Friday, December 31, 2010

Civils Preliminary Exam on June 12th, 2011

The Civil Services examinations next year will be delayed by a month. The preliminary test will be held on June 12 and the Mains on October 29, 2011 as per the schedule announced.

The notification for the 2011 exam will be released on February 19, 2011. Generally the notification comes out every December for the exam to be held the following year. The delay of two months in the issue of notification is apparently due to the changes brought in the pattern and the syllabus from 2011.

 CSAT - The Changes and Ways to Succeed:
As the import if the change is the introduction of aptitude test, lets us look into various aspects of aptitude tests, what they mean to test and ways to emerge successful in such tests, specifically in the context of CSAT.

Aptitude test:
Aptitude, by definition, is an innate/acquired/learned/developed component of a competency to do a certain kind of work at a certain level. Aptitudes may be physical or mental. In aptitude tests, the mental aptitude is tested. The generic tendency is to link aptitude to simple arithmetic and English. But contrary to that, aptitude can be in various other fields as well, like engineering, philosophy etc.

Aptitude tests are designed to assess your logical reasoning or thinking performance with respect to the area of concern. They consist of multiple-choice questions which are administered in a strictly time bound manner.

2011 is the first year in which UPSC will be conducting an Aptitude test. Only the outline of the areas being tested were provided and are as below
  1. Comprehension
  2. Interpersonal skills including communication skills
  3. Logical reasoning & analytical ability
  4. Decision making & problem solving
  5. General mental ability
  6. Basic numeracy
  7. English language comprehension skills
It was also mentioned in the official notification that the exam will be of 2 hours duration and will consist of 200 marks.

It was also mentioned that “Greater emphasis will be given to test the aptitude for civil services as well as to the ethical and moral dimension of decision-making” . This should not be surprising as the government, for the greater good, would like to induct people who are ethically & morally upright into its highest decision making roles. As such, many reputed organisations world-wide, especially those in the social arena, make use of appropriate tools to evaluate candidates before they are hired.

This would force one to conclude that the CSAT (paper II in particular) could have a considerable contribution from the “Psychometric Testing” perspective as well and will not just be a clerical aptitude test. The Aptitude test will, hence, check if the candidate is capable and if he/she would work with high level of integrity and a strong sense of social responsibility.
 CSAT - New Syllabus Analysis
Let us now look at the different test areas of Paper II (as outlined by UPSC) in detail.

Comprehension & English language comprehension skills
In general usage, and more specifically in reference to education and psychology, Comprehension has roughly the same meaning as understanding.

Reading comprehension measures the understanding of a passage of text based on specific questions related to the text in the passage. The questions could be direct references to the facts quoted in the text or could be indirect questions like, inferences, course of action based on the information available, tone of the passage/author etc.

Reading speed plays a key role in ones success in such questions. Familiarity with the topic is another key parameter. Hence, the students are advised to work in increasing their reading speed and also time increase their familiarity with a variety of topics like sports, science & technology, social issues, economics, polity & politics, philosophy and psychology.

Interpersonal skills including communication skills
The 3 basic part of language which people use to interact with each other in a sensible manner are Grammar, Vocabulary & Reasoning. The students’ skills to communicate effectively using English language will be tested in this section

The students need to develop ability in functional usage of words, idioms and phrases. This can be achieved by going through any book that gives a summary of the rules of grammar. Thompson and Martinet's 'A Practical English Grammar' would be a good starting point. Coaching institutes like TIME also provide such works, which will help you start your preparation. Remember, however, that there is no shortcut to grammar.

The basic method to prepare would be to first complete the basics of grammar, and then start practising by attempting as many questions as possible.

One of the ways to start building your vocabulary is by reading 'Word Power Made Easy' by Norman Lewis. There are close to 50 exercises/ sessions in that book, and ideally one can finish the same in as many days. In addition, a couple of books that are very good for building vocabulary are 'All about Words' by Rosenblum and Nurenberg, and '30 Days to a More Powerful Vocabulary' by Wilfred Funk and Norman Lewis.

But the best way to improve your diction is by reading (it cannot be stressed upon enough!). After you have finished your reading for the day (for Reading Comprehension), check out the meanings of all the words that you have come across that day, and write them down in a book, or make flash cards for yourself. Everyday you will come across a minimum of 10 words that you either do not know the meaning of, or are not sure about. This exercise will ensure that over the next 150 days, your repertoire of words will increase by at least 1500 words.

Vocabulary will actually help with all sorts of questions that are presented in aptitude tests viz Synonyms, Antonyms, Analogies, and Fill-in-the-blanks. In addition, better diction will improve your reading speed (discussed above)to a large extent.

Reasoning questions are similar in nature to the Reading Comprehension questions, except that the passage is small and all questions are inferential. The only way to prepare for these questions is through constant practice.

There could be questions based on Assumptions, Conclusions, Facts, Inferences and Judgements. The key to solving these questions is to understand the context of the passage in which they are given.

Sample Question:
The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Robotics is not just a fascinating subject but a stream of science that is expected to take the world by storm in the near future. Experts say robots will change our lives by the middle of this century just like personal computers changed the way we worked and lived in the past. For many, robots may be only fictional contraptions like R2D2 in Star Wars, or the infallible Robocop. ------------------------------- .
  1. However, robotics is now a new stream of science.
  2. However, with computer science advancing rapidly, the use of robots for unexplored possibilities is becoming a reality.
  3. However, the reality is that this field of science is slowly impacting human lives in different dimensions.
  4. However, regulators are assuming that, within the next two decades, robots will be capable of adapting themselves to complex unstructured environments.
Logical reasoning and analytical ability & General mental ability
This would test the students ability to apply common logic which one can arrive at by putting the available information together into a proper mental sequence. Questions here would be of various types and the success of the students is determined by their ability to practice as many types a possible.

Sample Question:
Money lenders cheat a villager, if the villager cannot read. Every villager who completed schooling can read. Only those who can read can write. Ghanshyam, a villager, was not cheated by the money lenders. Which of the following can be said about Ghanshyam?

(1) He completed schooling but cannot write.
(2) He can write.
(3) He can read and but cannot write.
(4) He can read and may be able to write.

Sample Question:
In an institute which has 100 students, each student is given a unique roll number. If all the students are made to sit around a very large circular table such that the maximum difference between the roll numbers of any two adjacent students is 10, then what is the maximum possible difference between the roll numbers of any two students?

1) 10
2) 11
3) 499
4) 509

Decision making & problem solving
This area would need the students to understand the given information, place the available information in the context applicable and then take a decision on based on the out come. This would most of the times, fall under the umbrella of Data Interpretation, but is generally classified under a separate head because this is something that managers/IAS officers need to do day in & day out. A sample on this is provided below.

Basic numeracy
Numeracy (as defined by Department for Education and Skills (UK)) is “a proficiency which is developed mainly in mathematics, but also in other subjects. It is more than an ability to do basic arithmetic. It involves developing confidence and competence with numbers and measures. It requires understanding of the number system, a repertoire of mathematical techniques, and an inclination and ability to solve quantitative or spatial problems in a range of contexts. Numeracy also demands understanding of the ways in which data are gathered by counting and measuring, and presented in graphs, diagrams, charts and tables”.

The topics listed under Numeracy by UPSC are Numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc, and Data Interpretation (consisting of charts, tables & data sufficiency). All these would be of Class X level.

The students need to plan their preparation topic after topic instead of just solving questions from all the topics at once. They should concentrate on knowing the basics of each of the topics as it is highly likely that UPSC will only test the application of the concepts.

Sample Question (DI):
The following is the number of votes obtained by four persons – Sachin, Amitab, Murthy and Manmohan – from the four metros, in a poll to find the Youth Icon of the year. These persons are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D in no particular order.

City A B C D
Mumbai 245 410 400 275
Kolkata 345 270 260 315
Chennai 360 315 360 325
New Delhi 285 305 310 350

It is also known that,
in Chennai, Murthy had a maximum number of votes
Amitab Secured 30 votes more than Sachin in all the four metros combined.

1. Among the following statements, what is the minimum number of statements that can be simultaneously true?
(a) In Mumbai, Sachin secured the highest number of votes.
(b) Manmohan secured the highest number of votes in total.
(c) Murthy secured more votes in total than Amitab.
(d) Sachin secured more votes than Manmohan in total.
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

2. What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement A:
Manmohan secured his least number of votes in Kolkata.
Statement B: Murthy secured his highest number of votes in Chennai.
(1) If statement A is true, then statement B is necessarily true.
(2) If statement A is true, then statement B is necessarily false.
(3) Both statement A and statement B are true.
(4) Both statement A and statement B are false.

Sample Question (DS):
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.
Choose 2 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose 3 if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose 4 if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
In a class of 50 students, how many students like horror movies?

