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Friday, April 29, 2011

BPSC Combined (Pre) Competitive Examination 2011

(Exam Held on: 17-04-2011)

1. In which country is 'Takla Makan' desert situated?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B) Turkmenistan
(C) Uzbekistan
(D) China
Answer: D
2. Which strait connects Red Sea and Indian Ocean?
(A) Bab-el-Mandeb
(B) Hormuz
(C) Bosporus
(D) Malacca
Answer: A
3. Where is 'Ninety East Ridge' situated?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is not a capital city?
(A) Canberra
(B) Sydney
(C) Wellington
(D) Riyadh
Answer: B
5. The highest coal-producing country in the world is
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) Russia
Answer: C
6. Folding is the result of
(A) epeirogenetic force
(8) Coriolis force
(C) orogenetic force
(D) exogenetic force
Answer: C
7. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to
(A) the difference in their altitudes
(B) their distance from sea
(C) snowfall in Shimla
(D) pollution in Amritsar
Answer: A
8. Coal mines in Jharkhand are located at
(A) Jharia
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Ranchi
(D) Lohardaga
Answer: A
9. Major source of oceanic salinity is
(A) rivers
(B) land
(C) wind
(D) ash from volcanoes
10. The large States of India in the order of area are
(A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra
(C) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan
Answer: A
11. Bihar is the -- largest State of India according to Census 2001.
(A) second
(B) third
(C) fourth
(D) fifth
Answer: B
12. The highest wheat-producing State of India is
(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D
13. TISCO plant is located near
(A) Patna
(B) Darbhanga
(C) Dhanbad
(D) Tatanagar
Answer: D
14. Which States in India are the largest producers of sugarcane?
(A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
Answer: A
15. Which of the following States has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste?
(A) Bihar
(B) West Bengal
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punja
Answer: C
16. According to 2001 Census, what is the total population of Bihar?
(A) 82998509
(B) 76210007
(C) 96878627
(D) 80176197
Answer: A
17. The East Central Railway zone headquarters is located at
(A) Patna
(B) Hajipur
(C) M uzaffarpur
(D) Katihar
Answer: B
18. Where is Industries Commissioner Office of Bihar situated?
(A) Patna
(B) Gaya
(C) Hajipur
(D) Muzaffarpur
Answer: A
19. North Bihar is famous for
(A) agricultural prosperity
(B) heavy industries
(C) flood
(D) famine
Answer: C
20. Which one is not located on National Highway-2 (NH-2)?
(A) Aurangabad
(B) Sasaram
(C) Mohania
(D) Patna
Answer: D
21. Congress passed the 'Swaraj' resolution in the year 1905. The purpose of the resolution was
(A) right to make a constitution for themselves but it was not done
(B) to secure self-rule
(C) responsible government
(D) self-government
Answer: B
22. The Provincial were constituted Act of Governments under the
(A) 1935
(B) 1932
(C) 1936
(D) 1947
Answer: A
23. The Indian comprises of Constitution
(A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(B) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules
(C) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules
(D) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules
Answer: A
24. The Rajya Sabha consists of
(A) 280 members of which 20 members are nominated by the President of India
(B) 275 members of which 18 members are nominated by the President of India
(C) 250 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India
(D) 252 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India
Answer: C
25. January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution, because
(A) the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930
(B) on that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942
(C) it was considered to be an auspicious day
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
26. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to
(A) the Comptroller and Auditor General
(B) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) the President of India
Answer: B
27. Of the following statements, which one is not correct?
(A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matter
(B) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha
(C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha
Answer: B
28. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
(A) Right to constitutional remedies
(B) Freedom to speech
(C) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country
(D) Freedom to acquire property
Answer: A
29. Who is the head of the National Defence Committee?
(A) Home Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Vice-President
30. 'National Emergency' may be declared by the President of India in line with
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 395
Answer: C
31. Of the following statements, which one is not correct?
(A) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950
(B) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country
(C) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial
(D) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martial
Answer: D
32. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Speaker
(D) High Court Judge
Answer: B
33. Commercial sources of energy purely consist of
(A) power, coal, oil, gas, hydro-electricity and uranium
(B) coal, oil, firewood, vegetable waste and agricultural waste
(C) power, coal, animal dung and firewood
(D) coal, gas, oil and firewood
Answer: A
34. In India, per capita consumption of energy in 1994 was
(A) 300 kg of oil equivalent
(B) 360 kg of oil equivalent
(C) 243 kg of oil equivalent
(D) 343 kg of oil equivalent
Answer: A
35. When did the first oil crisis/ energy crisis occur in India?
(A) During 1950's and 1960's
(B) During 1930's and 1940's
(C) During 1990's and 2000's
(D) During 1970's and 1980's
Answer: D
36. Consider the following reasons for financial sickness of State Electricity Boards (SEBs) in India:
I. Sale of power to agricultural and domestic consumers below the cost of production
II. Transmission and distribution losses are very high
III. Lack of commercial autonomy for SEBs
IV. State Governments have implemented social subsidy policies through SEBs
37. Which of the above are correct?
(A) I, II and III
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) II, III and IV
37. Which type of economy does India have?
(A) Socialist
(B) Gandhian
(C) Mixed
(D) Free
Answer: C
38. When was 'Speed Post Service' launched by the Indian Postal Department as competition to the 'Courier Service'?
(A) 1988
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1986
Answer: D
39. We witnessed the first telephones in India in which year?
(A) 1951
(B) 1981
(C) 1851
(D) 1861
Answer: D
40. Consider the following problems being faced by the Indian Coal Industry :
I. Poor quali ty of coal and bottlenecks m the coal movement
II. Low utilisation capacity of washeries
III. Growing dependence on the import of coking coal
IV. Administered prices
Which of the above are correct?
(A) II, III and IV
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II and III
Answer: B
41. Name the committee which was set up by the NDC in 1957 for the reorganisation of CDP and NES, which suggested a three tier system of rural local government
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) Maharashtra Committee on Democratic Decentralisation
(D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
Answer: A
42. Ashok Mehta recommended
(A) three-tier government of Panchayati Raj Committee
(B) two-tier government of Panchayati Raj
(C) single-tier government of Panchayati Raj
(D) multiple-tier government of Panchayati Raj
Answer: B
43. Consider the following about the 'Rolling Plan':
I. A plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
II. A plan for a fixed number of years, say 3, 4 or 5
III. It is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
IV. A perspective plan for 10, 15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct?
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: B
44. In which year was the 'Planning Commission' set up in India?
(A) 1950
(B) 1947
(C) 1948
(D) 1951
Answer: A
45. Patna International Airport is directly connected with
(A) Kathmandu (Nepal), New Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Lucknow, Varanasi and Ranchi
(B) Bengaluru, Hyderabad and Dhaka
(C) Islamabad, Dhaka and Bengaluru
(D) Washington, Dhaka and Chennai
Answer: A
46. In Bihar, air services are provided by
(A) only Indian Airlines
(B) only Sahara Airlines
(C) only Royal Nepal Airlines
(D) Indian Airlines, Sahara Airlines and Royal Nepal Airlines
Answer: D
47. For Bihar, in 1993-94, the Planning Commission estimated that percentage of below poverty line (BPL) was
(A) 55
(B) 65
(C) 45
(D) 35
48. In Bihar, though 'Zamindari' was statutorily abolished In 1952, the social base of land control remained in the grip of
(A) Middle Caste Hindus
(B) Scheduled Caste Hindus
(C) Dominant Caste Hindus
(D) Scheduled Tribe Hindus
Answer: C
49. Bihar State (before separation) had how many 'Industrial Area Development Authorities'?
(A) Six, viz., Adityapur, Bokaro, Patna, Ranchi, Darbhanga and Muzaffarpur
(B) Five, viz., Adityapur, Bokaro, Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur and Patna
(c) Seven, viz., Adityapur, Darbhanga, Ranchi and Bokaro, Patna, Muzaffarpur, Bhojpur
(d) Four, viz., Adityapur, Bhojpur and Muzaffarpur, Khagaria
50. In Bihar, name the scheme which aims at building up infrastructural facilities of high standard, required for establishment of 'Export oriented Units'
(A) Integrated Infrastructural Development (IID)
(B) Export Promotion Industrial Park (EPIP)
(C) Concept of Build-Operate- Transfer (BOT)
(D) Software/Hardware Technology Park (STP /HTP)
51. "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it." Who said?
(A) M. K. Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bhagat Singh
Answer: C
52. The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in the year
(A) 1880
(B) 1881
(C) 1882
(D) 1883
Answer: D
53. How many representatives took part in the First Session of the Indian National Congress?
(A) 52
(B) 62
(C) 72
(D) 82
Answer: C
54. The first Indian Governor General of Independent India was
(A) Raja Gopalachari
(B) Surinder Nath
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: A
55. When was the National Council of Education established?
(A) 15th August, 1903
(B) 15th August, 1904
(C) 15th August, 1905
(D) 15th August, 1906
Answer: D
56. The Non-Cooperation Movement was started in
(A) 1918
(B) 1920
(C) 1921
(D) 1922
Answer: B
57. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(A) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(B) the Indian Councils Act, 1909
(C) the Government of India Act, 1919
(D) the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: C
58. Who is popularly known as 'Sher-e-Punjab,?
(A) Rajguru
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Udham Singh
Answer: C
59. Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place in
(A) 1930
(B) 1931
(C) 1932
(D) 1933
Answer: B
60. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Answer: C
61. Who is associated with 'Abhinav Bharat'?
(A) V. D. Savarkar
(B) C. R. Das
(C) B. G. Tilak
(D) S. C. Bose
Answer: A
62. 'Do or Die' is associated with the following movement
(A) Dandi
(B) Non-Cooperation
(C) Khilafat
(D) Quit India
Answer: D
63. With whose efforts was Second Bihar Provincial Congress Session held?
(A) G. K. Gokhale
(B) Shri Deepnarayan Singh
(C) Shri Krishna
(D) Surendranath Banerjee
Answer: B
64. At which place was the 27th Session of the Indian National Congress held?
(A) Bhagalpur
(B) Patna
(C) Ranchi
(D) Bankipur
65. The 16th Session of Bihari Students' Conference at Hazaribag took place in
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1923
(D) 1924
Answer: A
66. The editor of 'Bihari', a leading newspaper of Bihar, was
(A) Babu G. Prasad
(B) Babu Ram Prasad
(C) Babu Gopal Prasad
(D) Babu Maheshwar Prasad
Answer: D
67. Raj Kumar Shukla was resident of the village
(A) Murli Bharhawa
(B) Murli Bheet
(C) Murli Dheer
(D) Murli Kher
Answer: A
68. Shri Nivaranchandra Dasgupta belonged to
(A) Patna
(B) Purulia
(C) Hazipur
(D) Meenapur
Answer: B
69. Kunwar Singh was the King of
(A) Hamirpur
(B) Dheerpur
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rampur
Answer:C
70. Lord Sinha had resigned in 1921 from the post of Governor of
