SAIL Management Trainee Exam Paper 2010

1. If ‘JANTA’ is coded as ‘26’ and DEPOSIT as ‘52’. How can be the code number for ‘JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME’?
1. 265276
2. 265213
3. 265287
4. 2652104
2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded?
1. NZESZR
2. LZESZT
3. LZCQZR
4. NBESBT
3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE
1. DGEF
2. EFGD
3. EGFD
4. GFDE
4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ?
1. Train : Car
2. Bruise : Fall
3. Television : Dial
4. Locusts : Holocaust
5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to
1. arms
2. face
3. body
4. nerves

Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions.
Statements:
1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards.
2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom.
3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo.
4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess.

6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo
1. Sudhir
2. Pappu
3. Sham
4. Ram
8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest?
1. Sudha
2. Mugdha
3. Madhubala
4. Data inadequate
10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by an odd number?
8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 ? 3 8 9 4 $ 5 9
1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as:
1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country’s economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.

11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy.
12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years.
13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India.

Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit.
(3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) if both I and II are implicit.
14. STATEMENT:
“Use chlorine tablets for drinking water.” A notice by municipal authority.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.
15. STATEMENT:
If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a great achievement in the field of education
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools.
II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly.
16. STATEMENT:
Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. These types of news are always in headlines.
II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital.

17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2
18. mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n
1. mmmm
2. nnnn
3. mnmn
4. nmnm

Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events ‘R’ and ‘S’. You have to read both the events ‘R’ and ‘S’ and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘R’ and ‘S’ are true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Give answer as:
1. If ‘R’ is the effect and ‘S’ is its immediate principal cause.
2. If ‘R’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘S’ is its effect.
3. If ‘R’ is its effect but ‘S’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If ‘S’ is an effect but ‘R’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
5. None of these
19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days.
Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price.
20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months.
Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer.

Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part.

21. ‘DCBA’ is related to ‘ZYXW’ in the same way as ‘HGFE’ is related to
1. RSTU
2. VUTS
3. STVU
4. UVST
22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
1. 41
2. 65
3. 56
4. 60
23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown
2. Cap
3. Tie
4. Coat

Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second letter of the so formed new word.
24. SPECULATION
1. A
2. D
3. L
4. P
25. Which does not cope with others in the following?
1. navigator
2. sailor
3. pilot
4. narrator

Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
5. if both I and II follow
26. STATEMENTS:
1. No table is chair.
2. Some chairs are stools.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tables are not stools.
II. Some stools are not tables.
27. STATEMENTS:
1. All magazines are books.
2. No book is novel.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. No novel is book.
II. No magazine is novel.
28. STATEMENTS:
1. Some tulips are roses.
2. Some roses are daffodils.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tulips are roses.
II. All roses are tulips.

Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer as:
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged?
STATEMENT:
I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it ‘O’ was staged.
II. There is a gap of one day between N and O.
30. In a certain code language “Pit Lit Nit” means “Red Paint Shirt”. What is the code for “Paint”?
STATEMENT:
I. In that code language “Nit Lit Rit Bit” means “Wash Red Paint Now”.
II. In that code language “Jit Cit Pit” means “Shirt is Dirty”.

31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ?
1. 24732
2. 23782
3. 27772
4. 27872
5. None of these

32.
1.

2.

3.
4

5.

33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ?
1. 10495
2. 10365
3. 10685
4. 10915
5. 10725

34.

1. 325
2. 75
3. 65
4. 13
5. 31

35. % of 1250 99
1. 784
2. 729
3. 576
4. 676
5. 841

36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is
1. 99999
2. 99990
3. 99909
4. 99099
5. None of these

37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is
1. 2 : 25
2. 4 : 5
3. 25 : 2
4. 5 : 4
5. None of these

38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is
1. 3 : 28
2. 5 : 14
3. 14 : 5
4. 28 : 3
5. None of these

39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is
1. 5 : 6
2. 7 : 8
3. 2 : 3
4. 9 : 17
5. None of these

40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is
1. 40 years
2. 45 years
3. 50 years
4. 55 years
5. None of these

41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two vessels are mixed together, then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 5 : 3
4. 3 : 5
5. None of these

42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs. 850 is
1. Rs. 19.40
2. Rs. 9.80
3. Rs. 10.20
4. Rs. 10.80
5. None of these

43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
1. does not change
2. decreases by 2%
3. increases by 4%
4. decreases by 4%
5. None of these

44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily money receipts are then increased by
1. 8%
2. 10%
2. 12%
4. 50%
5. None of these

45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by
1.