I. 24 students like sci-fi movies
II. The number of students who like sci-fi as well as horror movies is five more than those who like neither of the two.
CSAT - Accuracy and No. of questions attempted are key to tame this CSAT
Let us now look at how one needs to go about preparing for the exam and giving the exam.

2 factors make or break your success in the exam – “No. of questions attempted” and “Accuracy”. These two parameters are not independent of each other. The target in the exam is to have the best possible values for both these parameters.

Accuracy can be improved by getting strong on fundamentals which was discussed above when we looked at each of the topics/areas. This will take care of the preparing for the exam part mentioned above.

Then comes the “Giving the exam” part which is equally critical as this would determine the number of attempts.

The Number of attempts can be improved by
  • selecting the easy questions from the paper
  • Leaving questions which seem difficulty (even after attempting them).
  • Practicing Speed Maths concepts.
One common apprehension that many people carry about aptitude tests is that, as they have not been preparing for such tests & they have never given any such tests so far, they would stand no chance in such a test. But, aptitude tests are far easier to prepare for compared to any specific subject as the level of the questions is basic (Class X in case of CSAT) and the students can be trained on fine tuning their skills in order to crack the test.

But, at the same time a word of caution to the aspirants is to not fall prey to fly by night coaching institutes which are mushrooming across the country and to wait until UPSC gives clear directions about the test areas, number of questions etc. for CSAT.

Finally, let us compare the features of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination as it was till 2010 and how it is going to be from next year in the form of CSAT to get a better understanding of the new pattern.

Till 2010 From 2011
Name of the exam Civil Services Preliminary Examination Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT)
Number of papers 2 2
Type of questions Objective Objective
Description of papers One General Studies paper common for all and One Optional paper out of the 23 subjects listed by UPSC One General Studies paper and One paper on General Aptitude - both papers common to all
Duration 2.5 Hours 2 hours
Weightage More weightage for the paper with optional subject (300 marks) compared to General Studies (150 marks) Equal weightage for both the papers (both have equal marks - 200)
Transparency No Transparency in selection process as there was no disclosure of marks Complete Transparency assured in terms of disclosure of marks
Others Memory based to an extent Not memory based as far as Paper II is concerned
Others Specific optional subjects are easier to score in compared to others No such issue here as both the papers are common for all the students
Others Could be more advantageous for post graduates and those with good academic background Eliminates the need to be good in any specific subject and focuses instead on aspects which are needed for everybody in day to day life, creating a level playing field

Wednesday, December 22, 2010

Trained Graduate Teacher Exam., 2005


1. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) Quintessence
(B) Qintessence
(C) Quentesence
(D) Quintesence
Ans : (A)

2. Venus and Adonis is by—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Galsworthy
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)

3. Pun is—
(A) Opposite word
(B) A play on words
(C) A funny word
(D) Identical words
Ans : (B)

4. Vers libre is—
(A) Colophon
(B) Closed form
(C) Rhymed form
(D) Open form
Ans : (D)

5. Choose the correct verb—
They …… to school by bus.
(A) going
(B) goes
(C) go
(D) to go
Ans : (C)

6. Insert the correct verb form—
Barcelona …… the world to the Montjuic Stadium.
(A) brought
(B) took
(C) welcomed
(D) welcome
Ans : (C)

7. Which of the following is a pastoral poem by Milton ?
(A) Adonis
(B) Thyrsis
(C) Lycidas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

8. Punctuate correctly—
At sunset the general taking decision marched forward.
(A) At sunset, the general, taking decision marched forward
(B) At sunset the general, taking decision, marched forward
(C) At sunset, the general taking decision, marched forward
(D) At sunset, the general, taking decision, marched forward
Ans : (D)

9. The Solitary Reaper is a—
(A) Ballad
(B) Ode
(C) Lyric
(D) Pastoral
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 10 and 11) Ascertain the correct tense of the following in the verb—

10. Yesterday at school, I …… the echo of a roar of laughter.
(A) were startled
(B) was startled
(C) was startling
(D) were startling
Ans : (B)

11. We …… by a strange sound.
(A) were startle
(B) was startled
(C) was startling
(D) were startling
Ans : (A)

12. “Milton's poetry is a mirror in which the writer's character is very clearly reflected.” Who made this statement ?
(A) Verity
(B) Macmillan
(C) Pattison
(D) Bush
Ans : (B)

13. The passive voice of—“Jack was forcing through the crowd”…… is—
(A) Jack was being forced through the crowd
(B) The crowd was forcing through by Jack
(C) The crowd forced through Jack
(D) The crowd was being forced through by Jack
Ans : (D)

14. ‘Incredible’ means—
(A) surprising
(B) interesting
(C) disgusting
(D) unbelievable
Ans : (D)

15. The period known as the age of Milton is—
(A) 1621-1681
(B) 1620-1665
(C) 1625-1660
(D) 1628-1655
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16 and 17) Fill in with prepositions—

16. Ask …… me tomorrow and you shall find me a grave man.
(A) in
(B) by
(C) for
(D) from
Ans : (C)

17. It is a translation …… Horace's Ars Poetica.
(A) to
(B) in
(C) from
(D) of
Ans : (D)

18. The originator and namer of ‘deconstruction’ is—
(A) Jacques Derrida
(B) Friedrich Nietzsche
(C) Martin Heidegger
(D) Sigmund Freud
Ans : (A)

19. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) rythym
(B) ryhthm
(C) rhythm
(D) rhithym
Ans : (C)

20. The age of Milton had three kinds of poets—
(A) Religious, Heroic, Puritan
(B) Metaphysical, Cavalier, Puritan
(C) Metaphysical, Romantic, Dramatic
(D) Cavalier, Religious, Classical
Ans : (B)

21. Lyrical Ballads was written by Coleridge and—
(A) Arnold
(B) Keats
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Blake
Ans : (C)

22. Legitimate means—
(A) valid
(B) correct
(C) rightful
(D) possessive
Ans : (A)

23. We …… dinner at the Park Hotel yesterday.
(A) had eaten
(B) ate
(C) were eating
(D) got
Ans : (B)

24. Paradise Lost was written by Milton in the …… phase of his life.
(A) Middle
(B) Last
(C) Student
(D) First
Ans : (B)

25. One who hates mankind is called—
(A) egoist
(B) egotist
(C) introvert
(D) misanthrope
Ans : (D)

26. Wordsworth composed some of his finest poems during the years—
(A) 1798-99
(B) 1778-79
(C) 1788-89
(D) 1768-69
Ans : (A)

27. The regular ode is a close imitation of—
(A) Petrarch
(B) Shelley
(C) Tata
(D) Pindar
Ans : (D)

28. Gita……hundred times everyday.
(A) skip
(B) skips
(C) skipped
(D) skipping
Ans : (B)

29. ‘Skilful’ is—
(A) Advent
(B) Adopt
(C) Adroit
(D) Adverse
Ans : (C)

30. Find the mis-spelt word—
(A) appropriate
(B) title
(C) mission
(D) passege
Ans : (D)

31. ‘The Dark Lady’ appears in the sonnets of—
(A) Surrey
(B) Wyatt
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Spenser
Ans : (C)

32. Which is the correct meaning of the idiom backed up ?
(A) sold
(B) corroded
(C) supported
(D) fabricated
Ans : (C)

33. Tick the correct Infinitive—
…… is difficult for a sinner.
(A) Saying prayer
(B) To pray
(C) Praying to
(D) Being praying
Ans : (B)

34. The plural for ‘handfull’ is—
(A) handfuls
(B) handfulls
(C) handsfull
(D) handsfulls
Ans : (A)

35. John Galsworthy was the son of a—
(A) novelist
(B) merchant
(C) lawyer
(D) doctor
Ans : (C)

36. ‘Dastard’ means—
(A) destitute
(B) becoming
(C) brave
(D) coward
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 37 and 38) Identify the type of adverb in the bold word—

37. She often goes to the cinema—
(A) Adverb of time
(B) Adverb of Degree
(C) Adverb of Frequency
(D) Adverb of Manner
Ans : (C)

38. She barely left the room when the roof fell in.
(A) Adverb of Time
(B) Adverb of Degree
(C) Adverb of Frequency
(D) Adverb of Manner
Ans : (B)

39. Which is not Shakespeare's drama ?
(A) Titus Andronicus
(B) Edward the Second
(C) Hamlet
(D) Richard III
Ans : (B)

40. Tick the correct meaning of the idiom come about
(A) get
(B) take place
(C) happen
(D) recover
Ans : (C)

41. Galsworthy began his literary career as—
(A) a journalist
(B) a dramatist
(C) a novelist
(D) a poet
Ans : (C)

42. ‘Novella’ is a word from—
(A) India
(B) France
(C) Italy
(D) England
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following is a masque written by Milton ?
(A) Comus
(B) Adeopagitica
(C) Lycidas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