(A) Bihar-Orissa
(B) Bengal
(C) Punjab
(D) Madras
Answer: A
71. The value of x - [y - {z - (x - y - z)}j is
(A) x+ y+z
(B) x - y-z
(C) 1
(D) °
Answer: C
72. If the function f : I --? R, f(x) = log x then the value of f(x) + f(y) is
(A) f(xy)
(B) f(x+ y)
(C) f (x/y)
(d) f(y/x)
Answer: C
73. The median of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16 is
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C)10
(D)11
Answer: B
74. The inverse of the matrix is
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: C
75. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 12 cm. Then the area swept by the minute hand in one minute will be
(A) 22·12 cm2
(B) 23·10 cm2
(C) 24·12 cm2
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
76. A player completes 2200-metre race in any circular path with 7 revolutions. Then the radius of the circular path is ( 1t = ~2)
(A) 30 metres
(B) 40 metres
(C) 50 metres
(D) 60 metres
Answer: C
77. The coordinates of the mid- point on joining the points P (4, 6) and Q (- 4, 8) will be
(A) (2, 7)
(B) (7, 2)
(C) (7, 0)
(D) (0, 7)
Answer: D
78. The solution of the differential equation
d2 d
-----.l:L - 3-.1{ + 2y = e5x
dx2 dx
is
A) y = C eX + C e2x + ~e5x
1 2 12
B) Y = C e-x + C e2x + ~e5X
1 2 12
C) y = C eX + C e-2x + ~ e5x
1 2 12
79. In triangle PQR if L.P = 1200 and PQ = PR, then L. Q and L.R will be respectively
(A) 60°, 30°
(B) 30°, 40°
(C) 30°, 30°
(D) 20°, 40°
Answer: C
80. The value of is
lim X→0
(A) 0
(B) loge ~ b
(C) log - ea
(D) a- b
Answer: B
81. The visible range of solar radiation is
(A) 100-400 nm (B) 400-700 nm (C) 740-10000 nm (D) None of the above
Answer: B
82. Plants which grow on saline soils are
(A) xerophytes
(B) hydrophytes
(C) halophytes
(D) succulents
Answer: C
83. Environment is a composite state of
(A) biotic factors
(B) physiographic factors (C) abiotic factors
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
84. Water is conducted in vascular plants by
(A) phloem tissue
(B) parenchyma tissue (C) meristems
(D) xylem tissue
Answer: C
85. Which component of plants receives stimulus for flowering?
(A) Stems
(B) Branches
(C) Leaves
(D) Roots
86. Minerals are
(A) liquids
(B) inorganic solids(C) gases
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
87. Development of the natural systems is described as
(A)~nction of the systems
(B) evolution of the systems
(C) self-sustained process of the systems
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
88. Genetics deals with
(A) Mendel's laws
(B) organic evolution
(C) DNA structure
(D) heredity and variations
Answer: C
89. Mendel's principles of inheri- tance are based on
(A) vegetative reproduction (B) asexual reproduction (C) sexual reproduction
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
90. Embryo is found in
(A) flowers
(B) leaves
(C) seeds
(D) buds
Answer: C
91. What soil particles are present in loamy soils?
(A) Sand particles(B) Clay particles (C) Silt particles
(D) All types of particles
Answer: D
92. A single type of atom is found in
(A) compounds of minerals
(B) mixture of minerals
(C) native elements
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
93. Soil water available to plants is maximum in
(A) clayey soil (8) silty soil (C) sandy soil (D) loamy soil
Answer: C
94. Capillaries are most effective in (A) clayey soil
(8) silty soil
(C) sandy soil
(D) loamy soil
Answer: C
95. Photosynthesis occurs in
(A) nucleus
(b) mitochondria
(C) chloroplast
(D) peroxisome
Answer: C
96. Continents have drifted apart because of
(A) volcanic eruptions (8) tectonic activities
(C) folding and faulting of rocks (D) All of the above
Answer: C
97. Which of the following do not belong to solar system?
(A) Asteroids
(8) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
Answer: C
98. Table salt (NaCI) is a product of
(A) weak acid and weak base
(B) strong acid and strong base
(C) weak acid and strong base
(D) strong acid and weak base
99. Sexual reproduction causes genetic variation because of
(A) blending of genes
(B) chromosomal changes
(C) Shuffling of genes
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
100. Average salinity of water of Arabian Sea is
(A) 25 ppt (8) 35 ppt (C) 45 ppt (D) 55 ppt
Answer: C
101. Who among the following is the winner of the Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation, 2009?
(A) Yukia Amano
(B) Aung San Suu Kyi
(C) Bill Gates
(D) Hillary Clinton
Answer: B
102. 'Durand Cup' is associated with the game of
(A) football
(B) polo
(C) cricket
(D) hockey
Answer: A
103. For which word, the letter 'G' has been used in '2G Spectrum'?
(A) Global
(B) Government
(C) Generation
(D) Google
Answer: C
104. Former Central Minister for Communication and Information Technology, Mr. A. Raja belongs to which of the following parties?
(A) Congress
(B) BJP
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) DMK
Answer: D
105. Which one of the following numbered Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance?
(A) 12429 Bangalore City Junction
(B) 12431 Trivandrum Central
(C) 12433 Chennai Central
(D) 12435 Dibrugarh Town
Answer: B
106. What is the minimum age of a person whose photographing, fingerprinting and iris mapping will be done for the Census of 2011?
(A) 12 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: B
107. The Union Cabinet, on August 2010, decided to form institutes like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in which six States?
(A) Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand
(B) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Kerala, Gujarat
(C) Bihar, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra
(D) Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Assam
Answer: A
108. Which was reported the richest party according to the 'National Election Watch' on August 2010?
(A) BSP
(B) BJP
(C) Socialist Party
(D) Congress
Answer: D
109. Which party-wise performance is correct for Bihar Assembly Elections, 2010 in comparison to the elections of 2005?
JDU BJP RJD WP CONG OTHERS
(A) +40 +25 -30 -10 -7 -19
(B) +25 +34 -20 -5 -3 -11
(C) +27 +36 -32 -7 -5 -19
(D) + 17 +46 -15 -10 -10 -10
Answer: C
110. Till 2010, which State Governments have provided 50 percent reservation for women in local bodies?
(A) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan
(B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh
(C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala
(D) Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: B
111. 'AVAHAN', the Indian segment of 'Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation', is engaged in the prevention of
(A) dengue
(B) polio
(C) HIV / AIDS
(D) filariasis
Answer: C
112. A recently held underwater meeting has drawn attention world over. The meeting was held by
(A) Some Somali pirates to make a new strategy for capturing ships for ransom
(B) Some environmental scientists for promoting awareness for saving water
(C) some activists environmental awareness for promoting against air pollution
(D) The cabinet of a country to highlight the threat of rising sea level for any country
Answer: D
113. Which one of the following cities is not located on the bank of river Ganga?
(A) Fatehpur
(B) Bhagalpur
(C) Uttarkashi
(D) Kanpur
Answer: C
114. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India?
(A) Right to Information
(B) Right to Work
(C) Right to Education
(D) Right to Housing
Answer: C
115. The time at Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it is located at
(A) 30° W longitude
(B) 30° E longitude
(C) 28° E longitude
(D) 28° W longitude
Answer: B
116. The headquarters of International Court of Justice is at
(A) Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Answer: A
117. In the world's best countries' list, compiled by the reputed 'News Week' magazine in 2010, the first position went to Finland. What was the rank of India?
(A)17
(B)48
(C)66
(D)78
Answer: D
118. Which university was ranked first in the list of '2010 Academic Rankings of the World Universities '?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, India
(B) Cambridge University, Britain
(C) Harvard University, USA
(D) Massachusetts Institute of Technology, USA
Answer: C
119. Which date is known as 'Diabetes Day'?
(A) 14th February
(B) 14th May
(C) 14th September
(D) 14th November
Answer: D
120. In which country, Ms. Julia Gillard was made the first woman Prime Minister in the year 2010?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Germany
(D) Poland
Answer: A
121. Which country's parliament has banned 'Burqa' by passing a law on 14th September, 2010?
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) Italy
(D) Holland
Answer: B
122. Mr. Arjun Munda was on September 11, 2010 sworn in as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand. How many MLAs in the 81- member Assembly supported him?
(A) 41
(C) 50
(B) 45
(D) 55
Answer: B
123. Mr. P. J. Thomas has been appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner on September 7,2010. He is an IAS Officer of the following State's cadre
(A) Assam
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: C
124. What was the maximum amount which has been provided as financial autonomy by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises of Union Government to the 'Mini Ratna', category I?
(A) Rs 250 crore
(B) Rs 350 crore
(C) Rs 400 crore
(D) Rs 500 crore
Answer: D
125. When was the Right to Education added through the amendment in the Constitution of India?
(A) 1st April, 2010
(B) 1st August, 2010
(C) 1st October, 2010
(D) 1st December, 2010
Answer: A
126. Match the achievements of India in the XVI Asian Games, 2010 :
1. Rank P. 14
2. Gold Q. 33
3. Silver R. 06
4. Bronze S. 17
(A.) 1 2 3 4
Q R P S
(B) 1 2 3 4
R P S Q
(c.) 1 2 3 4
P Q R S
(D) 1 2 3 4
S R P Q
Answer: C
127. To which institute, Shubha Tole, the first woman awardee of prestigious Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize, 2010 in the field of Science, belongs?
(A) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai
(B) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Pune
(C) Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur
(D) Indian Institute of Science"Bengaluru
Answer: A
128. Which Indian was honoured by the 'World Statesman Award, 2010'?
(A) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(D) Lal Krishna Advani
Answer: C
129. India's Third Research Centre at Antarctica is name as
(A) Bharti
(B) Swagatam
(C) Hindustan
(D) Maitri
Answer: A
130. In Commonwealth Games, 2010, India won 101 medals. Out of them, how many medals have been received by team events, women and men respectively?
(A) 0, 37, 64
(B) 2, 35, 64
(C) 1, 37, 63
(D) 1, 36, 64
Answer: B
131. Which of the following is a Harappan port?
(A) Alexandria
(B) Lothal
(C) Mahasthangarh
(D) Nagapattanam
Answer: B
132. The Gupta emperor who defeated the 'Hunas' was
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Skandagupta
(D) Ramgupta
Answer: C
133. What is the name of Kalhana's book?
(A) Arthashastra
(B) Indica
(C) Purana
(D) Rajtarangini
Answer: D
134. Which inscription tells about the various achievements of Rudradaman I?
(A) Junagarh
(B) Bhitari
(C) Nasik
(D) Sanchi
Answer: A
135. Who was the first ruler of the Slave dynasty?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak (B) Iltutmish (C) Razia (D) 'Balban
Answer: A
136. Who was the ruler of Devgiri at the time of Alauddin Khalji's invasion?
(A) Prataprudra bev (B) Ramchandra Dev (C) Malik Kafoor (D) Rana Ratan Singh
Answer: B
137. Who of the following Muslim rulers abolished the pilgrimage tax?
(A) Bahalol Lodi (B) Sher Shah (C) Humayun (D) Akbar
Answer: D
138. What was 'Dar-ul-Shafa' established by Firoz Tughlaq?
(A) An alms house
(B) A free hospital
(C) A library
(D) A guesthouse for pilgrims
Answer: B
139. The 'Permanent Settlement' was made with
(A) Zamindars (B) village communities (C) Muqaddamas (D) peasants
Answer: A
140. Who was the founder of 'Prarthana Samaj?
(A) Atmaram Panduranga (B) Tilak (C) Annie Besant (D) Rasbihari Ghosh
Answer: A
141. Who was the father of Indian Renaissance?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dayananda Saraswati
(C) Shraddhananda
(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer: D
142. 'Swaraj Dal' was founded by
(A) Tilak and Chittaranjan Das
(B) Gandhi and Motilal Nehru
(C) Gandhi and Tilak
(D) Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru
Answer: D
143. Who founded the 'Theosophical Society'?
(A)Madame H, P. Blavatsky
(B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Vivekananda

