FCI Management Trainee Accounts Question Paper

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)


2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)


3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)


4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)


5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)


6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)


7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)


8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)


9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)


10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)


11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)


12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)


13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)


14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)


15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)


16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)


17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)


18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)


19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)


20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)


21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)


22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)
24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)


25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)


27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)
28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)
29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)


30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)
31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)
33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)
34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)


35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)
36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)


37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)
39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)
41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)
42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)
43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)


46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)


47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)


48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)


49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)


50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)

Food Corporation of India (FCI) Category III Recruitment Syllabus

SYLLABUS OF WRITTEN EXAM FOR CAT. III

1 Aptitude Question Paper:

This question paper is to be attempted by all candidates. The question paper will consist of 100 objective type questions. All questions carry equal marks. The components of the question paper are as given below:

General Intelligence & Reasoning:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate's inference and logic from the given information. It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, etc.

General Awareness and Current Affairs:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate’s general knowledge and current affairs. Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and current events and apart from that general awareness about the concerned region/zone for which advertisement has been published for will also be tested. The test may also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic Environment, General Polity, Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research, etc.

 Numerical Aptitude:

This sub-test is designed to test the quantitative ability of the candidates. The test consists of questions on Addition,Multiplication, Division, Fractions, Percentage, Rate of Interest, Work and Task, Ratio and Proportion, Distance, Profit & Loss,Mensuration, Algebra and Geometry, etc.

Data Analysis and Sufficiency:

This sub test is designed to test the ability of candidate to interpret and analyse the information and the data provided in the form of table, line graph, bar graphs, pie charts or combination of them. It also includes questions to test the ability to find out the sufficiency of data to answer the questions.

English Language:

This sub-test is aimed to test candidate’s ability to comprehend a situation from a given passage and testing the language ability of the candidates in day to day communication in English. It includes questions on synonyms, antonyms, words with corresponding meanings, singular, plural, one word substitutes, idioms and phrases, correct spellings, etc.

Computer Awareness:

This sub-test is designed to test candidate’s knowledge of basic computer operations, MS Office including MS Word, MS Excel, MS PowerPoint, MS Access operations, emails, internet and websites, basic computer hardware and languages.

2. Technical Paper:

This additional component will have 30 objective type questions separately for accounts and quality control and this paper to be attempted in addition to Aptitude Paper by the candidates applying for the post of AG III (Accounts) and AG III (Quality Control) respectively. All questions carry equal marks. This subtest will include technical questions based on the broad job requirement and prescribed educational qualifications for the post of AG III (Accounts) and AG III (Quality Control). The above guidelines are informative and indicative for the candidates. The actual questions may vary in difficulty level and content dispersion.

FCI MANAGEMENT TRAINEE SELECTION PROCESS

The selection process will be separately conducted by different Zones consisting of written test, group discussion (GD) and interview. The written test will comprise of 90 multiple choice question of general aptitude consisting of Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness, Management and Current Affairs for the post of Management Trainees (Genl./Depot/Movt.) and of 90 multiple choice questions on General Accounting and Finance for candidates applying for MT (Accounts). The test for MT (Genl./Depot/Movt.) will be followed by the test for MT (Accounts). The examination dates are as follows:
10.04.2011 - North East Zone
24.04.2011 - East Zone
08.05.2011 - South Zone
15.05.2011 - North Zone
22.05.2011 - West Zone