44. Put in the correct prepositions—
We heard……it……our meeting.
(A) of, through
(B) at, during
(C) of, during
(D) of, in
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 45 to 49) The following sentences are given with blank spaces. Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

45. I am looking forward …… you.
(A) to seeing
(B) to see
(C) to have seen
(D) for seeing
Ans : (B)

46. He says he is not …… for the job of a doctor.
(A) cut up
(B) cut off
(C) cut down
(D) cut out
Ans : (D)

47. He is repairing his car with a view …… it.
(A) to sell
(B) to selling
(C) for selling
(D) to have sold
Ans : (A)

48. Our school library boasts of many …… editions of the …… classical writers.
(A) old, ancient
(B) ancient, ancient
(C) ancient, new
(D) old, old
Ans : (A)

49. As sheep are to a flock, so are cattle to a ……
(A) swarm
(B) multitude
(C) pack
(D) herd
Ans : (D)

50. Next to, but not necessarily touching, is—
(A) Adjoin
(B) Adjacent
(C) Adhere
(D) Adapt
Ans : (B)

51. ‘Poetic Justice’ was a term coined by—
(A) Samuel Johnson
(B) Geoffrey Leech
(C) John Dryden
(D) Thomas Rymer
Ans : (A)

52. Which among the following bold words is the correct Adverbial qualifications—
(A) The flames spread everywhere
(B) The flames spread everywhere
(C) The flames spread everywhere
(D) The flames spread everywhere
Ans : (A)

53. Shakespeare was born in—
(A) 1574
(B) 1563
(C) 1564
(D) 1589
Ans : (C)

54. In which poem does the following statement apear ?
“Solitude, sometimes is best society.”
(A) Paradise Regained
(B) Lycidas
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) Comus
Ans : (A)

55. The plural for ‘man-servant’ is—
(A) manworkers
(B) man-servants
(C) mans-servant
(D) men-servant
Ans : (D)

56. She slept soundly. Identify the nature of the bold verb—
(A) Transitive verb
(B) Intransitive verb
(C) Regular verb
(D) Verb of complete predication
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 57 and 58) Fill in the gaps with the correct prepositions—

57. Chased by the dog, the thief ran …… the lawn.
(A) across
(B) around
(C) over
(D) through
Ans : (A)

58. He vanished …… the darkness.
(A) to
(B) in
(C) into
(D) through
Ans : (C)

59. ‘To refurbish’ is—
(A) to repair
(B) to survey
(C) to apply
(D) to renovate
Ans : (D)

60. Punctuate correctly—
Amrit sharma is a metro railway employee
(A) Amrit sharma is a metro railway employee.
(B) Amrit Sharma is a Metro Railway employee.
(C) Amrit Sharma is a metro railway Employee
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

61. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) canceled
(B) canciled
(C) cancelled
(D) canscelled
Ans : (C)

62. Put in the correct verb form—
I know that you …… twenty on your last birthday.
(A) were
(B) was
(C) are
(D) is
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 63 to 67) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions which follow—

SANTINIKETAN, Aug. 17, 1998 : The rainy season has returned, and the man is back at his work, He is Pannalal Patel, the man who has completed 96 years, and is still going strong.

Pannalal was once a ‘terrorist’. Then he turned into a Gandhian. At present his mission is ‘Meen Mangal’ or ‘the well-being of fish’, as he calls it.

Come the rains, and Pannalal would release millions of young salmons into rivers following through the neighbourhood. He says that water without fish is just as absurd as fish without water.

On Independence Day Eve he had, as if, an appointment with the Ajoy, the river he loves and adores.

Choked up with silt and sand from bank to bank, the river remains almost dry throughout the year except in the rainy season. Once called ‘the crazy river’ for often changing its course. Ajoy is now better known for the great destruction it causes, at intervals of some years, by flooding the villages on its banks. It then washes away people and cattle and houses, and brings great misery.

The appointed day arrived. It was a cloudy afternoon at Palitpur, the venue of the programme where a new bridge has been built across the river.

Short speeches were made. Songs were sung. Mr. Patel took a handful of the young salmon and threw them into the water–once, twice, thrice. Others followed him. The hero of the day looked happy, and a smile lit up his wrinkled face.

But some fisherman in the crowd were rather sceptical about the usefulness of the programme. Will the fish, when grown up, return to the same waters and be caught in their nets ? perhaps not. They talked among themselves.

Mr. Patel, However, does not bother himself about who catches how much fish in which waters. He himself is a complete vegetarian. His only concern is the well-being of fish.

63. Pannalal Patel, who is very old, is still—
(A) strong
(B) fond of fishing
(C) very alert
(D) can walk fast
Ans : (A)

64. Pannalal had an appointment with the river Ajoy—
(A) on 15th August
(B) on 14 August
(C) on 15th August morning
(D) on 14th August evening
Ans : (D)

65. The Ajoy floods its banks—
(A) every rainy season
(B) very rarely
(C) every few years
(D) quite often
Ans : (C)

66. According to Pannalal, water without fish is—
(A) unthinkable
(B) tasteless
(C) impure
(D) unprofitable
Ans : (A)

67. The object of Pannalal's programme at Palitpur was the welfare of—
(A) the fishermen
(B) the Ajoy
(C) society
(D) fish
Ans : (D)

68. The meaning of ‘solicited’ is—
(A) advice requested
(B) to do a court case
(C) to form a party
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

69. Select the correct spelling—
(A) Staff Quarters
(B) Stuff Quarters
(C) Staff Quaters
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

70. ‘Compact’ means—
(A) Face powder for women
(B) Computer software
(C) Put together in a small space
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 71 and 72) Choose the correct word for the blanks—

71. …… the boy return to his village ?
(A) Shall
(B) Will
(C) Was
(D) Shan't
Ans : (B)

72. Songs …… sung in his memory.
(A) is
(B) were
(C) had
(D) been
Ans : (B)

73. Change the following into a complex sentence—
He received the call of his friend and left for Delhi right away.
(A) Receiving the call of his friend, he left for Delhi right away
(B) He received the call of his friend therefore the call of his friend, therefore he left for Delhi right away
(C) As soon as he received the call of his friend. He left for Delhi
(D) He received the call of his friend and soon left for Delhi
Ans : (C)

74. Change the following simple sentence into a complex sentence—
His senior colleagues have been transferred to Dehradun.
(A) His colleagues having a seniority over him have been transferred to Dehradun
(B) His Colleagues who are senior to him have been transferred to Dehradun
(C) Some of his colleagues are senior to him there or they have been transferred to Dehradun
(D) Being senior some of his colleagues have been transferred to Dehradun
Ans : (B)

75. The most common form of closing a letter to a close relative is—
(A) Yours sincerely
(B) Yours affectionately
(C) Yours faithfully
(D) Yours truly
Ans : (B)

76. Punctuate the following—
Dont worry father said he Ill soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.
(A) Dont worry father, “said he” Ill soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi
(B) Don't worry father, said he “I'll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.”
(C) “Don't worry father,” said he, “I'll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.”
(D) “Don't worry father said he” I'll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi
Ans : (C)

77. Find out the correct narration of the following direct speech—
“I know this area because I used to live here,” he informed.
(A) He informed that he knew that area because he used to live there
(B) He informed that he knew that area because he had lived there
(C) He informed that he knew that area because he had been living there
(D) He informed that he knew that area because he lived there
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 78 to 82) Each of the following sentences is divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Some of the sentences have errors is one part and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.

78. He explained to the government why (A) / the manufacturing of cars (B) / have stopped in his new factory. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

79. We have lived (A) / in this house ever since (B) / my father has died. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

80. The principal claimed that (A) / there were less than fifty students present in the building (B) / when it caught fire. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (D)

81. The examinations of the undergraduate students (A) / are likely to commence (B) / from Friday. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

82. Few people know (A) / that the climate of Shimla (B) / is better than Srinagar. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

83. “A violet by a mossy stone / Half hidden from the eye !” is a quote from the—
(A) Ode to Duty
(B) Lucy Poems
(C) The Green Linnet
(D) The Solitary Reaper
Ans : (B)

84. Tick the correct one—
(A) Gita asked me where I lived.
(B) Gita asked to me where I lived.
(C) Gita asked me where did I live ?
(D) Gita asked me where do you live ?
Ans : (A)

85. Informal essay is also known as—
(A) Funny essay
(B) Scholarly essay
(C) Familiar essay
(D) Impersonal essay
Ans : (B)

86. Tick the correct auxiliary to indicate discontinued habit—
(A) There was a house there
(B) There used to be a house there
(C) There is a house there
(D) There was used to be a house there
Ans : (B)

87. Wordsworth's poems, mostly, deal with—
(A) politics
(B) city life
(C) humble and rustic life
(D) revolution
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 88 to 97) In question you have a brief passage with 10 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

We were in class when the headmaster came in, followed by a ‘new fellow’, not wearing the school uniform and a school servant carrying a large desk. Those who had been asleep woke up, and everyone rose as if surprised at his work. The headmaster made a sign to us to sit down. Then turning to the class master, he said to him in a low voice : “Mr. Roger, here is a pupil whom I recommend to your care.” The new boy was wearing a tight green jacket, yellow trousers and a strange cap which soon attracted the attention of the hole class.