Answer: A
144. Which one of the following books was written by Tilak?
(A) India in Transition
(B) Gita Rahasya
(C) Gokhale-My Political Guru
(D) Discovery of India
Answer: B
145. Where was Mahaveer Swami born?
(A) Kundagram
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Magadh
(D) Vaishali
Answer: D
146. Where did Mahatma Buddha's 'Mahaparinirvan' take place?
(A) Lumbini
(B) Bodh Gaya
(C) Kushinara
(D) Kapilavastu
Answer: C
147. At which place did Mahatma Buddha give his first 'Dharmachakrapravartan '?
(A) Lumbini
(B) Sarnath
(C) Pataliputra
(D) Vaishali
Answer: B
148. What was the early capital of Magadh?
(A) Pataliputra
(B) Vaishali
(C) Rajagriha (Girivraja)
(D) Champa
Answer: C
149. What was the name of the dynasty of Ajatshatru?
(A) Maurya
(B) Haryanka
(C) Nanda
(D) Gupta
Answer: B
150. The Third Buddhist Council was convented at
(A) Takshashila
(B) Sarnath
(C) Bodh Gaya
(D) Pataliputra
Answer: D

Thursday, April 28, 2011

UNION BUDGET 2011-12 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1) Who presented the Union Budget 2011-12 in the Parliament on February 28, 2011?
a) Manmohan Singh b) Pratibha Devisingh Patil c) Hamid Ansari d) D.Subbarao e) Pranab Mukherjee

2) The first Union budget of independent India was presented by?
a) R.K.Shanmukham Chetty b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Morarji Desai d) Indira Gandhi
e) Manmohan Singh

3) Disinvestment Target for 2011-12 has been placed at?
a) Rs. 10000 crore b) Rs. 20000 crore c) Rs. 30000 crore d) Rs. 40000 crore
e) None of these

4) Foreign Institutional Investor-(FII) limit for investment in Indian corporate bonds raised from $20 billion to?
a) $30 billion b) $40 billion c) $50 billion d) $60 billion e) None of these

5) As per Union Budget 2011-12, Indian Micro Finance Equity Fund of Rs.100 crore to be created with?
a) SBI b)ICICI
c) NABARD d)IDBI e) SIDBI

6) Rural Infrastructure Develo-pment Fund (RIDF) was set up by the Government in?
a) 1995-96 b) 1996-97 c) 1997-98 d)1998-99 e) None of these

7) The corpus allocated for Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) for 2011-12 is?
a) Rs.16000 b) Rs.17000 c) Rs.18000 d) Rs.19000 e) None of these

8) The target of credit flow to farmers has been raised from Rs.3,75,000 crore of 2010-11 to ……in 2011-12?
a) Rs.4,75,000 crore b) Rs.5,75,000 crore c) Rs.6,75,000 crore d) Rs.7,75,000 crore
e) None of these

9) Rural Infrastructure Develo-pment Fund (RIDF) is maintained by?
a) RBI b) SBI c) NABARD d) IDBI Bank e) None of these

10) Eligibility for pension under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme for BPL beneficiaries reduced from 65 years of age to?
a) 64 years b) 63 years c) 62 years d) 61 years e) 6o years

11) Exemption limit for the general category of individual taxpa-yers enhanced from 1,60,000 to?
a) 1,70,000 b) 1,80,000 c) 1,90,000 d) 2,00,000 e) None of these

12) As per Union Budget 2011-12, standard rate of Service Tax is?
a) 10 % b) 11 % c) 12 %d) 13 % e) None of these

13) As per Union Budget 2011-12, Defence allocation is?
a) 1.64 lakh crore b) 1.74 lakh crore c) 1.84 lakh crore d) 1.94 lakh crore e) None of these
14) In the Constitution of India, the Union Budget of India referred to as the?
a) Economic Survey b) Monetary and Credit Policy c) Foreign Trade Policy
d) Annual Financial Statement
e) None of these

15) Which of the following department is not a part of Finance Ministry of India?
a) Department of Economic Affairs
b) Department of Expenditure
c) Department of Revenue
d) Department of Disinvestments
e) Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion

16) Which Department principal responsibility is the prep-aration of the Union Budget annually (excluding the Railway Budget)?
a) Department of Economic Affairs
b) Department of Expenditure
c) Department of Revenue
d) Department of Disinvestments
e)Department of Financial Servies

17) Which of the following is a government body that offers a single window clearance for proposals on foreign direct investment in the country that are not allowed access through the automatic route?
a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Export-Import Bank of India
d) Foreign Investment Promo-tion Board
e) Bombay Stock Exchange

18) The first woman Finance Secretary of India?
a) Sushma Nath
b)Shyamala Gopinath
c) Chanda Kochhar
d) Shikha Sharma
e) None of these

19) The only woman to hold the post of the finance minister of India?
a) Vijaya Lakshmi Nehru Pandit b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur d) Indira Gandhi e)None of these

20) The Union Budget is always presented first in ?
a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Joint Session of the Parliament d) State Assemblies
e) None of these

21) Which of the following presents the Economic Survey in the parliament every year, just before the Union Budget?
a) RBI b) Ministry of Finance c) Ministry of Commerce d) Planning Commission
e) Finance Commission

22) The financial year in India starts on?
a) 1st January b)1stMarch c) 1st April d) 1st July e) None of these

23) A fiscal year in India ends on?
a) February 28 b) March 31
c)April1 d)July1
e)December 31

24) A. Gross Tax receipts are estimated at 9,32,440 crore.
B. Non-tax revenue receipts estimated at 1,25,435 crore.
C. Total expenditure proposed at 12,57,729 crore.
D. Increase of 18.3 per cent in total Plan allocation.
E. Increase of 10.9 per cent in the Non-plan expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C
c) C and D d) D and E e) All of the above

25) A.Gross Domestic Product (GDP) estimated to have grown at 8.6 per cent in 2010-11 in real terms.
B. Government expects econo-my to grow at 9 % in 2011-12.
C. Fiscal Deficit target at 4.6% for 2011-12, down from 5.1% estimated for 2010-11.
D. Central Government debt estimated at 44.2 per cent of GDP for 2011-12 as against 52.5 per cent recomm-ened by the 13th Finance Commission.
E. 40,000 crore to be raised through disinvestment in 2011-12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C
c) C and D d) D and E e) All of the above