2. 10 %
2. 11%
4.

5. 15%
46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is
1. Rs. 4.50
2. Rs. 5
3. Rs. 5.50
4. Rs. 8
5. None of these

47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The age of teacher is
1. 37 years
2. 39 years
3. 33 years
4. 47 years
5. None of these

48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. The age of the new girl is
1. 16.4 yrs
2. 10 yrs
3. 12 yrs
4. 16 yrs
5. 20 yrs

49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is
1. 146.2 cm
3. 147 cm
3. 145 cm
4. 146 cm
5. 148 cm

50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was
1. Rs. 260
2. Rs. 262.50
3. Rs. 290
4. Rs. 292.50
5. None of these

Answers : 

 First Part 1-5: 4,3,3,4,4,Second Part 6-10: 2,2,1,1,2, Third Part 11-15: 1,3,5,5,5, Fourth Part 16-20: 5,4,2,1,3, Fifth Part 21-25: 2,2,1,3,4 Sixth Part 26-30: 2,5,4,4,4, Seventh Part 31-35: 3,2,4,4,2, Eight Part 36-40: 2,3,2,4,1,Ninth Part 41-45: 2,3,4,1,4,Tenth Part  46-50: 2,4,2,4,4

SAIL MANAGEMENT TRAINEE 2010 GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Jute
(d) Rapeseed
Ans. (c)
2. Blue Revolution is associated with
(a) Fish
(b) Milk
(c) flower
(d) Litmus
Ans. (a)
3. Study the following features of farming in India:
1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together cultivation.
2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled.
3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land.
4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements.
Which of these features belong to cooperative farming?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves?
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (b)
5. The largest food crop of India is
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) gram
Ans. (b)
6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from
(a) Rapeseed and mustard
(b) Til
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
7. Tobacco cultivated in Gujarat is mostly used for the manufacture of
(a) beedi
(b) cigarette
(c) zarda
(d) snuff powder
Ans. (a)
8. India is the largest producer of
(a) tobacco
(b) sugar
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (c)
9. Rubber plantations are located mostly in
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra and Kerala
(4) West Bengal and Kerala
Ans. (a)
10. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of
(a) 120
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 280
Ans. (c)
11. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a more than three-fold rise in food grains production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are reason for it?
1. The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.
2. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.
3. Too much emphasis is laid on what and paddy compared to the coarse grains.
4. The gains of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop rather than food crops.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) l, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
12. The state which is known as the ‘Granary of India’ is
(a) Kerala
(b) U.P
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the following states is the Leading producer of tobacco?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following is the most important cash crop of West Bengal?
(a) Tea
(b) Jute
(c) Arecanut
(d) Coffee
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. Sowing season for kharif crop is
(a) February-March
(b) June -July
(c) August –September
(d) October -December
Ans. (b)
16. Which one of the following crop combinations is characteristic of the upper Bhramaputra Valley?
(a) Rice, Jute, Oilseeds
(b) Rice, Pulses, Oilseeds
(c) Rice, Tea, Oilseeds
(d) Tea, Gram, Jute
Ans. (c)
17. Which irrigation canal irrigates the portion of Thar Desert?
(a) Indira Gandhi canal
(b) Nangal canal
(c) Western Yamuna canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
18. Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
(a) North-east region
(b) Indo Gangetic plain
(c) Krishna -Godavari delta
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
19. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is
(a) Barbari
(b) Beetal
(c) Jamnapari
(d) Black Bengal
Ans. (b)
20. Which state produces maximum wheat in the country?
(a) Punjab
(b) U.P
(c) M.P
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Fertilizer
(c) High yielding varieties of seeds
(d) Crop insurance
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Linseed
(d) Barley
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) West Bengal
(c Punjab
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)
24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in
(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) U.P. hills
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (d)
25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (b)
26. Which of the following is the largest livestock ( in number) in India?
