(E) Hong Kong–South Korea

9. India recently launched some Satellites in space. Normally the space rockets in India are launched from which of the following places ?
(A) Ranchi
(B) Sriharikota
(C) Varanasi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Gulmarg

10. Which of the following countries has agreed to a time schedule with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) so that IAEA can ensure that its ura-nium facilities are for peaceful use of the nuclear power ?
(A) Iran
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Brazil
(E) Britain

11. Which of the following organi-zations has taken the responsi-bility to raise about US $ 2 billion to build a Rail link from China to Singapore connecting eight nations ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) EU
(D) NATO
(E) None of these

12. The Govt. of India these days is paying much emphasis on Agri-cultural Sector. What is the contribution of Agri Sector in India’s GDP ? Around—
(A) 10%
(B) 4%
(C) 12%
(D) 25%
(E) 48%

13. Which of the following countries has signed a 22 Point Agreement with Madhesi People’s Right Forum (MPRF) ?
(A) China
(B) Nepal
(C) India
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Myanmar

14. Mr. Abdullah Gul has taken over as which of the following ?
(A) Prime Minister of Afghanistan
(B) Prime Minister of Iraq
(C) President of Iraq
(D) President of Turkey
(E) None of these

15. At present Indian Rupee is—
(A) partially convertible on cur-rent account
(B) fully convertible on current account
(C) partially convertible on capital account
(D) fully convertible on capital account
(E) fully convertible on current and capital account both

16. The Government of India has decided to import which of the following commodities at about Rs. 16 a kg. whereas it pays only Rs. 8.50 a kg. for the purchase of the same within the country for its Public Distri-bution System ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Sugar
(D) Sugarcane
(E) None of these

17. The Finance Minister of India recently made a mention that Infrastructure Development in India should be done on ‘PPP’ model only. What is the full form of ‘PPP’ ?
(A) Purchasing Power Parity
(B) Public Private Partnership
(C) Purchase Produce Provide
(D) People’s Programme and Priority
(E) None of these

18. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on changing correcting various indicators/rates/ratios applic-able to the banking industry. What at present is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) ?
(A) 7%
(B) 12%
(C) 25%
(D) 33%
(E) None of these

19. Which of the following agencies/ organizations is setting up India’s first Natural Resource Data Centre in Kolkata ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) SAARC
(E) BARC

20. The Govt. of India has announ-ced a Rs. 14,000 crore help pac-kage to exporters. Why exporters need a help of such nature ?
(A) Rupee is appreciating sharply
(B) Few consignments of expor-ts were destroyed by terrorists
(C) China has reduced its VAT rates hence its products have become cheaper for importers
(D) It was done to promote exports to SAARC member nations
(E) None of these

21. India’s ‘Look East’ trade policy is designed to help particularly members of which of the follow-ing group of nations ?
(A) SAARC
(B) ASEAN
(C) WTO
(D) NATO
(E) EU

22. In response to India’s ‘Look East’ policy which of the following countries has launched ‘Look West’ policy ? (Both are comple-mentary to each other)
(A) Singapore
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) Thailand
23. ‘Brahmos’ is designed to be used by which of the following ?
(A) Indian Navy
(B) Indian Army
(C) Indian Air Force
(D) Border Security Force
(E) All of these

24. Who amongst the following pla-yers was the Captain of India’s Twenty—20 World Cup played recently ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) M.S. Dhoni

25. Which of the following nations will host the final of Afro Asia Cup 2008 (Cricket) ?
(A) Kenya
(B) South Africa
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
(E) Sri Lanka

26. Late Chandra Shekhar who died in July 2007 was former—
(A) President of India
(B) Vice President of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister of India
(E) Secretary-General of UNO

27. Which of the following organi-zations has provided a credit of US $ 600 million to India to beef up its rural credit structure system ?
(A) World Bank
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) EU
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following countries has agreed to release hundreds of millions of dollars of frozen funds collected as tax to Palestine which is facing a severe cash/ funds problem ?
(A) Syria
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Egypt
(E) None of these

29. Leaders of the European Union have agreed to implement reform treaty which will help in streamlining its—
(A) defunct constitution
(B) agreement with UNO
(C) pack with African Union
(D) Currency Swap with Yen/ Yuan and US $
(E) relations with Russia and other constituents of former USSR

30. Immediately prior to Gordon Brown’s taking over as the Prime Minister of the UK who was the Prime Minister there ?
(A) Mr. Valeric Amos
(B) Mr. Vladimir Putin
(C) Ms. Hilary Armstrong
(D) Mr. David Cameron
(E) Tony Blair