26) A. Government committed to retain at least 51 per cent ownership and management control of the Central Public Sector Undertakings.
B. "India Microfinance Equity Fund" of ’100 crore to be created with SIDBI. Gover-nment considering putting in place appropriate regulatory framework to protect the interest of small borrowers.
C."Women's SHG's Develo-pment Fund" to be created with a corpus of ’ 500 crore.
D. Corpus of RIDF XVII to be raised from Rs. 16,000 crore to 20,000 crore.
E. 1,000 crore to be provided to SIDBI for refinancing incre-mental lending by banks to these enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and D b) A, B and C c) C and D d) D and E e) None of these

27) A.Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) increased from Rs. 6,755 crore to 7,860 crore.
B.Rs.10,000 crore to be contributed to NABARD's Short-term R-ural Credit fund for 2011-12.
C. Allocation for Bharat Nirman programme proposed to be increased by Rs.10,000 crore from the current year to Rs. 58,000 crore in 2011-12.
D. Rs. 21,000 crores for primary education to implement Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
E. Defence budget hiked to Rs. 1.64 lakh crore
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) D and E
e) All of the above

28) Consider the following statements:
1) Finance minister Pranab Mukherjee unveiled the Union Budget 2011-12 on February 28, 2011.
2) Economic Survey 2010-11 was presented in the Parliament on Feb 25, 2011.
3) India's Railway Minister Mamta Banerjee presented the new Railway Budget for the year 2011-12 in the parliament on February 25, 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) All of the above e) None of these

Answers:

1) e, 2) a, 3) d, 4) a, 5) e, 6) a, 7) c, 8) a, 9) c, 10) e, 11) b, 12) a, 13) a, 14) d, 15) e, 16) a, 17) d, 18) a, 19) d, 20) a, 21) b, 22) c, 23) b, 24) e, 25) e, 26) b, 27) e, 28) d

Sunday, April 24, 2011

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK AGRICULTURE OFFICERS EXAM 2009 SOLVED PAPER

ECONOMICS
(EXAM HELD ON : 16-08-2009)
 
1. Say’s Law of Markets states that—
(A) Demand creates its own supply
(B) Supply creates its own demand
(C) Demand creates its own demand
(D) Supply creates its own supply
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
2. Malthusian theory of population is based on—
(A) Harmonic progression of population
(B) Geometric progression of food production
(C) Arithmetic progression of population
(D) Geometric progression of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (D)
3. Gresham’s Law states that—
(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Both good money and bad money may co-exist
(D) Neither bad money nor good money may be long in circulation
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. The on-going melt down had its origin in—
(A) The real sector
(B) The financial sector
(C) The service sector
(D) The textile sector
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. A competitive firm maximizes its profit when—
(A) MR = AR
(B) MR = MC
(C) MC = AC
(D) MC = AR
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. ‘Supernormal’ profit may exist in a market due to—
(A) Asymmetry of information
(B) Restriction of information
(C) Quantity restriction
(D) Price restriction
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

7. Profit is caused by—
(A) Dynamic element in the economy
(B) Innovation
(C) Windfall
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. Interest is paid—
(A) To compensate for inflation
(B) Due to superiority of present over future goods
(C) Because demand for money outstrips its supply
(D) To ensure the growth of the real sector
(E) All the above
Ans : (B)
9. Investment is defined as a—
(A) Deployment of a sum in business operations
(B) Purchasing an interest bearing bond
(C) Change in the stock of capital
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. The unproductive expenditure of the rich is—
(A) Necessary to the employment of the poor
(B) An impediment to the growth of an economy
(C) Having no bearing on the economy
(D) Having bearing only on the economy of the rich
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
11. Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains—
(A) Pattern of trade in terms of relative factor endowments of countries
(B) Why a country may import products which use extensively the country’s scarce factor
(C) The law of comparative cost
(D) The concept of reciprocal demand
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)
12. ‘Quasi-rents’—
(A) Are in the nature of free gifts
(B) May be applicable to all factors of production
(C) Comprise of all the returns to the firm in excess of the returns of the marginal firm
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. The indifference curve technique is essentially—
(A) A cardinal approach
(B) An ordinal approach
(C) A quasi-ordinal approach
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. The slope of an indifference curve expresses—
(A) The marginal rate of substitution of two goods
(B) A ratio of marginal utility of one good to another
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) A ratio of total utility of one good to another
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. ‘Pass through’ effect in international trade theory refers to—
(A) The proportion of an exchange rate change that is reflected in export and import price change
(B) Exports and imports not facing any tariff barrier
(C) Exports and imports not facing any technical barrier
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations—
(A) Started in 1986 and completed at the end of 1993
(B) Aimed at reversing the rising trend of non-tariff trade barriers
(C) Replaced the GATT with WTO
(D) Brought services and agriculture into WTO
(E) All of the above
Ans : (E)
17. Product Cycle Model in international trade theory (Vernon, 1966)—
(A) Is an extension of technological gap model
(B) Is an extension of Heckscher-Ohlin model
(C) Explains dynamic comparative advantage of new products and new processes of production
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
18. Hedging and speculation in forex markets—
(A) Are opposite activities
(B) Parallel activities
(C) Same activities
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. A currency swap refer to—
(A) A spot sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of single transaction
(B) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of a single transaction
(C) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—in two different transactions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. Public-Private Partnership projects in India are mostly related to—
(A) Airports
(B) Ports
(C) Railways
(D) Roads
(E) Urban development
Ans : (D)
21. The largest share in the short term money market of India in recent times belonged to the segment—
(A) Collaterised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO)
(B) Traditional repo
(C) Clearcorp Repo Over Matching System (CROMS)
(D) Call
(E) Others
Ans : (D)
22. As per the revised estimate of CSO, the GDP in India at factor cost during 2008-09 was—
(A) Rs. 28,71,120 crore
(B) Rs. 31,29,717 crore
(C) Rs. 33, 39,375 crore
(D) Rs. 44,82,436 crore
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
23. Mid Day Meal Scheme—
(A) Is a centrally funded and largest school meal scheme in the world
(B) Provides each child in government and government aided school a minimum of 300 calories and 8–12 gm of protein each day of school for a minimum of 200 days
(C) Provides lunch to about 120 million children
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
24. Insurance penetration is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. Insurance density is defined as the—
(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP
(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population
(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population
(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
26. Minimum Support Prices of crops are recommended by—
(A) Planning Commission of India
(B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
(C) Finance Commission of India
(D) Farmers’ Commission of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. The Electricity (Amendment) Act 2007—
(A) Dispensed with licence requirement for sale from captive units
(B) Provided for joint effort by the Central and State governments for providing access to all areas including villages and markets
(C) Expanded the definition of theft to cover the use of tampered meters
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. In times of slowdown of the economy, the fiscal policy influences aggregate demand through—
(A) Discretionary element
(B) Non-discretionary element
(C) Lowering of tax rates
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
29. Thirteenth Finance Commission is headed by—
(A) Dr. Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(C) Dr. Suresh Tendulkar
(D) Dr. C. H. Hanumantha Rao
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. A constitutionally recognized body is—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Forward Commission
(D) Farmers Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched by GOI in August 2007 with the objective(s) of—
(A) To incentivise the states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors
(B) To ensure that local needs/crops/priorities are better reflected
(C) To achieve the goal of reducing the yield gaps in important crops
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
32. The Buffer Stock of foodgrains at the beginning of February 2009 stood at—
(A) 16•2 million tonnes
(B) 20•0 million tonnes
(C) 37•4 million tonnes
(D) 36•2 million tonnes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
33. Public Private Partnership came to be introduced in India to—
(A) Mitigate the financial burden of the governments
(B) Respond to the technological change that allow unbundling of infrastructure
(C) Alter the character of goods and services from pure public to private ones
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
34. Heteroscedasticity in econometric analysis means—
(A) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is the same for all i’s
(B) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is not the same for all i’s
(C) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is the same
(D) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is not the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Autocorrelation in econometric analysis refers to—
(A) The correlation between the values of different variables
(B) The correlation between the values of alternative variables
(C) The correlation between successive values of the same variable
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Durbin-Watson Test is applied in econometric models to test—
(A) Presence of heteroscedasticity in a model
(B) For autocorrelated errors in the sample data
(C) For multicorrelinearity
(D) For autoregressive disturbances
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
37. A weakly stationary stochastic process is so called, if—
(A) Its mean and variance are constant over time
(B) The value of covariance between two time periods depends only on lag between two time periods
(C) The value of covariance does not depend on the actual time at which the covariance is computed
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. Dummy variables are used in regression models—
(A) To represent important variables that are not qualitatively measurable
(B) To capture the effect of specific attributes
(C) As binary variables
(D) To distinguish between two groups of population
(E) All of the above
Ans : (C)
39. Principal components in econometric analysis—
(A) Are linear combinations
(B) Help to increase the degrees of freedom
(C) Help to reduce high degree of multicorrelinearity
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
40. If world population grows at 2.6 per cent, then it will double in—
(A) 44.34 years
(B) 36.92 years
(C) 29.32 years
(D) 26.66 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Saturday, April 23, 2011

UP B.Ed. Joint Entrance Exam. 2010


General Knowledge
1. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains ?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
Ans : (D)
2. The Constitution of India was adopted in—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1949
(C) 26 November, 1949
(D) 31 December, 1949
Ans : (C)
3. In a nuclear reactor, one of the following is used as a fuel—
(A) Coal
(B) Uranium
(C) Radium
(D) Diesel
Ans : (B)