The new boy was still holding his strange cap on his knees even after the prayers were over. ‘Rise,’ said the master. The boy stood up. His cap fell. The whole class began to laugh. He stood to pick it up. A neighbour knocked it down again with his elbow. He picked it up once more, ‘Get rid of your helmet,’ said the master, who was a bit of a joker. There was a burst of laughter from the boys, which so throughly shamed the boy that he didn't know whether to keep his cap in his hand, leave it on the ground, or put it on his head. He sat down again and placed it on his knee.

‘Rise,’ repeated the master, ‘and tell me your name.’ The new boy articulated in a stammering voice an unintelligible name, ‘Again !’ said the master. The same sputtering of syllables was heard, drowned by the tittering of the class ‘Louder !’ cried the master; ‘louder !’ The new fellow opened a large mouth and shouted at the top of his voice as if calling someone the word ‘Charbovari’. A hubbub broke out; they shouted, barked,
stamped and repeated ‘Charbovari ! Charbovari !’

88. Who distrubed the peace of the class ?
(A) the new boy
(B) the mischievous boys of the class
(C) the master
(D) the headmaster
Ans : (B)

89. What is the function of the clause “a school servant carrying a large desk” in the opening sentence ?
(A) just to provide an extra information
(B) to describe the atmosphere
(C) to create seriousness
(D) to create humour
Ans : (B)

90. What contributed most to the misery of the new boy ?
(A) the appearance of the boy
(B) his shyness
(C) the sadistic attitude of the master
(D) insenitive classmates
Ans : (D)

91. Which of the following is true about the description of the new boy ?
(A) The boy has been sketched sympathetically
(B) The boy has been caricatured
(C) It is a serious description
(D) The writer seems to hate the boy
Ans : (A)

92. The last part of the episode proves to be an anticlimax to—
(A) the class
(B) the boy
(C) the teacher
(D) all of them
Ans : (D)

93. The boy was ‘sputtering’ syllables because he was—
(A) angry
(B) sad
(C) shy
(D) calm
Ans : (C)

94. In the command of the master ‘Get rid of your helmet’ in the second paragraph—
(A) there is a cruel joke
(B) there is nothing cruel about it
(C) the master wants to help the boy
(D) the master wants to discipline the class
Ans : (B)

95. Which literary device has been used in the following sentence of the last paragraph ?
“The same sputtering of syllables was heard, drowned by the tittering of the class”.
(A) Metaphor
(B) Irony
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Onomatopoeic
Ans : (D)

96. The word ‘hubbub’ in the last sentence of the passage means—
(A) complete silence
(B) noise and excitement
(C) dullness
(D) atmosphere
Ans : (B)

97. Which of the following would be the most suitable title for the passage ?
(A) The mischievous master
(B) The mischievous class
(C) A funny boy in the class
(D) A new boy in the class
Ans : (B)

98. Wordsworth, before his death, resided at—
(A) Rydal Mount
(B) Grasmere Parsonage
(C) Dove Cottage
(D) Allan Bank
Ans : (A)

99. He …… sitting beside a river. (Fill in with the correct verbs) :
(A) shall find
(B) is saw
(C) is finded
(D) was found
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 100 and 101) Give the meaning of the idiom—

100. The new play has fallen flat—
(A) The play is a success
(B) The play met with a cold reception
(C) The play received good review
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

101. Life is a bed of roses—
(A) Pleasant living
(B) Bed made of roses
(C) Simple living
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

102. ‘Charming and witty’ may be expressed as—
(A) Schism
(B) Scintillating
(C) Scion
(D) Sanguine
Ans : (D)

103. Split into simple sentence—
In the night the thief came into the garden.
(A) It was night. The thief came into the garden
(B) Night came. The thief came into the garden
(C) At night. The thief was in the garden
(D) Night fell. The thief came into the garden
Ans : (A)

104. ‘Alliteration’ may be defined as—
(A) a literary genre
(B) repeated consonants in a sentence
(C) a repetition of a speech sound in a sequence of words
(D) Literary aptitude
Ans : (C)

105. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) bivouck
(B) bivouk
(C) bivouac
(D) bivoak
Ans : (C)

106. Fill in the gap with correct preposition—
On Saturday, he left Delhi …… Mumbai.
(A) at
(B) for
(C) near
(D) to
Ans : (B)

107. Join into a single sentence—
He was absent from school. He was ill.
(A) As he was ill he was absent from school
(B) He was absent from school because of his illness
(C) He was ill and so he was absent from school
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 108 to 110) Fill in the blanks according to subjectverb concord—

108. A pair of trousers …… to go into his suitcase.
(A) should
(B) were
(C) are
(D) is
Ans : (D)

109. There …… some books in his bag.
(A) is
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have
Ans : (C)

110. You go first and I …… you.
(A) shall follow
(B) shall following
(C) am follow
(D) am following
Ans : (A)

111. William Wordsworth's Tintern abbey is—
(A) a dramatic monologue
(B) a dramatic lyric
(C) a dramatic epic
(D) none of the above
Ans : (A)

112. Which is the correct spelling ?
(A) Tyrannize
(B) Tyrannise
(C) Tyranize
(D) Tyrranise
Ans : (A)

113. ‘Epic’ is—
(A) A story of a battle
(B) A long narrative poem on a serious subject
(C) A dramatic monologue
(D) A dramatic monologue
Ans : (B)

114. To find fault with, in one word, is—
(A) Cryptic
(B) Cruciate
(C) Criticize
(D) Curtail
Ans : (C)

115. In 1805, Wordsworth's which poem was written—
(A) Tintern Abbey
(B) The Prelude
(C) Lucy Poems
(D) The Solitary Reape
Ans : (B)

116. Insert the correct word—
He …… his application when he heard he has not got the necessary certificates.
(A) withdraw
(B) withdrew
(C) had withdrawn
(D) got withdrawn
Ans : (B)

117. The Prelude by Wordsworth was part of a vast work which was to be called—
(A) The Excursion
(B) The Recluse
(C) Yarrow Revisited
(D) Peter Bell
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 118 and 119) Tick the correctly punctuated sentence—

118. (A) “You know, he isn't dead, sir !”
(B) “You know he isnt dad, sir.”
(C) “You know, he is'nt dead, sir”
(D) “You know-He ins't dead-sir !”
Ans : (A)

119. (A) Alas ! The king is dead.
(B) Alas, the King is dead.
(C) Alas, the King is dead !
(D) Alas. The King is dead.
Ans : (A)

120. ‘Schematic’ means—
(A) disturbing
(B) diabolical
(C) grammatic
(D) diagrammatic
Ans : (D)

121. Use the correct preposition—
She tuned …… to the music programme.
(A) on
(B) into
(C) onto
(D) with
Ans : (A)

122. ‘Act’ is—
(A) a major division in the action of a play
(B) an acting category in a play
(C) chapter of a play
(D) acting by actors
Ans : (A)

123. Indicate the correct verb—
Before the Aryans …… to India, Dravidians had lived there.
(A) coming
(B) come
(C) came
(D) did come
Ans : (C)

124. The lower class was represented in Galsworthy's—
(A) The Country House
(B) The Forsyte Saga
(C) Fraternity
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

125. Tick the correct sentence—
(A) Not a girls was injured
(B) Neither nor girl was injured
(C) Neither girl was injured
(D) None girl was injured
Ans : (C)

Postal Assistant/Sorting Assistant Recruitment Exam., 2010

Postal Assistant/Sorting Assistant Recruitment Exam., 2010 
Solved Paper
(Held on 25-7-2010)

1. Jatak stories are written in ancient …… language.
(A) Sanskrit
(B) Brahmi
(C) Greek
(D) Pali
Ans : (D)

2. Who among the following is the Head of Indian Republic ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (B)

3. On which of the following dates was the Indian Constitution approved by the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) November 26, 1949
(B) January 26, 1950
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) January 30, 1948
Ans : (A)

4. Which countries take part in Commonwealth games ?
(A) All the countries of the world
(B) The countries which had been under British rule
(C) Countries of Asian-Pacific region
(D) Developing nations
Ans : (B)

5. Vishwanathan Anand is associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Snooker
(B) Billiards
(C) Chess
(D) Ice-Hockey
Ans : (C)

6. What is the full form of ‘http’ ?
(A) Hypo Test Transfer Protocol
(B) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(C) Hyper Test Transfer Proxy
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. The following generates and spreads polio—
(A) Parasite
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Protozoa
Ans : (C)