FCI Assistant Grade III Exam Paper

1. Total cropped area in India is:
(a) 137 mha
(b) 142 mha
(c) 147 mha
(d) 152 mha
2. The average agricultural production from irrigated area is:
(a) 1/8 tonnes/ha
(b) 2.0 tonnes/ha
(c) 2.4 tonnes/ha
(d) 2-8 tonnes/ha
3. Indian agriculture is facing the following major problems. Which is NOT CORRECT?
(a) Land degradation
(b) Rising population
(c) Lack of bullock power
(d) Stagnant cultivable area
4. The area occupied by legume in India is
(a) 24 mha
(b) 29 mha
(c) 34 mha
(d) 39 mha
5. The principle oil seed crop of India is
(a) Sesame
(b) Mustard
(c) Linseed
(d) Groundnut
6. Which fiber crop occupies largest area in India?
(a) Jute
(b) Flax
(c) Cotton
(d) Sunnhemp
7. First agricultural university was established
(a) Ludmana
(b) Pusa
(c) Kanpur
(d) Pant Nagar
8. Nobel Prize for Peace was awarded to Dr. Norman Borlaug in
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1972
9. Dr Rajendra Singh Paroda has been felicitated
with the award
(a) Padam Shri
(b) Padam Bhushan
(c) Padam Vibhushan
(d) Bharat Ratna
10. To be self reliant in agriculture the following growth rate per year is necessary
(a) 3.0%
(b) 3.5%
(c) 4.0%
(d) 4.5%
11. On the basis of agro climatic conditions Pali,
Jalore, Sirohi and Jodhpur are included in Zone
(a) II-B
(b) II-A
(c) I-B
(d)I-A
12. Which state is devoid of arid zone?
(a) Punjab
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh
13. Indian Institute of Soil Science is located at
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Hisar
(c) New Delhi
(d) Bhopal
14. The irrigation water requirement of onion is
(a) 60 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) 30 cm
15. Sowing of second crop in between the standard rows of the first crop before its removal is called
(a) Inter cropping
(b) Multi copping
(c) Intensive cropping
(d) Relay cropping
16. The cropping system beneficial to prevent soil erosion due to winds is
(a) Mixed cropping
(b) Strip cropping
(c) Relay cropping
(d) Multi cropping
17. The optimum temperature for sugarcane is
(a) 21-27 °C
(b) 14-29 °C
(c) 25-30 °C
(d) 28-34 °C
18. Per hectare seed rate of guar is
(a) 3 kg
(b) 6 kg
(c) 9 kg
(d)12 kg
19. The production of oil seeds in. India during 1996-97 was
(a) 22 million tonnes
(b) 25 million tonnes
(c) 24 million tonnes
(d) 26 million tonnes
20. The layer in the soil profile where material removed from the two overlaying horizons is deposited is called
(a) A-horizon
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) D-horizon
21. The diameter of very fine sand particles is-
(a) Below 0.002 mm
(b) 0.05-0.002mm
(c) 0.01-0.05 mm
(d) 0.05-0.10mm
22. The mineral weathering and clay formation are rapid where the climate is-
(a) Warm and moist
(b) Warm and dry
(c) Cold and moist
(d) Cold and dry
23. Alkali soils are treated with gypsum to correct the deficiency of-
(a) Sulphur
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Zinc
24. Which micro-nutrient is most deficient in Indo-Gangatic alluvium soils?
(a) Iron
(b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) Manganese
25. Which fertilizer is most beneficial for alkali soils?
(a) Urea
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Calcium ammonium nitrate
(d) Ammonium nitrate

Answers:

1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a
6. c 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. c
11. a 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. d
16. b 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. b

