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Monday, May 30, 2011

Travel and Tourism Management (Diploma) Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

General English
(Exam Held on 18-4-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–4) Against each key word are given some suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is nearest in meaning to the key word.

1. PRIVY
(A) Dishonest
(B) Cautious
(C) Secretive
(D) Quiet
Ans : (C)

2. PILFER
(A) To gossip
(B) Steal
(C) Trifle
(D) Loiter
Ans : (B)

3. EAGER
(A) Clever
(B) Enthusiastic
(C) Curious
(D) Devoted
Ans : (C)

4. PLACID
(A) Clear
(B) Calm
(C) Enjoyable
(D) Dull
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 5–8) In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

5. URBAN
(A) Country-made
(B) Pastoral
(C) Provincial
(D) Rural
Ans : (D)

6. BLATANT
(A) Noisy
(B) Quiet
(C) Barren
(D) Slow
Ans : (B)

7. PRIM
(A) Rash
(B) Extravagant
(C) Foul
(D) Shameful
Ans : (B)

8. EXHIBIT
(A) Conceal
(B) Prevent
(C) Withdraw
(D) Concede
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 9–11) In each of the following questions an idiomatic expression / proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

9. To read between the lines—
(A) To concentrate
(B) To read carefully
(C) To suspect
(D) To grasp the hidden meaning
Ans : (D)

10. To flog a dead horse—
(A) To act in a foolish way
(B) To waste one’s efforts
(C) To revive interest in an oldsubject
(D) To revive old memories
Ans : (C)

11. To pay one back in the same coin—
(A) To provoke a person to quarrel
(B) To offer another polite attention
(C) To retaliate
(D) To give a word a encouragement or praise to another
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 12–15) In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

12. A small house with all rooms on one floor—
(A) Bungalow
(B) Cottage
(C) Flat
(D) Castle
Ans : (B)

13. Mania for stealing articles—
(A) Logomania
(B) Nymphomania
(C) Kleptomania
(D) Hypomania
Ans : (C)

14. One who hates mankind—
(A) Misanthrope
(B) Philanthropist
(C) Lover
(D) Hater
Ans : (A)

15. One whose wife is dead—
(A) Widower
(B) Widow
(C) Divorcee
(D) Celibate
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–17) In each question below, select the alternative spelt correctly.

16. (A) Ommission
(B) Omision
(C) Omission
(D) Ommision
Ans : (C)

17. (A) Aliennate
(B) Allienate
(C) Alienate
(D) Alienatte
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18–19) In each question below, select the alternative that is spelt wrong.

18. (A) Suicide
(B) Suiteable
(C) Summarize
(D) Superficial
Ans : (B)

19. (A) Surender
(B) Abbreviate
(C) Qualification
(D) Eccentric
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 20–22) In the following sets of analogies one word is missing. Select that word from the alternatives given below each question.

20. Breeze : Cyclone : : Drizzle : ?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Storm
(C) Flood
(D) Downpour
Ans : (D)

21. Genuine : Authentic : : Mirage : ?
(A) Image
(B) Transpiration
(C) Reflection
(D) Illusion
Ans : (D)

22. Grain : Granary : : Curios : ?
(A) Archives
(B) Museum
(C) Library
(D) Zoo
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 23–26) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form.

23. Lice
(A) Louse
(B) Lace
(C) Licey
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. Knives
(A) Knife
(B) Knive
(C) Kniv
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Dwarves
(A) Dwarv
(B) Dwarve
(C) Dwarf
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. Geese
(A) Gander
(B) Goose
(C) Gouse
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 27–30) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form.

27. Foot
(A) Feet
(B) Foots
(C) Feat
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Syllabus
(A) Syllabi
(B) Syllabus
(C) Syllabu
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. Mouse
(A) Mice
(B) Mouses
(C) Mouse
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. Man
(A) Mean
(B) Mans
(C) Men
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–60) Answer the questions that follow each of the five passages based on the information given in the passage.

PASSAGE I
To those who do listen, the desert speaks of things with an emphasis quite different from that of the shore, the mountain, the valley or the plains. Whereas these invite action and suggest limitless opportunity and exhaustless resources, the implications and the mood of the desert are something different. For one thing, the desert is conservative, not radical. It is more likely to provide awe than to invite conquest. The heroism which it encourages is the heroism of the endurance, not that of conquest. It brings man up against this limitation, turns him in upon himself and suggests values which more indulgent regions suppress. Sometimes it induces contemplation in men who have never contemplated before. And of all the answers to the question—what is a desert good for—‘contemplation’ is perhaps the best.