4. The first muslim ruler to introduce the system of price control was—
(A) Balban
(B) Jalaluddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (D)

5. Tansen, a great musician, was in the court of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Krishna Deva Rai
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (B)
7. Where is National Sugar Institute established?
(A) Kanpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Gajrola
Ans : (A)
8. A national leader, whose birthday is observed as the National Education Day on November 11, is—
(A) J. B. Kriplani
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (C)
9. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is constructed on the river—
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Godavari
(D) Indus
Ans : (B)
10. The Bermuada Triangle lies in—
(A) Western North Atlantic Ocean
(B) Eastern South Atlantic Ocean
(C) North Pacific Ocean
(D) South Indian Ocean
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following has been honoured with Bharat Ratna for the year 2008 ?
(A) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) G. Madhavan Nair
(C) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (C)
12. Which of the following is India’s first nuclear powered submarine launched on 26 July, 2009 ?
(A) INS Virat
(B) INS Arihant
(C) INS Vikrant
(D) INS Talwar
Ans : (B)
13. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through—
(A) Glass
(B) Vacuum
(C) Water
(D) Air
Ans : (A)
14. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of—
(A) Tin
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Chromium
Ans : (C)
15. I.B.R.D. is also known as—
(A) International Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Bank of America
Ans : (B)
16. The Gupta king who assumed the title of Vikramaditya was—
(A) Skandagupta
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Chandragupta–II
(D) Kumaragupta
Ans : (C)
17. Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Citizenship
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Union Executive
Ans : (C)
18. Which amidst the following countries of the European union has not adopted the single currency Euro ?
(A) France
(B) U. K.
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
Ans : (B)
19. Permanent members of U. N. Security Council are—
(A) U.K., U.S.A., Russia, China, Japan
(B) U.S.A., France, China, U.K., Canada
(C) U.S.A., France, U.K., Russia, Canada
(D) U.S.A., U.K., France, Russia, China
Ans : (D)
20. The author of the book ‘My Country My Life’ is—
(A) Lal Krishna Advani
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Dilip Kumar
(D) Sunil Gavaskar
Ans : (A)
21. The Partition of Bengal was revoked by the British Government in the year—
(A) 1907
(B) 1917
(C) 1911
(D) 1921
Ans : (C)
22. The first talkie film in India was—
(A) Raja Harish Chandra
(B) Alam Ara
(C) Chandi Das
(D) Jhansi Ki Rani
Ans : (B)
23. ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to—
(A) Space research
(B) Irrigation
(C) Fisheries
(D) Drinking water
Ans : (C)
24. India has the maximum foreign trade with—
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) U.S.A.
(D) U.K.
Ans : (C)
25. The most urbanised country in the world is—
(A) Japan
(B) Singapore
(C) Germany
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)
26. Which is the highest finance body for small scale industries ?
(A) IDBI
(B) SIDBI
(C) IFCI
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)
27. What is the new name of the old region ‘Siam’ ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Thailand
(C) Philippines
(D) Cambodia
Ans : (B)
28. Great poet Amir Khusarau’s birth place was—
(A) Patiyali (Etah)
(B) Kanpur
(C) Tehran
(D) Lahore
Ans : (A)
29. Bauxite is an ore of one of the following metals—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Silver
(C) Tin
(D) Steel
Ans : (A)
30. Who organized the fourth Buddhist council ?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Harsha
(C) Bindusara
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (D)
31. Who was the last ruler of Lodi dynasty ?
(A) Bahlol Lodi
(B) Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Sikandar Lodi
(D) Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)
32. The Capital of Andaman and Nicobar islands is—
(A) Port Blair
(B) Diu
(C) Kolkata
(D) Tirupati
Ans : (A)
33. Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (B)
34. ‘Bar’ is the unit of—
(A) Heat
(B) Temperature
(C) Current
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Ans : (D)
35. Right to vote is a—
(A) Political right
(B) Civil right
(C) Economic right
(D) Legal right
Ans : (A)
36. Koneru Humpy is associated with—
(A) Lawn Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Chess
(D) Badminton
Ans : (C)
37. Which of the following hills connect eastern and western ghats ?
(A) Satpura
(B) Vindhya
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Aravalli
Ans : (C)
38. Which country is known as the ‘Cockpit of Europe’ ?
(A) Belzium
(B) Switzerland
(C) Netherlands
(D) Luxembourg
Ans : (A)
39. In Uttar Pradesh, Charkula folk dance is related with—
(A) Ruhelkhand region
(B) Brij region
(C) Bundelkhand region
(D) Avadh region
Ans : (B)
40. Which among the following is a central university in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh University, Faizabad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapeeth, Varanasi
(C) Chhatrapati Sahuji Maharaj University, Kanpur
(D) Allahabad University, Allahabad
Ans : (D)
41. Lucknow Congress session 1916, was presided over by—
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Ambika Charan Majumdar
(D) Pt. J. L. Nehru
Ans : (C)
42. Rihand Project is located at—
(A) Lalitpur district
(B) Mirzapur district
(C) Aligarh district
(D) Sultanpur district
Ans : (B)
43. Where was ‘Tanchoi’ brocade developed ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Surat
(D) Tanjavur
Ans : (A)
44. Who wrote ‘Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna Ab Hamare Dil Mein Hai’ ?
(A) Mohammed Iqbal
(B) Kazi Nazrul Islam
(C) Anand Narayan Mulla
(D) Ram Prasad Bismil
Ans : (D)
45. The chemical that is used in making artificial rain is—
(A) Silver Nitrate
(B) Silver Iodide
(C) Silver Nitrite
(D) Silver Chloride
Ans : (B)
46. Which of the following is the hardest substance in the human body ?
(A) Bone
(B) Enamel
(C) Nail
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. Agricultural income tax is a source of revenue to—
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Local Administration
(D) Centre and State Governments
Ans : (B)
48. Largest Mica deposits are in—
(A) South Africa
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) India
Ans : (D)
49. Lalitpur district in U. P. is known for the—
(A) Uranium deposits
(B) Sugar industry
(C) Polic training academy
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
50. Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English alphabet ‘S’ ?
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Pacific Ocean
Ans : (C)
English Language

Directions
—(Q. 51–55) In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate the correct sequence.
51. Tourists always enjoyed .................... the setting sun in the Darjeeling hills.
(A) to watch
(B) watching
(C) in seeing
(D) seeing
Ans : (B)
52. The speaker did not properly space out his speech, but went on .......... one point only.
(A) stressing
(B) avoiding
(C) devoting
(D) decrying
Ans : (A)
53. A ............... of Japanese artists stepped off the coach amidst a warm welcome.
(A) troop
(B) troupe
(C) band
(D) gang
Ans : (B)

54. Today students should be reconciled .............. the way things are changing.
(A) with
(B) to
(C) for
(D) at
Ans : (A)

