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Friday, February 10, 2012

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Papers 2008

Commerce
(Exam Held on 9-3-2008)
1. The share of new partner in the profits is 1/5 and his capital is Rs. 20,000. The new profit sharing ratio is 3 : 1 : 1. The share of partners in total capital will be—
(A) 60,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(B) 80,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(C) 50,000 : 20,000 : 25,000
(D) None of the above
2. At the time of dissolution the loss of the business, will be compensated first of all from—
(A) Capital
(B) Profits
(C) Personal resources of the partners
(D) Donations
3. The meaning of written down value is—
(A) Original cost – Scrap value
(B) Book value + Depreciation
(C) Book value – Depreciation
(D) None of these
4. Given :
Depreciation on the basis of Fixed Instalment Method Rs. 2,000 p.a.
Establishment expenses Rs. 5,000
Scrap value Rs. 1,000
Span of life 10 years
The cost of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 16,000
(C) Rs. 12,000
(D) None of these
5. Given :
Cost Rs. 1,00,000
Scrap Value Rs. 10,000
Span of Life 10 years
Rate of depreciation 20% p.a.
The amount of depreciation for the first year on the basis of diminishing balance method will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 18,000
(C) Rs. 9,000
(D) Rs. 10,000
6. Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the answer codes given below—
List-I
(a) AS-6
(b) AS-10
(c) AS-26
(d) AS-20
List-II
1. Accounting for Earning per share
2. Accounting for intangible and fictitious assets
3. Accounting for fixed assets
4. Depreciation Accounting
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
7. Establishment expenses of a new machine will be debited to—
(A) Expenses Account
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Machinery Account
(D) None of the above
8. Goodwill is—
(A) Floating Asset
(B) Wasting Asset
(C) Fictitious Asset
(D) Intangible Asset
9. A Balance Sheet shows only—
(A) Personal Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(B) Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(C) Personal Accounts and Real Accounts
(D) Personal, Real and Nominal Accounts
10. Discount on Issue of Shares A/c is shown at the—
(A) Debit side of P & L A/c
(B) Assets side of B/S
(C) Liabilities side of B/S
(D) None of the above
11. Pre-incorporation Profit is transferred to—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Capital Reserve
(C) Profit and Loss A/c
(D) Trading A/c
12. Which of the following is shown in Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c ?
(A) Provision for Income Tax
(B) Provision for Depreciation
(C) Provision for Doubtful Debts
(D) Contribution to General Reserve
13. On liquidation of a Company first payment is made in respect of—
(A) Liquidator’s remuneration
(B) Legal expenses
(C) Preferential creditors
(D) None of the above
14. Workmen’s Compensation Fund is a—
(A) Provision
(B) Surplus
(C) Current liability
(D) Loan
15. Debentures of Rs. 4,25,000 are issued against the purchase of assets of Rs. 4,50,000. In this case the amount of Rs. 25,000 is—