8. Naphthoquinone is the chemical name of which of the following ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (C)

9. Who is honoured as the best Member of Parliament of 2009 ?
(A) Hema Malini
(B) Jaipal Reddy
(C) M. M. Joshi
(D) Manmohan Singh
Ans : (C)

10. According to some archaeologists, the structure of Lothal indicates to be which of the following ?
(A) Fort
(B) Dockyard
(C) Public building
(D) Great tank
Ans : (B)

11. Consultants of liquefied petroleum gas are—
(A) Butane and Propane
(B) Ethane and Hexane
(C) Ethane and Nonane
(D) Butane and Nonane
Ans : (A)

12. What is the name of the hobby of collecting postal stamps ?
(A) Philanthrophy
(B) Numismatics
(C) Philately
(D) Philology
Ans : (C)

13. Symbolic sign of rupees is the combination of Roman and …… scripts.
(A) Devnagari
(B) Tamil
(C) Telugu
(D) Gurumukhi
Ans : (A)

14. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize, 2009 ?
(A) Barack Obama
(B) Bil Clinton
(C) Mekhyl Gorbachev
(D) Nicolus Sarkozy
Ans : (A)

15. ‘Rajtarangini’ is considered as an authentic book on history of India. The author of this book was—
(A) Banbhatta
(B) Ravikirti
(C) Pushpadanta
(D) Kalhan
Ans : (D)

16. Twitter, facebook and orkut are the examples of …… websites.
(A) E-mail
(B) Social networking
(C) Search engine
(D) Internet telephony
Ans : (B)

17. H1N1 virus causes which of the following diseases ?
(A) Swine flue
(B) Chikungunia
(C) Dengue
(D) Avian flue
Ans : (A)

18. Biological pigment, that gives colour to human skin, is called—
(A) Protein
(B) Melanin
(C) Vitamin
(D) Toxin
Ans : (B)

19. Which of the following dances belongs originally to Kerala ?
(A) Odissi
(B) Kathak
(C) Kuchipudi
(D) Kathkali
Ans : (D)

20. Nathu-La is located in Himalayas. What does ‘La’ mean ?
(A) Glacier
(B) Pass
(C) Hillock
(D) Crevasse
Ans : (B)

21. My school is situated in east side of my home. My father’s office is located in south-west side of my school. There is a park in south side of my school. My house is located in which side of the park ?
(A) East
(B) North-west
(C) South-east
(D) South
Ans : (B)

22. Which of the following is an odd one ?
(A) Calf
(B) Colt
(C) Cat
(D) Puppy
Ans : (C)

23. Father’s age is five times to that of the son. After 20 years, the father is of 40 years. Then what would be the age of the son ?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 21
(D) 24
Ans : (D)

24. An examine had to score 40% to pass in question paper-I, but he scored only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What had been the maximum marks for question paper-I ?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 150
(D) 180
Ans : (C)

25. Six times of an unknown number is 13 less than 55. That unknown number would be—
(A) 10
(B) 7
(C) 11
(D) 5
Ans : (B)

26. A shopkeeper of sports goods bought 2000 hockey sticks. The cost price of each stick is Rs. 350. 10% of the sticks were faulty and not worth-selling. To gain 8% profit, at what price should, each of the rest sticks, be sold ?
(A) 360
(B) 400
(C) 420
(D) 450
Ans : (C)

27. Population of a colony of ants is increasing by 20% per day. If the population on Monday was 3000, on which day of that week the population would be 5184 ?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday
Ans : (C)

28. Three racers, Ajay, Bharat and Charan, took part in a race, Ajay completed his race, 20 metres ahead of Bharat and 34 metres ahead of Charan, while Bharat completed his race 21 metres ahead of Charan. While running, no racer could change his speed. What was the distance of race ?
(A) 40 metre
(B) 50 metre
(C) 60 metre
(D) 70 metre
Ans : (C)

29. 20 persons assemble 8 machines in a day. How many persons will be required to assemble 12 machines in a day ?
(A) 40
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 42
Ans : (C)

30. Length and circumference o f a football ground are 120 metres and 400 metres, respectively. What will be its area ?
(A) 6500 sq metre
(B) 9600 sq metre
(C) 6800 sq metre
(D) 4800 sq metre
Ans : (B)

31. At the close of a night feast, all the 8 participants shook hands with each other. How many times did the shake hand took place ?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 28
(D) 64
Ans : (C)

32. Out of given options, choose the correct one—
Ans : (C)

33. Fill up the blank—
8, 40, 20, 100, 50, ……, 125
(A) 225
(B) 250
(C) 200
(D) 150
Ans : (B)

34. If the digits of the number 86435192 are written in ascending order, what would be the difference between the second digit from right and fourth digit from left of the new number ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
Ans : (C)

35. Out of these four numbers, three have similar characteristic and fall under a group. Choose this fourth odd number which is not a member of this group—
(A) 145
(B) 325
(C) 257
(D) 399
Ans : (D)

36. In a code language SECTOR is written as CESROT. How will OPPOSITION be written in the same code language ?
Ans : (A)

37. If it was Friday on June 30, 1989, what was the day on September 17, 1993 ?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday
Ans : (B)

38. Complete the series—
18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ?
(A) 1
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
Ans : (B)

39. A train of 350 metres long is running at a speed of 32 km/hr. A man from the opposite direction is coming at a speed of 3 km/hr. How long will the train take to cross this man ?
(A) 28 sec
(B) 24 sec
(C) 36 sec
(D) 32 sec
Ans : (C)

40. 0•45 / 0•005 + 0•2 50 = ?
(A) 10
(B) 90
(C) 100
(D) 90•1
Ans : (C)

41. “A speech delivered without any previous preparation” can be expressed in one word only out of the following—
(A) Extempore
(B) Maiden
(C) Spinster
(D) Empiric
Ans : (A)

42. The garden is very dry today. Fetch me a …… of water.
(A) pale
(B) pail
(C) pile
(D) pill
Ans : (B)

43. Please, may I have……oranges ?
(A) a few
(B) some
(C) little
(D) less
Ans : (B)

44. Delhi is …… than Nagpur.
(A) more bigger
(B) so bigger
(C) very bigger
(D) much bigger
Ans : (D)

45. Use proper conjunction in the sentence given below—
“Give me……poverty……riches.”
(A) is/was
(B) nor/neither
(C) neither/nor
(D) here/there
Ans : (C)

46. We need to……our appointment.
(A) reconnect
(B) reschedule
(C) reorganize
(D) regret
Ans : (B)

47. SCEPTICAL is exactly opposite to—
(A) Convinced
(B) Doubtful
(C) Questioning
(D) Cynic
Ans : (A)

48. Choose the wrongly spelt word—
(A) Relevent
(B) Poignant
(C) Prevalent
(D) Malignant
Ans : (A)

49. A person who hates the institution of marriage—
(A) Misologist
(B) Misogamist
(C) Misogynist
(D) Philogynist
Ans : (C)

50. We have been friends for ages. I …… her since we were children.
(A) am knowing
(B) are known
(C) have known
(D) is known
Ans : (C)