(a) Sheep
(b) Goats
(c) Buffaloes
(d) Horses and Ponies
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
1. It is largely practised in Assam
2 It is referred to as ‘slash and burn’ technique
3 in it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is
(a) barley
(b) wheat
(c) rice
(d) sorghum
Ans. (c)
29. Terrace farming is widely practised in
(a) Malabar coast
(b) Mountain areas
(c) Deserts
(d) Deccan plateau
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India?
(a) Mustard
(b) Linseed
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation?
(a) Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Buckingham Canal
(c) Western Yamuna Canal
(d) Upper Ganga Canal
Ans. (b)
32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions?
(a) 10%
(b) 13.5%
(c) l7.8%
(d) 19.5%
Ans. (b)
33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Ans. (d)
34 The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of
1. Coconut
2.Black pepper
3, Rubber
4. Groundnut
(a) l, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 ant 4
(c) l and 4
(d) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (d)
36. In the Northern Plains of India, rice is the main crop from Bengal to eastern Uttar Pradesh, whereas in western Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab, wheat is the main produce. This is because
(a) in the eastern region, fine clayey soil is avail able
(b) the western region remains cold during the winter season.
(c) the average rainfall decreases towards the west.
(d) the cultivation of rice requires cheap labour force
Ans. (b)
37. Jute is grown on a large scale in the delta of
(a) Ganges
(b) Sutlej
(c) Damodar
(d) Indus
Ans. (c)
38. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risk coverage by Indian farmers in
(a) Dry farming
(b) Share cropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Relay cropping
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements:
I. The Green Revolution has been limited in its spatial coverage in India.
II. It has been confined mainly to Punjab, Haryana and western UttarPradesh.
Of these statements,
(a) both I and II are true.
(b) I is true but II is false.
(c) Both I and II are false.
(d) I is false but II is true.
Ans. (b)
40. India has attained self sufficiency in the production of
(a) coal
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) manganese
Ans. (d)
41. The largest coal deposit in India is in
(a) Godavari Valley
(b) Brahmani Valley
(c) Damodar Valley
(d) Satpura Valley
Ans. (c)
42. The headquarters of ONGC is situated at
(a) Bombay
(b) Delhi
(c) Dehradun
(d) Vadodara
Ans. (c)
43. Numaligarh in Assam is associated with which industry
(a) Oil refinery
(b) Automobile
(c) Cofee
(4) Cooperative farming
Ans. (a)
44. Mathura refinery receives crude oil from
(a) Cauvery basin
(b) Vadodara
(c) Kandla
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
45. Which of the following power systems provides the highest quantity of energy in India?
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Thermal
(d) Wind and tidal
Ans. (a)
46. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because
(a) it has extensive dry coast
(b) its coastal waters are very saline
(c) it has extensive shallow seas
(d) besides producing salt from saline water it has reserves of rock salt
Ans. (c)
47. Coking coal is found in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa
Ans. (c)
48. The new oil refinery in North India is going to be set up at
(a) Bhatinda
(b) Panipat
(c) Udaipur
(d) Mathura
(e) Udhampur
Ans. (b)
49. Manganese ore is abundantly found in
(a) Karnataka
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans. (c)
50. Bombay High is famous for
(a) atomic reactor
(b) steel plant
(c) chemical industry
(d) petroleum deposits
Ans. ( d)

SAIL MANAGEMENT TRAINEE 2010 ENGLISH PAPER

Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words
1. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the…….. of life oiled and running smoothly.
(a) river
(b) garden
(c) path
(d) machine

2. The bright colour of this shirt has………. away.
(a) gone
(b) disappeared
(c) faded
(d) paled

3. One major ……….between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld.
(a) conflict
(b) pain
(c) irritant
(d) culprit

4.Even a ………glance will reveal the mystery
(a)crude
(b)cursory
(c) critical
(d) curious

5. His standard of living has……. since his son joined service.
(a) lifted
(b) increased
(c) risen
(d) heightened

6. The passengers were afraid but the captain …….them that there was no danger.
(a) instructed
(b) advised
(c) promised
(d) assured

7. His first failure did not…… him from making another attempt.
(a) interfere
(b) forbid
(c) frighten
(d) deter

8. No one will ……….. you for having been rude to your teacher.
(a) exclaim
(b) admire
(c) advise
(d) recommend

9.The doctor …….. the patient from taking certain medicines.
(a) banned
(b) prohibited
(c) prescribed
(d) proscribed