(A) Capital Reserve
(B) Securities Premium
(C) Revenue Profit
(D) Goodwill
16. A Company can reissue its forfeited shares—
(A) At a premium
(B) At a face value
(C) At a discount
(D) All of the above
17. Which of the following is an example of capital expenditure ?
(A) Insurance Premium
(B) Taxes and Legal expenses
(C) Depreciation
(D) Custom duty on import of machinery
18. Given :
Average profit of a firm Rs. 21,000
Normal Profit Rs. 18,000
Value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchases of super profit shall be—
(A) Rs. 39,000
(B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 3,000
(D) Rs. 12,000
19. A co-operative auditor starts his work of audit from—
(A) Account Books
(B) Payment Books
(C) Cash Book
(D) None of the above
20. Accounting for research and development relates to—
(A) AS-7
(B) AS-8
(C) AS-9
(D) AS-10
21. Goods worth Rs. 2,000 were distributed to employees free of charge. The account to be debited is—
(A) Profit and Loss A/c
(B) Advertisement A/c
(C) Labour Welfare A/c
(D) Goods A/c
22. The maximum rate of underwriting commission on debentures is—
(A) 10%
(B) 2•5%
(C) 12•5%
(D) 5%
23. X Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs. 6 per share were paid. If out of these shares, 8 shares were reissued to Ram as fully paid up on payment of Rs. 5•50 per share, the amount that will remain standing to the credit of Share Forfeited A/c will be—
(A) Rs. 48
(B) Rs. 72
(C) Rs. 84
(D) Rs. 120
24. Bonus Shares are issued to—
(A) Equity Shareholders
(B) Preference Shareholders
(C) Debenture Holders
(D) Secured Creditors
25. On an equity share of Rs. 100, the minimum amount payable on application under the law should be—
(A) Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 15
(C) Rs. 10
(D) Rs. 5
26. Share Premium received by a Company may be used for—
(A) Payment of dividend
(B) Payment of remuneration to management
(C) Issue of Bonus shares
(D) None of these
27. Garner Vs. Murray rule applies in case of—
(A) Admission of a partner
(B) Dissolution of a firm
(C) Retirement of a partner
(D) Death of a partner
28. When sale is Rs. 4,80,000, gross loss is 25% on cost, purchase is Rs. 3,50,000 and closing stock is Rs. 60,000, the stock in the beginning would be—
(A) Rs. 70,000
(B) Rs. 94,000
(C) Rs. 1,34,000
(D) Rs. 3,50,000
29. Balance of Debenture Redemption Fund Account is transferred to—
(A) Capital Reserve A/c
(B) Profit and Loss A/c
(C) General Reserve A/c
(D) None of these
30. Planning includes—
(A) Objectives
(B) Policy
(C) Strategy
(D) All of the above
31. Hawthorne Experiments were conducted by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Peter F. Drucker
32. Who is called ‘The Father of Scientific Management’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) E. F. L. Breach
(D) F. W. Taylor
33. A plan when expressed in quantitative terms is called—
(A) Policy
(B) Procedure
(C) Objective
(D) Budget
34. Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’ of Motivation was propounded by—
(A) Herzberg
(B) Maslow
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) McGregor
35. Direction involves—
(B) Physical factors
(B) Financial factors
(C) Human factors
(D) None of the above
36. Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
(A) Line
(B) Line and staff
(C) Functional
(D) Matrix
37. Decentralisation—
(A) Reduces burden of chief executives
(B) Increases burden of chief executives
(C) Does not effect burden
(D) None of the above
38. Planning is a—
(A) Primary function
(B) Secondary function
(C) Supplementary function
(D) None of the above
39. Planning function of management is performed by—
(A) Top management
(B) Middle management
(C) Lower management
(D) All of the above
40. MBO approach in management was introduced by—
(A) M. P. Follet
(B) Keith Davis
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Oliver Sheldon
41. Which of the following is not an element of marketing mix ?
(A) Product
(B) Price
(C) Promotion
(D) Product life cycle
42. Market segmentation means—
(A) Grouping of buyers
(B) Grouping of sellers
(C) Grouping of middle men
(D) Grouping of producers
43. Standard costing is a technique of—
(A) Planning
(B) Organising
(C) Coordination
(D) Control
44. The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ was introduced by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Urwick