FCI AGRICULTURE Solved objective Question

1. How many factors are identified
for influencing plant growth till
now ?
(A) 55
(B) 60
(C) 52
(D) 50
Answer:C
2, How does the moisture stress
affect the cell
(A) Affect cell division
(B) Affect cell expansion
(C) Cell mortality rate is affected
(D) No effect on cell
Answer:A
3. At the vegetative growth stage,
flowering is stopped in food-
grain crops, known as-
(A) sigmoid growth curve
(B) determinate growth
(C) indeterminate growth
(D) grand growth period
Answer:B
4. Which one of the following can
be assessed by using the follow-
ing equation ?
A= Economic Production / Biomass Production
(A) Panicle emergence rate
(B) Rate of flowering
(C) Harvest Index
(D) Leaf production rate
Answer:C
5. How much radiation energy
percentage radiating on plant is
used in photosynthesis ?
(A) 0-50%-210%
(B) 0-42%-1•66%
(C) 0-25%-0-30%
(D) 0-16%-0-24%
Answer:B
6. The crop with yarns of sunnhemp is prepared in-
(A) 12-15 weeks
(B) 15-17 weeks
(C) 10-12 weeks
(D) 8-10 weeks
Answer:A
7. Which is not an inorganic matter
in the following ?
(A) Magnesium
(B) Iron
(C) Fat
(D) Iodine
Answer:C
8. Which is the highest digestible
protein non-leguminous crop
among the following
(A) Napier
(B) Maize silage
(C) Maize
(D) Iowar
Answer:D
9. Which disease occurs, when
more sorghum is consumed ?
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Nightblindness
(D) Pellagra
Answer:D
10. Which Sorghum variety is not
multicut ?
(A) Pusa Chari-2
(B) M.P. Chari-2
(C) M.P. Chari
(D) U.P. Chari-1
Answer:D
11. Which is not true in relation to
Bajra ? ‘
(A) Penniseturn typhoides
(B) Graminae family
(C) Chromosome No. – 20
(D) OriginAfrica
Answer:D
12. Which variety of Barley is husk-
less
(A) Pragati (K 508)
(B) Ritambhara (K 551)
(C) Geetamjali (K 1149)
(D) Karan-3
Answer:D
13. Which is not true in relation to
Gram ?
(A) Subfamily——Papilionaceae
(B) Chromosome No.—22
(C) Acid——Ma.lic and Oxalic
(D) Origin—North America
Answer:D
14. Which does not match in relation
to Cotton ?
(A) C-520 —— Diploid
(B) G-27 — Diploid
(C) Vikas — American
(D) Ranivan — American
Answer:D
15. Which is not matched in relation
to sugarcane ?
(A) Seed treatment—-Aglol 3%
(B) For seed—6-7 month old crop
(C) Sowing—Upper portion is more used
(D) After flowering—Used for sowing
Answer:D
16. Which is not basic principle of
Agronomy ?
(A) To select appropriate mate-
rials for seed & sowing
(B) Management of soil and
climate
(C) Appropriate intercropping
activities management for crop
(D) Livestock management for
Agriculture
Answer:D
17. Where and when was World
Meteorological Organization
established ?
(A) New York – 1980
(B) Washington-1978
(C) Geneva—1978
(D) Rome- 1976
Answer:C
18. Effective cause of atmospheric
pressure is not-
(A) temperature
(B) altitude from the sea level
(C) rotation of earth
(D) soil erosion
Answer:D
19. Which is not correct in the
following ?
(A) X-rays and Gamma rays
— 9% of energy
(B) Visible lighting rays -41%
of energy
(C) Infrared rays -50% of
Y energy
(D) Ultraviolet rays- 10% of
energy
Answer:A
20. Match List-I with List•II and
select the correct answer using
the codes given below-
List-I
(a) Paddy (b) Wheat
(c) Maize (d) Groundnut
List-II ’
1. 20°C 2. 22°C
3. 25°C 4. 26°C
Codes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Answer:B
21, Which states are the highest 8:
lowest producers of Potato crop ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand
(B) Gujarat and Assam
(C) Uttar Pradesh & Himachalpradesh
(D) Bihar & Kashmir
Answer:A
22. Which elements are useful in
energy storage, transfer and
bonding ?
(A) N P K
(B) N S P
(C) N K S
(D) None of these
Answer:C
23. Which of the following elements
play an important role in nitro-
gen metabolism ?
(A) Magnesium
(B) Manganese
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Iron
Answer:C
24. How much Brinjal seed may be
obtained from one hectare area 7
(A) 150-200 kg
(B) 100-150 kg
(C) 200-300 kg
(D) 75-125 kg
Answer:D
25. Which species of honeybee is not
Indian ?
(A) Apis florea
(B) Apis dorsata
(C) Apis cerana
(D) Apis mellifera
Answer:D
26. Which of the following is the
cross of Karan Swiss ?
(A) Sahiwal x Brown Swiss
(B) Sahiwal x Holstein