31. Mr. Robert Zoellick has taken over as the—
(A) President of the World Bank
(B) Prime Minister of Turkey
(C) President of Iraq
(D) President of IMF
(E) None of these

32. India is known as one of the BRIC country. Which of the following is not one of the BRIC countries ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Romania
(C) China
(D) Russia
(E) All are BRIC countries

33. The Govt. of India recently purchased RBI’s 59% stake in one of the major banks of India in about Rs. 35531 crore. Which of the following is the name of that bank ?
(A) UTI Bank (AXIS Bank)
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these

34. The Global Non-Violence Day was observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 15th August
(B) 14th November
(C) 19th September
(D) 2nd October
(E) 30th January

35. The RBI recently released Macro economic and Monetary Deve-lopments : First Quarter Review 2007-08. As per this review which of the following sectors showed a commendable growth and stood at about 12% level ?
(A) Service
(B) Industrial Sector
(C) Social Sector
(D) Banking Sector
(E) None of these

36. The National Housing Bank recently launched the ‘NHB RESIDEX’ the index of housing prices. How this index will help Govt./civic authorities ? (Pick up statement which is not true)
1. It will track the fluctuation in property markets
2. Rationalization of stamp duty and other such taxes
3. It will help banks in deciding the price of the property and to decide how much loan should be given for the same to the public—
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

37. Which of the following is the main regulatory authority for insurance companies in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) LIC
(D) AMFI
(E) IRDA

38. The sensitive index of which of the following stock exchanges in India recently touched 15000 marks and still going higher and higher ?
(A) Kolkata Stock Exchange
(B) National Stock Exchange
(C) Delhi Stock Exchange
(D) Bombay Stock Exchange
(E) None of these

39. As per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) the fiscal deficit should brought to which of the follow-ing levels of the GDP by the year 2009 ?
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
(E) 7%

40. The RBI/Govt. of India short-listed four organizations who will manage pension funds. Which of the following is not one of these shortlisted companies ?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) LIC of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) IDBI Capital
(E) UTIAMC

41. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in literary work ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Dronacharya Award
(D) Arjun Award
(E) Pulitzer Prize

42. The period for 11th Five Year Plan is—
(A) 2005–2010
(B) 2006–2011
(C) 2007–2012
(D) 2008–2013
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following awards is not a ‘Gallantry Award’ ?
(A) Mahavir Chakra
(B) Vir Chakra
(C) Vishista Sewa Medal
(D) Ashok Chakra
(E) Saraswati Samman
44. ‘Ranji Trophy’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Badminton
(D) Cricket
(E) Tennis

45. Who amongst the following has played the main/lead role in the film ‘Chak De India’ ?
(A) Abhishek Bachchan
(B) Salman Khan
(C) Aamir Khan
(D) Shah Rukh Khan
(E) None of these

46. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ ?
(A) Benajir Bhutto
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Laxmi Sehgal
(D) Pervez Musharraf
(E) None of these
47. ‘Sunny Days’ is a book written by—
(A) Kapil Dev
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Ravi Shastri
(D) Rahul Dravid
(E) None of these

48. The Govt. of India has decided to increase the export of Cashew nut. Which of the following is not a major cashew nut grow-ing State ?
(A) Goa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Uttar Pradesh

49. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award given away recently ?
(A) Geeta Rani
(B) Jayanta Talukdar
(C) Virendra Singh
(D) Rahul Dravid
(E) Manavjit Singh Sandhu
50. Roger Federer who won US Open 2007 Tennis Championship is a citizen of—
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) USA
(E) Switzerland

Answers with Explanations :

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A)
7. (E) Vishwanathan Anand won his tenth Grenke leasing World Rapid Chess title after defeating Armenia’s Levon Aronian in a cautiously–played final in Maiz, Germany
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (D)
13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (B)
18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (E)
23. (B) 24. (E) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (A)
28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (E) 31. (A) 32. (B)
33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (E)
38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (C) 41. (E) 42. (C)
43. (E) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (E)
48. (E) 49. (E) 50. (E)

NABARD Bank Officers Exam., 2008: Reasoning

NABARD Bank Officers Exam., 2008: Reasoning



(Held On 30–3–2008)


1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Clove
(B) Cinnamon
(C) Pepper
(D) Cardamom
(E) Apricot

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPERIMENT each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EOPR, using each letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. Pointing to a photograph Rasika said “He is the grandson of my grandmother’s only son.” How is the boy in photograph related to Rasika ?
(A) Son
(B) Nephew
(C) Brother
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