10.I ……..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.
(a) think
(b)regard
(c) consider
(d) agree

11. He didn’t have the……….. idea of villager’s problems.
(a) smallest
(b)finest
(c) faintest
(d) feeblest

12. This is a………… translation of the speech.
(a) verbatim
(b)verbal
(c) literal
(d) literary

13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence.
(a) discovered
(b) disclosed
(c)leaked out
(d) divulged

14. No man had a more ………..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than
Samuel Johnson.
(a)arduous
(b) ardent
(c) animated
(d) adroit

15.I have often ………why he went to live abroad.
(a) puzzled
(b) wondered
(c) thought
(d) surprised

16.He lives near ……………a lonely of countryside.
(a) piece
(b) length
(c) stretch
(d) section

17. To nobody else did the story seem ………
(a) contingent
(b) credible
(c) credulous
(d) creditable

18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ……………..the findings of the Commission.
(a) objected
(b) questioned
(c)rejected
(d) disputed

19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected …………….to block off the streets.
(a) dykes
(b) barrages
(c) barricades
(d) barracks

20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully……. the books they had been reading.
(a) despised
(b) neglected
(c) shelve
(d)overthrow

Answers

1. D      2.C     3. A     4.B      5.C
6. D      7.D     8. B     9.B      10.C
11. C      12.C     13. C     14.B      15.B
16. C     17.B     18. D     19.C     20.B
 

SAIL MANAGEMENT TRAINEE 2010 PAPER

Electronics Engineering

1.         Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is
            A. 5.7 mH
            B. 5.85 mH
            C. 6 mH
            D. 6.15 mH.
2.         Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be
                       
                                                                       

1. zero
2. 
3. 1V
4. 

3.         Optocouplers combine
            A. SITs and BJTs
            B. IGBTs and MOSFETS
            C. Power transformers and silicon transistor
            D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor
4.         The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as
            A. Gross error
            B. Absolute error
            C. Dynamic error
            D. Relative error
5.         The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :
            A. linear time variant systems
            B. non-linear time variant systems
            C. linear time invariant systems
            D. non-linear time invariant systems.
6.         In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0,
            A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses
            B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
            C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.
            D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.
7.         The transistor shown in figure below, is biased
                       

1. at cut-off
2. at saturation
3. well into saturation
4. well into cut-off

8.         In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon
            A. ohmic losses of various conductors
            B. radiation resistance
            C. ground conductivity
            D. atmospheric conditions.
9.         An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be classified as
            A. data transfer
            B. arithmetic
            C. logical
            D. program control
10.       The binary representation of 5.375 is
            A. 111.1011
            B. 101.1101
            C. 101.011
            D. 111.001
11.       Dislocations in materials are
            A. point defect
            B. line defect
            C. planer defect
            D. surface defects.
12.       In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of
            A. integrator
            B. differentiator
            C. sweep credit
            D. sync separator.
13.       Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of
            A. Ground waves
            B. Sky waves
            C. Surface waves
            D. Space waves.
14.       200 MHz may be classified as
            A. VHF
            B. SHF
            C. UHF
            D. EHF
15.       A communication satellite is a repeater between
            A. a transmitting station and a receiving station
            B. a transmitting station and many receiving stations
            C. many transmitting stations and many receiving stations
            D. none of the above
16.       The power in a series R-L-C circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is equal to
            A. V / 2R
            B. V /
            C. V /
            D.
17.       A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The average electric field on the surface of the sphere will be
                       

1. infinite
2. 
3. 
4. Zero

18.       The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range
A. 50 to 55 percent
            B. 65 to 72 percent
            C. 82 to 87 percent
            D. 92 to 99 percent
19.       Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?      
            A. Hot wire instrument
            B. Electrostatic voltmeter
            C. Moving coil voltmeter
            D. Moving iron voltmeter.




20.                              
                                   
            Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the above figure :

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

21.       The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor,
                        Memory address in Hex          Instruction
                                    2000                            LXI SP, 1000
                                    2003                            PUSH H
                                    2004                            PUSH D
                                    2005                            CALL 2050
                                    2008                            POP 2050
                                    2009                            HIT
As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………, and the stack pointer contains ……..

