WORLD GEOGRAPHY PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 1: Identify the climatic type which has cool summer (10 ° C to 15 ° C) and cold winter (0 ° C to 5 ° C) and rainfall throughout the year with no dry season

1. Df
2. Cw
3. Cs
4. Cf
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 2: Which one of the following latitudes forms a Great Circle?

1. 0 degree
2. 23-1/2 degree
3. 66-1/2 degree
4. 90 degree
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 3: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Russian platform is an extensive natural lowland. (2) The scandinavian Mountains were formed during the cambrian period. (3) Columbia-Snake plateau consists mainly of volcanic formations. (4) The Atlas Mountains are of Alpine orogeny.

1. 1, 2, 3, 4
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 1, 3, 4
4. 2, 3, 4
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 4: Large areas in India are subjected to considerable rainfall variability. Rainfall variability is likely to be the greates in areas of

1. Very high rainfall
2. High rainfall
3. Medium rainfall
4. Very low rainfall
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 5: Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

1. Folkland Current - East coast of South America
2. Renell Current - Bay of Biscay
3. Irminger current - East coast of Greenland
4. Cayenne Current - East coast of Africa
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 6: The Pacific Ocean was named so by

1. Bartholomew Diaz
2. Magellan
3. Vasco da Gama
4. Columbus
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 7: Which type of forest belt supplies most of the world's requirement of news print?

1. Evergreen forest
2. Deciduous forest
3. Coniferous forest
4. Mediterranean forest
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 8: Harvard Medical School is located in

1. Houston
2. Boston
3. New York
4. Texas
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 9: The hunting and gathering economy can support only

1. 1 person per sq. km
2. 3 persons per sq. km
3. 5 persons per sq. km
4. 7 persons per sq. km
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 10: The tropical cyclone of the Bay of Bengal are usually called

1. Hurricanes
2. Typhoons
3. Depression
4. Tornadoes
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 11: Which one of the following is not a correct example of tropical cyclones?

1. Tornado
2. Typhoons
3. Hurricanes
4. Northwesters
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 12: The first research project programme which focused on the El Nino – Southern Oscillation and its predictability was called

1. Climate Variability and Perdictability (CLIVAR)
2. Global Energy and Water Cycle Experiment (GEWEX)
3. Global Change and Terrestrial Ecosystem (GCTE)
4. Tropical Ocean and Global Atmosphere (TOGA)
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 13: Where is the headquarters of WTO located

1. Hague
2. New Delhi
3. Geneva
4. New York
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 14: The Suez Canal shortened the distance between India and Europe by:

1. 4000 km
2. 5000 km
3. 6000 km
4. 7000 km
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 15: The shift of aluminium industry from the Dneiper region to Siberia was made possible because of

1. Exploration of new bauxite sources
2. Development of hydroelectricity
3. New favourable market location
4. Development of efficient transportation
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 16: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

1. Szechwan Basin : Petroleum
2. Hainan region : Iron ore
3. Shansi region : Coal
4. Shensi region : Tin
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 17: Which country ranks top in the mining of gold?

1. India
2. South Africa
3. U.S.A.
4. Canada
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 18: The behavioural environment is meant by

1. Reality as it exists in nature
2. The decision based on reasoned thought
3. Man’s behaviour as a function of the environment
4. Reality as is perceived by individuals
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 19: Which place in the world is called as "Land of mid-night Sun"?

1. Bangladesh
2. Norway
3. South Africa
4. Japan
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 20: Which sea has been called the incubator of western civilization?

1. Black Sea
2. Mediterranean Sea
3. North Sea
4. Red Sea
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 21: what is the largest ocean in the world?

1. Atlantic
2. pacific
3. Arctic
4. Indian ocean
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 22: Mecca is located in

1. Saudi Arabia
2. Baharin
3. UAE
4. Qatar
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 23: Which one of the following is included in the World List of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO?

1. Kinnaur Region
2. Spiti Valley
3. Nallamalai Hills
4. Sundererbans
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 24: Peru is the -------country in South America.

1. third largest
2. largest
3. 2nd largest
4. 4th largest
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 25: Which one of the following statements is not correct about Netherlands?

1. It is the most densely populated country in Western Europe
2. It is an efficient dairy – producer in the European Community
3. It depends heavily on the imports of livestock feed
4. It is the largest exporter of butter in the world
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 26: Which City is Known as "City of Canals"?

1. Mexico
2. Venece
3. Damascus
4. Detroit
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 27: The layer of atmosphere which provides ideal flying conditions for largest jet aeroplane is

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Ionosphere
4. Exosphere
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 28: Which city once known as "Forbidden City"?

1. Nippon
2. Greenland
3. Peking
4. Detroit
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 29: Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

1. Rotameter : used for measuring distances on maps
2. Planimeter : used for measuring areas on maps
3. Pantograph : used for reduction of maps
4. Ediograph : used for measuring volumes
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 30: Who is the Managing Director IMF?

1. Rodrigo Rato
2. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
3. Daniel Vasella
4. Alberto Foutana
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 31: What is the capital of Australia?

1. Sydney
2. Melbourne
3. Caneberra
4. Perth
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 32: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: List-I (Tribe) List-II (Country) A. Chukchi 1. Indonesia B. Dayak 2. Mexico C. Lacandon 3. Russia D. Lese 4. Zaire

1. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
2. A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
3. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
4. A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 33: Tarim Basin of Sinkiang experience strong heat wave causing discomfort during early spring. The wind is popularly known as

1. Karaburan
2. Katabatic
3. Chinook
4. Fohn
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 34: who was the youngest president of USA

1. Bill Clinton
2. Theodore Roosewelt
3. Abraham Lincoln
4. Barak Obama
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 35: George Mason University is located in

1. Virginia
2. Illinois
3. Texas
4. New York
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 36: Who of the following revolutionaries set up the United India House in the USA?

1. Ramnath Puri and Vir Savarkar
2. Taraknath Das and G. D. Kumar
3. Lala Hardayal and Bhagat Singh
4. Harnam Singh and Bhagwan Singh
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 37: Capital of Qatar is

1. Doha
2. Riyadh
3. Abu Dhabi
4. Tel Aviv
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 38: Peru is the -------country in South America.

1. third largest
2. largest
3. 2nd largest
4. 4th largest
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 39: Which one of the following natural regions is not correctly matched with its economic base?

1. Canadian Prairies : Spring wheat cultivation
2. Argentine Pampas : Beef cattle ranching
3. Australian Downs : Normadic herding
4. South African Veld : Maize growing
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 40: Baylor College of Medicine is located in

1. Houston
2. Boston
3. Illinois
4. Texas
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 41: On July 6, 2003, UNESCO designated ------ as "World Heritage Site"

1. Tel Aviv
2. Doha
3. Dubai
4. Abu Dhabi
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 42: Who are Red Indians?

1. The old tribals of South India
2. Tribal inhabitants of Africa
3. Original inhabitants of America
4. None of these
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 43: The maximum length of a day on the poles is?

1. 12 hours
2. 24 hours
3. 3 months
4. 6 months
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 44: A place having an average annual temperature of 27 Degree centigrade and an annual rainfall of over 200 cms,could be

1. Moscow
2. Singapore
3. Nagpur
4. Teheran
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 45: The transition zone between two Ecosystem is called

1. Biome
2. Biotope
3. Ecotone
4. Sere
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 46: The climatic region with high temperature ,high relative humidity and low range of temperature is

1. Mediterranean
2. Monsoon
3. Savanna
4. Equatorial
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 47: Which is the lowest waterbody on earth?

1. Black sea
2. Dead sea
3. Aral sea
4. Red sea
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 48: Johns Hopkins University is located at

1. Baltimore
2. Texas
3. Illinois
4. Boston
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 49: Match List I with List II and select the correct code given below: List- I List- II (Waterfall) (Mode of Formation) (A) Kaieteur Falls (1) Hanging Valley Fall: (B) Living stone Falls (2) Caprock Fall (C) Yosemite Falls (3) Plateau Fall (D) Victoria Falls (4) Fault Line Scarp Fall
Code A B C D

1. 4 1 2 3
2. 4 2 1 3
3. 3 2 1 4
4. 3 1 2 4
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 50: Greenwich Mean Time is the local time of

1. 180 degree longitude
2. 80 degree west longitude
3. 0 degree longitude
4. 80 degree East longitude
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 51: Ratzel’s work was based on the concept

1. There is a dichotomy between physical and cultural aspects of geography
2. Geography is a scientific discipline
3. Physical environment controlled human activities
4. Geography is necessarily descriptive
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 52: Peru is a country located in

1. Western South America
2. Eastern South America
3. Southern South America
4. North part of South America
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 53: For his model of industrial location, Weber makes use of

1. Isogons
2. Isophenes
3. Isodapanes
4. Isotachs
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 54: The natural region which holds the Indian sub-continent is

1. Equatorial Climate Region
2. Mediterranean
3. Monsoon
4. Hot region
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 55: Identify the correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall :

1. Unsaturated air, condensation, dew point, precipitation
2. Dew point, condensation, unsaturated air, precipitation
3. Unsaturated air, dew point, condensation, precipitation
4. Dew point, precipitation, condensation, unsaturated air
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 56: Which is highest waterfall in the world?