5. In a certain code ‘open the door’ is written as ‘ka te jo’ ‘door is closed’ is written as ‘jo pa ma’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘la ra pa’. What is the code for ‘closed’ ?
(A) ma
(B) pa
(C) jo
(D) ka
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) These questions are based on the following letter / number / symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions :
7 D 5 # A B 1 % K $ 4 E J F 3 * 2 H I @ L 6 Q U © 9 M T 8 W

6. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) K41
(B) *HF
(C) #B5
(D) M8©
(E) LQI

8. Which of the following pairs of elements does not have the second element, immediately followed by the first element ?
(A) 5#
(B) MT
(C) $4
(D) 3F
(E) @L

9. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

10. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
A # D $K1 3FE ?
(A) @I2
(B) *HI
(C) H2@
(D) HIL
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements :
Some shoes are socks.
All socks are towels.
All towels are bedsheets.
No bedsheet is blanket.
Conclusions :
I. No towel is blanket.
II. Some shoes are towels.
III. Some shoes are bedsheets.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

12. Statements :
Some fruits are flowers.
Some flowers are buds.
No bud is leaf.
All leaves are plants.
Conclusions :
I. No plant is bud.
II. Some plants are flowers.
III. Some buds are fruits.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these

13. Statements :
Some pearls are gems.
Some gems are diamonds.
All diamonds are rings.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. Some bangles are rings.
II. All rings are diamonds.
III. All diamonds are bangles.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

14. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are telephones.
All telephones are cell phones.
No cell phone is computer.
Conclusions :
I. All cell phones are tables.
II. Some chairs are computers.
III. No chair is computer.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either II or III follows
(E) None of these

15. Statements :
Some rocks are hills.
All hills are mountains.
All mountains are rivers.
No river is Canal.
Conclusions :
I. All rocks are rivers.
II. Some hills are canals.
III. Some rivers are canals.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II follows
(E) None follows

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight friends Savita, Radhika, Amita, Nisha, Rani, Jyoti, Meeta and Anjali are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Savita is second to the right of Anjali, but is not a neighbour of Amita. Nisha is third to the left of Amita but is not next to Savita. Jyoti is second to the right of Rani and third to the left of Meeta.

16. Who is second to the left of Anjali ?
(A) Radhika
(B) Rani
(C) Amita
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these

17. Who is to the immediate right of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Radhika
(C) Meeta
(D) Jyoti or Radhika
(E) None of these

18. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani ?
(A) To the immediate right of Anjali
(B) To the immediate left of Anjali
(C) To the immediate right of Savita
(D) Next to Jyoti
(E) None of these

19. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti and Meeta
(B) Radhika and Meeta
(C) Savita and Jyoti
(D) Radhika and Jyoti
(E) None of these

20. Who is to the immediate left of Savita ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Anjali
(C) Rani
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations of numbers progress
from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit even number is followed by another even number the first one is to be divided by the second one.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number the two are be added.
(iv) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is the perfect square, the second number is to be subtracted from the first number.
(v) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is not the perfect square, the first number is to be divided by the second number.

21. 16 7 25
m 23 22
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 132
(B) 88
(C) 122
(D) 78
(E) None of these

22. 97 45 71
48 8 11
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(A) 68
(B) 19
(C) 147
(D) 64
(E) None of these

23. 125 64 33
282 x 39
If ‘x’ is resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 45
(B) 42
(C) 39
(D) 36
(E) None of these

24. 84 14 13
360 24 17
What the difference between the resultant of the first row and the second row ?
(A) 100
(B) 46
(C) 56 (D) 90
(E) None of these

25. 24 7 81
x 27 19
If ‘x’ is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 87
(B) 114
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below it—
Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different cities Chennai, Banglore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.

A is a Pharmacist and practises in Bhubaneshwar. D practises in Banglore but is not a Doctor or an Artist. The one who practises in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a
Counsellor and does not practise in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practises in Ahmedabad. F practises in Chennai but is not an artist. C practises in Mumbai.

26. What is D’s profession ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Professor
(C) Engineer
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

27. Who is the professor ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct ?
(A) Pharmacist—Jaipur
(B) Engineer—Chennai
(C) Doctor—Bangalore
(D) Artist—Mumbai
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) C
(D) B or G
(E) None of these

30. Who is the Doctor ?
(A) D
(B) B
(C) C
(D) B or C
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer :
(A) If only I follows.
(B) If only II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(D) If neither I nor II follows.
(E) If both I and II follow.

31. Statement : Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the urban areas.
Courses of action :
I. Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent norms for maintenance of vehicles.
II. Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.