31. In order to receive the desert’s message, the beholder needs to be—
(A) Courageous in his reaction
(B) Conservative in his responses
(C) A good listener
(D) Sensitive to nature
Ans : (D)

32. The desert is unique among landscapes in that it encourages only—
(A) Contemplation
(B) Indolence
(C) Heroic endeavour
(D) Adventurous spirit
Ans : (C)

33. If one responds with insight to the mood of the desert, it evokes—
(A) An inclination for deep thought
(B) The possibility of unending resources
(C) The desire for heroic conquest
(D) A sense of intense revulsion
Ans : (A)

34. The writer calls the desert ‘conservative’ rather than ‘radical’ because it provides an environment that—
(A) Inspires man to explore it
(B) Offers unlimited opportunity to conquer
(C) Tests one’s endurance
(D) Makes one gloomy
Ans : (C)

35. What does the phrase “it brings man up against his limitations”, mean ?
(A) It makes man feel hopeless about his limitations
(B) It makes man aware of his limitations
(C) It compels man to fight against his limitations
(D) It persuades man to overcome his limitations
Ans : (D)

PASSAGE II
It is difficult to reconcile the ideas of different schools of thought on the question of education. Some people maintain that pupils at school should concentrate on a narrow range of subjects which will benefit them directly in their subsequent careers. Others contend that they should study a wide range of subjects so that they have not only the specialised knowledge necessary for their chosen careers but also sound general knowledge about the world they will have to work and live in. Supporters of the first theory state that the greatest contributions to civilisation are made by those who are most expert in their trade or profession. Those on the other side say that, unless they have a broad general education, the experts will be too narrow in their outlook to have sympathy with their fellows or a proper sense of responsibility towards humanity as a whole.

36. ‘Schools of thought’ can be explained as—
(A) Groups of people whose job is to think
(B) Groups of people who are schooled to think
(C) Groups of people who study in a particular school thoughtfully
(D) Groups of people having the same ideas but with different perception on a particular subject
Ans : (D)

37. Broad general knowledge is necessary because—
(A) Specialisation is incomplete without it
(B) Without it no one would get a job
(C) It teaches us about different things
(D) It broadens one’s outlook
Ans : (D)

38. The idea of the first school of thought in the passage is that—
(A) Students should concentrate on studies
(B) Students should not undertake any specialised work
(C) Students should study all the subjects they want to
(D) Students should study a few subjects that will help them in their profession
Ans : (D)

39. Supporters of the first theory say that—
(A) Experts have contributed most to progress in the modern world
(B) People with general knowledge have contributed to civilisation
(C) Experts have done nothing to help mankind
(D) People with general knowledge are more useful than experts
Ans : (A)

40. According to the second school of thought, education will not be very effective if pupils—
(A) Have inadequate knowledge of their own work
(B) Do not have a wide general education
(C) Ignore the study of fine arts
(D) Have nothing but general knowledge
Ans : (A)

PASSAGE III
Recent technological advancement in manned and unmanned undersea vehicles, overcome some of the limitations of divers equipment. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish and their mental concentration was limited. Because of undersea pressure that affected their mind, concentration among divers was difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers make observations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean or from samples taken from the water. Direct observations of the ocean floor are made not only by the divers, but also by deep-diving submarines. Some of these submarines can dive to depths of more than several miles and cruise at depths of 15 thousand feet. Radio equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit information back to land-based laboratories including data about water temperature, currents and weather. Some of mankind’s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food may be solved with the help of observations made possible by these undersea vehicles.

41. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned ?
(A) Recent technological advances
(B) Communication among divers
(C) Direct observation of the ocean floor
(D) Undersea vehicles
Ans : (D)

42. Divers have had problems in concentrating underwater because—
(A) The pressure affected their minds
(B) The vehicles they used have not been perfected
(C) They did not think clearly
(D) The pressure destroyed their mental processes
Ans : (A)

43. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon—
(A) Vehicles as well as divers
(B) Radio that divers use to communicate
(C) Controlling currents and the weather
(D) Removal of the limitations of diving equipment
Ans : (A)

44. Undersea vehicles—
(A) Are too small for a man to fit inside
(B) Are very slow to respond
(C) Have the same limitations that divers have
(D) Make direct observations of the ocean floor
Ans : (D)

45. How is a radio-equipped buoy most likely to be operated ?
(A) By operators inside the vehicle and underwater
(B) By operators outside the vehicle on a ship
(C) By operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform
(D) By operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on the shore
Ans : (D)

PASSAGE IV
A new US study has warned that adolescents who take performance enhancing anabolic steroids are more likely to have adverse neural and behavioural consequences, like aggression and moodiness, because of the steroids’ affect on the underdeveloped brain and the nervous system. The study, by Northeastern University in the US, centred around a brain chemical called serotonin, which is linked to mood. Lower levels of serotonin are associated with depression and aggression. For the study, experiments were carried out on a strain of Syrian hamsters. This breed has similar neurological circuitry to humans, so experts felt it might be a good model for humans in this respect. The hamsters were given a high dose of anabolic steroids over the course of a month—which corresponded to five years’ repeated dosage in humans. The researchers found that the hamsters were more aggressive than those not given steroids and these aggressive tendencies were mellowed if Prozac—a drug which boosts serotonin ‘uptake’ — was given. However, subsequent analysis showed significantly lower than normal serotonin levels in the neural connections of the hamster’s brains. This suggests there may be a longer-term effect of taking steroids while the brain is still developing. Professor Richard Melloni, who helped run the study, was quoted as saying by BBC : “We know testosterone or steroids affect the development of serotonin nerve cells, which, in turn, decreases serotonin availability in the brain. The serotonin neural system is developing during adolescence and the use of anabolic steroids during this critical period appears to have immediate neural and behavioural consequences.”