1. Niagara
2. Angels
3. Jog FAlls
4. Thrimbika falls
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 57: Which one of the following concepts is associated with Vidal de La Blache?

1. Determinism
2. Possibilism
3. Environmentalism
4. Probabilism
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 58: Warm dry winds blowing down the east slopes of Rockies are known as

1. Fohn
2. Chinooh
3. Mistral
4. Northwesters
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 59: Hawaiion islands are located in

1. North Altantic Ocean
2. South Atlantic Ocean
3. North Pacific Ocean
4. South Pacific Ocean
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 60: Which country is an international leader in fishing, producing nearly 10 percent of the world's fish catch?

1. Peru
2. Holland
3. NewZealand
4. Australia
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 61: An approach of reasoning from particular to general is known as

1. Positivist
2. Normative
3. Inductive
4. Deductive
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 62: Which country's highest peak is Mt Ararat?

1. China
2. Turkey
3. Singapore
4. Italy
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 63: Huntington is noted for describing

1. Man as a product of the earth’s surface
2. The evolution of landforms
3. The effects of climate on human life
4. The historical-ecological study of the cultural landscape
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 64: The contrast in economic development between Israel and the other South-West Asian countries is due to

1. Desertic conditions of other countries
2. Mineral wealth of Israel
3. Irrigation facilities available in Israel
4. High-technology revolution in Israel
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 65: Which one of the following sites of the Indus valley Civilization had an ancient dockyard?

1. Kalibangan
2. LothaI
3. Rangpur
4. Harappa
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 66: Which one of the following creature did come to the earth first?

1. Man
2. Ape Man
3. Fish
4. Monkey
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 67: Who reached the North Pole first ?
Who reached the North Pole first ?

1. captain Ronald Amundson
2. captain Ronald Amriego
3. Captain Rossario
4. None
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 68: Which one is the largest island of world?

1. England
2. Australia
3. Japan
4. New Guinea
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 69: Which one of the following statements explains that mining is “an increasing cost” economic activity?

1. Mine workers enhance their wages
2. Best and most easily available mineral deposits are mined first
3. Mining techniques becomes expensive
4. Mining royalties increase
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 70: What man made construction on earth visible from the moon with naked eye?

1. China Wall
2. Egypt Pyramids
3. Statue of Liberty
4. Eifle Tower
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 71: An early statement of Geography as Chorology was provided by

1. Kant
2. Humboldt
3. Ritter
4. Varenius
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 72: Which one of the following scholars was the first to divide the world landmass into three continents : Europe, Asia and Libya (Africa)?

1. Anaximander
2. Hecataeus
3. Herodotus
4. Eratoshenes
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 73: The exposed batholithic domes that have suffered intense fracture because of removal of the super incumbent load, resulting into massive joint are termed as-

1. Cuesta
2. Tors
3. Hogbacks
4. Mesa
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 74: The correct sequence of the natural regions of Brazil from north to south is

1. Amazon Basin, Mato Grosso Plateau, Brazilian Highlands, Campos
2. Amazon Basin, Brazilian Highlands, Campos, Mato Grosso Plateau
3. Brazilian Highlands, Mato Grosso Plateau, Amazon Basin, Campos
4. Mato Grosso Plateau, Campos, Brazilian Highlands, Amazon Basin
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 75: In the Northern hemisphere,the wind blowing from the Horse Latitudes to the Doldrums is called?

1. Westerly Wind
2. Trade Wind
3. Polar Easterly
4. Jet Stream
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 76: Kathiawar Peninsula is an example of

1. Emerged shoreline
2. Submerged shoreline
3. Ria shoreline
4. Dalmatian shoreline
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 77: Which one of the following is located in Russia?

1. Donetsk
2. Krivoirog
3. Zhitomir
4. Pechora
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 78: How many hours of daylight does the equator experience on September equinox?

1. 8 hours
2. 9 hours
3. 10 hours
4. 12 hours
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 79: The Mobility Transition Model of Migration was propounded by

1. Clark, W.A.V.
2. Lee, E.
3. Ravenstein, E. G.
4. Zelinsky, W.
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 80: The percentage of radiant energy, reflected back by a surface is called

1. Albedo
2. Greenhouse effect
3. Insolation
4. Refraction
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 81: Which was the last continent to be discovered by Europeans?

1. Antarctica
2. Greenland
3. Oceania/Australia
4. South America
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 82: Which among the following is a land locked sea?

1. Timor sea
2. Arafura Sea
3. Greenland Sea
4. Aral Sea
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 83: "The Inverse Distance Law" of migration of Population was propounded by:

1. D. J. Bouge.
2. S. Stouffer
3. G. K. Ziph
4. E. G. Ravenstein
5.

Correct Answer: 4.


Question 84: Which is the world’s smallest ocean?

1. Atlantic
2. Antarctic
3. Arctic
4. Indian
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 85: In the Newling model on urban population density distribution, the term ‘Density Crater’ is applied to

1. Central Business District
2. High income residential area
3. Suburb
4. Zone in Transition
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 86: In A.D.the eruption of which volcano destroyed Pompeii?

1. Mt Vesuvius
2. Mt Etna
3. Stramboli Island
4. Mt Kilimanjaro
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 87: Lava cools down is fissures and solidifies to give

1. Locolith
2. Sill
3. Dyke
4. None of the above
5.

Correct Answer: 1.


Question 88: In which one of the following areas of South – East Asia, is there the largest concentration of peasant population ?

1. In areas of shifting cultivation
2. On island areas where grain farming is carried on
3. On highland areas where the climate is cooler and healthier
4. On cleared lowland forest areas
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 89: The International Date line is located in the

1. Pacific Ocean
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Indian Ocean
4. Arctic Ocean
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 90: The layer of the water in the oceans that separates the warmer surface layer from the deeper cold layer is called.

1. Hypotherm
2. Thermocline
3. Epiliminion
4. Hypsotherm
5.

Correct Answer: 2.


Question 91: Which of the following deltas is the biggest in the world?

1. The delta of Missisipi river
2. The delta of Kaveri river
3. The Sundarbans
4. The Danuble Delta
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 92: A person moving from Chile to Brazil along the coast has to cross

1. Bass Strait
2. Cook Strait
3. Magellan Strait
4. Torres strait
5.

Correct Answer: 3.


Question 93: The Colby hypothesis offers a dynamic explanation of

1. Urban development
2. Landuse development
3. Sustainable development
4. Rural development
5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Rashtriya Indian Military CollegeExam General Knowledge Paper 2010

RASHTRIYA INDIAN MILITARY COLLEGE, DEHRADUN
Sainik School Previous Question Papers

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION-JUNE 2010

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

TIME: 1 Hr MARKS: 75

Instructions:


1. There are a total of 75 questions, each question carrying one mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer.

2. Avoid overwriting/dual answers-it shall not fetch you any marks.

---

SECTION-‘A’ (Fill in the blanks)


Q1. Harappan culture belongs to …………………………………………………….age.


Q2. What did Sir Alfred Nobel invent……………………………………………………...


Q3. What is a baby rabbit called……………………………………………………………


Q4. What type or which acid is used in car batteries……………………………………….


Q5. What is national flower of Japan……………………………………………………….


Q6. RIMC was founded by Prince of Wales on ……………………………………………


Q7. Who became the prime minister of India after death of Mr. Lal Bahadur Shastri……………


Q8. ……………………………….…is also called blue planet.


Q9. Who directed the film ‘Gandhi’? ...................................................................................


Q10. Who is known as ‘Missile Man of India’? ...................................................................


Q11. Who is known as Indian Shakespeare? ………………………………………………


Q12. Who is the first Indian cricketer to score a triple century? …………………………..


Q13. Fish uses …………….………………………………………………for respiration


Q14. ………………………………………………………...… is the Chief of Army Staff.


Q15. Lunar eclipse occurs when …………comes in between …………..and ……....……


Q16. ………………………………………….. is the first Governor General of free India.