45. The last step of communication process is—
(A) Controlling
(B) Implementation
(C) Correction
(D) Reaction
46. Strategy is used in—
(A) Military
(B) Business
(C) Industry
(D) All of the above
47. ‘3-D’ Model of leadership is propounded by—
(A) Likert Reinsis
(B) Kurt Levis
(C) William Ridin
(D) Henry Fayol
48. Personal selling includes—
(A) Selling
(B) Services to the customers
(C) Developing goodwill of the firm
(D) All of the above
49. The process of evaluating employees is called—
(A) Performance appraisal
(B) Recruitment
(C) Induction
(D) Job evaluation
50. Franking machine is used for—
(A) Specimen signature
(B) Postage stamps
(C) Arrival and departure timings
(D) None of the above
51. Grapevine communication is a type of—
(A) Formal communication
(B) Informal communication
(C) Horizontal communication
(D) Vertical communication
52. The ‘Principle of Exception’ states that management should—
(A) Check everything without exception
(B) Invariably take corrective action without exception
(C) Accept exceptions in emergencies
(D) Concentrate their attention on exceptions
53. Which of the following is not a component of ‘SWOT Analysis’ ?
(A) Threats
(B) Strengths
(C) Weaknesses
(D) Options
54. Organisational change is necessitated by—
(A) External environmental pressure
(B) Internal strengths and weaknesses
(C) Sequential changes
(D) All the above
55. Which management functions are closely related to ?
(A) Planning and Organising
(B) Organising and Staffing
(C) Staffing and Control
(D) Planning and Control
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Directing
(d) Controlling
List-II
1. Training
2. Forecasting
3. Evaluating
4. Motivating
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
57. Memorandum of Association contains—
(A) Objective clause
(B) Name clause
(C) Capital clause
(D) All of the above
58. ‘Table A’ is an alternative to—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) None of the above
59. The ‘Doctrine of Indoor Management’ provides protection to the—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Shareholders
(C) Managing Director
(D) Outsiders
60. By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
(A) By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
(B) By order of Registrar of Companies
(C) By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
(D) None of the above
61. Dividend paid between two Annual General Meetings is known as—
(A) Final dividend
(B) Interim dividend
(C) Special dividend
(D) None of the above
62. In a Private Company there are restrictions regarding—
(A) Transfer of shares
(B) Issue of prospectus
(C) Number of members
(D) All of the above
63. The gap between two General Meetings of the Company should not be more than—
(A) 12 months
(B) 18 months
(C) 15 months
(D) 20 months
64. Statement containing details of items to be considered in a meeting is called—
(A) Agenda
(B) Minutes
(C) Resolution
(D) Notice
65. The minimum and maximum number of members in a Private Company is—
(A) 2 and 50
(B) 2 and 20
(C) 2 and 10
(D) None of the above
66. What is the maximum limit of remuneration for a whole time manager in a company ?
(A) 3% of net annual profit
(B) 5% of net annual profit
(C) 7% of net annual profit
(D) None of the above
67. Which among the following documents defines the relationship between a company and outsiders ?
(A) Memorandum of Association
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Prospectus
(D) None of the above
68. Registration is not essential in case of a—
(A) Company
(B) Co-operative organisation
(C) Co-operative Societies
(D) Business of Joint Hindu Family
69. The Meeting of Board of Directors must be called at least once—
(A) In four months
(B) In three months
(C) In two months
(D) In one month
70. The Secretary of a Company should file copies of Special Resolution passed at Extraordinary General Meeting to the Registrar of Companies within—
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 30 days
71. What is the quorum of General Meetings in the case of a Private Company ?
(A) 2 members
(B) 3 members
(C) 4 members
(D) 5 members
72. Which of these must hold a Statutory Meeting ?
(A) Public Limited Company
(B) Private Company
(C) Unlimited Company
(D) All of these
73. When three sugar mills combine, it is an example of—
(A) Vertical combination
(B) Horizontal combination
(C) Diagonal combination
(D) None of the above
74. The first electronic computer system was developed in—
(A) 1920
(B) 1940
(C) 1930
(D) 1950
75. An Index is—
(A) A filing system
(B) A photostat procedure
(C) The procedure to collect data
(D) An important help in filing
76. Indian Partnership Act was passed in the year—
(A) 1956
(B) 1936
(C) 1932
(D) 1930
77. According to the Partnership Act, the maximum number of partners in a banking firm may be—
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 4
(D) 20
78. Dissolution of Partnership takes place when—
(A) A partner misbehaves
(B) A partner becomes of unsound mind
(C) Business is running at a loss
(D) A partner dies
79. The existence of a Partnership Firm is—
(A) Separate from partners
(B) Not separate from partners
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
80. In which State the Mitakshara form of H.U.F. business does not apply ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala
81. Letter of Credit is presented by—
(A) Exporter
(B) Importer
(C) Custom Officer
(D) Shipping Company
82. The Agreement of Partnership—
(A) Must be oral
(B) Must be in writing
(C) Can be either oral or in writing
(D) Must be in writing on a stamp paper
83. Export procedure begins with—
(A) Indent
(B) Shipping order
(C) Marine insurance
(D) None of these
84. ‘Self-help by mutual help’ is a feature of—
(A) Public enterprise
(B) Public corporation
(C) Co-operative society
(D) All of the above
85. In India private sector entered into the Life Insurance business in the year—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