32. Statement : Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has been observed in the rural parts of the country.
Courses of action :
I. Government should increase Wealth Tax/Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
II. Govt. should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.

33. Statement : Launching of new brands of four wheelers is adding to the traffic congestion in the metro cities.
Courses of action :
I. Public should be encouraged to share their private vehicles while travelling to their work places.
II. Govt. should levy heavy taxes on motor cars in metro cities.

34. Statement : Increasing levels of air-pollution is creating healthhazards for people living in the cities.
Courses of action :
I. All industries should be shifted to the outskirts of the cities.
II. Transport Authorities should take steps for converting all public transport vehicles to run on CNG.

35. Statement : Large number of college students are found to be focusing more on fashion than on studies.
Courses of action :
I. Colleges should impose restrictions on use of fashionable clothes and accessories.
II. Colleges should keep the students busy enough with studies, so that they don’t find time for other things like fashion.

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes
or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer :
(A) If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(B) If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
(C) If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

36. (A) Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by privatevehicles.
(B) A major accident of a private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and injuries for many children.

37. (A) The city observed lowest temperature of the last decade accompanied by heavy fog during the week.
(B) Most of the flights from the city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the passengers.

38. (A) In the past few years the job market has improved for the professionally qualified youth.
(B) Many youth are not able to get jobs upto their expectations.

39. (A) During peak hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in most parts of the city.
(B) Many companies are planning to launch low priced vehicles.

40. (A) During evening hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movement of vehicles.
(B) Pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past.

Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Answers
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (E) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (E)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (E) 35. (E) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (E) 42. (E) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (A)

S.B.I. Clerical Staff Recruitment Exam 2007 General Awareness

S.B.I. Clerical Staff Recruitment Exam 2007 :
General Awareness



Who amongst the following cricketers became the ninth Indian to claim 150 or more wickets?
(A) A. Kumble
(B) A. Agarkar
(C) S. Tendulkar
(D) Harbhajan
(E) None of these


Who amongst the following returned to earth after a long 195 days stay in space?
(A) Angie Brewer
(B) Mike Leinbach
(C) Shruti Vadera
(D) Sunita Williams
(E) None of these


Japan PM Shinzo Abe came to office last year with huge support in his favour. But since last few months he is facing problems in his political survival. Which of the following actions taken by him does/do not enjoy support of the people of Japan (Pick up the correct statements.) ?

Decision to postpone Parliamentary elections.

Failing to control inflation which has gone to the level of 12% an unusual phenomenon in the history of Japan.

Decision to alIow USA to make an Army Base in some of its islands where US will have its nuclear 'war-heads.

(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3


'European Leaders agree on treaty' was the news in leading newspapers in recent past. Which of the following was the treaty on which leaders were of diverse views (Pick up the correct statements.) ?

The treaty was to make EURO Money a Universal currency for all financial! monetary transactions done by all the member countries w.e.f. April 2009.

Treaty was to replace the defunct constitution of the European Union by a new one.

Poland, one of the newest members of the Union was threatening to use its veto power if any change is done in the present set-up of the organization

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both I and 2
(E) Both 2 and 3


"Rajapaksha threatens to dissolve Lanka Parliament" was the news in leading newspapers a few days back. Which of the following was the reason owing to which President Rajapaksha threatens to take such a drastic step? (Pick up the correct statements.)

A number of MPs from Sri Lanka Freedom Party are defecting to join another party launched by another group of politicians.

A group of politicians under the leadership of former President Chandrika Kumartunga is demanding the postponement of elections for the post of President due in the month of November 2007 so that Chandrika can come back from exile and contest for the same.

Rajapaksha wants general public and also MPs to support his formula on peace with LTTE which is not acceptable to most of the MPs.

(A) All 1,2 and 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) Only 1


Madhesi National Liberation Front (MNLF) is an organization active in which of the following countries? .
(A) Pakistan
(B) Myanmar
(C) Uganda
(D) Iran
(E) Nepal


As per the Economic Survey 2006-07 the food grain production may not touch the target fixed for the year. What is the target of the same set for the period?
(A) 100 million tonnes
(B) 220 million tonnes
(C) 175 million tonnes
(D) 250 million tonnes
(E) 320 million tonnes


Which of the following private sector banks brought its equity share (follow on public issue) for which the price was set as Rs. 940 per equity?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) Karnataka Bank
(C) UTI Bank
(D) HDFC Bank
(E) None of these


Prime Minister of India recently unveiled an agricultural package during his visit to 53rd Meeting of the National Development Council. What is the size of the package?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crores
(B) Rs. 15,000 crores
(C) Rs. 20,000 crores
(D) Rs. 25,000 crores
(E) Rs. 30,000 crores