(C) Hariyana x Brovsm Swiss
(D) Hariyana >< ]ersey
Answer:A
27. For how many years is Sheep
able to breed ?
(A) 10 years
(B) 7years
(C) 5 years
(D) 12 years
Answer:A
28, l-low much area mz is required
for a Goat ?
(A) 0-9 ~ 1•O m2
(B) 1-1-5 m2
(C) 0-75 — 090 mz
(D) 1-5 – 1-75 mz
Answer:C
29. Goal of extension education is-
(A) To promote income of the
farmers
(B) To promote production of
the crops
(C) To promote new crops
(D) To promote scientific out-
look
Answer:D
30. The major fungi that effect food-
grains in storage are-—
(A) Mucor
(B) Rhizopus
(C) Candida
(D) Aspergillus
Answer:A
31. The leaching loss of Nitrogen (N)
is more in the form of–
(A) Ammonia
(B) Nitrate
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Water solution
Answer:B
32. Which is not a natural factor
affecting soil fertility ?
(A) Topography
(B) Soil age
(C) Air
(D) Parent material
Answer:C
33. Approximately how much area
in lakh hectares of saline and
alkali soils are there in Uttar
Pradesh ?
(A) 15-00 lakh hectares
(B) 12-4 lakhhectares
(C) 10-4 lakh hectares
(D) 14-4 lakh hectares
Answer:B
34. How much percentage of soluble
salts are present in Alkali soils ?
(A) 1% • 2%
(B) 0-1% — 0-2%
(C) 1-5% — 2-5%
(D) 2% ~ 3%
Answer:B
35, How much is the cropped area in
Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) 9%
(B) 11%
(C) 12%
(D) 8%
Answer:C
36. The monsoon airs in the country
reaches at which bank first of
all ?
(A) Coastal region of Orissa
(B) Bay of Bengal region
(C) Coastal region of Kerala of
South Indian region
(D) Kachchh region of Gujarat
Answer:C
37. A.D.P. to A.T.P. change is called
(A) Photosymthesis
(B) Phosphorylation
(C) Transpiration
(D) Oxidation
Answer:B
38. What is the order of C 4 plants 7
(A) Sugarcane — Maize — Sudan
grass — Bajra
(B) Sugarcane — Cotton – Paddy
- Maize
(C) Sudan grass – Sugarcane -
Paddy •- Bajra
(D) Cotton — Maize ~ Bajra —
Sugarcane
Answer:A
39. At what stage are more nutrients
essentially required in cereal
crops ?
(A) Growth stage of plants
(B)` Formation of leaves
(C) Particle initiation
(D) Maturity of crops
Answer:A
40. At which stage of crop, there is
no compehtion for light, moisture
and nutrients 7
(A) Node formation stage
(B) Seedling stage
(C) Grain formation stage
(D) Before maturity stage
Answer:D
41. Approximately how much HCN
dose is harmful for animal feeding
(A) 0-25 gm
(B) 050 gm
(C) 2•50 gm
(D) 3-50 gm
Answer:B
42. Due to which reason is the
Napier Grass mixed with Cluster
bean or Cowpea for feeding ?
(A) Due to high crude fibre
(B) Due to oxalic acid
(C) Due to more carbohydrates
(D) Due to more HCN content
Answer:A
43. Which is the perennial variety of
Elephant Grass (Napier Grass) ?
(A) Pusa Giant
(B) NB-21 `
(C) Pusa Giant Napier
(D) Napier-1
Answer:C
44. More than how much percentage
of loss of urea should not be
during silage fermentation ?
(A) 20% — 22%
(B) 15% — 18%
(C) 10% — 12%
(D) 8% — 10%
Answer:D
45. From where is Krishak Bharati
magazine published ?
(A) G. B. Pant University of
Agriculture & Technology, Pant
Nagar
(B) C. S. A, University of Agriculture & Technology, Kanpur
(C) Narendra Dev University of
Agriculture and Technology,
Fajzabad
(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
University of Agriculture and
Technology, Meerut
Answer:B
46. How much minimum temperature is essential for wheat germi-
nation and optimum temperature for crop growth in degree
Celsius ?
(A) 3•5°C-5•5°C and 20°C—22°C
(B) 5•6°C—7•5°C and 16°C—18°C
(C) 8°C—10°C and 30°C—35°C
(D) 10°C—12″C and 25°C—30°C
Answer:D
47. In case of availability of two
irrigations for wheat, at which
critical stage crop should be
irrigated ?
(A) Tillering and Flowering
(B) Crown Root Initiation and
Milking stage p
(C) Crown Root Initiation and
Flowering
(D) Late joint and Dough stage
Answer:C
48. Which is not the symptom of
Khuim disease
(A) Dark grey colour spots on
leaves
(B) Adverse effect on root
growth
(C) More diseases stop the crop
growth
(D) Stem of plants tum and fall 1
down
Answer:A
49. What is the suitable Rabi maize
variety ?
(A) Sharadmani
(B) Azad Uttam
(C) Naveen
(D) Ganga — 5
Answer:A
50. Which disease is not related to
Bajra ?
(A) Green Ear
(B) Ergot
(C) Wilt
(D) Rust
Answer:C