46. Why do adolescents develop neural disorders?
(A) The effect of steroids hampers the growth of the brain
(B) Prozac, if taken in excess by adolescents, makes them aggressive
(C) Due to a decrease in the level of serotonin in the blood
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following sentences is true, according to the passage ?
(A) Adolescents are more likely to have neural and behavioural disorders
(B) Depression and aggression are caused by a lower intake of serotonin
(C) Those taking steroids are likely to face long-term neural and behavioral implications
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. The drug that boosts serotonin uptake is—
(A) Prozac
(B) Melanin
(C) Erythrocytes
(D) Penicillin
Ans : (A)

49. Upon which breed of mammals were the experiments carried out ?
(A) Sicilian gangsters
(B) Italian hamsters
(C) Syrian hamsters
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. The thrust area of the research mentioned in the passage is—
(A) The effect of serotonin on the human brain
(B) The effect of high doses of anabolic steroids
(C) The immediate neural and behavioural consequences of the use of anabolic steroids
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

PASSAGE V
It is common knowledge that the root cause of our backwardness in most fields is illiteracy. Campaigns for the eradication of this drawback gathered momentum in the past four decades after independence. The results are, as expected, dramatic. However, while the percentage of literacy in India is going up, the number of illiterates has also been increasing, which is really incredible. Thus, according to the 1991 census figures, there were 503 million illiterates in the country, 30 million more than in 1981. During the same period, the percentage of literacy went up from 34 to 39 per cent. There is no need of any sophisticated technique to explain the cause of this paradox, as it is obviously the result of the rapid growth of population. The rapid growth of population has outpaced whatever little progress had been achieved in literacy. For instance, from 1971 to 1981, literacy increased at an annual average rate of 0•7 per cent, while the country’s population grew by 2•15 per cent every year. In the following decade the average rate of annual increase in literacy was 0•95 per cent, whereas the population grew by almost 2•85 per cent every year during that decade. But population explosion is not entirely responsible for the growing number of illiterates. The apathy of most states in failing to tackle the problem of adult illiteracy is also partly to blame. Till now, they have shown little awareness of the magnitude of the problem. Moreover, follow-up measures to prevent neoliterates from relapsing into illiteracy are just as important as the initial adult literacy campaigns. In this case too, the State Education authorities are negligent. Not sufficient provision has been made for ‘continued education’. This can be done by setting up more rural libraries, adult schools and correspondence courses.

51. Which of the following appears unbelievable, according to the passage ?
(A) Growing illiteracy is owing to non-availability of reading facilities to rural masses
(B) Sufficient provision for continued education has not been made
(C) The increase in literacy per centage and also the increase in number of illiterates
(D) Population explosion is the only reason for increase in the number of illiterates
Ans : (C)

52. The term ‘Neo-literate’ as used in the passage refers to a person who—
(A) Is not literate
(B) Has newly become literate
(C) Is a little literate
(D) Is a literate with no school education
Ans : (C)

53. In the passage, the rapid growth of population has been attributed to—
(A) Illiteracy
(B) Apathy of government officials
(C) Want of continued education
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

54. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘outpaced’ as use of the passage ?
(A) Surpassed
(B) Mullihed
(C) Ruled out
(D) Spoiled
Ans : (A)

55. ‘Eradication’ as used in the passage means—
(A) Removal
(B) Destruction
(C) Starvation
(D) Evaporation
Ans : (B)

PASSAGE VI
The Rajputs occupied an honoured place in the history of India. They were a war-like people, proud and patriotic. They were jealous of their honour and would lay down their lives to uphold it. They loved their homes and fought bravely to defend the honour of their women-folk. Nothing would tame their spirits. Perils only called fourth their courage and poverty only increased their power of resistance. None could fight like them. Their motto was ‘Better death than Dishonour’.

56. Which of the represents the central theme of the passage ?
(A) The pride of the Rajputs
(B) Rajputs and their sacrifices
(C) The rise and fall of the Rajputs
(D) Rajputs – the spirited heroes of Indian history
Ans : (A)

57. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word ‘proud’ in the passage ?
(A) Humble
(B) Kind
(C) Courteous
(D) Cowardly
Ans : (D)

58. The expression ‘tame their spirits’ in the passage means—
(A) Suppress their ambitious
(B) Arouse their enthusiasm
(C) Develop their courage
(D) Curb their enthusiasm
Ans : (D)

59. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The Rajputs achieved eminence in history due to their great history
(B) They were homely people and would fight for upholding women’s honour
(C) In the moments of danger they would exhibit great courage
(D) They could not, however face the challenge of poverty
Ans : (B)