Which of the following States achieved 100% financial inclusion (Each and every family in the State has at least one bank account.) ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these


Rafal Nadal won the French Open Men's Singles Title -2007 after defeating who amongst the following?
(A) Mark Knowles
(B) Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Daniel Nestor
(D) Pavel Vizner
(E) Roger Federer


Who amongst the following has taken over as the Chairman of the 18th Law Commission set-up recently?
(A) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(B) Justice Bhagwan Das Rana
(C) Justice T. L. Venkataraman Iyer
(D) Mrs. Suryakanta Patil
(E) None of these


Who amongst the following was honoured with the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding given away recently?
(A) Mr. Umaru Yar' Adua
(B) Mr. Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva
(C) Mr. Vladimir Putin
(D) Mr. Felipe Calderon
(E) None of these


The Union Minister Mr. Mani Shankar Aiyar recently called a delegation from Thailand to visit Agartala, Guwahati and few other places in North-East to explore the possibilities to Thai investment there. Why was Mr. Mani Shankar involved in a meeting like this?
(A) He is the Minister for North-Eastern Region
(B) He is the Union Minister for Commerce and Industry
(C) He is the next Chief Minister of Assam as a caretaker government its functioning there till general election in January 2008
(D) Aiyar was asked to mediate the talks between Thai Delegation and Ministry of Commerce and Industry as a deadlock was developed between the two
(E) None of these


Who amongst the following actors won the ward for Best Actor in 8th International Indian Film Academy A wards Ceremony held recently?
(A) Saif Ali Khan
(B) Sanjay Dutt
(C) Arshad Warsi
(D) Abhishek Bachchan
(E) Hrithik Roshan


Mr. Sharad Pawar while talking to a group of Ministers (GOM) recently mentioned that "The Union and State Governments are preparing plans for the revival of sick mills". He also mentioned that, "There is not a single mill which has not lost some money in last few years". Mr. Sharad Pawar was talking about the revival of which of the following mills?
(A) Textile Mills
(B) Sugar Mills
(C) Jute Mills
(D) Public Sector Companies
(E) None of these


India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grew at which of the following rates during the year 2005-06 (Results were published in January 2007.) ?
(A) 7%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(D) 10%
(E) 6%


Which of the following rates is not decided by the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) Reverse Repo Rate
(D) Income Tax Rates
(E) All of these


Prices of Iron ore in Global market registered a substantial rise in last few months (24%). This is attributed to the huge demand of the same in Global Market. Which of the following is a major importer of the Iron ore?
(A) France
(B) South Africa
(C) Singapore
(D) Britain.
(E) China


'Bharti Airtel', the largest mobile company of India recently joined the elite club of companies earning profits of more than US $ I billion. What has been the net profit of the Company in the year 2006-07 (About) ?
(A) Rs. 3,500 crores
(B) Rs. 4,000 crores
(C) Rs. 4,250 crores
(D) Rs. 4,450 crores
(E) Rs. 4,500 crores


The World Islamic Economic Forum was held recently in
(A) Malaysia
(B) Kuwait
(C) Iran
(D) Brazil
(E) Indonesia


Which of the following African countries recently launched its communication satellite for the first time (The satellite was launched from China.) ?
(A) Nigeria
(B) Kenya
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Mauritius
(E) None of these


'SEBI' bans some companies for their role in 'F and a Scam', was the news in some major newspapers. What is the full form of 'F and O' ?
(A) Fair and Optimum
(B) Free and Operational
(C) Future and Operations
(D) Future and Options
(E) None of these


The President of Brazil was recently on a visit to India where he signed several trade agreements. Which of the following has been the major area of trade relations between the two countries?
(A) Oil exploration
(B) Supply of agro products
(C) Production of nuclear fuel
(D) Import of electronic goods
(E) None of these


Which of the following countries has decided to build a road to the base camp of Mt. Everest?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these


Which of the following was the major issue of discussion in the G-8 Summit held recently in Germany?
(A) Subsidy to agro products
(B) Climate protection
(C) Financial Aid to Iraq
(D) Nuclear Technology and possibility of space war
(E) None of these


'Dausa' which has been in news recently is a town in
(A) Gujarat
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Rajasthan


As per the reports published by the 'Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)' which of the following BRIC countries has generated maximum new jobs in the past few years?
(A) China
(B) Russia
(C) India
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these


In an important meeting of the National Development Council held in New Delhi the Prime Minister of India made a special mention of a particular sector of Indian economy which in his opinion was suffering from a 'Technological Fatigue for lack of breakthrough in production." He was talking of which of the following sector?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Oil Sector
(C) Service Sector
(D) Defence Sector
(E) None of these