Q17. The point of origin of earth quakes is called …………………………………………


Q18. Gobi desert is situated in ……………………………………………..………………


Q19. Radcliffe line separates ……………………………….and …………………………


Q20. ………………………………………………….……..is called Iron man of India and is also the first home minister of free India.



SECTION-‘B’ {Tick () the correct answer}


Q21. A cockroach has:

(a) Three pairs of walking legs (b) Two pairs of walking legs
(c) Four pairs of walking legs (d) One pair of walking legs


Q22. Banana fruit contain mainly:-

(a) Glucose (b) Starch
(c) Fat (d) Protein


Q23. Osteology is the study of:-

(a) Fish (b) Virus
(c) Fruits (d) Bones


Q.24. Cow’s milk is a rich source of:-

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D



Q25. Carbon occurs in nature in the purest form as:-

(a) Diamond (b) Graphite

(c) Carbon black (d) Coal

Q26. Persons working in asbestos factories are affected by air pollution, the most affected
part of their body is the:-

(a) Eyes (b) Throat
(c) Lungs (d) Skin


Q27.Pick the odd one out:-

(a) Nitroglycerine (b) Dynamite
(c) TNT (d) DDT

Q28. Golden Quadrilateral project connects four metro cities; Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkatta,
Chennai by:-

(a) Road (b) Air
(c) Rail (d) Water

Q29. First woman president of UN General Assembly:-

(a) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit (b) Mrs. S Bandernaike
(c) Junki Tabei (d) Velentina Tereskova

Q30. A temperature of 176oF is equal to:-

(a) 80oC (b) 85oC
(c) 75oC (d) 90o C

Q31. The colour of the ocean appears blue because the sunlight falling on it is:-

(a) Reflected (b) Refracted
(c) Absorbed (d) Scattered

Q32. If you say Fuehrer, you are referring to:-

(a) General Rommel (b) Napolean
(c) Hitler (d) None of the above

Q33. Launch vehicle of Chandrayann was:-

(a) PSLV-C9 (b) PSLV-C10
(c) PSLV-C11 (d) PSLV-C12

Q34. The God with three heads and horns surrounded by animals, represented on a seal
from Mohenjodaro is told to be:-

(a) Varuna (b) Indra
(c) Vishnu (d) Pashupati

Q35. Earth is the third planet from the sun and is located between:-

(a) Venus and Mars (b) Mars and Jupiter
(c) Venus and Jupiter (d) Mercury and Venus
Q36. Harare is the capital of:-

(a) Kenya (b) Zimbabwe
(c) Tanzania (d) Nigeria

Q37. Currency of Indonesia:-

(a) Rupee (b) Indonesian Dollar
(c) Indonesian Rupee (d) Rupiah

Q38. The ‘Dronacharya Award’ is associated with the:-

(a) Eminent Surgeons (b) Famous Artistes
(c) Sports Coaches (d) Expert Engineers

Q39. Penguin is a flightless sea bird found in:-

(a) Arctic Ocean (b) Antarctica
(c) Indian Ocean (d) North Pole

Q40. How many rings are there in Olympic Flag?

(a) Five (b) Four
(c) Three (d) Six

Q41. Which one of the food crop has maximum content of protein?

(a) Wheat (b) Soya beans
(c) Groundnut (d) Gram

Q42. The only snake that builds nest is:-

(a) King Cobra (b) Cobra
(c) Krait (d) Viper

Q43. By referring to IMA related to Army, I mean:-

(a) Indian Monetary Academy (b) Indian Military Academy
(c) Indian Milestone Academy (d) Indian Medical Academy

Q44. What are egg laying animals known as:-

(a) Oviparous (b) Herbivorous
(c) Carnivorous (d) Reptiles


Q45. In which country of the world, the largest Buddhist temple is located?

(a) Japan (b) Indonesia
(c) China (d) India

Q46. Which company is owned by Bill Gates?

(a) Microsoft (b) Wipro
(c) IBM (d) DELL

Q47. ‘The Life Divine’ is book written by:-

(a) Swami Dayanand (b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Aurbindo (d) Ram Krishna

Q.48. MBT Arjun is a:-

(a) Ship (b) Tank
(c) Missile (d) Remotely pointed vehicle

Q.49 Highest peace time gallantry award is:-

(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Paramvir Chakra
(c) Mahavir Chakra (d) Vir Chakra

Q50. Which country has the highest amount of coal in the world?

(a) Russia (b) USA
(c) Japan (d) China

Q51. Present Indian Football coach is:-

(a) Bob Houghton (b) Dave Houghton
(c) David Houghton (d) Brand Houghton

Q52. Kangaroos are found in which country?

(a) New Zealand (b) Australia
(c) Spain (d) Canada

Q53. Azlan Shah Cup is related to:-

(a) Cricket (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Billiards


Q54. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) N. Gopal Swami (b) Naveen Chawla
(c) T.N. Seshan (d) Nirupen Sen

Q55. The largest coal deposit in India is in:-

(a) Damodar valley (b) Satpura valley
(c) Godavary valley (d) Brahmani valley

Q56. National Highway-2 connects:-

(a) Srinagar-Leh (b) Varanasi and Kanyakumari
(c) Agra-Mumbai (d) Delhi-Kolkatta

Q57. Electron was discovered by:-

(a) Rutherford (b) Bohr
(c) JJ Thompson (d) Ramsey

Q58. Largest Industry in India:-

(a) Textiles Industry (b) Steel Industry
(c) Cement Industry (d) Automobile

Q59. Plague is:-

(a) Bacterial disease (b) Viral disease
(c) Mineral deficiency disease (d) Fungal disease

Q60. Which of the following is an antacid?

(a) Lactic acid (b) Formic acid
(c) Milk of Magnesia (d) Acetic acid

Q61. India leads in the world production of which of the following:-

(a) Spices (b) Sugarcane
(c) Tea (d) All of the above

Q62. Which of the following chemicals is used as a Fire-Extinguisher?

(a) Nitric Acid (b) Vinegar
(c) Caustic Soda (d) Baking Soda


Q63. Which of the following disease is caused by viral infection?

(a) Typhoid (b) Cholera
(c) Common Cold (d) Tetanus

Q64. Which of the following metal foil is used to decorate sweets?

(a) Aluminum Foil (b) Iron/Steel Foil
(c) Silver Foil (d) Bronze Foil

Q65. On which of river’s bank Lucknow is situated?

(a) The Ganga (b) The Gomti
(c) The Ghaghra (d) The Chambal

Q66. What do call a force per unit area?

(a) Work (b) Pressure
(c) Friction (d) Gravity

Q.67. Which of the following is famous for silk-sarees?

(a) Mirzapur (b) Sahajahanpur
(c) Kanchipuram (d) Faridabad

Q68. Who won the IPL-3 held in India?

(a) Chennai Super Kings (b) Kolkotta Night Riders
(c) Mumbai Indians (d) None of the above

Q69. Which of the following is washing soda?

(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Sodium bicarbonate

Q70. The main accused in Mumbai terrorist attack is:-

(a) Akmal Kasab (b) Ukmal Kasab
(c) Azmal Kasab (d) Uzmal Kasab

Q71. Capital of Israel is:-

(a) Tel Aviv (b) Haifa
(c) Amsterdam (d) Jerusalem


Q72. Who of the following is the author of “India: The Siege Within”?

(a) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam (b) Mr. Kushwant Singh
(c) Mr. M.J. Akbar (d) Ms. Shoba De

Q73. Who is the Vice-President of India:-

(a) Mr. Hamid Ansari (b) Mr. Somanath Chaterrjee
(c) Mrs. Pratibha Patil (d) Mrs. Mira Kumar

Q74. Which of the following is the British spy outsit?