86. General Insurance Corporation of India was set up in—
(A) 1956
(B) 1972
(C) 1980
(D) 2000
87. ‘Salvage Charges’ is related to—
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Marine Insurance
(C) Fire Insurance
(D) None of the above
88. In ‘Life Insurance Contract’ the insurable interest is examined at the time of—
(A) Entering the contract
(B) Filing the claim
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Never
89. In connection with marine insurance the ‘Doctrine of Utmost Good Faith’ is based on the concept of—
(A) Disclosure
(B) Concealment
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) None of the above
90. Which statement is not true in respect of a Balance Sheet ?
(A) It is an account
(B) It is prepared every month
(C) It is prepared to check the mathematical accuracy
(D) All the above
91. A machinery is purchased for Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 50,000 is spent on its installation. Rs. 5,000 is spent on fuel. What will be the amount of capital expenditure ?
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 3,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,55,000
(D) None of these
92. Which of the following errors are not disclosed by Trial Balance ?
(A) Compensatory Errors
(B) Errors of Principle
(C) Errors of Omission
(D) All the three
93. A large amount spent on special advertisement is—
(A) Capital Expenditure
(B) Revenue Expenditure
(C) Revenue Loss
(D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
94. Double Entry System was introduced in—
(A) America
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Italy
95. According to going concern concept a business entity is assumed to have—
(A) A long life
(B) A small life
(C) A very short life
(D) A definite life
96. The policy of ‘anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses’ is followed due to—
(A) Convention of consistency
(B) Convention of conservation
(C) Convention of disclosure
(D) None of the above
97. Receipts and Payments Account is prepared by—
(A) Companies
(B) Banks
(C) Partnership firms
(D) Non-trading organizations
98. Examination of documents and vouchers is called—
(A) Physical verification
(B) Test checking
(C) Vouching
(D) None of the above
99. Internal Audit is done by—
(A) External Auditors
(B) Employees of the organisation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
100. Audit Programme is prepared by—
(A) The Auditor
(B) The Company
(C) Internal Auditor
(D) Financial Controller
101. First Auditor of a Company is appointed by the—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board
(D) Board of Directors
102. Which of the following is not qualified to be a Company Auditor ?
(A) A body corporate
(B) An employee of the company
(C) A person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding Rs. 1,000
(D) All of the above
103. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Valuation is a part of verification
(B) Verification is a part of valuation
(C) Valuation has nothing to do with verification
(D) None of the above
104. Test checking refers to—
(A) Testing of accounting records
(B) Testing of honesty of employees
(C) Intensive checking of a select number of transactions
(D) Checking of all transactions recorded
105. Continuous audit is suitable for—
(A) Big institutions
(B) Small institutions
(C) General institutions
(D) None of the above
106. The function of an Auditor is—
(A) To examine arithmetical accuracy of accounts
(B) To detect and prevent errors
(C) To detect and prevent frauds
(D) All of the above
107. Audit is compulsory for—
(A) Sole Trader
(B) Partnership Firms
(C) Joint Stock Companies
(D) All of the above
108. Match List-I with List-II of the following and select the correct answer from answer codes given below—
List-I
(a) At cost price
(b) At market price
(c) Intrinsic value method
(d) Average profit method
List-II
1. Valuation of shares
2. Perishable goods
3. Raw material
4. Valuation of Goodwill
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
109. In the absence of Articles of Association, an Auditor should keep in mind—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Table ‘A’