GK For FCI Assistant Job exam

1. Which is the largest airport in the world?
(A) Singapore Airport
(B) The Kaulalumpur International Airport
(C) Heathrow at London
(D) The King Khalid airport at Saudi Arabia
2. Prithvi is a?
(A) Surface-to-air missile
(B) Surface-to-surface missile
(C) Air-to-surface missile
(D) Air-to-air missile
3. At the end of 2001, the Indian government approved the cultivation of B. T. Cotton. Which multinational company is the major beneficiary of this deci sion?
(A)Cargil
(B) BASF
(C) Monsanto
(D) All of these
4. The World Literacy Day is celebrated on?
(A) 8th September
(B) 5th June
(C) 15th August
(D) 5th September
5. Which was the first University to be established in the world?
(A) Harvard University
(B) Nalanda University
(C) Oxford University
(D) None of these
6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through?
(A)glass
(B) vacuum
(C)air
(D) water
7. Which of the following chemicals has been recently allowed by the government of India to be mixed with petrol?
(A) Methanol
(C) Kerosene
(B) Ethanol
(B) Butanol
8. What is the name of the instrument used to measure blood pressure?
(A) Barometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Sphygmomanometre
9. Who was the Prime Minister of England when India got independence?
(A) Attlee
(C) Thatcher
(B) Churchill
(D) Wilson
10. Which, among the following, would you consider a historical source?
(A) Numismatics
(B) Epigraphs
(C) Rock paintings
(D) Census reports
11. What is not correct about a soft loan?
1. It is a loan bearing no rate of interest
2. It has an interest rate which is above the true cost of the capital lent
3. The world bank gives soft loans to developing countries for long-term capital
projects
(A)Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C)2and3
(D) 1 and3
12. Which is the only historical monument which can be seen by
the naked eyes from the moon?
(A) The Leaning Tower of Pisa
(B) The Pyramids of Egypt
(C) The Statue of Liberty, NewYork
(D) The Great Wall of China
13. Formal services of Credit do not include?
(A) Self-help groups
(B) Cooperatives
(C) Employers
(D) L.I.C.
14. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to?
1. Set up new factories
2. Buy existing local companies
3. Form partnerships with local companies
4. Invest in companies with low turn over
(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2and3
(C) 2,3and4
(D) All of the above
15. How many faces are there in an octahedron?
(A)4
(B)6
(C)8
(D) 12
16. Night-blindness is caused by lackof which vitamin?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
17. The most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere is?
(A) Argon
(C) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(D) Krypton
18. The breadth of the railway broadgauge is approximately?
(A)2m
(B) 1.88 m
(C)1.67 m
(D) 1.33 m
19. Which is the richest soil among the following?
(A) Black soil
(B) Red soil
(C) Laterite soil
(D ) Alluvial soil
20. Sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to the?
(A) shape of earth
(B) revolution of earth around the sun
(C) rotation of earth on its axis
(D) movements of the sun