60. According to the writer, the Rajputs occupy an honoured place in history, because—
(A) They were fond of wars
(B) They were proud of their wars
(C) They were jealous of people’s honour
(D) They lived and died upholding their self-respect
Ans : (D)

Travel and Tourism Management (Diploma) Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

General Studies
(Exam Held on 18-4-2010)

1. Following the Maldives example, cabinet ministers of which of the following countries conducted their meeting at an unusual place recently to highlight the effects of global warming ?
(A) Tuvalu
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) South Africa
(D) Nepal
Ans : (D)

2. The United Nations (UN) has declared 2010 as the—
(A) International Year of Youth
(B) International Year of Renewable Energy
(C) International Year of Eco-Tourism
(D) International Year of Biodegradable Material
Ans : (A)

3. Ben Bernanke has been named ‘Person of the Year’ by the prestigious Time magazine. The current profile of Ben Bernanke is—
(A) Chairman, NASDAQ
(B) President, World Bank
(C) Chairman, US Federal Reserve
(D) Director-General, WTO
Ans : (C)

4. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched, is located in the state—
(A) Florida
(B) Virginia
(C) North Carolina
(D) South Carolina
Ans : (A)

5. As per the State of Forest Report-2009, what fraction of India’s area is covered by forests ?
(A) 17.92%
(B) 21.02%
(C) 23.84%
(D) 25.96%
Ans : (C)


6. Who is the Secretary of the International Monetary Fund ?
(A) Indira Mathur
(B) AT Vashishtha
(C) Siddharth Tiwari
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. Who is the first Goodwill Ambassador of the ‘Smile Train’, an international charity that provides free cleft lip and palate surgery to children in need ?
(A) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(B) Katrina Kaif
(C) Angelina Jolie
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Asia’s biggest solar power plant has been recently unveiled at—
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Malaysia
(D) Taiwan
Ans : (D)

9. India had recently landed its Moon Impact Probe on the Moon. Among the following countries, which one has landed such a probe on the Moon earlier ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) China
(D) Japan
Ans : (D)

10. With which company did India’s largest IT firm Tata Consultancy Services sign a two year multimillion dollar deal recently ?
(A) Infosys
(B) SAP IG
(C) Singapore People’s Association
(D) Citigroup
Ans : (C)

11. Jamie Dwyer, recently crowned hockey’s World Player of the Year for a third time, belongs to—
(A) Germany
(B) England
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)

12. Which among the following countries is the World Bank’s single largest borrower ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Russia
Ans : (B)

13. Kaiane Aldorino who won the 2009 Miss World pageant recently held in Johannesburg, is from—
(A) South Africa
(B) Venezuela
(C) Columbia
(D) Gibraltar
Ans : (D)

14. The group of nations presently known as G-8 first started as G-7. Which country from among the following was not one of the them ?
(A) Canada
(B) Italy
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
Ans : (D)

15. CERN, the organisation that conducted the Large Hadren Collider Experiment in Geneva recently, is the—
(A) European Space Agency
(B) European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(C) International Atomic Energy Agency
(D) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Ans : (B)

16. Reliance Communication has signed an agreement with ……offering Windows Mobile Solutions on its wireless network.
(A) Rediffmail.com
(B) Microsoft
(C) Google
(D) Gmail.com
Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following teams was defeated by India to mark its 100th Test match victory in cricket ?
(A) New Zealand
(B) Australia
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (D)

18. Who is the first Indian to head Amnesty International in its 50-year history ?
(A) Pramod Bhasin
(B) Salil Shetty
(C) G.R. Madhavan
(D) C.K. Roy
Ans : (B)

19. Lionel Messi, the footballer who plays for Barcelona club, and won the FIFA World Player of the Year Award for 2009, belongs to which country ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Italy
(C) Argentina
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)

20. Recently, which of the following was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage list ?
(A) Dilwara Temple
(B) Kalka-Shimla Railway
(C) Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area
(D) Visakhapatnam to Araku Valley railway line
Ans : (B)

21. The Government of India has granted approval in principle to SBI to merge one more of its associate banks after State Bank of Saurashtra. This second associate bank of SBI to be merged with it is—
(A) State Bank of Travancore
(B) State Bank of Indore
(C) State Bank of Patiala
(D) State Bank of Hyderabad
Ans : (B)

22. Recently which of the following versions of Windows was launched by Microsoft ?
(A) Windows 7
(B) Windows 8
(C) Windows 9
(D) Windows 10
Ans : (A)

23. Which is the most popular e-mail service among Indians according to Online Audience Measurement and Analytics Platform ?
(A) G-mail
(B) Yahoo
(C) Google
(D) Rediffmail
Ans : (D)

24. Name the Jammu & Kashmir ‘braveheart’ who killed a terrorist and was recently appointed as a Special Police Officer in the Jammu-Kashmir police force.
(A) Salma Khan
(B) Firdaus Ahmed
(C) Rukhsana Kausar
(D) Shahana Azmi
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following statements regarding Operation Flood is/are correct ?
1. Operation Flood is the world’s largest Integrated Dairy Development Programme.
2. Dr. Verghese Kurien is the pioneer of Operation Flood.
3. Operation Flood was started in 1970 by Amul Dairy.
(A) 1 Only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