(a) KGB (b) MI 5
(c) CIA (d) RAW

Q75. No. of commands in Indian Army are:-

(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 3 (d) 7

Rashtriya Indian Military College Exam Paper -English 2010

RASHTRIYA INDIAN MILITARY COLLEGE, DEHRADUN
Sainik School Previous Question Papers

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION - JUNE 2010

SUBJECT: ENGLISH

TIME: 2 Hours MARKS: 125

INSTRUCTIONS:


1. Read all the twenty questions and their sub parts thoroughly before answering

2. Write the answers on the sheet provided separately. Do not write answer on the question paper.

3. Write only the answers suitably numbered as per the question paper.

4. Attempt all questions. Neatness has a suitable award.

5. The paper consists of three sections:

(a) Reading - 20 marks (b) Writing - 30 marks

(c) Grammar- 75 marks

SECTION 'A' – READING

Q.1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:-


After lunch, without waiting to get permission from their parents, the two boys set off to explore the part of the beach which lay beyond the headland. They persuaded their younger sister to stay behind saying that the long walk would be too tiring for her. Once they passed behind the headland, the beach stretched away endlessly in front of them. It was like discovering a new world and what exciting things there were to do. There were damp, dark caves to explore, in each of which they half expected to come across smugglers hiding; there were innumerable pools among the rocks, full of small fishes and other sea-creatures; and scattered along the beach, there were all those strange, yet common place objects which are washed up and left by the tide. The afternoon passed quickly and the sun was already beginning to go down when the two boys reluctantly decided to turn back and make their way homewards. Long before they reached the headland, however, they could see that the tide had come in so far that they were now cut off from the other part of the beach. They looked at each other in dismay. It was useless to go on, since clearly there was no way of getting beyond the headland. If, on the other hand they went back the way they had just come, the tide would come in long before they reached the end of the beach. There only chance of escape was to find a way up the cliff, which in some places was not very steep. At least they might be able to climb high enough to be out of reach of the waves, which were coming close all the time.


In less than twenty minutes they found a narrow path which seemed to lead all the way to the cliff top. But their troubles were not yet over. Halfway up, the path was blocked by a large rock, which they could not climb over. The two at once began shouting at the top of their voices, of the rock. He told them not to move until he came back. In a short while he appeared with two policemen, one of whom climbed down a rope which was lowered over the rock. The two boys were then pulled up to safety. At the top of the cliff they found their anxious mother and, their younger sister. She had told her parents where they had gone and thus saved them from spending a wet night on the cliff.


(a) How did the two boys convince their younger sister? (01 marks)

(b) 'Their troubles were not yet over.' Explain? (02 marks)

(c) Why were the boys dismayed? (02 marks)

(d) Give antonyms for:

(i) Reluctantly (ii) Safety (01 marks)

(e) What awaited the two boys’ once they had passed beyond the headland? (01 marks)

(f) Give a suitable heading to the paragraph. (01 marks)

(g) How did their younger sister come to their rescue? (01 marks)


Q.2. Read the following poem carefully and answer the questions given below :-


| said a prayer for you today

An know God must have heard

| felt the answer in my heart

Although he spoke no word!

| didn't ask for wealth or fame

(I knew you wouldn't mid)

| asked him to send treasures

Of a far more lasting kind!

| asked that he'd be near you

At the start of each new day

| To grant you health and blessings

And friends to share your way!

| asked for happiness for you

In all things great and small

But it was for his loving care

I prayed the most of all!


(a) Give a suitable title to the above poem. (01 marks)

(b) How are the treasures prayed for here 'of a far more lasting kind'? (02 marks)

(c) The poet has deep faith in God:-

Quote the line which best conveys this idea. (02 marks)

(d) Who does the 'he' in line 4 refer to? (01 marks)

(e)'I knew you wouldn't mind'. Why wouldn't the poet's friend mind? (02 marks)

(f) The poet prayed 'the most of all' for (02 marks)


SECTION '6' - WRITING (30 marks)

Q.3. Write an essay on anyone of the following topics: - (Word limit -200 words)

(a) Knowledge is Power

(b) India of my dreams.

(c) Variety is the spice of life.


Q4. We are so busy every day that there is hardly any time to look around us to see what's beautiful or ugly. Do your really think there is no time to see, stand, stare, turn or wait? (150 words)










Q.5. Write a compositions on; "What would you like to see yourself as ten years hence".

(World limit 150 words) (10 Marks)


SECTION '6' - WRITING (75 marks)

Q.6. Rewrite the sentences as directed in brackets, without changing the meaning of the sentences. (10 marks)

a) Amazing discoveries have been made by explorers. (Being: Explorers ....................)

b) Unfortunately he failed in the first attempt. (Use: 'succeeded' instead of 'failed')

c) The boy was ill. He went to school. (Combine both the sentences using 'though')

d) Soon friendship changed into (use the antonym of 'friendship')

e) He is honest. He never tells lies. (Combine into one sentence using 'too')

f) He is too honest to accept bribe. (Rewrite the sentence by substituting 'too' with' so')

g) Mumbai is the best seaport in India. (Rewrite the sentence by changing the superlative degree into comparative)

h) One should keep one's promise. (Change Active voice into Passive)

I) He is cowardly fellow. His makes everybody dislike him. (Fill in the blank with the correct form of the underlined word).

j) None but the brave deserve the fair. (Change the Negative sentence into Affirmative)

Q.7. Choose suitable word from the box to fill in the blanks (2'/2 marks)
Period, Spell, moment, era, age.

(a) The………………………………………………... of drought lasted for three months.

(b) The twentieth century will be seen by historians as the ………………………………..
of the motor car.

(c) India prospered during the …………………………………………...of Ashok's reign.

(d) This is the ……………………………………..…………………of cyber technology.

(e) For a brief………………………………………………………, I thought I would fail.

Q.8. Write the antonyms of: - (03 marks)

(a) Agile (b) Beauty

(c) Contract (d) Ancient

(e) Barren (f) Virtue

Q9. Write the synonyms of:-

(a) Agony (b) Melodious (c) Precise (d) Zealous

(e) Diverse (f) Caliber

Q10. Complete the sentence with the correct form of the words given in brackets:-

(a) Samar said that he………….……………………….……… (Will) give an early reply.

(b) A tem of archaeologist ………………………………….… (Leave) last week to study the Indus

Valley civilizations.

(c) He ……………………………………….…… (Start) for school at 7.30 am everyday.

(d) I …………………………..….…… (Hear) a lot about the book that you have written.

(e) The French Prime Minister……………………………….. (Arrive) in India last week.

(f) No one can help you if you…………………………………………..… (Be) dishonest.

Q.11. Rewrite the following sentences by replacing the underlined phrases with a single word.

(a) They are thinking of making changes in the wording of the proposed law.

(b) She did not accept the invitation.

(c) The boy said it was untrue that he had made a noise.

(d) How many of them were ready to offer their service without being compelled?

(e) Air India is currently offering a 10% reduction in the price if we book with them a month in advance.

(f) All the floors in this mall have been fitted with sets of moving stairs that take people form level to another.

(g) Hi way of looking at things is a positive manner will take him a long way in life.

(h) Anil had unofficial information that may or may not be true about the financial deal.

(I) Climbing in the Himalayas is not for someone who are just learning a skill subject.

(j) Sheel is a person who likes to travel to world.

Q.12. Fill in the blanks with suitable conjunctions:-

(a) He will not go out………………………………………………his mother asks him to.

(b) Shyam went out for a walk..…………………………..…………………it was raining.

(c) Wait here ……………………………………………………………………….I return.

(d) Let us wait here…………………………………………………………..the rain stops.

(e) Raj is poor…………………………………………… he never seeks help form others.

Q13. Fill in the blank with the correct option:-

(a) He has brought on ……………………………………………….of cotton. (Bale, Bail)

(b) Fortunately, the cyclone did not .................................................…...us. (Effect, Affect)

(c) The brother of the…………………....…was stricken with grief. (Diseased, Deceased)

(d) She acted upon my………………………………………………..… (Advise, Advice)

(e) You should …………………………….the opportunity when it comes. (Cease, Seize)


Q14. Transform these sentences and answer in one sentence, following the given instructions. Do not change the meaning:-

(a) Some eagles do not catch their own food. They steal from other meat eating birds.
……………………………………….rather than………………….………………………

(b) The plankton gets eaten by larger fish. The larger fish themselves get eaten by even larger fish.
........................................ which are………………………………………………………...

(c) When his lost pet puppy was found and returned by his neighbour, he was very relieved.
Much to.…………………………………………………………………………………….

(d) Rohan failed in the terminal examination even thought he studied very hard.
.......................................... despite………………………………………………………….

(e) Humans can also be victims of water pollution; Humans are at the top of the feed chain.
........................... who……………………………………………………………………….

(f) Mrs. Mehta fed her infant daughter before taking her for a walk in the park.
After………………………………………………………………………………………...

Q15. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions:-

(a) You will have to wait…………………………………………………………. an hour.

(b) I will return…………………………………………………………………… a month.

(c) The tiger pounced…………………………………………………………….. the deer.

(d) Who is knocking …………………………………………………………..… the door.

(e) I haven't met Sonia ………….. …………………………………………………...June.

(f) What is the time …………………………………………………………....your watch.

(g) ……………………………………………………………….all her faults, we like her.

(h) The bridge ……………………………………………………..the big canal is broken.

(i) Distribute these mangoes …….…………………………………………….. these boys.

j) Her answer is ……………………………………………………………….… the point.