21. A person of which of the following blood group can receive blood of any group?
(A)A
(B)AB
(C)B
(D)0
22. Evergreen type of forests are found in?
(A) Equatorial climate
(B) Monsoon climatic region
(C) Desert regions
(D) Mediterranean region
23. What is the other name for River Gangas?
(A) Sapthanadi
(B) Bhageerathi
(C) Savitri
(D) Bhadravati
24. The earth is?
(A)Spherical
(B)Elliptical
(C)Oblate spheroid
(D) Pralate spheroid
25. Which of the following set can not enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units?
(A) Length, mass and velocity
(B) Length, time and velocity
(C) Mass, time and velocity
(D) Length, time and mass
26 Which of the following is / are the main agents of soil erosion?
(A) Wind and water
(B) Rocks
(C) Sand
(D) High temperature and humidity
27. Who is the Minister of Agriculture of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Ran Vilas Paswan
(C) Shiv Raj Patil
(D) None of these
28. Monsoon is caused by?
(A) Revolution of Earth
(B) Movement of Clouds
(C) Seasonal reversal of the winds
(D) Larger change in amplitude of seasonal cycle of land temperature
29. Which is the last letter of the Greek alphabet?
(A) Omega
(B) Sigma
(C) Zeta
(D) Chi
30. Which is the birth place of Hitler?
(A) Germany
(B) Hungary
(C) Austria
(D) France
31. Who elects President of India?
(A) Lock Sabha
(B) Rajya Sahha
(C) People of India
(D) Parliament and State Assemblies
32. Which country is called the ‘Land of Cakes’?
(A)Britain
(B) Spain
(C)France
(D) Scotland
33. Which of the following books is not written by Kalidas?
(A) Kathasaritsagar
(B) Meghdutam
(C) Raghuvansham
(D) Pushpavan Vikasam
34. In India, the Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the
Presidential elections if?
(A) he himself is a candidate
(B) he is yet to prove his majority in the State legislature
(C) he is a member of the upper house of the State legislature
(D) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
35. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the house?
(A) Whenever he desires
(B) Whenever the house desires
(C) In the event of equality of votes
(D) Whenever his party directs
36. which of the following is not a cash crop?
(A)Jute
(B) Paddy
(C)Cashew-nut
(D) Rubber
37. Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of the
Bin Laden crisis, especially for having carried out the broadcast
of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West Asia?
(A) Star Asia
(B) B. B. C. Asia
(C) Al Jazeera
(D) Khaleed Times
38. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of?
(A) Nepal
(B) U. K.
(C) Spain
(D) Japan
39. Who was Karl Marx’s main collaborator on his famous works?
(A) V.I. Lenin
(B) Max Weber
(C) Fredrick Engels
(D) Joseph Stalin
40. Which is the first Asian country to host the Commonwealth
Games?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C)Malaysia
(D) China
Answers :
1    D
2    B
3    C
4    A
5    B
6    A
7    B
8    D
9    A
10    C
11    B
12    D
13    C
14    B
15    C
16    A
17    B
18    C
19    D
20    C
21    B
22    A
23    B
24    C
25    A
26    A
27    A
28    D
29    A
30    C
31    D
32    D
33    A
34    C
35    C
36    B
37    C
38    D
39    C
40    C