26. Which pharmaceutical company has been given permission by the Government of India to conduct H1N1 vaccine trials on humans ?
(A) Bharat Biotech
(B) Panacea Pharmaceuticals
(C) Serum Institute of India
(D) Zydus Cadila
Ans : (D)

27. Which Indian State Government made voting compulsory for its Municipal Corporation elections ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (D)

28. Due to the efforts of which Member of Parliament (MP), can Indian citizens now fly the National Flag even at night ?
(A) Jyotraditya Scindia
(B) Naveen Jindal
(C) Rahul Gandhi
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. The Commonwealth Games 2010 being held in New Delhi is the …… edition of this international event.
(A) XX
(B) XIX
(C) XXI
(D) XXII
Ans : (B)

30. What is the expected growth (in %) in international tourist arrivals during 2010, as per the forecast by UNWTO ?
(A) 3 – 4
(B) 5 – 6
(C) 7 – 8
(D) 9 – 10
Ans : (A)

31. The 13th Meeting of the ASEAN Tourism Ministers was held in the month of—
(A) January 2010
(B) February 2010
(C) March 2010
(D) December 2010
Ans : (A)

32. Air India has entered into partnership with which organisation to improve operational efficiencies in key airline functions and become more cost-efficient ?
(A) Sabre Airline Solutions
(B) Airline Solutions Group
(C) Amadeus Airlines
(D) Kale Consultants Limited
Ans : (A)

33. Which state of India has the highest population density ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which is the highest honour amongst the Padma Awards conferred on eminent personalities by the Government of India every year ?
(A) Padma Vibhushan
(B) Padma Bhushan
(C) Padma Sri
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

35. Which country will be hosting the Winter Olympics 2014 ?
(A) America
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) England
Ans : (B)

36. The Naina Devi Temple is located in which state of India ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following SLVs carried the Chandrayaan-I on its voyage to the moon ?
(A) PSLV-C12
(B) PSLV-12
(C) PSLV-C11
(D) PSLV-C10
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following countries is planning to launch a Satellite to study the Sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
Ans : (B)

39. Who won the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup 2009 ?
(A) India
(B) England
(C) New Zealand
(D) Australia
Ans : (B)

40. Who is the only Indian sportswoman to win a medal for the country at the Olympics ?
(A) P.T. Usha
(B) Karanam Malleswari
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Saina Nehwal
Ans : (B)

Thursday, May 19, 2011

ASRB Assistants Scheme of Examination

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION FOR ASSISTANTS :

A. Preliminary Exam (Objective Type): Max Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hours
      SECTION – A                                            50         (No. of Questions - 25)
      English Comprehension
      SECTION – B                                             50         (No. of Questions - 25)
     General Knowledge
     SECTION – C                                              50         (No. of Questions - 25)
     General Mental Ability
      SECTION – D                                             50         (No. of Questions - 25)
     Quantitative Analysis including Arithmetic
Note:-
  1. Total 100 (one hundred) questions will be there to be attempted online.
  2. One mark will be deducted for two wrong answers.
  3. All sections of the Question Paper for the Preliminary Examination will be set both in English and Hindi except Section – D, i.e., English Comprehension.
B. Main Exam (Descriptive Type) Max Marks :200 marks Time: 3 Hours
(Main Examination will be taken only by candidates qualifying the Preliminary Examination)
     SECTION – A                                              50
      Essay/Paragraphs
      SECTION – B                                              50
       English language & Comprehension
      SECTION – C                                              50
      General Knowledge
      SECTION – D                                              50
    Quantitative Analysis and general
    Mental ability including basic Arithmetic 

SYLLABUS FOR ASSISTANTS’ EXAMINATION
PRELIMINARY ONLINE EXAMINATION
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, their basic comprehension and writing ability etc. would be tested.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected from an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to history, culture, geography, economic scene, general policy and scientific research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.
GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY
It would include questions of both verbal and non verbal type. This component will include questions of analogies, similarities and differences, spatial visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment , decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetic reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement, conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc.
QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS INCLUDING ARITHMETIC
The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. This part will include questions on problems relating to number system, computation of whole numbers, decimals and fractions, relationships between numbers, fundamental arithmetical operations, percentage, ratio and proportion, averages, interest, profit and loss, discount, use of tables and graphs, menstruation, time and distance, ratio and time etc.
NOTE:
The Board has the discretion to fix different minimum qualifying standards in the papers of the Preliminary Examination taking into consideration among others, category-wise vacancies. The combined Preliminary Examination is meant to serve as a screening test only; the marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the candidate who are declared qualified for admission to the Main/Written examination will not be counted for determining their final order of merit. Only such candidates who are declared by the Board to have qualified in the Preliminary Examination in a year will be eligible for admission to the Main Examination of that year provided they are otherwise eligible for admission to the Main Examination.