1. 2050, OFFC
2. 2251, OFFC
3. 1025, OCCF
4. 1025, OCCF

22.       With reference to figure, value of VCE is
                       

1. 0 V
2. 5 V
3. -5V
4. none of the above

23.       The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected
            A. 1 dB
            B. 3 dB
            C. 10 dB
            D. 20 dB.
24.       In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is
            A. shorter than machine cycle time
            B. larger than machine cycle time
            C. exactly double the machine cycle time
            D. exactly the same as the machine cycle time
25.       The value of M in the end will be
                        Do   100   I = 1, 2
                        DO   200   J = 1, 2
                                        M = M + I + J
                        200   CONTINUE
                        100   CONTINUE
                                    STOP
                                    END

1. 10
2. 11
3. 12
4. 14

26.       Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by
            A. temperature
            B. pressure
            C. composition
            D. all of the above.
27.       In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during
            A. equalizing pulse
            B. retrace interval between each line
            C. retrace period of vertical line
            D. none of the above.
28.       The polarization required in ground wave propagation is
            A. Horizontal (linear)
            B. vertical (linear)
            C. Circular
            D. Elliptical
29.       Multicavity Klystron
            A. is not a microwave device
            B. is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
            C. is not suitable to pulse operation
            D. has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time
30.       Transponder comprises of
            A. Transmitter
            B. Receiver
            C. Antenna
            D. a, b, c combined
31.       Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the given figure :
            1.         If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient
2.         The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the frequency of the supply
3.         The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the circuit elements
4.         There will always be a non-zero transient after the switch K is colosed.
                                     
            Of these statements :

1. 1 alone is correct.
2. 1 and 2 are correct.
3. 1 and 3 are correct
4. 4 alone is correct.

32.       A circular ring carrying a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the axis of the ring are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the dipole moment of the charge system is
                                                                       

1. Qd
2. Q R2 / d
3. Q
4. QR.

33.       Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer
            A. Buck regulator
            B. Boost regulator
            C. Buck-boost regulator
            D. Cuk regulator
34.       The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on
            A. RMS value of alternating current
            B. voltage
            C. average value of a.c. current
            D. instantaneous value of a.c. current.
35.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
                        List-I                                                   List-II
            (Response to a unit step input)           (Location of poles in the s-plane)

1.                                    1.One at the origin

            B.                                            2.Two identical roots on the negative real axis.
            C.                                            3.Two on the imaginary axis
            D.                                           4.One on the position real axis.
            Codes:
                        A         B         C         D
            A.        4          3          2          1
            B.        3          4          1          2
            C.        3          4          2          1
            D.        4          3          2          1
36.       Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide
            A. higher speeds compared to all other types of A / D converters
            B. very good accuracy without putting extreme requirements on component stability
C. poor rejection of power supply hums
D. better resolution compared to all other types of A / D converters for the same number
of bits.
37.       In the figure given below, the collector current is
                       

• 2 mA
• 200 mA
• Almost zero
• 0.02 mA

38.       The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly
            A. 250 - 300 MHz
            B. 150 - 200 MHz
            C. 90 - 105 MHz
            D. 30 - 70 MHz
39.       A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to
            A. 2 bytes
            B. 1 byte
            C. 4 bytes
            D. 8 bytes
40.       In electronic microcircuits, a resistor may be fabricated from constant-thickness layer of semiconductor material with conductor connections at the edges as shown below. If the resistor shown has resistance R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of
                       

• 4 R
• 2 R
• R
• R / 2

41.       Line imperfection in a crystal is called
            A. Schottky defect
            B. Frenkel defect
            C. edge dislocation
            D. Miller defect.
42.       The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is
            A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
            B. to increase the bandwidth
            C. to increase the power output
            D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.
43.       Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This due to
            A. Ionospheric reflection
            B. Faraday rotation
            C. Ducting
            D. Ionospheric scatter.
44.       The modes in a reflex Klystron
            A. give the same frequency but different transit time
            B. result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap
            C. are caused by spurious frequency modulation
            D. are just for theoretical considerations.
45.       The capacity of a channel is
            A. number of digits used in coding
            B. volume of information it can take
            C. maximum rate of information transmission
            D. bandwidth required for information