Tuesday, December 21, 2010

BSF ASI exam objective GK Paper

1. OVL implies:
(1) Oil discovery organ of ONGC
(2) A new species of virus
(3) A term used in One Day Cricket
(4) A new banking company
2. Which of the following involves chemical change?
(1) Rusting of iron
(2) Burning of wood -
(3) Reduction of wood
(4) All the three
ANSWER: (4) 
3. Which of the following cave paintings is the oldest?
(1) Bhimbetka
(2) Ellora
(3) Ajanta
(4) Chittnnavasal
ANSWER: (1) 
4. Leprosy has been eliminated from India, as:
(1) There was no cae of leprosy in 2005
(2) World Health Organization (WHO) has declared so
(3) The current rate of Incidence has been reduced by 1 out of 10,000
(4) All the patients have been identified for treatment
ANSWER: (4) 
5. The major producer of cardamom in India is
(1) Kerala
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Karnataka
ANSWER: (1) 
6. Which of the following is a submarine of the Indian Navy?
(1) INS Virat
(2) INS Sindhurakshk
(3) INS Rajali
(4) INS Vikrãnt
ANSWER: (2) 
7. Which of the following Indian classical dances derived its name from the name of place of its origin?
(1) Manipuri
(2) Kathkali
(3) Odissi
(4) Kuchipudi
ANSWER: (2) 
8. Who among the following has been created record in aviation history for the longest uninterrupted flight?
(2) Ratan Tata
(3) Vijay pat Singhania
(4) Steve Fosset
ANSWER: (4) 
9. Which of the following countries is not a member of G — 8?
(1) Russia
(2) Britain
(3) Spain
(4) Canada
ANSWER: (3) 
10. Who was the first woman Prime Minister in the world?
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) Srlmao Bhandarnayake
(3) Margaret Thatcher
(4) Benzlr Bhutto
ANSWER: (2) 
11. The large entrance of temple in South India is called:
(1) Shikhar
(2) Sanctum sactorum
(3) Gopuram
(4) Prakar
ANSWER: (3) 
12. Dilwara Temple is located at:
(1) Udayapur
(2) Ajmer
(3) Mount Abu
(4) Jaipur
ANSWER: (3) 
13. Which of the following trees can grow in salt water?
(1) Coconut
(2) Neem
(3) Mangroves
(4) Eucalyptus
ANSWER: (3) 
14. Cryogenic engines are used in:
(1) Rockets
(2) Aero planes
(3) Refrigerators
(4) Sub-marines
ANSWER: (3) 
15 Which of the following materials has the lowest density?
(1) Gold
(2) Mercury
(3) Ice
(4) Wood
ANSWER: (4) 
16. The state which suffers most due to river erosion is:
(2) Assam
(3) West Bengal
(4) Orissa
ANSWER: (2) 
17. At present bird flu spreads from:
(1) Poultry iima1s to humans
(2) Humans to humans
(3) Humans to poultry animals
(4) All the three
ANSWER: (1) 
18. Which of the following animals has the longest life-span?
(1) Tortoise
(2) Elephant
(3) Whale
(4) Rhinoceros
ANSWER: (1) 
19. Haematite is an ore of:
(1) Copper
(2) Chromium
(3) Lead
(4) Iron
ANSWER: (4) 
20. Which is the first university established for women in India?
(1) Mother Teresa University
(2) SNDT University
(3) Rani Jhansi University
(4) Rani Ahilyadevi University
ANSWER: (4) 
21. Name the British historian who was jailed by an Austrian Court for denying horrors of holocaust during Nazi rule:
(1) Christian Fleck
(2) Christopher Reed
(3) Don McKinnon
(4) David Irving
ANSWER: (2) 
22. Which of the following places is not associated with ship manufacturing?
(1) Mumbal
(2) Vishakhapatnam
(3) Kochi
(4) Alang
ANSWER: (1) 
23. Kannauj was the capital of which king in ancient time?
(1) Harshavardhana.
(2) Chandragupta I
(3) Pulkeshin II
(4) Samudragupta
ANSWER: (1) 
24. In which of the following Indian cities there is possibility of maximum temperature during summer?
(1) Chennai
(2) Nagpur
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Pune
ANSWER: (2) 
25. The statue of Bahubali in Shravanbelgola was carved during the reign of:
(1) Chalukya
(2) Chola
(3) Ganga
(4) Rashtrakuta
ANSWER: (3) 