MAIN EXAMINATION
The Main Examination will be subjective, descriptive and conventional type comprising only one composite paper in the form of Question/Answer Booklet. This will be for 3 hours duration carrying a total of 200 marks having parts covering questions on:
  1. Essay/Paragraphs
  2. English Language & Comprehension
  3. General Knowledge
  4. Quantitative Analysis and General Mental Ability including basic Arithmetic
NOTE:
  1. All the question papers, except Part II will be printed both in English and Hindi languages for which choice of medium will be exercised by the candidates at the time of filling up their application form for the Main Examination. However, choice of language once made will be final and binding and candidate cannot change it later under any circumstance. The candidates cannot use multiple languages like answering some questions in one language and others in different language because the medium has strictly to be only one chosen by them and questions attempted in any other medium would be rendered ineligible for evaluation. Candidates will have the option to answer Paper I, Paper III & Paper IV either in Hindi or in English language.
  2. The final merit list shall be prepared based upon the marks obtained in the MAIN EXAMINATION viz. out of 200 marks for the General as well as in respect of all other reserved categories (viz. SC/ST/OBC/PH/EXS).
SYLLABUS

Part I: Essay/ Paragraphs
The candidate’s ability to understand correct English/Hindi, his/her comprehension and writing ability etc. would be tested. Questions on short essay, prĂ©cis, letter writing etc. would also be included.
Part II: English Language & Comprehension (Conventional type)
In addition to the testing of candidates understanding of the English language and its correct usage, his/her writing ability would also be tested. Questions on paragraph writing/report writing etc. may be included.
Part III: General Knowledge
Questions in this Paper will include General Awareness as well as General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability.
  • General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability: It would include question of both – verbal non –verbal type. This component will include questions on analogies, similarities, differences, spatial visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc.
  • General Awareness: Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to sports, history, culture, geography, economic scene, general polity, Indian constitution, and scientific research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.
Part IV: Quantitative Analysis and General Mental Ability including Basic Arithmetic.
The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. This paper will include questions on problems relating to number system, computation of whole numbers, decimals and fractions, relationships between numbers, fundamental arithmetical operations, percentage, ratio and proportion, averages, interest, profit and loss, discount, use of tables and graphs, menstruation, time and distance, ratio and time etc.

Saturday, May 14, 2011

KERALA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION DEPUTY COLLECTOR SOLVED PAPER 2011

1. Name of the Egyptian President against whom people of Egypt revolted in 2011:
A. Hosni Mubarak B. Pervez Musharra C. Omar Suleiman D. Ahmed Shafeeque
Answer: A
2. Name the person who commissioned theVallarpadam International Container Transshipment
Terminal A. Vayalar Ravi B. Dr. Man Mohan Singh C. A. K. Antony D. G K Vasan
Answer: B
3. The Malayalam literature who received Jnan pith Award in 2007 :
A. Sugatha Kumari B. Vijayalakshmi C. O.N.V Kurup D. Balachandran Chullikkad
Answer: C
4. In which of the following cities was the Indian Biodiversity Congress(2010) held?
A. Chennai B. Chandigarh C. Mumbai D. Thiruvananthapuram
Answer: D
5. ___sector has established itself as the biggest contributor to the State’s GDP as per
Kerala State’s Economic Review ( February 2011)
A. Secondary Sector B. Primary Sector C. Tertiary Sector D. None of these
Answer:C
6. Name the most significant characteristic of National Integration:
A. Social homogeneity B. Unity C. Economic identity D. National loyalty
Answer:B
7. “The principle of respect for all life and the practice of non-injury to living thing’s is known in India as :
A. Ahimsa B. Tolerance C. Patience D. None of These
Answer: A
8. NCW means :
A. National Commission For Women B. National Commission For Workers
C. National Council For Workers D. None of these
Answer: A
9.The Servants of India Society (1905) was formed to train people to serve the country by
A. Tilak B. Gandhiji C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy D. Gopalakrishna Gokhale
Answer:D
10. Who is popularly called “Vaikkom Hero” ?
A. R. K. Dhadabai B. E V Ramaswami C. C.N. Annadurai D. Mannath Padmanabhan
Answer:D
11. Who founded the Indian National Congress?
A. Motilal Nehru B. A.O. Hume C. Lajpat Rai D. Gokhale
Answer:B
12. Zionisn is a world movement of :
A. Hindus B. Buddhists C. Christians D. Jews
Answer:D
13. Jallianwalla agh is situated in :
A. Delhi B. Mysore C. Amritsar D. Lahore
Answer:C
14. The first war of Indian independendance started at :
A. Mumbai B. Chennai C. Delhi D. Meerut
Answer:D
15. “Life Divine” was written by :
A. Gandhiji B. Tilak C. Vivekananda D. Aurobindo Ghosh
Answer:D
16. Name the “Land of the Morning Calm” :
A. Norway B. Japan C. Korea D. Thailand
Answer:C
17. Sahyadri ranges refer to :
A. Eastern ghats B. Western ghats C. Saptura ranges D. Siwaliks
Answer:B
18. The line beyond which snow never melts is
A. Latitude B. Longitude C. Snow line D. Meridian
Answer:C
19. Gir Forest is in :
A. Karnataka B. Bihar C. Gujarat D. Himachal Pradesh
Answer:C
20. A fountain of hot water issuing from a hole which extends deep into earth’s crust is called :
A. Delta B. Canyon C. Volcano D. Geyser
Answer:C
21. Universal Adult Franchise creates :
A. economic equality B. social equality C. political equality D. cultural equality
Answer:C
 22. Who is the guardian of Fundamental rights in India ?
A. Judiciary B. Legislature C. Executive D. Political parties
Answer:A
23 The year in which Panchayati Raj was introduced in India :
A.1960 B.1959 C. 1961 D. 1949
Answer:B
24. Which article of the constitution provides for the formation of the Finance Commission ?
A. Article 300 B. Article 280 C. Article 250 D. Article 290
Answer:B
25. The Gevernor can nominate to the Legislative Council of his state one member from this
community :
A. Jewish B. Muslim C. Anglo-Indian D. Parsi
Answer:C
26. Right to Information Act (RTI) became effective in India on 15th June :
A. 2001 B. 2003 C.2004 D.2005
Answer:D
27. Universal Declaration of human rights was passed by the U.N. General Assembly on :
A. 10.12.1948 B. 13.11.1947 C. 9.12.1948 D. 12.12.1946
Answer:A
28. The proclamation of emergency brings automatic suspension of the right to :
A. Freedom speech B. Constitutional remedies C. Freedom of religion C. All of these
Answer:A
29. The concept of Fundamental right has it’s basis in the :
A. Constitution of the USA B. Constitution of Russia C. Irish Constitution D. Canadian
Constitution
Answer:A
30. The chairman of the UPSC is appointed by the :
A. Cabinet B. President C. Supreme Court D. Prime Minister
Answer:B