Solution
1.A.     When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance is
                        Leff = L1 + L2± 2 m.
                        In this case, Leff = L1 + L2 - 2 M
                                                   = 2 + 4 - 2 × 0.15
                                                   = 5.7 mH.
2.C.     The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that of A or C, i.e., 1V.
3.D.     In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit.
4.C.     The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as dynamic error.
5.C.     The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time invariant systems.
6.D.     In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with I / 0 data.
7.B.     Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A.
            IC = 100 × 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v.
            Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation.
8.B.                
            whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna.
9.B.     Arithmetic
10.C.   101.001 = (4 + 0 + 1)
                              (0 + 0.25 + 0.125)
                          = 5.375
11.B.   Dislocations in materials are line defects.
12.A.   Integrator.
13.D.   Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space waves.
14.A.   VHF.
15.C.   a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many receiving stations.

16.C.   V / Ö2 R
17.C.   The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement density has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is
                       
            \  Average electric
            field is :
            Eav  =
18.D.   The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent.
19.B.   Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage.
20.A.   it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is
                        G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s)
            It is seen immediately that | G (jw) |
            = 1 and hence gain is db = 0.
21.A.   Memory address in hex           Instruction                   Remarks
                        2000                            LXI  SP  1000
                        2003                            PUSH  H
                        2004                            PUSH  D                     We do not
2005                            CALL  2025               know the
                                                                        contents of
                                                                        subroutine
                                                                        at 2050.
2006                            50
2007                            20
2008                            POP  H
2009                            HALT
At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and the stack pointer contains OFFC.
22.B.   Neglecting, VBE
                         =
               
               
23.B.   Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102
                          = 10 × 0.3 = 3dB.
24.D.   Instruction cycle time is exactly the same as the machine cycle time.
25.C.   Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with
                        J = 1, 2
                        J = 1
                        M = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2
                        J = 2
                        M = 2 + 1 + 2 = 4
            Taking index of I = 2 and computing the value of M with J = 1, 2
                        J = 1
                        M = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8
                        J = 2
M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12
26.A.   Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by temperature.
27.B.   In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during retrace interval between each line
28.B.   The polarization required in ground wave propagation is vertical (linear).
29.A.   Multicavity Klystron is not a good low level amplifier because of noise.
30.D.   Transponder comprises of transmitter, receiver and antenna.
31.C.   If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete expression for current will be
           
            The transient is zero if wt0 + q - f = 0
            or  t0 = (f - q) / w
Thus it is possible to find to such that there is no transient. Further to depends upon the circuit parameters and the frequency.
                        So, the statements 1 and 3 are true.
32.A.   For points far away, the charge on the ring may be considered to be located be at the centre of the ring. Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd.
33.C.   a puck-boost regulator provides on output voltage which may be less than or greater than the input voltage. The output voltage polarity is opposite to that of the input voltage. It has high efficiency.
34.A.   The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on RMS value of alternating current.
35.A.   Considering that there are poles of H (s), then
            H1 (s) =
            H3 (s) =
            The impulse responses [a-1 H (s)] can be found and the step response are integrations of the corresponding impulse responses.
36.B.   Dual slope integration type A to D converters are of slow speed and require more number of bits, than successive approximation ADC.
37.C.   Since emitter and base have same polarity and same potential, EBJ is not biased property. Hence, IB is zero and so is IC.
38.C.   The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 105 MHz.
39.C.   4 bytes.
40.C.   Resistance will be directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Let t mm be the thickness of semi-conductor material so that the cross-sectional area for R ohm resistor is 0.1 × t sq. mm and length of semi - conductor material 0.1 mm.
                        For a 0.2 mm × 0.2 mm section, cross - sectional area = 0.2 × t sq. mm. Length = 0.2 mm
            Hence, resistance,
                        = R =
41.C.   Line imperfection in a crystal is called edge dislocation.
42.A.   The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter.
43.C.   Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This is due to ducting.
44.A.   The modes in a reflex Klystron give the same frequency but different transit time.
45.C.   The capacity of a channel is maximum rate of information transmission

Mechanical-Engineering MT 2009

A definite area or space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
A thermodynamic system B thermodynamic cycle
C thermodynamic process D thermodynamic law


2. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?
A volume B Temperature
C mass D energy


3. Temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes 0 is called
A absolute scale of temperature B absolute 0 temperature
C absolute temperature D none of these


4. The unit of energy in SI units is
A joule B joule metre
C watt D joule/metre


5. 1 joule is equal to
A 1 Nm B kNm
C 10 Nm/s D 10 kNm/s

6. In an irreversible process there is a
A loss of heat B no loss of heat
C gain of heat D no gain of heat

7. The following is an SI engine
A diesel engine B petrol engine
C gas engine D none of the above

8. In a 4 stroke cycle petrol engine during suction stroke
A only air is sucked in B only petrol is sucked in
C mixture of petrol and air is sucked in
D none of the above

9. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine as compared to diesel engine is
A lower B higher
C same for same power output D same for same speed

10. Compression ratio of diesel engines may have a range
A 8 to 10 B 10 to 15
C 16 to 20 D none of the above

11 The thermal efficiency of good I.C engine at the rated load is in the range of
A 80 to 90% B 60 to 70%
C 30 to 35% D 10 to 20%

12 Carburettor is used for
A SI engines B gas engines
C CI engines D none of the above

13 In SI engine to develop high voltage for spark plug
A battery is installed B distributor is installed
C carburetor is installed D ignition coil is installed

14 In a four cylinder petrol engine the standard firing order is
A 1-2-3-4 B 1-4-3-2
C 1-3-2-4 D 1-3-4-2

15 The knocking is SI engines increases with
A increase in inlet air temperature B increase in compression ratio
C increase in cooling water temperature D all of the above

16 Petrol commercially available in India for Indian passenger cars has octane
number in the range
A 40 to 50 B 60 to 70
C 80 to 85 D 95 to 100

17 The knocking tendency in C.I engines increases with
A decrease of compression ratio B increase of compression ratio
C increasing the temperature of inlet air D increasing cooling water
temperature


18 The air standard otto cycle comprises
A two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes
B two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes
C two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes
D none of the above

19 The thermal efficiency of theoretical otto cycle
A increases with increase in compression ratio
B increases with increase in isentropic index gamma

1. C does not depend upon the pressure ratio
   D follows of the above
   
   20 Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant has compared to diesel engine plant is
   A higher B lower
   C same D may be higher or lower
   

21 Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustion
Reciprocating engine is
A higher B lower
C same D unpredictable

22 For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the range
A 2 to 3 B 3 to 5
C 16 to 18 D 18 to 22

23 Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by
A reheating B intercooling
C regenerator D all of the above

24With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
Plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature
A decreases B increases
C first increases and then decreases D first decreases and then increases

25In two stage turbine plant, reheating after first stage
A increases work ratio B decreases work ratio
C does not affect work ratio D none of the above

26For a jet propulsion unit , ideally the compressor work and turbine work are
A equal B unequal
C not related to each other D unpredictable
27 Various kinematic pairs are given below.choose the lower pair
A ball bearings B tooth gears in mesh
C camm and follower D crank shaft and bearing



28The relation between the number of pairs forming a kinematic chain and the
Number of links is
A l=2p-2 B l=2p-3
C l=2P-4 D l=2p-5

29In a reciprocating engine
A crankshaft and flywheel form 2 kinematic links
B crankshaft and flywheel form 1 kinematics links
C crankshaft and flywheel do not form kinematic links
D flywheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links

30A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when
A none of the link is fixed
B one of the links is fixed
C two of the links are fixed
D all of the links are fixed
31 Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain?
A beam engine
B watt’s indicator mechanism
C elliptical trammels
D whitworth quick return motion mechanism


32 control volumes refer to
A a fixed region in space
B a specified mass
C an isolated system
D a closed system

33An isentropic process is always
A irreversible and adiabatic
B reversible and isothermal
C friction less and irreversible
D reversible and adiabatic

34Work done in a free expansion process is
A 0
B minimum
C maximum
D positive





35.The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg. The
member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of?