Mr. Digambar V. Kamat has taken over as which of the following a few months back?
(A) Governor of Goa
(B) Chief Minister of Goa
(C) Governor of Meghalaya
(D) Governor of Rajasthan
(E) None of these


Miss Riyo Mori who was crowned as Miss Universe 2007 belongs to which of the following countries?
(A) Japan
(B) U.S.A.
(C) China
(D) Singapore
(E) South Korea


Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'Shame' published recently?
(A) Chandar S. Sundaram
(B) Namita Gokhale
(C) Jaswindar Sanghara
(D) Anita Desai
(E) None of these


Who amongst the following Indians was recently awarded King Charles II Medal by the UK ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Smt. Vasundhara Raje
(E) None of these


As per Union Budget 2007-08 how much amount the Govt. of India has provided for Women Specific Schemes/Programmers for 2007-08 (Approximately) ?
(A) Rs. 7,700 crores
(B) Rs. 8,700 crores
(C) Rs. 9,300 crores
(D) Rs. 10,000 crores
(E) Rs. 10,500 crores


Which of the following countries has decided to offer knighthood to Salman Rushidie ?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) Germany
(D) U.K.
(E) None of these


Who amongst the following is the author of the famous classical book. "A Passage to India" ?
(A) Mark Twain
(B) Nayantara Sehgal
(C) Nirad C. Choudhuri
(D) E. M. Foster
(E) None of these


The Government of India has bought RBI's entire stake in the State Bank of India in about Rs. 35,531 crores. What is the share of the RBI in total stake of the State Bank (About) ?
(A) 40%
(B) 48%
(C) 50%
(D) 52%
(E) 60%


How much amount approximately the Govt. of India is planning to provide for Mid Day Meal Scheme (As per Budget 2007-08)?
(A) Rs. 5,000 crores
(B) Rs. 6,000 crores
(C) Rs. 7,300 crores
(D) Rs. 8,000 crores
(E) Rs. 8,300 crores


As per the Economic Survey 2006-07 India's share in World Export has been
(A) 0.5%
(B) 0.75%
(C) 1 %
(D) 1.25%
(E) 1.5%


As per the figures given in the newspapers what is the approximate investment in various 'Special Economic Zones' till date in India?
(A) Rs. 20,000 crores
(B) Rs. 25,000 crores
(C) Rs. 30,000 crores
(D) Rs. 35,000 crores
(E) Rs. 40,000 Crores

Answers
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6.(E) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (E) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (E) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(E) 38.(C) 39.(E) 40.(B)

S.B.I. Probationary Officers Exam., 2008 General Awareness/Computer Knowledge

S.B.I. Probationary Officers Exam., 2008

General Awareness/Computer Knowledge

(Held On 27–4–2008)



1. India recently signed an agreement with France for seeking cooperation in the field of nuclear energy for civil purposes. Which of the following is/are the part(s) of the deal ?
1. India will get nuclear fuel for all its existing Atomic Power Plants from France.
2. France will help India in building seven new Atomic Power Plants in India from 2008–2012 based on French Technology.
3. India will help France in redesigning three major Atomic Power Plants in France based on Fission Technology in which only India has gained the expertise in the world.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. Which of the following is/are not the part of the annual Global Employment Trends report of the International Labour Organization released in January 2008 ?
1. Economic turbulence throughout the world owing to credit market turmoil and rising oil prices could spur an increase in global unemployment in the year 2008.
2. The report mentions that the service sector, which used to provide jobs to about 43% people has lost its craze as its percentage has come down to 36% only.
3. Agriculture has again become the major employment-generating sector as its share during 2007 was 58% globally.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) Both 1 and 2

3. Which of the following is not the recommendations of the Economic Survey 2007-08 which was presented in the Parliament sometime back ?
1. Decontrol sugar, fertilizer and pharmaceutical segments/sectors.
2. Do not sign 123 nuclear agreement with USA as corporate investment in nuclear sector is very dangerous trend.
3. Introduce multi-application smart cards to empower recipients of the benefits of the wide range of Govt. schemes so that recipients can receive remittances directly into their bank accounts via smart cards without any leakages or corruption.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

4. As per the reports in the newspapers what has been the average growth of GDP during 10th plan period (2002–07) ?
(A) 9%
(B) 9·33%
(C) 8%
(D) 8·7%
(E) 7·6%

5. Which of the following is/are not the part(s) of the Union Budget 2008-09 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008 ?
1. Defence allocation is increased by 10% to reach more than Rs. 1,00,000 crore
2. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the rural districts
3. Debt waiver scheme launched to help all farmers irrespective of their land holdings
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