Q16. Change the following sentences into indirect speech:-

a) Renu said, "Alas! He is dead."

(b) The police inspector said, "Let no one leave this room."

(c) He said to me, "Thank you."

(d) "John will come again soon," I assured them.

(e) The doctor said to dad, "Take a week's holiday"

(f) She complained, "My leg hurts."

(g) "I went for a long walk yesterday," Said Atul.

Q.17. Put the following sentences into the passive form:-

a) The hunters had caught a fox.

(b) The workmen have painted the house.

(c) I am producing the school play this year.

(d) A dog bit him.

(e) Who gave you this book?

(f) Open the window.

(g) The girls will visit the old folks next week.

Q.18. Fill in the blanks with a suitable phrase/verb:-

(a) New rules have been (lay) to deal with tax evaders.

(b) I am (Look) to the visit of my sister.

(c) The servant (Make) with Rs. ten thousand.

(d) She (Hand) the business to her son.

(e) He (Hang) before she could get a chance to talk.

Q.19. Choose the alternative that best express the meaning of the given idiom:-

(1) On cloud nine: - (2) Throw your weight around:-

a) Impossible situation a) To be bossy or rough

b) Difficult Mae b) To be overweight

c) Blissfully happy c) To be jealous

(3) On a shoestring:- (4) Face the music:-

a) Using waste material a) To be disturbed

b) Using very little money b) To face the consequences

c) In a narrow pace c) To be praised by other

Q.20. Fill in the blanks with the correct option:-

a) During a severe earthquake, entire cities can be reduce to

1) Rubble 2) Trash 3) Dregs 4) Waste


b) Many of the earthquake developed pneumonia.

1)' Spectators 2) Customers 3) Survivors 4) Patients


c) Within minutes, the city of St. Pierre was charred beyond

1) Recognition 2) Memory 3) Knowledge 4) Understanding

d) Although volcanoes are for long periods.

1) Dead 2) Stable 3) Dormant 4) Dumb


e) The shepherd in the fields for a long while and was quite exhausted.

1) Has been wandering 2) Having wandered

3) Have been wandering 4) Had been wandering

f) Three dots, three dashes and three dots………………………………the most famous mores-code message for "Help!"

1) Is 2) Are 3) Has 4) Were

g) Tony knows that he is going to have a hard time his ………………………… mother to let him go to the discotheque.

1) Convincing 2) Telling 3) Trying 4) Founding

h) Alexander more than 70 cities.

1) Find 2) Found 3) Founded 4) Founding

i) The samurai ……………………………………………………..his sword and bowed.
1) Released 2) Set 3) Sheathed 4) Arranged

j) The jaguar was so that he fell backward over his painted tail.

1) Fascinated 2) Admired 3) Astonished 4) Wondered

Rashtriya Indian Military College Mathematics Exam Paper 2010

RASHTRIYA INDIAN MILITARY COLLEGE. DEHRADUN
Sainik School Previous Question Papers

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION - JUNE 2010
SUBJECT : MATHEMATICS

TIME: 1 Hr 30Mins MARKS: 200

Instructions:

1. Attempt all 30 questions; Write all your answer separately on the answer sheet provided at the Exam Centre.


2. Part 'A' contains20 questions, and each question in this part carries five marks.


3. Part 'B' contains10 questions and each question in this part carries ten marks.


4. USE OF CALCULATOR IS PROHIBITED.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------

PART 'A' (20 X 5 Marks)



Q.1. Simplify: - -3/5 x (-10/9) x (21/-4) x (-6)


Q.2. If 23% of a number is 46, find the number.


Q.3 Arrange the rational numbers -7/10, 5/-8, 2/3 in ascending order.


Q.4. Find the value of 'a' if: - pqa = (3p + q)2 _ (3p-q) 2


Q.5. Factorize: - (25a2 + c2+ 1Oac2) - 49b2


Q.6. If the square of the hypotenuse of an isosceles right triangle is 200 cm2; find the length of each side.


Q.7. If a:b = 3:5 and b:c = 6:7, find a:b:c


Q.8. The age of Rakesh & Dinesh are in the ratio 5:7. After 5 years, the ratio of their age will be 5:6. Find their present age.


Q.9. A train, 360 mts long, is running at a speed of 45 kms/hr. How much time will it take to cross a bridge which is 140 mts long?


Q.10. The population of a town is 20,000. If the annual birth rate is 4% and the annual death rate is 2%, calculate the population after two years.


Q.11. Find the length of side of a square field whose area is equal to the area of a rectangular of length 225 m and breadth 144 m.


Q.12. If a driver takes one second to apply the brakes, how many times will the car travel once the drive applies the brakes, traveling at 40 km/hr?


Q.13. Construct a triangle ABC in which base BC=5.4 cm, altitude from A is 2.6 cm and medium dissecting BC is 3.5 cm and describe the steps of construction.


Q.14. Mahesh took a test which had 20 questions. The total grade was computed by awarding 10 points for each correct answer and deducting 5 points for each incorrect answer. Mahesh answered all 20 questions and received a score of 125. How many wrong answers did he have?


Q.15. Find the surface area of a cuboid whose length, breadth and height are respectively 13 cm, 9 cm and 2.5 cm.


Q.16. Use each of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 once only, in this multiplication problem to make it correct.



PART 'B' (20 X 5 Marks)


Q.21. Factorize: - (a) 4y2-4yx+ x2-9z2 (b) a2-2ab2+ b2-a + b.


Q.22. A steamer goes down stream from one point to another in 9 hours. It covers the same distance upstream in 10 hours. If the speed of the stream be 1km/hr, find the speed of the steamer in still water and the distance between the ports.


Q.23. The thickness of a metallic tube is 1 cm and the inner diameter of the tube is 12 cm. Find the weight of 1 meter long tube, if the density of the metal be 7.8 gm/cm3.


Q.24. How many sides has a regular polygon, each of whose angle measures 108o?


Q.25. 2 men and 7 boys can do a piece of work in 4 days. The same work is done by 4 men and 4 boys in 3 days. How long would it take 1 man and 1 boy to do the same?


Q.26. A wall 4.84 m long and 3.1 m high is to be covered with rectangular tiles of size 22cm x 10 cm. Find the total cost of the tiles at the rate of Rs. 2 per tile?


Q.27. The pie-chart represents the amount spent on different sports by a school. If the money spent on football is Rs. 9000, answer, the following questions:-


(a) What is the total amount spent on sports?

(b) How much extra amount is spent on hockey compared to football?

(c) What is the amount spent on cricket?



Q.28. A cistern can be filled by taps A and B in 10 minutes and 12 minutes respectively. A third tap C can empty this tank completely in 7 minutes. If all the three taps are turned on at the same time find the time taken to fill the cistern?


Q.29. Ram purchased rice worth Rs 500. He sold 3/4th of it at a loss of 10%, and the remainder at a gain of 10%. How much percent does he gain or lose on the whole transaction?


Q.30. In figure triangle PQR and SQR are isosceles. Find the following with reasons:

UNION BUDGET 2011-12 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1) Who presented the Union Budget 2011-12 in the Parliament on February 28, 2011?
a) Manmohan Singh b) Pratibha Devisingh Patil c) Hamid Ansari d) D.Subbarao e) Pranab Mukherjee

2) The first Union budget of independent India was presented by?
a) R.K.Shanmukham Chetty b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Morarji Desai d) Indira Gandhi
e) Manmohan Singh

3) Disinvestment Target for 2011-12 has been placed at?
a) Rs. 10000 crore b) Rs. 20000 crore c) Rs. 30000 crore d) Rs. 40000 crore
e) None of these

4) Foreign Institutional Investor-(FII) limit for investment in Indian corporate bonds raised from $20 billion to?
a) $30 billion b) $40 billion c) $50 billion d) $60 billion e) None of these

5) As per Union Budget 2011-12, Indian Micro Finance Equity Fund of Rs.100 crore to be created with?
a) SBI b)ICICI
c) NABARD d)IDBI e) SIDBI

6) Rural Infrastructure Develo-pment Fund (RIDF) was set up by the Government in?
a) 1995-96 b) 1996-97 c) 1997-98 d)1998-99 e) None of these

7) The corpus allocated for Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) for 2011-12 is?
a) Rs.16000 b) Rs.17000 c) Rs.18000 d) Rs.19000 e) None of these

8) The target of credit flow to farmers has been raised from Rs.3,75,000 crore of 2010-11 to ……in 2011-12?
a) Rs.4,75,000 crore b) Rs.5,75,000 crore c) Rs.6,75,000 crore d) Rs.7,75,000 crore
e) None of these