U.P. PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION PRELIMINARY EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2011

1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at—
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak
Ans : (C)
2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist
Ans : (B)
3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena
Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta
Ans : (A)
5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena
Ans : (B)
9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh
Ans : (C)
10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal
Ans : (B)
12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (C)
13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I
Ans : (B)
14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans : (A)
15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh
Ans : (B)
17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (D)
18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery
Ans : (D)
19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans : (A)
21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—
(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (A)
22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (B)
23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference
Ans : (C)
24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (A)
25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale
Ans : (A)
26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Ans : (C)
27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange
Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
Ans : (C)
29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi
Ans : (A)
31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal
Ans : (D)
32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)
34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 “a car which has brake but no engine” ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose
Ans : (A)
35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal
Ans : (B)
36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague
Ans : (C)
38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947
Ans : (C)
39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas
Ans : (B)
41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho
Ans : (C)
43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi
Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander
Ans : (C)
46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’ to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (A)
49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand
Ans : (B)
50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya
Ans : (B)
53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India
Ans : (A)
54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087
Ans : (A)
55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada
Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI
Ans : (D)
58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006
Ans : (C)
61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)
62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974
Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992
64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka
Ans : (B)
65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933
Ans : (D)
66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931
Ans : (B)
70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)
71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore
Ans : (D)
72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)
73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)
74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)
75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman
Ans : (D)
76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China
Ans : (A)
77. The Equator passes through—
(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela
Ans : (B)
78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas
Ans : (A)
79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : Incorrect Options
80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat
Ans : (D)
81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter
Ans : (C)
82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia
Ans : (C)
83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla
Ans : (B)
84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B)
86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari
Ans : (C)
88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits
Ans : (A)
90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests
Ans : (A)
91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum
Ans : (D)
92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau
Ans : (A)
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995
Ans : (C)
94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad
Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota
Ans : (A)
96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA
Ans : (C)
97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009
Ans : (C)
98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai
Ans : (C)
99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte
Ans : (B)
100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B)
101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal
Ans : (B)
102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar
Ans : (D)
103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader
Ans : (B)
104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri
Ans : (B)
105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan
Ans : (B)
106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg
Ans : (D)
107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni
Ans : (D)
109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (D)
111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)
112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball
Ans : (D)
113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting
Ans : (D)
114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath
Ans : (C)
115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE
Ans : (B)
116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (B)
117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping
Ans : (D)
118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut
Ans : (A)
119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar
Ans : (A)
120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt
Ans : (C)
121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar
Ans : (B)
122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut
Ans : (B)
123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum
Ans : (A)
125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
126. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans : (B)
129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank
Ans : (C)
130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air
Ans : (A)
131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement
Ans : (B)
132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva
Ans : (B)
133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade
Ans : (A)
134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy
Ans : (B)
135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
Ans : (A)
137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York
Ans : (B)
138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km
Ans : (A)
140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir
Ans : (B)
141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats
Ans : (C)
142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America
Ans : (A)
143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22
Ans : (D)
144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga
Ans : (D)
145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur
Ans : (A)
146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes
Ans : (A)
147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia
Ans : (B)
148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad
Ans : (A)
149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur
Ans : (C)
150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)