6. Which of the following states has declared 2008 as the ‘Year of Education’ ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these

7. The Govt. of India recently provided a special developmental package of Rs. 10,000 crore to which of the following states of the North-East India ?
(A) Assam
(B) Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Meghalaya
(E) None of these

8. The provision of credit and other financial services and products of very small amount to the poor in rural and semi-urban and urban areas to enable them to raise their income level and living standard is known as—
(A) Corporate Banking
(B) Personal Banking
(C) Micro Credit
(D) Non-Banking finance
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following is the name of India’s one of the major microfinance Institution ?
(A) Grameen
(B) Compartamos
(C) Brac
(D) Bantra
(E) Spandana

10. The Reserve Bank of India has issued certain guidelines on Recovery Agents. Which of the following is/are part(s) of these guidelines ?
1. Agents cannot resort to intimidation verbal or physical.
2. Banks have to ensure that agents are trained and sensitized.
3. Banks can only rely on legal remedies for recovery of dues.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

11. Which of the following is/are not the constituent sector(s) of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India ?
1. Agriculture and allied activities
2. Foreign Exchange Reserve
3. Industry
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) Only 2

12. Who amongst the following is selected as the “Banker of the year 2007” by the Business Standard ?
(A) M. V. Kamath
(B) K. C. Chakrabarty
(C) Anil Khandelwal
(D) O. P. Bhatt
(E) None of these

13. In the Union Budget 2008-09 the Govt. has provided a huge amount to help agricultural sector. What in fact is/are the problem(s) of the farmers owing to which they are in crisis ?
1. Agriculture in most part of the country is based on Rains, which has become highly erratic and irregular since last few years.
2. Most of the farmers are using genetically modified crops in some regions. These crops are not so productive as they were supposed to be.
3. The input costs are relatively high due to purchase of fertilizer and pesticides.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

14. Which of the following countries has recently joined the World Trade Organization for which a special ceremony was organized ?
(A) Russia
(B) Bhutan
(C) Nepal
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Ukraine

15. Kenya is passing through a state of turmoil these days and atleast 1000 people have been killed in recent past. What was/were the main reason(s) for this civil unrest there ?
1. The Presidential elections took place in Kenya in December 2007, which were not considered fair by a group of people there.
2. Some European countries are trying to develop some secret nuclear facilities there which is not liked by opposition leaders of Kenya. Their protest has taken a violent turn.
3. Kenya has been asked by the UNO to accommodate around one lakh refugees from various African countries. Locals are dead against this proposal.
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Only 3 is true
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are true
(E) None of these

16. Which of the following is considered an Annual Indicator of the Economy of the country ?
1. Actual Rainfall
2. Population
3. Wholesale price index
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

17. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries which is named as “A Shared Vision for the 21st Century” ?
(A) Russia
(B) Singapore
(C) China
(D) France
(E) None of these

18. Which of the following is the part of Non-Life Insurance which is very much popular these days ?
1. Insurance of Livestock
2. Crop Insurance
3. Insurance against natural disasters
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

19. Samak Sundaravej has taken over as the new—
(A) Prime Minister of Singapore
(B) Prime Minister of Thailand
(C) President of Singapore
(D) President of Thailand
(E) None of these

20. India and Japan signed a Currency Swap deal. How will this deal help each other ?
1. Japan would swap upto US$ 3 billion for Indian rupee to prevent any currency crisis in India.
2. India would swap upto US$ 3 billion for Yen if Japan were in trouble.
3. This agreement would be valid for a period of 20 years.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

21. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of a Non-Government Organization (NGO) which provides financial security and independence to rural people ?
(A) SEWA
(B) AMUL
(C) CRY (D) IFSM
(E) None of these

22. What is ‘H5N1’ a term, which was very much in news recently ?
(A) It is a new category of visa provided by the USA for students
(B) It is the name of the virus which causes Bird flue
(C) It is the code name of India’s Space Mission 2010
(D) It was the code name of the military operation launched by Sri Lanka against LTTE
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following State Govts. launched a Rs. 40,000 crore “Ganga Expressway project” ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
(E) Uttar Pradesh

24. Which of the following countries is going to elect its first 47 member’s parliament for the first time in the history of the country ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Pakistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
(E) None of these

25. India recently prepared a Draft of the Labour Pact with which of the following countries to protect the rights of the large number of Indian labour working there ?
(A) China
(B) USA
(C) UK
(D) Malaysia
(E) None of these