55. Ramappa ........... as the Mayor of the town and he will assume charge this Friday.
(A) elects
(B) elected
(C) is elected
(D) is electing
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 56—60) In these questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to (D).
56. He ate (A) / nothing (B) / since yesterday. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
57. An experimental vaccine (A) / has brought (B) / glimmer of hope for malarial researcher. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
58. After making me wait for two agonising hours (A) / the great man called me in (B) / and asked me what do I want. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
59. The ebb and flow of the tides (A) / are (B) / now understood. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
60. The green paint on the wall (A) / provides a suitable contrast (B) / with the yellow doors. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 61–65) Group of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word.
61. (A) Submitted
(B) Admitted
(C) Comitted
(D) Omitted
Ans : (C)
62. (A) Brillient
(B) Valiant
(C) Salient
(D) Radiant
Ans : (A)
63. (A) Recuperate
(B) Regulate
(C) Reinstate
(D) Seperate
Ans : (D)
64. (A) Cease
(B) Seize
(C) Beseige
(D) Beseech
Ans : (C)
65. (A) Carrier
(B) Carreer
(C) Courier
(D) Barrier
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 66–70) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and indicate the answer.
66. Censure
(A) Criticise
(B) Appreciate
(C) Blame
(D) Abuse
Ans : (A)
67. Diligent
(A) Industrious
(B) Indifferent
(C) Intelligent
(D) Energetic
Ans : (A)
68. Contemplation
(A) Consideration
(B) Meditation
(C) Deliberation
(D) Speculation
Ans : (B)
69. Adulation
(A) Duration
(B) Argument
(C) Flattery
(D) Institution
Ans : (C)
70. Quiver
(A) Quarrel
(B) Quicken
(C) Waver
(D) Tremble
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 71–75) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and choose the correct alternative.
71. ANIMOSITY
(A) Love
(B) Lust
(C) Luck
(D) Loss
Ans : (A)
72. ALTERCATION
(A) Explanation
(B) Challenge
(C) Compromise
(D) Opposition
Ans : (C)
73. COAX
(A) Dull
(B) Dissuade
(C) Active
(D) Speed
Ans : (B)
74. ERUDITE
(A) Educated
(B) Unscholarly
(C) Scholarly
(D) Possessive
Ans : (B)
75. AFFLUENT
(A) High
(B) Poor
(C) Rare
(D) Fluent
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 76–80) In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate the correct answer.
76. A few days before his death, he made a clean breast of everything.
(A) Confessed
(B) Took off his shirt
(C) Suffered
(D) Spoke ill
Ans : (A)
77. I am done for.
(A) Ruined
(B) Rewarded
(C) Answered
(D) Questioned
Ans : (A)
78. For a healthy and lasting friendship one must be on the level.
(A) Equally rich
(B) Mentally compatible
(C) Honest and sincere
(D) Ready for sacrifices
Ans : (A)
79. The foolish young man soon made ducks and drakes of the vast property his father left him.
(A) Squandered
(B) Distributed
(C) Spent
(D) Gave in charity
Ans : (A)
80. All his ventures went to the winds.
(A) Dissipated
(B) Spread all over
(C) Got speed of the winds
(D) Became well-known
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 81–90) In these questions, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Indicate your correct answer—
Passage
Happy is the man who …(81)… the habit of reading when he is young. He has secured a lifelong source of …(82)…, instruction and inspiration. So long as he has his beloved books he need …(83)… feel lonely. He always has a pleasant …(84)… of leisure moments. He is the …(85)… of wealth more precious than gold. …(86)… indeed is the man who does not read and …(87)… is his life. …(88)… gives the highest kind of pleasure. When we are …(89)… it is a healthy recreation to lose …(90)… in the company of books.
81. (A) owns
(B) buys
(C) acquires
(D) takes
Ans : (C)
82. (A) pleasure
(B) satisfaction
(C) sadness
(D) dejection
Ans : (A)
83. (A) always
(B) ever
(C) sometimes
(D) never
Ans : (D)
84. (A) source
(B) occupation
(C) possession
(D) relief
Ans : (A)
85. (A) possessor
(B) loser
(C) master
(D) heir
Ans : (A)
86. (A) rich
(B) lucky
(C) poor
(D) bad
Ans : (C)
87. (A) full
(B) vacuum
(C) empty
(D) deep
Ans : (C)
88. (A) writing
(B) speaking
(C) listening
(D) reading
Ans : (D)
89. (A) weak
(B) fresh
(C) sick
(D) tired
Ans : (C)
90. (A) himself
(B) ourselves
(C) yourselves
(D) themselves
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 91–95) In these questions, you have one brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer-each question out of the four alternatives and indicate the correct answer.
Passage
The public sector banks are witnessing in India a period of transition and are at crossroads, where they without giving up social responsibility, should also remain healthy. They need to undertake risky experiments. yet perform it innovatively in a way it does not fail. They should make forays into new areas which are rarely tread by them and lose no emerging opportunities. It should be understood that absence of any bad advance is no sign of efficient banking system. It only indicates immense. conservatism. However this is no guarantee for profit. There should be a balance between liquidity and risk. Past sins should be forgotten. Novel and pragmatic techniques should be adopted without which banks would be in danger.
91. What according to the author, are the public sector banks witnessing ?
(A) A period of profit
(B) A period of change
(C) A period of certainty
(D) A loss-making period
Ans : (B)
92. In addition to being socially responsible, what does the author want the banks to be ?
(A) Customer-friendly
(B) Able to attract foreign investors
(C) Financially healthy
(D) Senseless risk-takers
Ans : (C)
93. How can the banks take risks without risking a failure ?
(A) By being innovative
(B) By soliciting the help of the government
(C) By being financially healthy
(D) By being conservative
Ans : (A)
94. What does the absence of any bad advance indicate ?
(A) A penchant for risks
(B) Immense conservatism
(C) Financial independence
(D) A deep-seated social commitment
Ans : (D)
95. What would happen if novel and pragmatic techniques are ignored ?
(A) Will put the banks in danger
(B) Will undermine the banks’ social commitment
(C) Will reveal the untapped talent
(D) Will result in inefficient portfolio management
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 96–100) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate the appropriate answer.
96. Simple, fast-spreading plant without flowers or leaves, which can often cause disease—
(A) Bacteria
(B) Amoeba
(C) Virus
(D) Fungus
Ans : (A)
97. One who is greedy—
(A) Voracious
(B) Avaricious
(C) Carnivorous
(D) Omnivorous
Ans : (B)
98. An area of land that is controlled by a ruler—
(A) Colony
(B) Dominion
(C) County
(D) Municipality
Ans : (B)
99. A place where Jews worship according to their religion—
(A) Cathedral
(B) Synagogue
(C) Chapel
(D) Demagogue
Ans : (B)
100. One who is indifferent to pleasure and pain—
(A) Ascetic
(B) Esoteric
(C) Stoic
(D) Sceptical
Ans : (C)

Efficiency Test

Directions
—(Q. 1–5) Select the related letter/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
1. Book : Publisher :: Film : ?
(A) Writer
(B) Editor
(C) Director
(D) Producer
Ans : (D)
2. Menu : Food :: Catalogue : ?
(A) Books
(B) Library
(C) Newspaper
(D) Rack
Ans : (A)
3. FILM : ADGH :: MILK : ?
(A) ADGF
(B) HDGE
(C) HDGF
(D) HEGF
Ans : (C)