9) Rural Infrastructure Develo-pment Fund (RIDF) is maintained by?
a) RBI b) SBI c) NABARD d) IDBI Bank e) None of these

10) Eligibility for pension under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme for BPL beneficiaries reduced from 65 years of age to?
a) 64 years b) 63 years c) 62 years d) 61 years e) 6o years

11) Exemption limit for the general category of individual taxpa-yers enhanced from 1,60,000 to?
a) 1,70,000 b) 1,80,000 c) 1,90,000 d) 2,00,000 e) None of these

12) As per Union Budget 2011-12, standard rate of Service Tax is?
a) 10 % b) 11 % c) 12 %d) 13 % e) None of these

13) As per Union Budget 2011-12, Defence allocation is?
a) 1.64 lakh crore b) 1.74 lakh crore c) 1.84 lakh crore d) 1.94 lakh crore e) None of these
14) In the Constitution of India, the Union Budget of India referred to as the?
a) Economic Survey b) Monetary and Credit Policy c) Foreign Trade Policy
d) Annual Financial Statement
e) None of these

15) Which of the following department is not a part of Finance Ministry of India?
a) Department of Economic Affairs
b) Department of Expenditure
c) Department of Revenue
d) Department of Disinvestments
e) Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion

16) Which Department principal responsibility is the prep-aration of the Union Budget annually (excluding the Railway Budget)?
a) Department of Economic Affairs
b) Department of Expenditure
c) Department of Revenue
d) Department of Disinvestments
e)Department of Financial Servies

17) Which of the following is a government body that offers a single window clearance for proposals on foreign direct investment in the country that are not allowed access through the automatic route?
a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Export-Import Bank of India
d) Foreign Investment Promo-tion Board
e) Bombay Stock Exchange

18) The first woman Finance Secretary of India?
a) Sushma Nath
b)Shyamala Gopinath
c) Chanda Kochhar
d) Shikha Sharma
e) None of these

19) The only woman to hold the post of the finance minister of India?
a) Vijaya Lakshmi Nehru Pandit b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur d) Indira Gandhi e)None of these

20) The Union Budget is always presented first in ?
a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Joint Session of the Parliament d) State Assemblies
e) None of these

21) Which of the following presents the Economic Survey in the parliament every year, just before the Union Budget?
a) RBI b) Ministry of Finance c) Ministry of Commerce d) Planning Commission
e) Finance Commission

22) The financial year in India starts on?
a) 1st January b)1stMarch c) 1st April d) 1st July e) None of these

23) A fiscal year in India ends on?
a) February 28 b) March 31
c)April1 d)July1
e)December 31

24) A. Gross Tax receipts are estimated at 9,32,440 crore.
B. Non-tax revenue receipts estimated at 1,25,435 crore.
C. Total expenditure proposed at 12,57,729 crore.
D. Increase of 18.3 per cent in total Plan allocation.
E. Increase of 10.9 per cent in the Non-plan expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C
c) C and D d) D and E e) All of the above

25) A.Gross Domestic Product (GDP) estimated to have grown at 8.6 per cent in 2010-11 in real terms.
B. Government expects econo-my to grow at 9 % in 2011-12.
C. Fiscal Deficit target at 4.6% for 2011-12, down from 5.1% estimated for 2010-11.
D. Central Government debt estimated at 44.2 per cent of GDP for 2011-12 as against 52.5 per cent recomm-ened by the 13th Finance Commission.
E. 40,000 crore to be raised through disinvestment in 2011-12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C
c) C and D d) D and E e) All of the above

26) A. Government committed to retain at least 51 per cent ownership and management control of the Central Public Sector Undertakings.
B. "India Microfinance Equity Fund" of ’100 crore to be created with SIDBI. Gover-nment considering putting in place appropriate regulatory framework to protect the interest of small borrowers.
C."Women's SHG's Develo-pment Fund" to be created with a corpus of ’ 500 crore.
D. Corpus of RIDF XVII to be raised from Rs. 16,000 crore to 20,000 crore.
E. 1,000 crore to be provided to SIDBI for refinancing incre-mental lending by banks to these enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and D b) A, B and C c) C and D d) D and E e) None of these

27) A.Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) increased from Rs. 6,755 crore to 7,860 crore.
B.Rs.10,000 crore to be contributed to NABARD's Short-term R-ural Credit fund for 2011-12.
C. Allocation for Bharat Nirman programme proposed to be increased by Rs.10,000 crore from the current year to Rs. 58,000 crore in 2011-12.
D. Rs. 21,000 crores for primary education to implement Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
E. Defence budget hiked to Rs. 1.64 lakh crore
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) D and E
e) All of the above

28) Consider the following statements:
1) Finance minister Pranab Mukherjee unveiled the Union Budget 2011-12 on February 28, 2011.
2) Economic Survey 2010-11 was presented in the Parliament on Feb 25, 2011.
3) India's Railway Minister Mamta Banerjee presented the new Railway Budget for the year 2011-12 in the parliament on February 25, 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) All of the above e) None of these

Answers:

1) e, 2) a, 3) d, 4) a, 5) e, 6) a, 7) c, 8) a, 9) c, 10) e, 11) b, 12) a, 13) a, 14) d, 15) e, 16) a, 17) d, 18) a, 19) d, 20) a, 21) b, 22) c, 23) b, 24) e, 25) e, 26) b, 27) e, 28) d

Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) 2011 Sample Question Paper

Read the following passage carefully and Answer the questions given below it. The awareness of equal corruption will be a better emotional basis for the so-called multi-racial commonwealth, of which much is made, than its professed principle-the pursuit of common aims in world politics, aims which are so rarefied that a large volume of artificial political oxygen is needed to keep that body-politic breathing. After all, it cannot be denied that even the United States and the Soviet Union are pursing common aims in world affairs, such as peace, disarmament, democracy, technological progress, as well as freedom as understood by each. But that is not preventing them from doing things which might lead to the destruction or near destruction of mankind. Thus, common aims would seem to be very undependable as guarantees for goodwill and co-operation among nations. On the contrary, a frank admission of being equal sinners would at least encourage charity and discourage moral arrogance. That would be a better foundation for integration for international and multi-racial co-operation.

Q1. The Commonwealth is characterised by
(a) the failure of the constituents to work for the same goals
(b) the racial nature of its membership
(c) uniform lack of moral standards
(d) constant redefining of objectives

Q2. The super powers may claim to have the same laudable objectives, but these
(a) do not work earnestly to achieve them
(b) undo each other’s efforts
(c) still act against the interest of mankind
(d) do not see them in the right perspective

Q3. Common goals are desirable, but these
(a) do not ensure international co-operation
(b) lead to unnecessary tensions
(c) encourage rivalry between super powers
(d) lead to destruction of mankind

Q4. International co-operation can come about if
(a) nations become aware of their own failings and discard pride
(b) charitable organizations are encouraged
(c) different races are treated on the basis of equality
(d) nations guilty of immoral actions are exposed

Q5. The thrust of the author’s argument is that
(a) the Commonwealth has outlived its utility
(b) membership of the Commonwealth be restricted to the super powers
(c) members are equally responsible for the present state of world politics
(d) international peace and co-operation are unattainable.

In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the Answer is (d) “No error”.
Q1 He charged me (a)/one hundred rupees for five dozens(b)/oranges of average quality (c). No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q2. Raju and his friend (a) /were going to see a picture(b) /when they met his common friend (c). No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q3. Until you come(a)/ to class regularly (b)/you will fail (c). No error (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q4. My father is (a)/ in bad mood (b)/ today(c). No error (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q5. If I was you (a)/ I would not have(b)/ committed this blunder(c). No error(d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Q1. Everyone was ________ by surprise when she announced her plan to marry that man.
(a) moved (b) shaken (c) taken (d) disturbed
Q2. She always insisted on the need to ____ between ends and means.
(a) analyse (b) define (c) distribute (d) distinguish
Q3. He_____ that he would come.
(a) requested (b) said (c) pleaded (d) urged
Q4. He had good ____ over the ancient languages, too.
(a) authority (b) knowledge (c) command (d) expertise

Q5. Around the head of the running man there was a _______ of bees.
(a) crowd (b) group (c) flock (d) swarm
In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q1. UNDULATE
(a) retard (b) decrease (c) wave (d) flood
Q2. MYOPIC
(a) blind (b) astigmatic (c) cross-eyed (d) short-sighted
Q3. ERUDITE
(a) strong (b) precious (c) learned (d) courteous

Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q1. RELINQUISH
(a) accept (b) retain (c) gain (d) revive
Q2. TURBULENT
(a) turbid (b) violent (c) steady (d) turgid
Q3. ERRATIC
(a) regular (b) right (c) free (d) rapid


General Awareness
Q.1 Name the first person who went in the space
(a) Yuri Gangarin (b) Neil Armstrong
(c) Rakesh Sharma (d) John Glann

Q2. The first Indian woman who won a medal in Olympic is-
(a) PT Usha (b) Shiny Abraham
(c) Dala Banerjee (d) Karram Malleswari

Q3. The cricketer who scored the first double century in one day cricket match is-
(a) Vivian Richards (b) Brain Lara
(c) Ricky Ponting (d) Sachin Tendulkar

Q4. Lionel Messy is associated with the game of—
(a) Rugby (b) Tennis (c) Football (d) Basketball

Q5. The instrument of measuring intensity of earthquakes is called-
(a) Ediograph (b) Pantagraph (c) Ergograph (d) Seismograph


Numerical Ability
Q1. When simplified (2.43 x 2.43 + 2.43 x7.57 x 2 + 7.57 x 7.57) is equal to-
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 101.89 (d) 200.59

Q2. The sum of ` 6.25 is made up of 80 coins which is either ten paise and five paise. The number of five paise coins are-
(a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 45

Q3. Three years ago the average age of A & B was 18 years. With C joining them now, the average age becomes 22 years. How old is she?
(a) 24 years (b) 27 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years

Q4. The average age of 8 men is increased by 2 years when two of them whose ages are 21 years and 23 years are replaced by two new men. The average age of the two new men is-
(a) 22 years (b) 24 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years

Q5. Amit sold an umbrella for ` 680, losing 15%. The cost price of the umbrella is-
(a) ` 782 (b) ` 800 (c) ` 578 (d) None of these


Reasoning and Aptitude Tests
This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question in the test there are four possible Answers: A, B, C, or D. There is only one correct Answer for each question. Read each question carefully and decide which one of the four Answers is the best one. Mark your Answer on the Answer sheet by blacking out the letter that corresponds to your choice. Now look at the example questions below:

Q1. MAN is to BOY as WOMAN is to
(A) BABY
(B) BRIDE
(C) CHILD
(D) GIRL
Answer - D

Q2. WATER is to THIRST as FOOD is to
(A) FAMINE
(B) GRIEF
(C) HUNGER
(D) INDIGETION

Answer - C
In these questions, choose the word from the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL letters.
Q1. REVULSION
(1) Apathy (2) Violence
(3) Disgust (4) Avenge
Answer - 3

Analogy
In the following questions there is a pair of capitalized words followed by four choices marked A, B, C, D. Choose the pair of words whose relationship is most similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair, and mark your choice on your Answer sheet.
Q1. COLD : HOT
A handsome : young B beautiful : ugly
C summer : spring D complete : total
Answer - B

Spatial Ability
This is a test of your ability to recognize a form from its pattern, or a pattern from its form. Now look at the example questions below. There is a problem you are to find the form that can be made by folding the cardboard pattern and fitting it together.



Answer - Last

Rotated Blocks
This subtest is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question, you will be shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block are five choices, each showing a different block. You are required to select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although turned in a different position. In order to arrive at the correct Answer, you may have to mentally turn blocks over, turn them around, or turn them both over and around.



The correct Answer is D.

Hidden Figures
This test is designed to measure your ability to see simple figures in complex drawings. Although these figures are fairly well camouflaged, proper visualization should enable you to discern them without too much difficulty.
At the top of each section of this subtest are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these on each page are several numbered drawings. You must determine which lettered figure is contained in each of the numbered drawings.



Problem Solving
Q1.What number should come next in the sequence?
3 6 12 24 48
Answer = 96 (progressions are doubling each time)

Q2. Empty is to full as wet is to?
a. damp b. soaked c. dry d. water e. rain
Answer = c. dry

Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission Commerce Sample Questions

ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS,
EQUATIONS, STANDARDS

1. Match List-I (Concepts of Accounting) with List-II (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts) and select the Correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List-I                                                                     List-II
(Concepts of Accounting)                          (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts)
A. Money measurement concept         1. Applicable to all forms of business organizations
B. Business entity concept                  2. Basic accounting
C. Cost concept                                   3. Original purchase price of assets
D. Dual aspect concept                       4. Applicable to those transactions/ events which
are of financial nature in accounting
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (c)
CLASSIFICATION OF EXPENSES,
RECEIPTS, PROFITS (CAPITAL /REVENUE)

2. The cost of a machine is Rs.70, 000. It has 10-year life at the end of which it is expected to realize Rs.5, 000. The depreciation for first for years on a straight line basis is
(a) Rs. 28,000
(b) Rs. 26,000
(c) Rs. 22,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
3. What is the kind of expenditure incurred on heavy advertising whose benefit is to continue for years to come?
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) Prepaid Expenditure
Ans. (c)
4. Cost of goods purchased for resale is an example of:
(a) capital expenditure
(b) revenue expenditure
(c) deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
5. Consider the following statements:
Capital expenditure is incurred for the purpose of
1. obtaining a long-term benefit for the business
2. increasing earning capacity of the business
3. purchasing of marketable securities
4. acquiring of an asset in the business
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
6. Which one among the following shall result in ‘capital loss’ to a firm ?
(a) Pilferage of certain items
(b) Loss of goods in transit
(c) Loss due to delay in delivery by port authorities
(d) Confiscation of goods by custom authorities on account of false declaration
Ans. (a)

ACCOUNTS OF NON-PROFIT
ORGANISATION, PARTNERSHIP
7. Z is admitted in a firm for a 1/4 share in the profits for which he brings Rs 30,000 for goodwill. It will be taken away by the old partners X and Y in:
(a) old profit-sharing ratio
(b) new profit-sharing ratio
(c) sacrificing ratio
(d) capital ratio
Ans. (c)
8. A partner’s capital at the end of a, year was Rs 3,00,000. His share of profit for the. year was Rs. 60,000 and he had drawn Rs. 20,000 from the firm during the year. Then his capital at the beginning of the year was:
(a) Rs. 3,00,000
(b) Rs. 3,20,000
(c) Rs. 3,80,000
(d) Rs. 2,60,000
Ans.(d)
9. The balance left in the capital accounts on dissolution of a firm is transferred to:
(a) Realization Account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Bank Account
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
10. As per Garner v. Murray rule, the loss resulting from a partner’s insolvency is borne by other partners in:
(a) equal ratio
(b) their capital ratio
(c) their profit-sharing ratio
(d) 3 : 1 ratio
Ans.(b)
11. Consider the following statements:
Issue of bonus shares can be made out of the
1. General Reserve Account
2. Realized Capital Profits ‘Account
3. Revaluation Reserve Account
4. Profit and Loss Account (Cr.)
Which. of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
12. A, B and C are equal partners, After distributing the loss on realization of assets and paying all liabilities
their capital accounts show the following balances:
A— Rs. 10,000 (Cr.)
B—Rs. 4,000 (Cr.)
C—Rs. 14,000 (Dr.)
What is the amount of cash with the firm?
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 4,000
(c) Rs. 14,000
(d) Rs. 10,000
Ans. (c)
13. In case of retirement of a partner, the partner’s loan account would be shown:
(a) in his capital account
(b) in his wife’s loin account
(c) in his loan account
(d) in the total amount due to him
Ans. (c)

FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (FINAL ACCOUNTS)
14. Which of the following is/are included in income and expenditure account?
1. Accrued expenses
2. Credit purchases
3. Prepaid expenses
4. Opening cash balance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence regarding preparation of final accounts?
(a) Ledger—Trial Balance—Journal—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(b) Journal—Ledger—Trial Balance—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(c) Trial Balance—Ledger—Journal—Balance Sheet—Profit and Loss Account
(d) Journal—Trial Balance—Ledger—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following:
1. Preparation of Balance Sheet
2. Preparation of Funds Flow Statement
3. Preparation of Trial Balance
4. Preparation of Profit and Loss Account
The correct chronological sequence of the above in the preparation of periodical financial statement is:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans.(b)
17. In a draft Balance. Sheet, the stock at valuation Rs. 1,00,000 was shown on assets side. While finalizing the Balance Sheet, an item which was valued at Rs. 37,400 had realizable of Rs. 26,000 only. In the Profit and Loss Account, the stock would be shown at:
(a) Rs. 62,600
(b) Rs. 88,600
(c) Rs. 1,00,000
(d) Rs 1,26,000
Ans. (b)
18. Consider the following statements
The purposes of charging depreciation to the Profit and Loss Account are:
1. to provide for replacement of an asset
2. to ascertain true profit
3. to present real financial position
4. to arrive at the scrap value of the asset
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)