(a) 0 Newton
(b)490 Newtons in compression
(c)981 Newtons in compression
(d) 981 Newtons in tension
36.In terms of.Poisson’s ratio (v) the ratio of Young’s Modulus (E) to Shear Modulus (G) of elastic materials is ?
(a)2(1 + v)
(b) 2(1 — v)
(c)(1 + v)/2
(d)(1 — v)/2
37. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at
1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 2O N. m. The torque transmitted by the gear is
(a) 6.6 Nm
(b) 20 Nm
(c) 40 Nm
(d) 60 Nm
38. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain point in a stressed body. The magnitudes of normal stresses in the x and y direction are 100 MPa and 20 MPa respectively. The radius of Mohr’s stress circle representing this state of stress is

(a)120
(b)80
(c)60
(d)40
39.For a mechanism shown below, the mechanical advantage for the given configuration is?

(a)0
(b) 0.5
(c)1.0
(d)Infinity
40.A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency of vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibility of ratio of isolation is
(a)1/2
(b)3/4
(c)4/3
(d)2
41. A torque of 10 Nm is transmitted through a stepped shaft as shown in figure.

The torsional stiffnesses of individual sections of lengths MN, NO and OP are 20 Nm/rad 30 Nm/rad and 60 Nm respectively. The angular deflection between the ends M and P of the shaft is?
(a) 0.5 rad
(b) 1.0 rad
(c) 5.0 rad
(d) 10.0 rad
42.

43. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
(a)10 3 cycles
(b) 10 4 cycles
(c)10 6 cycles
(d) 10 9 cycles
44. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is
(a)capillary tube
(b) thermostatic expansion valve
(c)automatic expansion valve
(d) float valve
45. During chemical de-humidification process of air
(a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease
(b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases
(c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases
(d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase
46.An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2 /s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top.plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 rn/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is ?
(a)0.651 x 10 -3
(b) 0.651
(c)6.51
(d) 0.651 x 103
47.Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is ?
(a)CH ClF2
(b) C2 Cl 3F3
(c)C2 Cl 2F4
(d) C2 H2F4
48.

(a)x—2y=0
(b) 2x+y=0
(c)2x—y=0
(d) x+2y=0
49. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compression being 5000 kJ. During the process, heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. The change in internal energy of the gas during the process is
(a)—7000kJ
(b) —3000kJ
(c)+ 3000 kJ
(d) + 7000 kJ
50.The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum work output for the given temperature limits of Tmin and Tmax will be

51.
(a)10 microns
(b) 20 microns
(c)30 microns
(d) 60 microns
51.

(a) circular Interpolation — clockwise
(b) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
(c) linear Interpolation
(d) rapid feed
52. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is
(a) Melting and Evaporation
(b) Melting and Corrosion
(c) Erosion and Cavitation
(d) Cavitation and Evaporation
53. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming, effective resistance to be 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat generated during the process will be
(a)0.2 Joule
(b) 1 Joule
(c)5 Joule
(d) 1000 Joules
54. In PERT analysis a critical activity has
(a)maximum Float
(b) zero Float
(c)maximum Cost
(d) minimum Cost
55. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. If the exponential smoothing constant (a) is taken as 0.2, the forecast sales for January 2003 would be ?
(a)21
(b)23
(c)24
(d) 27
56. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
(a) very high pouring temperature of the metal
(b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(d) improper alignment of the mould flasks
57. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of
(a)0.25 to 0.75 percent
(b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent
(c)3 to 4 percent
(d) 8 to 10 percent
58.In the figure shown,

the relative velocity of link1 with respect to link 2 is 12 m/sec. Link 2 rotates at a constant speed of 120 rpm. The magnitude of Coriolis component of aceeleration of link 1 is
(a)302 m/s2
(b)604 m/s2
(c)906 m/s2
(d) 1208 m/s2
59. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with single degree of freedom.

The instant center 24 for the given configuration is located at a position ?
(a) L
(b) M
(c) N
(d)Infinity
60.A uniform stiff rod of length 200 mm and having a weight of 300 N is pivoted at one end and connected to a spring at the other end.

For keeping the rod vertical in a stable position the minimum value of spring constant K needed is ?
(a) 300 N/m
(b) 400 N/m
(c) 500 N/m
(d) 1000 N/m
61. In a bolted joint two members are connected with an axial tightening force of 2200 N.

If the bolt used has metric threads of 4 mm pitch, the torque required for achieving the tightening force is?
(a)0.7Nm
(b)1.0 Nm
(c)1.4 Nm
(d) 2.8 Nm