4. BJNT : CIOS :: DHPV : ?
(A) EGQU
(B) EIQW
(C) ELPV
(D) EIOU
Ans : (A)

5. KIJM : QOPS :: MKLO : ?
(A) LMOR
(B) OMNS
(C) KMOQ
(D) OMNQ
Ans : (D)
6. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded ?
(A) 5279431
(B) 5978213
(C) 8251896
(D) 8543691
Ans : (C)
7. If in a code language PRINCIPAL is written as MBOQSOMVW and TEACHER is written as FDVSZDB, how is CAPITAL written in that code ?
(A) SVMOFVW
(B) SVMODVW
(C) BVMODVW
(D) SVMIDVW
Ans : (A)
8. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : If more encouragement is given to Sports, Indians will win more gold medals at the Olympic Games.
Assumptions : I. Indians do not win gold medals.
II. More encouragement in Sports leads to better performance.
(A) Only I is valid
(B) Only II is valid
(C) Both assumptions are valid
(D) Both assumptions are invalid
Ans : (B)
9. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the given conclusions is definitely drawn from the given statements.
Statement : All virtuous persons are happy.
No unhappy person is virtuous.
Conclusions : I. Happiness is related to virtue
II. Unhappy person is not virtuous.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Both I and II follow
Ans : (D)
10. Rahim travelled straight from point E to F at a distance of 5 km. From F he turned left and travelled 6 km and reached point G, there he took a left turn and travelled 5 km to reach point H. He took another left turn and travelled 2 km and reached point I. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 7 km
Ans : (B)
11. A man is facing East, then the turns left and goes 10 m, then turns right and goes 5 m, then goes 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to West. In which direction is he, from his original place ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 12–17) Find the odd word/letters/number/figure from the given responses.
12. (A) Newspaper
(B) Press
(C) Edition
(D) Audition
Ans : (D)
13. (A) Microbe
(B) Microfilm
(C) Microphone
(D) Microscope
Ans : (A)
14. (A) PRSQ
(B) UWXV
(C) LONM
(D) CEFD
Ans : (C)
15. (A) YXVU
(B) ORQP
(C) KJHG
(D) MLJI
Ans : (B)
16. (A) 43
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
Ans : (C)
17. (A) 21, 42
(B) 24, 48
(C) 37, 74
(D) 35, 28
Ans : (D)
18. In a coding system PEN is written as NZO and BARK as CTSL. How can we write PRANK in that coding system ?
(A) NZTOL
(B) CSTZN
(C) NSTOL
(D) NTSLO
Ans : (C)
19. If BROTHER is coded as 2456784 SISTER is coded as 919684, What is the code for ROBBERS … ? …
(A) 18, 15, 22, 5, 18, 19
(B) 4562, 684
(C) 9245, 784
(D) 4522849
Ans : (D)
20. A word given in Capital Letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one can be formed by using the letters of the given words. Find out that word—
ENVIRONMENT
(A) EMINENT
(B) ENTRANCE
(C) ENTERTAIN
(D) MOVEMENT
Ans : (A)
21. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
ARCHITECTURE
(A) LECTURE
(B) UREA
(C) CHILDREN
(D) TENT
Ans : (B)
22. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
REVOLUTIONARY
(A) REVOLT
(B) TRAIL
(C) VOCATION
(D) VOLUNTARY
Ans : (C)
23. Giridharlal’s family consists of his wife Radha. 3 sons and 2 daughters. One daughter is yet to be married and the other daughter has a son. Two sons have 2 children each and the third son has 3 children. An old aunt and sonin-law also stay with them. How many members are there in Giridharlal’s family ?
(A) 20
(B) 19
(C) 18
(D) 17
Ans : (A)
24. A family went out for a walk. Daughter walked before the father. Son was walking behind the mother and ahead of father. Who walked last ?
(A) Son
(B) Father
(C) Mother
(D) Daughter
Ans : (B)
25. Seema is the daughter-in-law of Sudhir and sister-in-law of Ramesh. Mohan is the son of Sudhir and only brother of Ramesh. Find the relation between Seema and Mohan—
(A) Sister-in-law
(B) Aunt
(C) Cousin
(D) Wife
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–32) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—
26. Orange : Peel : : Nut : … ? …
(A) Pulp
(B) Shell
(C) Kernel
(D) Rind
Ans : (B)
27. Foundation : Edifice : : Constitution : … ? …
(A) Government
(B) State
(C) Nation
(D) Cabinet
Ans : (A)
28. Plat : Botany : : Man : … ? …
(A) Ecology
(B) Psychology
(C) Anthropology
(D) Sociology
Ans : (C)
29. GIKM : TRPN : : JLNP : … ? …
(A) QOMN
(B) WUSQ
(C) PRTV
(D) TVXZ
Ans : (B)
30. ACAZX : DFDWU : : GIGTR : … ? …
(A) JKJQO
(B) JLJQO
(C) JKJOQ
(D) JLJOP
Ans : (B)
31. 63 : 80 : : 120 : … ? …
(A) 125
(B) 143
(C) 170
(D) 180
Ans : (B)
32. 7 : 49 : 56 : : 14 : 196 : 210 : : … ? …
(A) 9 : 81 : 91
(B) 12 : 140 : 156
(C) 21 : 441 : 462
(D) 21 : 440 : 461
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 33–39) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—
33. (A) Square
(B) Circle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle
Ans : (B)
34. (A) Temple
(B) Mosque
(C) Theatre
(D) Church
Ans : (C)
35. (A) Sweet
(B) Bitter
(C) Salty
(D) Tasteless
Ans : (D)
36. (A) ZMYL
(B) VIUH
(C) REQD
(D) ANBO
Ans : (D)
37. (A) LJNP
(B) ECGI
(C) CAFG
(D) SQUW
Ans : (C)
38. (A) 16—64
(B) 17—68
(C) 20—100
(D) 21—84
Ans : (C)
39. (A) 63
(B) 126
(C) 215
(D) 342
Ans : (B)
40. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following—
1. Seed 2. Flower
3. Soil 4. Plant
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(B) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(C) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
Ans : (D)
41. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary—
1. Scenery 2. Science
3. Scandal 4. School
5. Scatter
(A) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(B) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
(C) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans : (A)
42. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions are implicit in the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : All children like icecream and some children like chocolates.
Assumptions : I. Children who like chocolates also like icecream.
II. Pinky does not like
chocolates but she likes ice-cream.
(A) Only assumption I is implicit
(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Both assumptions I and II are is implicit
(D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 43–44) If you start running from a point towards. North and after covering 4 km you turn to your left and run 5 km, and then again turn to your left and run 5 km, and then turn to your left again and run another 6 km, and before finishing you take another left turn and run I km, then answer questions 43 and 44 based on this information—
43. How many km are you from the place you started ?
(A) 1 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 4 km
Ans : (A)
44. In which direction will you be moving while finishing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)
45. In a certain code the following numbers are coded in a certain way by assigning sings—
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
∠∠⊄+⊇∨÷.-
Which number can be decoded from the following ?
∨∠-⊄⊇
(A) 62953
(B) 62935
(C) 62593
(D) 62539
Ans : (B)
46. If UNITY is written as FMRGB in a certain code, how would TRANQUIL be written using the same code ?
(A) GIZMJFRO
(B) TZMFJROM
(C) MJROIZBS
(D) GMPFZROI
Ans : (A)
47. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
EXEMPLIFICATION
(A) FIXATION
(B) EXAMPLE
(C) AXE
(D) EXTRA
Ans : (D)
48. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
COMMISSION
(A) OSMOSIS
(B) CONICS
(C) MOAN
(D) COMMON
Ans : (D)
49. In a cricket match, five batsman, A, B, C, D and E scored an average of 36 runs. D scored five more than E; E scored 8 fewer than A; B scored as many as D and E combined; and B and C scored 107 between them. How many runs did E score ?
(A) 62
(B) 45
(C) 28
(D) 20
Ans : (D)
50. The average age of 50 students of a class is 16 years. When 10 new students are admitted, then the average age increased by 0.5 years. The average age of the new students is—
(A) 17 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 19 years
(D) 20 years
Ans : (C)
51. Which of the following is not instructional material ?
(A) Over Head Projector
(B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material
(D) Transparency
Ans : (A)
52. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Ans : (A)
53. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 per cent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
54. Team teaching has the potential to develop—
(A) Competitive spirit
(B) Co-operation
(C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
(D) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching
Ans : (C)
55. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book Examination system ?
(A) Students become serious
(B) It improves attendance in the classroom
(C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students
(D) It compels students to think
Ans : (D)
56. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Communicator should have fine senses
(B) Communicator should have tolerance power
(C) Communicator should be soft spoken
(D) Communicator should have good personality
Ans : (A)
57. An effective teacher is one who can—
(A) Control the class
(B) Give more information in less time
(C) Motivate students to learn
(D) Correct the assignments carefully
Ans : (C)
58. The main aim of teaching is—
(A) To develop only reasoning
(B) To develop only thinking
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) To give information
Ans : (C)
59. The quality of teaching is reflected—
(A) By the attendance of students in the class
(B) By the pass percentage of students
(C) By the quality of questions asked by students
(D) By the duration of silence maintained in the class
Ans : (C)
60. Another name of Basic Education or Nai Talim is—
(A) Compulsory Education
(B) New Education Policy
(C) Wardha Education Plan
(D) Sarva Shikshya Abhiyan
Ans : (C)
61. If you would be a teacher, how would you like to behave with your students ?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Laissezfare
(D) As the conditions permit
Ans : (B)
62. When you are mal-treated in your class as a new comer then how will you deal with the students ?
(A) Through tough punitive measures
(B) Through warning of expulsion
(C) Through improving your qualities
(D) You leave the class
Ans : (C)
63. If students alleged you for making favouritism in evaluation, how can you deal with this problem ?
(A) Giving threat to fail them
(B) Making efforts to reveal the position fairly
(C) Adopting punitive measures
(D) Showing the student’s answer-books in order to satisfy them
Ans : (D)
64. A scheduled caste student is admitted in your class. The other class-mates treat him as untouchable and live in isolation. How would you give him better adjustment in the class ?
(A) By putting examples by his own deeds
(B) By preaching
(C) By showing fear of legal actions
(D) By justifying the plight of downtroddens
Ans : (A)
65. A child has nail-biting habit in the class. How could you improve his habit ?
(A) You leave it because it is not a dangerous disease
(B) You attempt to mould his behaviour under strict observation
(C) You insult him in the class
(D) You make a complaint with his parent
Ans : (B)
66. When a stubborn, submissive and shameful child is sitting in your class, you think about him as he is a—
(A) Good-natured child
(B) Emotionally-disturbed child
(C) Disciplined and obedient child
(D) Serious and studious child
Ans : (C)
67. Teachers need to study educational philosophy mainly, because—
(A) Few, if any, teachers have a philosophy
(B) Most teachers follow a wrong philosophy
(C) Teacher’s are incapable of formulating their own philosophy
(D) Most teacher’s do not know anything about educational philosophy
Ans : (C)
68. Dewey liked best, the following definition of education—
(A) Education as a product
(B) Recapitulation
(C) Acquisition of knowledge
(D) Preparation for life
Ans : (B)
69. Which of the following is not one of the aims and purposes of UNESCO ?
(A) Held an educational isolationism
(B) Promote intellectual interdependence
(C) Helps to unite peoples of the world
(D) Promote pride in nationalistic groups
Ans : (C)
70. UNESCO has as one of its many promising activities, a campaign to provide—
(A) Education for all adults of the member nations
(B) Universal, free, compulsory primary education
(C) Free education to those who desires it
(D) Indoctrination against the dangers of communism
Ans : (A)
71. Suppose a child has hearing impairment but you have no idea about him. What will be your duty towards the child ?
(A) Recognise the child and manage accordingly
(B) You become neutral because it is not your headache
(C) You send him to specialist for treatment
(D) You report to teachers, parents and principal to send him to a special school
Ans : (A)
72. A student belongs to a very poor family. The student, therefore is unable to pay tuition fee for private coaching but he is eager to get some of his problems solved. What provision will you make for the student ?
(A) Give extra time to him
(B) Refuse to solve his problems as you have no spare time
(C) Creating a terror in him
(D) Not giving the ears to his request
Ans : (A)
73. If an orthopaedically handicapped girl student is studying in your class whose right hand is amputed from elbow, how would you encourage her for study ?
(A) You silently laugh at her
(B) You develop her self-confidence and high morale
(C) You treat her as a cruel creation of God
(D) You behave gently and sympathetically
Ans : (B)
74. When your student in bitten by a stray dog on games field, you do—
(A) Inform his parents and impart first-aid immediately
(B) Washing the wound with clean water and leave it open
(C) Ask financial help from school for rabies vaccination
(D) Giving personal assistance in his treatment
Ans : (C)
75. If a student wants to satisfy some querry in question-paper then—
(A) You will clarify the printing mistake
(B) You will inform the concerned subject’s teacher
(C) You will advise him to wait till the correction is being confirmed
(D) Furiously tell him to do as he understands
Ans : (A)
76. It is easier to predict ................ on the basis of aptitude testing than success in an occupation.
(A) Failure
(B) Temperament
(C) Interest
(D) Adjustment
Ans : (A)
77. Frustration for the motives causes—
(A) Inferiority
(B) Anxiety
(C) Inefficiency
(D) Behaviour disorder
Ans : (D)
78. The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching—
(A) Studies problems of student behaviour
(B) Compares different types of tests
(C) Refuses to be guided by the rules of thumb
(D) Cannot deal with children effectively
Ans : (A)
79. The teacher who can apply the principles of Educational Psychology—
(A) Has pride in the teaching profession
(B) Can provide readymade solutions
(C) Adjusts his method to suit the needs of individual children
(D) Compares the theories of learning
Ans : (C)
80. Which of the following is an audio-visual aid ?
(A) Radio
(B) Tape-recorder
(C) Television
(D) Projector
Ans : (C)
81. Motives arouse behaviour and direct it towards an/a—
(A) Appropriate goal
(B) Inference
(C) Prediction
(D) None of the rest
Ans : (A)
82. Learning which involves motor organs is called—
(A) Sensory learning
(B) Motor learning
(C) Verbal learning
(D) Sensory-motor learning
Ans : (B)
83. Find the odd one out—
(A) Recall
(B) Recognition
(C) Trace
(D) Remembering
Ans : (C)
84. The problem child is generally one who has—
(A) An unsolved problem
(B) A poor heredity
(C) A poor home environment
(D) A younger brother or sister
Ans : (A)
85. The First Kindergarten was started by—
(A) Friedrich Froebel
(B) Benjamin Franklin
(C) Johann Pestalozzi
(D) De Witt Clinton
Ans : (A)
86. Rousseau’s major contribution to modern education was the—
(A) Kindergarten
(B) Philanthropy
(C) Use of objects in teaching
(D) Philosophy of Naturalism
Ans : (D)
87. Which of the following is most characteristic of a good teacher ?
(A) He sticks to one activity at a time and completes what he starts before starting something else
(B) He is not afraid of losing dignity when he participates in children’s activities
(C) He puts more do’s than don’ts in his comments to children
(D) He remains objective and impersonal at all times
Ans : (C)
88. A prime requisite for one who enters the teaching profession is—
(A) An IQ of over 125
(B) Public speaking ability
(C) Good health
(D) Extra income
Ans : (C)
89. There is an intimate relationship between the—
(A) Teachers and Educationists
(B) Planned and unplanned School Learning
(C) School and Society
(D) Parents and Children’s Thinking
Ans : (C)
90. Four conditions that must exist in a classroom before any motivational strategies can be successful—
(A) The teacher must be a supportive person
(B) The classroom must be disorganized
(C) The tasks set for students must not be authentic
(D) Constant disruption in class
Ans : (A)
91. The students of today are—
(A) Careless and negligent
(B) Not devoted to studies
(C) Dedicated to studies
(D) Of sharp mind
Ans : (D)
92. Government Policy on Education regards Education a unique—
(A) Consumption
(B) Investment
(C) Source of income
(D) Expenditure
Ans : (B)
93. Motivation is the release of ................ by proceeding towards a goal.
(A) Pride
(B) Tension
(C) Knowledge
(D) Power
Ans : (B)
94. Helping people in the neighbourhood to solve behavioural problems is in the purview of—
(A) Community Psychology
(B) Neighbourhood Psychology
(C) Genetic Psychology
(D) Developmental Psychology
Ans : (A)
95. Nature and Nurture refer to—
(A) Internal and External Environment
(B) Temperament and character
(C) Physical features and temperament
(D) Heredity and Environment
Ans : (D)
96. Acquisition of information and knowledge is—
(A) Ability to learn
(B) Ability to adjust
(C) Ability to memorise
(D) None of the rest
Ans : (A)
97. Motivation should be followed by—
(A) Reward
(B) Reproof
(C) Knowledge of result
(D) Incentive
Ans : (A)
98. The motivated teacher will have following attributes—
(A) Unrealistic level of Aspiration
(B) Goal-directed behaviour
(C) Dissatisfaction
(D) Deprivation of needs
Ans : (B)
99. The teacher should promote—
(A) Anxiety among the students to complete the syllabus in a hurry
(B) Harassing the students for completing the work
(C) Encouraging interactive communication among students
(D) Punishment to a student whenever he puts a question
Ans : (C)
100. Teachers and parents give more importance to the development of intelligence among students as it facilitates—
(A) Academic achievement and social respectability
(B) Less risk taking behaviour
(C) Dependence behaviour
(D) Obedient behaviour
Ans : (A)