RAS RTS Preliminary Exam General Knowledge Paper

1. Carrier of parasite Plasmodium is?
(B) Mosquito
(D) Lice
2. First organic chemical to be synthesized in laboratory?
(A) Citric acid
(B) Oxalic acid
(C) Urea
(D) Phosphoric acid
3. Which one is an organic acid?
(B) Sulphuric
(D) Phosphoric
4. Ice floats on water because?
(A) Ice is filled with air
(B) Ice less dense than water
(C) Waters depth more than ice
(D) Ice more dense than water
5. Petrol contains?
(A) Carbon, Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen, Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen, Oxygen
(D) Carbon, Hydrogen
6. Leaves look green, because?
(A) Reflect all colours
(B) Absorb all colours reflect green
(C) No effect of light on leaves
(D) Absorb only green
7. Lens system used in a micro scope is ?
(A) Convex
(B) Concave
(C) Concave, convex
(D) Plain lens
8. Ozone layer protects earth from?
(A) Meteriorites
(B) Cosmic and other radiations
(C) Harmful gases
(D) Space debris
9. ‘Raman effect’ was used to develop?
(A) Cooling glasses
(B) Space craft
(C) Atom bomb
(D) Detecting Scanners
10. In July 2010 ‘ISRO used the vehicle for launching 5 satellites
11. Curd making is an ancient ‘Bio technological’ process involving?
(B) Virus
(D) Protozoa
12. H5N1 virus causing global pandemic influenza is?
(A) Goat flu
(B) Bird flu
(C) Horse flu
(D) Cow flu
13. ‘Blue baby’ syndrome is because of drinking water with excess amounts of?
(A) Phosphates
(B) Sulphates
(C) Carbonates
(D) Nitrates
14. The Fourth Buddhist Council which was held in Kashmir during the reign of which King?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Kala Ashok
(C) Kanishka
(D) Ajatshatru
15. Which one among the following sites is located in the valley of
Gaggar and its associated rivers?
(A) Alamgirpur
(B) Lothal
(C) Mohenjodaro
(D) Banwali
16. Land revenue, which was the chief source of income during the Mauryan period, was collected by which officer?
(A) Agronomai
(B) Shulkadhyaksha
(C) Sitadhayaksha
(D) Akradhayaksha
17. Centres located in Gujarat, Bengal, Deccan and Tamil Country during the Gupta period were associated with which of the following:
(A) Textile manufacture
(B) Gems and precious stones
(C) Handicrafts
(D) Opium cultivation
18. According to the Sangam texts the terms Kon, Ko and Mannan were attributed to which of the following?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Revenue Minister
(C) Commander of the army
(D) King
19. The first human statues worshipped in India were those of?
(B) Vishnu
(D) Shiva
20. “God knows man’s virtues and enquires not his caste, in the next world there is no caste !“ This was the theory of which Bhakti saint?
(A) Ramanand
(B) Dadu
(C) Nanak
(D) Ramanuja
21. The highest number of state level animal fairs in Rajasthan are held in the district?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Nagour
(C) Barmer
(D) Hanumangarh
22. Which one amongst the following is incorrect?
(A) In the western part of Rajasthan generally salty lakes are available
(B) Sambhar lake is the biggest salty lake in India
(C) Nakki lake is the deepest lake in Rajasthan
(D) Rajsamand lake is 64 kilo meters from Udaipur and it is in Udaipur district
23. Mixed farming consists of?
(A) Growing of several crops in a planned way
(B) Growing rabi as well as kharif crops
(C) Growing several crops and also rearing animals
(D) Growing of fruits as well as vegetables
24. Mewa-nagar in Rajasthan is famous for?
(A) Jam temple of Parshwanath
(B) Exports of dry fruits
(C) Production of cumin seed
(D) Exports of Kathputli items
25. Gang canal, is among the oldest canals was constructed by
Maharaja Ganga Singh in?
(B) 1927
(D) 1932
26. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A) Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project— Gujarat and Rajasthan
(B) Chambal Project—Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(C) Beas Project.—Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
(D) Indira Gandhi Canal Project—Rajasthan and Punjab
27. Which one among the following statement is ‘incorrect’ ? New Industrial and Investment Policy of Rajasthan 2010 is introduced and it states that—
(A) During next five years 51 lakh persons will get employment
(B) 13 sectors are more important to be focussed
(C) Land will be available to industrialists on easy terms
(D) Incentive will not be accorded to Private Public Partnership
28. Rajasthan State Industrial Deve lopment and Investment Corporation (RIICO) has signed an MoU with a Japanese company for establishment of Japanese units in Neemrana Industrial area. That Japanese company is?
(A) Jetro
(B) Hetro
(C) Honda Cial
(D) Mitsubisi
29. Which automobile company has been allotted 600 Acres land of Khuskheda (Bhiwadi) for manufacturing cars?
(A) Ford
(B) Toyota
(C) Honda Cial
(D) Volkswagen
30. 14 N.E.L.P. Blocks, 1 J. V. Blocks,2 Nomination Blocks and 4 C.B.M. Blocks are related to:
(A) Gypsum belt
(B) Gold belt
(C) Petroleum Exploration
(D) Lignite belt
31. One amongst the following takes the decision about the monetary policy of India?
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) International Monetary Fund
32. Which train was introduced for tourists with the help of Railway
Ministry in Rajasthan on January 11,2009?
(A) Princely Rajasthan on wheels
(B) Royal Rajputana on wheels
(C) Great Rajputana on wheels
(D) Royal Rajasthan on wheels
33. The great famine known as ‘Chhapania-kal’ among Rajasthani people occurred during—
(A) 1899-1900 AD
(B) 1905-1906 AD
(C) 1956-1958 AD
(D) 1888-1889 AD
34. ‘Mocha’ coffee is grown in?
(A) Iraq
(B) Brazil
(C) Argentina
(D) Yemen
35. The area which is the ‘store house of minerals’ in South America
(A) Brazilian Plateau
(B) Bolivian Plateau
(C) Patagonia Plateau
(D) Orinoco basin
36. Celebes Sea is in?
(A) Central America
(B) South-East Asia
(C) Arctic Ocean
(D) North Sea
37. The island of which Kalimantan is a part, is?
(A) Honshu
(B) Borneo
(C) Cuba
(D) Madagascar (Malagasy)
38. Baku is famous for the mining of?
(A) Gold
(B) Iron ore
(C) Mineral oil
(D) Zinc
39. The mineral which has earned fame to Chile is?
(A) Gold
(B) Manganese
(C) Nitrate
(D) Mineral oil
40. Of the following, the correct statement is?
(A) India lies in the middle of western hemisphere
(B) Caspian Sea is an open sea
(C) Rajasthan is a cool temperate desert
(D) North and South poles are antipodal to each other
41. The resource in which Chhota Nagpur Plateau is prosperous,is?
(A) Skilled labour
(B) Mineral
(C) Hydroelectricity
(D) Fertile soil
42. Of the following, the maximum prosperity of minerals is in?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
43. The name of the coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is?
(A) Coromandel
(B) Malabar
(C) Northern Circar
(D) Konkan
44. Winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu is mostly on account of?
(A) Western disturbances
(B) South-west monsoon
(C) North-east monsoon
(D) South-east monsoon
45. Most of the topography of Manipur is?
(A) Plain
(B) Plateau
(C) Marshy
(D) Mountainous
46. Main resources of western Himalayan resource region, are?
(A) Forests
(B) Metallic minerals
(C) Carbonic minerals
(D) Atomic minerals
47. Kapili is a tributary river of?
(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
(C) Ganga
(D) Brahmaputra
48. The district through which 70°E longitude passes is?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Dholpur
(D) Nagaur
49. The district having North-South elongation, is?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Bhilwara
(C) Chittorgarh
(D) Jhunjhunu
50. An approximate area of Rajasthan covered under western desert, is?
(A) More than 60%
(B) Less than 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
51. ‘Chhappan’ basin is in the district of ?
(A) Alwar
(B) Banswara
(C) Pali
(D) Tonk
52. The lowest air pressure in the month of June in Rajasthan is probable in the district o? (A) Bundi
(B) Baran
(C) Jaisalmer
(D) Rajsamand
53. River Khari is part of the drainage system of?
(A) Arabian Sea
(B) Inland drainage
(C) Indeterminate drainage
(D) Bay of Bengal
54.Kahrani in Bhiwadi came into news recently because of ?
(A) Saint Gobain Glass Factory
(B) Divya Pharmacy
(C) Toyota Motors
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Rural LPG Distribution Plan
55. National Institute of Ayurveda, an autonomous body of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India is located at?
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Banswara
(D) Jaipur
56. India has become the largest recipient of the World Bank Loans during fiscal ending June, 2010. The country which follows India is?—
(A) South Africa
(B) Brazil
(C) Mexico
(D) Iran
57. India has recently added one more Biosphere Reserve. Which of these is the latest one in the list?
(A) Nokrek
(B) Dehang Debang
(C) Simplipal
(D) Cold desert
58. One amongst the following is not true?
(A) New investment policy is introduced by State Government recently
(B) 30 per cent deductions on sales tax to continue for 10 years
(C) 20 per cent subsidy will be provided on new employment
(D) Previous policy was introduced in 2008
59.G-8 Muskoka initiative is concerned with?
(A)Curbing international terrorism
(B) Promoting maternal and child health
(C) Settling international disputes
(D) Reducing greenhouse gases
60. One of the following is not a Union Territory?
(A) Tripura
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Puducherry
61. Scheduled Tribe status is?
(A) Restricted to Hindus
(B) Religiously neutral
(C) Restricted to Hindus and Christians
(D) Restricted to Hindus and Muslims
62. The author of the book ‘One Night @ The Call Centre’ is?
(A) Anurag Mathur
(B) Vikram Seth
(C) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) Chetan Bhagat
63. Maradona is a famous football player of which country?
(A) Argentina
(B) Brazil
(C) Spain
(D) Italy
64. The Prime Minister of UK is?
(A) Tony Blair
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) David Cameron
(D) David Miliband
65. The Chief Minister of Karnataka is?
(A) B. S. Yeddiurappa
(B) S. M. Krishna
(C) Deve Gowda
(D) Rosiah
66. What is the name of the President of Iran?
(A) M. Khominenni
(B) E. Moussavi
(C) M. Ahmedinejad
(D) S. Chisti
67. Which state was most affected by the blockade of the highway by the Naga Students Union in 2010?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Maruipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
68. The Cabinet Secretary of India is?
(A) G. K. Pillai
(B) Chandrashekhar
(C) T. Srinivasan
(D) Madhukar Gupta
69. The Chief Minister of Jharkhand who is sworn in on September 11, 2010 is?
(A) Shibu Soren
(B) Arjun Munda
(C) Subodh Kant Sahay
(D) Macthu Konda
70. Which of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar
71. The new President of CII (Confederation of Indian Industry) is?
(A) Rahul Bajaj
(B) M. Dalmia
(C) Han Bhartia
(D) Sunil Mittal
72. POSCO, a Korean multinational company, intends to invest
Rs. 52,000 crore in?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
73. The headquarters of Cairn Energy is in?
(A) Scotland
(B) South Korea
(C) Brazil
74. Kerala state is famous world over for cultivating?
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Spices
(D) Rice
75. Plants growing on rocks are called?
(A) Epiphytes
(B) Halophytes
(C) Xerophytes
(D) Lithophytes
76. Information about local flora can be obtained from?
(A) Herbarium
(B) Auditorium
(C) Sanitarium
(D) Planetarium
77. One of the following is called ‘flame of the forest’—
(A) Bouhinia variegata
(B) Jacaranda mimosafolia
(C) Butea monosperma
(D) Tectona grandis
78. Which of the following is called ‘graveyard of Dinosaurs’?
(A) China
(B) Montana
(C) Argentina
(D) Brazil
79. Which one is a mammal?
(B) Squid
(D) Whale
80. Sanctuary famous for Rhinoceros is ?
(A) Kaziranga
(B) Gir
(C) Ranthombore
(D) Corbett
81. The ‘Ashta Diggaj’ were associated with which of the following rules?
(A) Shivaji
(B) Krishnadeva Ray
(C) Rajendra-I
(D) Yashovarman
82. Who was the famous author of Kitab-ul-Hind?
(A) Hasan Nizami
(B) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(C) Al Baruni
(D) Shams-i-Siraj Afif
83. ‘Ain-i-Dahsala’ system of land revenue assessment during the reign of Akbar was introduced by—
(A) Shah Nawaz Khan
(B) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana
(C) Todar Mal
(D) Mulla-Do-Pyaza
84. Who was the first historian who wrote about ‘Feudalism’ in Rajasthan during the 19th century?
(A) Col. James Tod
(B) Dr. L. P. Tessitori
(C) George Grearson
(D) John Thomas
85.Who was the famous ruler of Mewar who repaired the fort of
(A) Rana Ratan Singh
(B) Maharana Kumbha
(C) Rana Sanga
(D) Maharana Raj Singh
86. The famous historian of Rajasthan who was also a social
reformer was?
(A) Mankaran Sarda
(B) Harbilas Sarda
(C) C.K.F. Waltier
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
87. The longest folk song of Rajasthan is associated with
which of the following Lok Devis /Devtas?
(A) Jeena Mata
(B) Aai Mata
(C) Mallinathji
88. Who was the ruler of a state in Rajasthan who played a very significant role in the establishment of Banaras Hindu University?
(A) Maharana Fateh Singh (Udaipur)
(B) Maharaja Ummed Singh (Jodhpur)
(C) Maharaja Man Singh-II (Jaipur)
(D) Maharaja Ganga Singh (Bikaner)
89. Who was made the Raj Pramukh of united Rajasthan which came into existence of March 25, 1948?
(A) Maharaja of Dholpur
(B) Maharaja of Karauli
(C) Maharao of Kota
(D) Maharaja of Sirohi
90. The first three universities in India (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) were established in which year?
(B) 1881
(D) 1905
91. Mahatma Gandhi presided over only in one session of the Indian National Congress in 1924. Where was the session held?
(A) Gaya
(B) Amritsar
(C) Belgaon
(D) Kanpur
92. Where did the Congress Work ing Committee meet to pass the ‘Govt. Indian Resolution’ of July 14, 1942?
(A) Bombay
(B) Wardha
(C) Lucknow
(D) Tripura
93. The Greatest Parsi Social reformer of the 19th century was?
(A) Sir Jamshedji
(B) Sir Rustom Behramji
(C) Navalji Tata
(D) Behramji M. Mallabari
94. Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the follow
ing animals?
(B) Deer
(D) Bear
95. India’s main agricultural product import item is?
(B) Coffee
(D) Edible oils
96. Find the odd product out of the following
(A) Sesame
(B) Groundnut
(C) Caster seed
(D) Mustard
97. Recently the Bank of Rajasthan has been merged with?
(A) H.D.F.C.
(C) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
(D) State Bank of India
98. The first cooperative society in Rajasthan was established in
1905 of?
(A) Bhinai in Ajmer district
(B) Jaola in Nagour district
(C) Gulabpura in Bhilwada district
(D) Bassi in Jaipur district
99. According to Animal census 2003 the density of Animals in Rajasthan and highest density of animals in district is?
(A) 144 and Doongarpur
(B) 150 and Barmer
(C) 160 and Bikaner
(D) 165 and Bharatpur
100. Dhaman, Karad and Anjan are the?
(A) Varieties of Sheep in Rajasthan
(B) Varieties of Caster seed of Gujarat
(C) Varieties of Grass in Rajsthan
(D) Three heroes of Gawari dance
Answers :
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (B)
5. (D)
7. (A)
8. (B)
9. (A)
10. (B)
12. (B)
13. (D)
15. (D)
16. (C)
17. (A)
18. (D)
20. (C)
21. (B)
22. (D)
25. (B)
26. (D)
27. (D)
28. (D)
31. (B)
32. (D)
33. (A)
34. (D)
36. (B)
37. (B)
38. (C)
39. (C)
41. (B)
42. (A)
43. (A)
46. (A)
47. (D)
48. (B)
49. (C)
51. (B)
53.(D )
61. (C)
62. (D)
63. (A)
64. (C)
66. (C)
67. (B)
68. (B)
69. (B)
71. (C)
74. (C)
75. (D)
76. (A)
78. (B)
79. (D)
80. (A)
81. (B)
82. (C)
83. (C)
84. (A)
85. (B)
86. (B)
87. (A)
88. (D)
91. (C)
92. (B)
93. (D)
94. (C)
95. (D)
96. (C)
97. (B)
98. (A)
99. (A)
100. (C)