ACCOUNTING.OF SHARES AND DEBENTURES
19. Forty thousand 10% Redeemable Preference Shares of Rs. 10 each are redeemed at a premium of Rs. 10 each by the issue of 20,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. each.
The amount transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account would be:
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 2,20,000
(d) Rs. 2,40,000
Ans. (b)
20. Profit from re-issue of forfeited shares should be transferred to:
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) General Reserve
(c) Share Premium Account
(d) Capital Account
Ans. (d)
21. A company must refund the amount of subscription received from the public including the development if the amount received is less than the mandatory minimum subscription. The mandatory minimum subscription is
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 90%
(d) 95%
Ans. (c)
22. Equity shares represent owner’s capital. Therefore, an equity shareholder:
(a) has preferential claim over income and wealth of the company
(b) has residual claim over income and wealth of the company
(c) has no right over income and wealth of the company
(d) is personally liable for all the liabilities of the company even beyond his paid-up capital
Ans. (b)
23. Which one of the following statements is true of bonus shares?
(a) Bonus shares are issued to the promoters only
(b) Bonus shares are issued only to the existing shareholders
(c) Bonus shares are the shares issued to the employees of the company as an incentive
(d) Bonus shares are issued at par value
Ans.(b)
RATIO ANALYSIS
24. Which one of the following transactions can change
the current ratio?
(a) Purchase of goods for cash
(b) Payment to outstanding trade creditors
(c) Acceptance on a Bill of Exchange written by a trade creditor
(d) Dishonor of a Bill of Exchange
Ans. (b)
25. An investor while trading in a stock in the share market lays greatest emphasis upon:
(a) earning before interest and tax
(b) rate of return on equity
(c) earning price ratio
(d) dividend price ratio
Ans. (c)
26. A company takes a loan of Rs. 70 lakhs on which it has to pay interest @ 15% p.a. Company’s return on investment is 25% before tax and the tax payable on net earnings is 60%. What gain accrues to the shareholders because of this loan?
(a) Rs. 2, 40,000
(b) Rs. 2, 43,000
(c) Rs. 2, 77,000
(d) Rs. 2, 80,000
Ans. (d)
27. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Quick Ratio—1 .5
Current Assets—Rs. 1, 50,000 Current Liabilities—Rs. 60,000
The value of stock is:
(a) Rs. 60,000
(b) Rs. 70.000
(c) Rs. 80,000
(d) Rs. 90,000
Ans. (a)
28. The Balance Sheet of M/s ABC as on 3 1 December is:
Liabilities                          Rs.                            Assets                                    Rs.
Equity Share Capital       22,000                    Machinery and
Equipment                               46,000
Stock                                   14,000
Profit and Loss A/c           8,000
10%                                                       Sundry Debtors                           10,000
Debentures                       19,000                   Cash at bank                                2,000
Sundry                              23,000
Creditors
Provision for Taxation        1000 Prepaid Expenses                        1000
73,000                                                                      73, 000
The Liquidity Ratio is:
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 9: 20
(c) 1: 2
(d) 1: 1
Ans. (c)
29. The current assets to the current liabilities ratio is said to be satisfactory if it is
(a) 1: 2
(b) 2: 1
(c) 1: 1
(d) 1.5: 1
Ans. (b)
30. For a firm, the particulars are:
Rs.                                                         Rs.
Stock                      60,000              Cash in Hand                40,000
Debtors                   45,000                Creditors                    70,000
Bills                       12,000                Bills Payable               45,000
Receivable                                             Bank                         4,000
Overdraft
Advances                4,000
(Recoverable                                       Net Sales                7,50,000
cash or kind)                                       Gross Profit                60,000
Net Profit                 40,0000
The Current Ratio for the firm is nearly:
(a) 27: 20
(b) 17:13
(c) 9:7
(d) 11 :9
Ans. (c)
31. Which one of the following is a leveraged buy-out?
(a) When a company is taken over by financing through borrowed funds
(b) When a company is taken over by the employees’ funds
(c) When a lender takes over a company to whom it is indebted
(d) When a company is bought out directly by buying its shares in the market
Ans. (a)
32. For a firm:
Opening Stock—Rs. 32,000
Closing Stock—Rs. 34,000
Sales—Rs. 4,40,000
Gross Profit Ratio—25% on sales
The stock turnover ratio of the firm is
(a) 8.0
(b) 8.5
(c) 9.0
(d) 10.0
Ans. (d)
33. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Closing Stock—Rs. 45,000
Other Current Assets——Rs. 1,05,000
Current Liabilities – Rs. 70,000
Sales—Rs. 3,20,000
The Working Capital Turnover Ratio is:
(a)5 :1
(b)4 :1
(c)3 :1
(d)2 :1
Ans. (b)
FUNDS FLOW STATEMENT
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List—I                                                    List-II
A. VED Analysis                     1. Sources and uses of fund
B. Ratio Analysis                     2. Inventory control
C. Fund-flow Analysis            3. Analysis and interpretation of financial statements
D. Income and Expenditure    4. Non-profit organization analysis
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (b)
35. If net profit are Rs. 30,000 and expenses not resulting in the application of fund are Rs. 10,000, then the funds from operation will be:
(a) Rs. 30,000
(b) Rs. 40,000
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
AUDITING
36. Select the pairs which are correctly matched
1. Statutory Audit          : Review of various operations of a company
2. Management Audit    : Verification of top level policy and its implications
3. Operational Audit      : Examining the production planning and control operations
4. Internal Audit            : According to the company objectives
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
37. Four important acts performed by an Auditor in connection with an audit work are:
1. verification of assets and checking valuation of the same
2. checking of Annual Accounts and balance Sheet
3. preparation of an audit programme
4. test checking of financial transactions
The correct sequence in which these acts are
performed by the Auditor is
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c)3, 1,4,2
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (d)
38. Consider the following statements
The auditor is generally expected to carry out the following in a particular seriatim:
1. Verification of assets and liabilities
2. Vouching of transactions
3. Checking of valuation of assets and liabilities
The correct chronological sequence of these acts is:
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 3
(d) 3, 1, 2
Ans. (c)
39. Auditing is compulsory in case of:
(a) Joint-stock Company
(b) Charitable Trust
(c) Cooperative Society
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
40. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Audit’ is not a part of:
1. Continuous Statutory Audit
2. Internal Check System
3. Internal Control System
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
41. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Control System’ may include:
1. interim audit
2. internal audit
3. financial controls
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (c)
42. According to the Companies Act, account books of a company are to be preserved for the preceding:
(a) six years
(b) eight years
(c) five years
(d) nine years
Ans. (b)
43. Consider the following functions:
1. Checking of valuation and physical verification of assets
2. Routine checking and vouching
3. Scrutiny of internal check system
The correct sequence of these functions to be performed by an Auditor during the course of auditing is
(a) 2, 1, 3
(b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 1, 2 , 3
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following may be included in ‘Audit Working Paper’?
1. Audit notebook
2. Audit programmes
3. Schedules of sundry debtors and sundry creditors
4. Audit manuals
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
45. Internal Auditor is appointed by the:
(a) Board of Directors of the Company
(b) shareholders of the Company
(c) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(d) Company Secretary
Ans. (a)
46. Financial audit in Joint-stock Company in India is:
(a) necessary
(b) voluntary
(c) statutory
(d) voluntary for companies which operate in certain activities only
Ans. (c)

CAPITAL MARKET (STOCK EXCHANGE)
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Transfer and transmission of shares is the same thing
2. ‘Stag’ is a speculative person who applies for shares in a new issue expected to be oversubscribed to make profit by selling such shares at a premium-
3. Stock is a bundle of fully paid shares put together for convenience
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (b)
48. Underwriters are persons who:
(a) purchase the shares and debentures of a company
(b) work as agents of the company for the sale of shares and debentures
(c) undertake to buy those shares and debentures not subscribe for by the public
(d) publicize the share-issue on behalf of the company
Ans. (c)
49. The movement of securities from one stock exchange to another with the object of reaping a profit from the disparity in share prices is called:
(a) averaging
(b) arbitraging
(c) backwardation
(d) forward trading
Ans. (b)
50. Which one of the following statements pertaining to mutual funds is true?
(a) Mutual funds can be operated only by government organizations
(b) The maximum investment in mutual funds by an individual should not exceed a particular ceiling fixed by government from time to time
(c) Return on investment and safety of principal is not guaranteed in mutual funds
(d) Unit Trust of India is the regulatory authority for mutual funds in India.
Ans. (b)