Friday, April 22, 2011

QUESTIONS ABOUT UNION BUDGET 2011-12

1) Who presented the Union Budget 2011-12 in the Parliament on February 28, 2011?
a) Manmohan Singh b) Pratibha Devisingh Patil c) Hamid Ansari d) D.Subbarao e) Pranab Mukherjee

2) The first Union budget of independent India was presented by?
a) R.K.Shanmukham Chetty b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Morarji Desai d) Indira Gandhi e) Manmohan Singh

3) Disinvestment Target for 2011-12 has been placed at?
a) Rs. 10000 crore b) Rs. 20000 crore c) Rs. 30000 crore d) Rs. 40000 crore e) None of these

4) Foreign Institutional Investor-(FII) limit for investment in Indian corporate bonds raised from $20 billion to?
a) $30 billion b) $40 billion c) $50 billion d) $60 billion e) None of these

5) As per Union Budget 2011-12, Indian Micro Finance Equity Fund of Rs.100 crore to be created with?
a) SBI b)ICICI
c) NABARD d)IDBI e) SIDBI

6) Rural Infrastructure Develo-pment Fund (RIDF) was set up by the Government in?
a) 1995-96 b) 1996-97 c) 1997-98 d)1998-99 e) None of these

7) The corpus allocated for Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) for 2011-12 is?
a) Rs.16000 b) Rs.17000 c) Rs.18000 d) Rs.19000 e) None of these

8) The target of credit flow to farmers has been raised from Rs.3,75,000 crore of 2010-11 to ……in 2011-12?
a) Rs.4,75,000 crore b) Rs.5,75,000 crore c) Rs.6,75,000 crore d) Rs.7,75,000 crore e) None of these

9) Rural Infrastructure Develo-pment Fund (RIDF) is maintained by?
a) RBI b) SBI c) NABARD d) IDBI Bank e) None of these

10) Eligibility for pension under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme for BPL beneficiaries reduced from 65 years of age to?
a) 64 years b) 63 years c) 62 years d) 61 years e) 6o years

11) Exemption limit for the general category of individual taxpa-yers enhanced from 1,60,000 to?
a) 1,70,000 b) 1,80,000 c) 1,90,000 d) 2,00,000 e) None of these

12) As per Union Budget 2011-12, standard rate of Service Tax is?
a) 10 % b) 11 % c) 12 %d) 13 % e) None of these

13) As per Union Budget 2011-12, Defence allocation is?
a) 1.64 lakh crore b) 1.74 lakh crore c) 1.84 lakh crore d) 1.94 lakh crore e) None of these
14) In the Constitution of India, the Union Budget of India referred to as the?
a) Economic Survey b) Monetary and Credit Policy c) Foreign Trade Policy d) Annual Financial Statement
e) None of these

15) Which of the following department is not a part of Finance Ministry of India?
a) Department of Economic Affairs
b) Department of Expenditure
c) Department of Revenue
d) Department of Disinvestments
e) Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion

16) Which Department principal responsibility is the prep-aration of the Union Budget annually (excluding the Railway Budget)?
a) Department of Economic Affairs
b) Department of Expenditure
c) Department of Revenue
d) Department of Disinvestments
e)Department of Financial Servies

17) Which of the following is a government body that offers a single window clearance for proposals on foreign direct investment in the country that are not allowed access through the automatic route?
a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Export-Import Bank of India
d) Foreign Investment Promo-tion Board
e) Bombay Stock Exchange

18) The first woman Finance Secretary of India?
a) Sushma Nath
b)Shyamala Gopinath
c) Chanda Kochhar
d) Shikha Sharma
e) None of these

19) The only woman to hold the post of the finance minister of India?
a) Vijaya Lakshmi Nehru Pandit b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur d) Indira Gandhi e)None of these

20) The Union Budget is always presented first in ?
a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Joint Session of the Parliament d) State Assemblies e) None of these

21) Which of the following presents the Economic Survey in the parliament every year, just before the Union Budget?
a) RBI b) Ministry of Finance c) Ministry of Commerce d) Planning Commission e) Finance Commission

22) The financial year in India starts on?
a) 1st January b)1stMarch c) 1st April d) 1st July e) None of these

23) A fiscal year in India ends on?
a) February 28 b) March 31 c)April1 d)July1e)December 31

24) A. Gross Tax receipts are estimated at 9,32,440 crore.
B. Non-tax revenue receipts estimated at 1,25,435 crore.
C. Total expenditure proposed at 12,57,729 crore.
D. Increase of 18.3 per cent in total Plan allocation.
E. Increase of 10.9 per cent in the Non-plan expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C
c) C and D d) D and E e) All of the above

25) A.Gross Domestic Product (GDP) estimated to have grown at 8.6 per cent in 2010-11 in real terms.
B. Government expects econo-my to grow at 9 % in 2011-12.
C. Fiscal Deficit target at 4.6% for 2011-12, down from 5.1% estimated for 2010-11.
D. Central Government debt estimated at 44.2 per cent of GDP for 2011-12 as against 52.5 per cent recomm-ened by the 13th Finance Commission.
E. 40,000 crore to be raised through disinvestment in 2011-12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C
c) C and D d) D and E e) All of the above

26) A. Government committed to retain at least 51 per cent ownership and management control of the Central Public Sector Undertakings.
B. "India Microfinance Equity Fund" of  Rs.100 crore to be created with SIDBI. Gover-nment considering putting in place appropriate regulatory framework to protect the interest of small borrowers.
C."Women's SHG's Develo-pment Fund" to be created with a corpus of  Rs. 500 crore.
D. Corpus of RIDF XVII to be raised from Rs.16,000 crore to 20,000 crore.
E. 1,000 crore to be provided to SIDBI for refinancing incre-mental lending by banks to these enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and D b) A, B and C c) C and D d) D and E e) None of these

27) A.Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) increased from Rs. 6,755 crore to 7,860 crore.
B. Rs.10,000 crore to be contributed to NABARD's Short-term Rural Credit fund for 2011-12.
C. Allocation for Bharat Nirman programme proposed to be increased by Rs.10,000 crore from the current year to Rs. 58,000 crore in 2011-12.
D. Rs. 21,000 crores for primary education to implement Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
E. Defence budget hiked to ’1.64 lakh crore
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) D and E
e) All of the above

28) Consider the following statements:
1) Finance minister Pranab Mukherjee unveiled the Union Budget 2011-12 on February 28, 2011.
2) Economic Survey 2010-11 was presented in the Parliament on Feb 25, 2011.
3) India's Railway Minister Mamta Banerjee presented the new Railway Budget for the year 2011-12 in the parliament on February 25, 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) All of the above e) None of these

Answers:

1) e, 2) a, 3) d, 4) a, 5) e, 6) a, 7) c, 8) a, 9) c, 10) e, 11) b, 12) a, 13) a, 14) d, 15) e, 16) a, 17) d, 18) a, 19) d, 20) a, 21) b, 22) c, 23) b, 24) e, 25) e, 26) b, 27) e, 28) d