KERALA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION LDC EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2011

1. The only Indian Governor General was
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)

2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)

4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
Ans : (A)

5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws
Ans : (C)

6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
Ans : (A)

7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
Ans : (D)

8. The President of India can nominate
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
Ans : (D)

9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Ans : (D)

10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
Ans : (C)

11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)

13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555
Ans : (C)

14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950
Ans : (C)

15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)

16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Ans : (D)

17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
Ans : (B)

18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)

19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs
Ans : (B)

20. Sikkim became a new state by
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment
Ans : (C)

21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
Ans : (A)

22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (B)

23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (C)

24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
Ans : (C)

25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)

26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)

27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank
Ans : (C)

29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14
Ans : (D)

30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
Ans : (D)

31. Mixed economy means
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
(D) none of the above
Ans : (B)

32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (A)

34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
List-II (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Ship-building
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)

35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
Ans : (C)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
List-II (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

37. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system
Ans : (B)

40. Laterite soil is found in
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (D)

41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland
Ans : (B)

42. Chilka lake is situated in
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

43. Damodar is a tributary of river
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha
Ans : (B)

44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids
Ans : (D)

45. National Dairy Development Board is located in
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
Ans : (A)

46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List
Ans : (C)

47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery
Ans : (C)

48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra
Ans : (C)

49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
Ans : (B)

50. The major coffee producing state in India is
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
Ans : (C)

52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland
Ans : (C)

53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Jamun
(B) Karonda
(C) Loquat
(D) Guava
Ans : (A)

54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (C)

55. Bauxite is an ore of
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Lead
(D) Silver
Ans : (A)

56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?
(A) Carbon dating
(B) Germanium dating
(C) Uranium dating
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Oxygen (O2)
Ans : (A)

58. Electron-volt is the unit for
(A) energy
(B) charge of electron
(C) potential difference
(D) power
Ans : (A)

59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of
(A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion
(C) nuclear spallation
(D) none of these
Ans : (A)

60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
Ans : (D)

61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Cadmium
(D) Mercury
Ans : (B)

62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis
Ans : (D)

63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%
Ans : (D)

64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
(A) twins in which there is one male and one female
(B) twins in which both are females
(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
(D) twins physically attached to each other
Ans : (D)

65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
(A) full moon only
(B) new moon only
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans : (B)

66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
(A) UNO — London
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) ILO — New York
(D) FAO — Chicago
Ans : (B)

67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Mn
Ans : (B)

68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 80
Ans : (B)

69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—
(A) Sadbhavna Express
(B) Shanti Express
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Aman Express
Ans : (C)

70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—
(A) Anand Pawar
(B) Arvind Bhat
(C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo
Ans : (C)

71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shriharikota
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal
(C) Services
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)

73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin
Ans : (B)

74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)

75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
1. Madhuri Dixit
2. Ratan Tata
3. Sachin Tendulkar
4. Viswanathan Anand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (B)

76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
(A) World AIDS Day
(B) World Disabled Day
(C) World Environment Day
(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day
Ans : (D)

77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly matched ?
(A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Banawali — Haryana
(C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
(D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Chanda Pradyota
(C) Prasenajeta
(D) Udayana
Ans : (A)

79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
Ans : (B)

81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
(A) 57 years
(B) 78 years
(C) 135 years
(D) 320 years
Ans : (C)

83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?
1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Ashoka
4. Rudradaman
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (D)

84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
(A) Cyrene
(B) Egypt
(C) Macedonia
(D) Syria
Ans : (B)

85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Satavahana
(D) Kushana
Ans : (A)

86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
(A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
Ans : (D)

87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)

88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Balban
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish
Ans : (C)

89. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
(A) Saivites
(B) Saktas
(C) Vaishnavites
(D) Sun worshippers
Ans : (A)

90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
(A) Dasratha
(B) Brihadratha
(C) Kharavela
(D) Huvishka
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
(A) Farrukhsiyar
(B) Shah Alam-I
(C) Shah Alam-II
(D) Shujaud Daula
Ans : (C)

92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)

93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans : (A)

94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1
(B) 32 : 1
(C) 40 : 1
(D) 64 : 1
Ans : (C)

95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
1. Abolition of Jazia
2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
3. Signing of Mahzar
4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans : (A)

96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?
(A) Abbas Tyabji
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)

97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
(B) Mukundi Lal
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Manmath Nath Gupta
Ans : (A)

98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
(A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt
(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Roshan Singh
(D) Ashfaqullah Khan
Ans : (A)

100. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) D. K. Karve
(C) Ramabai
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Ans : (B)