26. The Sensex of the Bombay Stock Exchange is highly volatile and fluctuates violently. Which of the following was one major reason of crash landing of the market in recent past ?
(A) Sub prime crisis
(B) Economic Reforms
(C) GDP Growth
(D) General Budget 2008-09
(E) None of these

27. Which of the following countries has landed into deep turmoil as the Govt. of the country has announced the formal end of the 2002 Norwegian–Mediated ceasefire Agreement with the rebel group of the country ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Pakistan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following State Govts. has launched a special scheme for girl child named as ‘Ladki-2008 scheme’ ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Goa
(E) None of these

29. Rahul Banerjee won which of the following National Senior Championship held in January 2008 ?
(A) Badminton
(B) Chess
(C) Archery
(D) Golf
(E) None of these

30. Who amongst the following is the author of the novel ‘Without Dreams’ ?
(A) Shahbano Bilgrami
(B) Saeed Mirza
(C) Javed Akhtar
(D) Shabana Azmi
(E) None of these

31. ‘World Day for water’ was observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 22nd January
(B) 22nd February
(C) 22nd March
(D) 22nd April
(E) None of these

32. Sunita Williams is the recipient of which of the following awards given away recently ?
(A) Woman of the year 2007
(B) Padma Bhushan
(C) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(D) Pravasi Indian Award 2007
(E) None of these

33. The Fifth National Winter Games were organized in—
(A) Jaipur
(B) Gulmarg
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Chennai
(E) Delhi

34. Which of the following films won the Best Film Award in the 65th Golden Globe Awards ceremony ?
(A) Away from Her
(B) Atonement
(C) No country for old Man
(D) I’m Not there
(E) None of these

35. Who amongst the following won the Men’s singles title of Australian Open Tennis 2008 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Jo-Wilfried Tsonga
(C) Jonathan Erlich
(D) Andy Ram
(E) None of these

36. The ……… of a system includes the programs or instructions.
(A) hardware
(B) icon
(C) information
(D) software
(E) None of these

37. Which of the following displays programs that are currently running ? A single click on one of the program icons will bring the window up.
(A) Menu bar
(B) Task bar
(C) Title bar
(D) Status bar
(E) None of these

38. In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to—
(A) put the appropriate graphics and links on the document
(B) save the document in simple text format
(C) use your web browser as an editor and save as URL
(D) save as HTML
(E) None of these

39. Which of the following displays to the right of the space where the text will be inserted when you type ?
(A) Screen tip
(B) Insertion point
(C) Rulers
(D) Office Assistant
(E) None of these

40. Something which has easilyunderstood instructions is said to be………
(A) user friendly
(B) information
(C) word processing
(D) icon
(E) None of these

41. The copy command saves to—
(A) the desktop
(B) the clipboard
(C) Microsoft Word
(D) Paste
(E) None of these

42. An example of non-numeric data is—
(A) Bank balance
(B) Examination marks
(C) Real Numbers
(D) Employee Address
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following displays the buttons for changing text style, alignment and size ?
(A) Standard toolbar
(B) Status bar
(C) Drawing toolbar
(D) Formating toolbar
(E) None of these

44. Arranging of data in a logical sequence is known as—
(A) Classifying
(B) Searching
(C) Sorting
(D) Reproducing
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following tools is not normally used during systems analysis ?
(A) Program Flow Chart
(B) Grid Chart
(C) System Flow Chart
(D) Question Check-list
(E) None of these

46. A single application that combines the major features of several types of applications is called—
(A) integrated software
(B) a suite
(C) a combo package
(D) high-end
(E) None of these

47. The word processing task associated with changing the appearance of documents is—
(A) Writing
(B) Formatting
(C) Editing
(D) Storing
(E) None of these

48. In order to save an existing document with a different name you need to—
(A) retype the document and give it a different name
(B) use the Save as… command
(C) copy and paste the original document to a new document and then save
(D) use Windows Explorer to copy the document to a different location and then rename it
(E) None of these

49. It is better to copy a file from a floppy disk to a hard disk, then open the copy on the hard disk because—
(A) a floppy disk is easily moved from one computer to another
(B) you can store more on a hard disk
(C) the computer cannot open a file stored on a floppy disk
(D) reading a hard disk is much faster and safer
(E) None of these

50. The best reason that a computer needs to have a hard disk is because—
(A) it can then use the same programs as other computers
(B) it would not work without one
(C) it can store information when it is switched off
(D) it can store information while it is working
(E) None of these

Answers
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (E)
11. (E) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (E) 22. (B) 23. (E) 24. (A) 25. (E) 26. (E) 27. (D) 28. (E) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)