LIC Assistant Administrative Officers Exam., 2009 Solved Paper

Reasoning Ability
(Exam Held on 07-06-2009) 

Directions—(Q. 1–5) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointments must respect the following—
>> Each committee must have exactly three members.
>> No person can serve on more than one committee.
>> H must serve on the Entertainment Committee.
>> C and D must serve on the same committee.
>> A and B cannot serve on the same committee.
>> E cannot serve on the same committee as I.
>> F must serve on the same committee as B or H or both B and H.

1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ?
(A) A, B, E
(B) A, D, G
(C) C, H, E
(D) F, I, B
Ans : (D)

3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee.
2. E is appointed to the Games Committee.
3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (A)

4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ?
1. A 2. G 3. I
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (C)

5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
(A) F is on the Entertainment Committee
(B) C is on the Games Committee
(C) G is on the Food Service Committee
(D) F is on the Games Committee
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word—

(A) A
(B) D
(C) T
(D) Y
Ans : (D)

(A) C
(B) E
(C) L
(D) O
Ans : (B)

(A) A
(B) C
(C) P
(D) T
Ans : (D)

(A) E
(B) L
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (C)

(A) E
(B) I
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet.

11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(A) Forest
(B) Weight
(C) Gravitation
(D) Ocean
Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Mail
(B) Letter-box
(C) Stamp
(D) Envelope
Ans : (D)

13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to—
(A) Loss
(B) Surplus
(C) Balance
(D) Sale
Ans : (A)

14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to—
(A) Calculate
(B) Count
(C) Weigh
(D) Measurement
Ans : (B)

15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to—
(A) Precaution
(B) Disaster
(C) Risk
(D) Danger
Ans : (D)

16. Find the oddman out—
(A) MOndAy
(B) tUESdAy
(D) thUrSdAy
Ans : (B)

17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
Ans : (B)

18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
Ans : (A)

19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
Ans : (D)

20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) IW
(B) MS
(C) FT
(D) JU
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series—

21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ?, W 294 H
(A) P 1485 S
(B) R 180 M
(C) S 198 I
(D) T 206 K
Ans : (B)

22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ?, 15 KG, 48 KF
(A) 12 PX
(B) 6 RI
(C) 9 LV
(D) 8 TQ
Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ?, K 16
(A) V 4
(B) K 7
(C) T 13
(D) G 15
Ans : (C)

24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
(A) A 12 L
(B) I 18 X
(C) Z 25 D
(D) U 20 Q
Ans : (C)

25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ?, PVC 15
(A) GKV 5
(B) KPV 8
(C) PVZ 9
(D) KPU 11
Ans : (B)

26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ?
(A) M
(B) N
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans : (B)

27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ?
(A) L
(B) O
(C) M
(D) N
Ans : (D)

28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ?
Ans : (C)

29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
Ans : (D)

30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order—
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in the English Alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), or (D), not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The letter of the that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.

31. D U E L
(A) g
(B) i
(C) p
(D) j
Ans : (C)

32. P I T Y
(A) g
(B) b
(C) r
(D) k
Ans : (B)

33. R I N G
(A) it
(B) rk
(C) mp
(D) ti
Ans : (A)

34. G O A L
(A) c
(B) q
(C) e
(D) j
Ans : (C)

35. S L A P
(A) dx
(B) ms
(C) vp
(D) io
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below—
Series I. MNLqd fuw2UFOKP6hs (14) SHV 7gc8RIE(13)xtk
Series II. azj14GJBopir5v9TQY(10) emn(11) DACby(12)xWZ

36. How many capital letters are in Series I and in Series II each of which is either followed by or preceded by the same positioned capital letter of English alphabet from the other end ?
(A) 4, 3
(B) 6, 2
(C) 8, 1
(D) 10, 0
Ans : (A)

37. If the positions of the first twelve elements of Series I are reversed, and similarly the positions of the last twelve elements of Series II are reversed, then the third element to the right of the seventh element from the left end of Series I will be ……, whereas the third element to the left of the seventh element from the right end of Series II will be ……
(A) L, x
(B) j, x
(C) U, (11)
(D) x, L
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following pairs of elements shows the elements of Series I and Series II respectively, which are exactly in the middle of the seventh element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end in Series I and II ?
(A) hy
(B) Hy
(C) sQ
(D) Sq
Ans : (C)

39. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) azj
(B) emb
(C) qdf
(D) xtk
Ans : (B)

40. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41– 44) In the following coded arithmetic equations certain symbols are used with the following meaning—
I. P @ Q means add P to Q;
II. P & Q means subtract Q from P;
III. P # Q means multiply P with Q; and
IV. P $ Q means divide P by Q.
Now study the given information and answer the question following it—
Three persons A, B and C complete a work in 20 days. B and C together are 4/3 times as efficient as A and B together. On the other hand A and C together are 5/4 times as efficient as B and C together.

41. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A alone can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # 20 $ (24 & 20)
(B) 30 # 20 & (30 @ 20)
(C) 30 # 20 $ (30 & 20)
(D) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which B and C together can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 30 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and B working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

44. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and C working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(C) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

45. A travel towards East. B travels towards North. C and D travel in opposite directions. D travels towards right of A. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(A) B and C travel in opposite directions
(B) C travels towards West
(C) D travels towards North
(D) B and C travel in the same direction
Ans : (D)

46. A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
Ans : (A)

47. A boy started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then towards the left again. In which direction is he going now ?
(A) East or West
(B) North or West
(C) South or West
(D) North or South
Ans : (D)

48. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (D)

49. In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ?
(A) 32
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 30
Ans : (A)

50. 136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row—
(A) 61
(B) 62
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (C)

51. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 17
(D) 33
Ans : (B)

52. Choose the odd numeral pair in the following—
(A) 140 – 45
(B) 120 – 35
(C) 110 – 35
(D) 80 – 25
Ans : (B)

53. Choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set—
Given set — (246, 257, 358)
(A) (145, 235, 325)
(B) (143, 253, 246)
(C) (273, 365, 367)
(D) (233, 343, 345)
Ans : (A)

54. Choose the one which is different from the rest—
(A) 248
(B) 326
(C) 392
(D) 414
Ans : (C)

55. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 156
(B) 152
(C) 72
(D) 42
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer—
(A) If only assumption I is implicit;
(B) If only assumption II is implicit;
(C) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
(D) If both I and II are implicit.

56. Statement—To achieve economic development, people should work hard.
Assumptions :
I. Achieving economic development is desirable.
II. Working hard is not impossible.
Ans : (D)

57. Statement—He is too industrious to be poor.
Assumptions :I. Very industrious people also can be poor.
II. Very lazy people also can be rich.
Ans : (C)

58. Statement—Visitors may use lift at their own risk.
Assumptions :I. Using lift is not always safe.
II. Visitors do not want to use lift.
Ans : (A)

59. Statement—This book is so designed that even a layman can easily learn science in the absence of a teacher.
Assumptions :I. Learning science by everybody is desirable.
II. A layman generally finds it difficult to learn science on his own.
Ans : (B)

60. Statement—Although the rates of this hotel are comparable with other hotels, the amenities provided here are far superior.
Assumptions :I. Rates are independent of amenities provided.
II. Rates are dependent on amenities provided.
Ans : (C)