FCI Assistant Grade III (Technical) Exam Pattern

Selection Procedure:

The selection process consists of written test, group discussion and interview.

FCI Written Test Syllabus:

The written test will be in English only and in two parts.

Part I will consist of 60 multiple choice question of the relevant technical discipline and

Part II will consist of 60 multiple choice questions on general aptitude consisting of Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness and Current Affairs.

On qualifying the Written Test, GD & Interview will be held for short-listed candidates. It is essential to appear in every stage of the selection process.

FCI MANAGEMENT TRAINEE (MOVEMENT) EXAM PATTERN

Selection Process:

There will be a written test, group discussion and Interview. The written test will be conducted at various test centres across India and will have two parts,

Part-I:

60 Multiple Choice Question of the relevant technical discipline

Part-II:

60 multiple choice question of General Aptitude that includes:

a. Reasoning

b. Data Analysis

c. Computer awareness

d. General Awareness

e. Current Affairs

FCI Category IV Exam Pattern

The written test will be in two parts. Part I will consists of 60 multiple choice question of the relevant technical discipline and Part II will consist of 60 multiple choice questions on general aptitude consisting of Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness and Current Affairs.

FCI Agriculture Science Specialization Model Paper

1. Total cropped area in India is:

(a) 137 mha

(b) 142 mha

(c) 147 mha

(d) 152 mha

2. The average agricultural production from irrigated area is:

(a) 1/8 tonnes/ha

(b) 2.0 tonnes/ha

(c) 2.4 tonnes/ha

(d) 2-8 tonnes/ha

3. Indian agriculture is facing the following major problems. Which is NOT CORRECT?

(a) Land degradation

(b) Rising population

(c) Lack of bullock power

(d) Stagnant cultivable area

4. The area occupied by legume in India is

(a) 24 mha

(b) 29 mha

(c) 34 mha

(d) 39 mha

5. The principle oil seed crop of India is

(a) Sesame

(b) Mustard

(c) Linseed

(d) Groundnut

6. Which fiber crop occupies largest area in India?

(a) Jute

(b) Flax

(c) Cotton

(d) Sunnhemp

7. First agricultural university was established

(a) Ludmana

(b) Pusa

(c) Kanpur

(d) Pant Nagar

8. Nobel Prize for Peace was awarded to

Dr. Norman Borlaug in

(a) 1969

(b) 1970

(c) 1971

(d) 1972

9. Dr Rajendra Singh Paroda has been felicitated

with the award

(a) Padam Shri

(b) Padam Bhushan

(c) Padam Vibhushan

(d) Bharat Ratna

10. To be self reliant in agriculture the following growth rate per year is necessary

(a) 3.0%

(b) 3.5%

(c) 4.0%

(d) 4.5%

11. On the basis of agro climatic conditions Pali,

Jalore, Sirohi and Jodhpur are included in Zone

(a) II-B

(b) II-A

(c) I-B

(d)I-A

12. Which state is devoid of arid zone?

(a) Punjab

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Andhra Pradesh

13. Indian Institute of Soil Science is located at

(a) Ludhiana

(b) Hisar

(c) New Delhi

(d) Bhopal

14. The irrigation water requirement of onion is

(a) 60 cm

(b) 50 cm

(c) 40 cm

(d) 30 cm

15. Sowing of second crop in between the standard rows of the first crop before its removal is called

(a) Inter cropping

(b) Multi copping

(c) Intensive cropping

(d) Relay cropping

16. The cropping system beneficial to prevent soil erosion due to winds is

(a) Mixed cropping

(b) Strip cropping

(c) Relay cropping

(d) Multi cropping

17. The optimum temperature for sugarcane is

(a) 21-27 °C

(b) 14-29 °C

(c) 25-30 °C

(d) 28-34 °C

18. Per hectare seed rate of guar is

(a) 3 kg

(b) 6 kg

(c) 9 kg

(d)12 kg

19. The production of oil seeds in. India during 1996-97 was

(a) 22 million tonnes

(b) 25 million tonnes

(c) 24 million tonnes

(d) 26 million tonnes

20. The layer in the soil profile where material removed from the two overlaying horizons is deposited is called

(a) A-horizon

(b) B-horizon

(c) C-horizon

(d) D-horizon

21. The diameter of very fine sand particles is-

(a) Below 0.002 mm

(b) 0.05-0.002mm

(c) 0.01-0.05 mm

(d) 0.05-0.10mm

22. The mineral weathering and clay formation are rapid where the climate is-

(a) Warm and moist

(b) Warm and dry

(c) Cold and moist

(d) Cold and dry

23. Alkali soils are treated with gypsum to correct the deficiency of-

(a) Sulphur

(b) Calcium

(c) Magnesium

(d) Zinc

24. Which micro-nutrient is most deficient in Indo-Gangatic alluvium soils?

(a) Iron

(b) Zinc

(c) Copper

(d) Manganese

25. Which fertilizer is most beneficial for alkali soils?

(a) Urea

(b) Ammonium sulphate

(c) Calcium ammonium nitrate

(d) Ammonium nitrate

Answers:

1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a

6. c 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. c

11. a 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. d

16. b 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b

21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. b