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) Legal Declaration
110. Who may recommend Special Audit of a Company ?
(A) Directors of the Company
(B) Shareholders of the Company
(C) Debentureholders of the Company
(D) Central Government
111. Internal check is a part of—
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Internal Control
(C) Annual Audit
(D) Standard Audit
112. Cost Audit Report is to be submitted to—
(A) The Company
(B) The Central Government with a copy to the Company
(C) The Central Government
(D) The Company Secretary
113. A company auditor addresses his report to—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing Director
(D) Company Secretary
114. Which of the following Sections of the Companies’ Act 1956 relates to the maintenance of proper books of accounts ?
(A) Section-211
(B) Section-217
(C) Section-209
(D) Section-205
115. X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. They admit a new partner Z and new profit sharing ratio is 7 : 4 : 3. The sacrificing ratio between X and Y will be—
(A) Equal
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 2
116. Given :
Realised value of assets Rs. 60,000
Profit on Realisation Rs. 3,000
Book value of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 63,000
(B) Rs. 57,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 61,500
117. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. D is admitted for 1/10 share. The new ratio will be—
(A) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(D) None of the above
118. If actual average profit is Rs. 30,000 and normal rate of return is 12%, then capitalization value of the profits will be—
(A) Rs. 3,60,000
(B) Rs. 2,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,05,000
(D) None of the above
119. Under which Section of Companies’ Act an auditor has a right to participate and to speak in the General Meeting ?
(A) 231
(B) 229
(C) 226
(D) 224
120. New profit sharing ratio is calculated at the time of—
(A) Admission of a new partner
(B) Retirement of a partner
(C) Death of a partner
(D) All of the above

Answers
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D)
91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (B) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (A)
101. (D) 102. (D)103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (A) 106. (D) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (D)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Papers 2008


Public Administration 
(Exam Held on 9-3-2008)

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :—
List-I (District)
(a) Udham Singh Nagar
(b) Tehri Garhwal
(c) Chamoli
(d) Champawat
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Champawat
2. Gopeshwar
3. Rudrapur
4. New Tehri
5. Bagheswar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 5 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 3 5 1
2. The person for the office of the Chief Secretary in a State is chosen :
1. from among the I.A.S. Officers.
2. by a Selection Board
3. by the Chief Minister
4. by the Union Home Minister.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 only
3. The functions of the Chief Secretary include :
(A) to exercise control over the whole Secretariat
(B) to advise the Chief Minister on all matters
(C) to act as a spokesman of the State Government
(D) All of the above
4. Which one of the following statements about Audit in India is not correct ?
(A) It is a means of legislative control
(B) It is part of internal control over administration
(C) C and A.G. heads its organization
(D) C and A.G’s powers are determined by the Parliament
5. Who of the following has said about the Planning Commission "…… The Planning Commission has, in some measures, earned the reputation of being a parallel Cabinet and, sometimes, a super cabinet" ?
(A) Ashok Chandra
(B) D.R. Gadgil
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission
6. The C and AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of :
(A) Municipal institutions
(B) State Governments
(C) Government Companies
(D) Central Government
7. Functions of the National Development Council include :
1. considering important issues of national security.
2. prescribing guidelines for preparation of the national plan.
3. assessing the resources required for implementation of the plan.
4. recommending measures necessary for achieving plan objectives.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
8. The Committee on subordinate legislation ensures that :
(A) the rules and orders do not have any intention to impose taxes
(B) legislation does not involve any expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) jurisdiction of the judiciary is not barred
(D) there is no delay in laying the legislation before the house
9. The Union Executive consists of the :
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above
10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Administration ?
(A) Legacy of the Past
(B) Welfare and Liberal Administration
(C) Despotic Administration
(D) Decentralized Administration
11. Disciplinary Officer for personnel of Group ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the Central Government is :
(A) Secretary of the concerned Department
(B) President of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Minister of the concerned Department
12. Which of the following organization are under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India ?
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Department of official language
4. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
13. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) : UPSC is an independent organization.
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Five Year Plans in India are approved by the National Development Council.
Reason (R) : Each and every State Chief Minister is the member of the Standing Committee of the National Development Council.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
15. Being the Principal Law Officer of the Government of India, the Attorney General
1. gives advice to the President of India on all important legal matters.
2. attend meetings of the Parliament on important issues.
3. votes in the Lok Sabha on important legal matters.
4. represents the government in the courts on very important legal matters.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above
16. Given below are different stages in problem solving :
1. Collection of relevant information
2. Identification of the problem.
3. Analysis of the information.
4. Development of alternatives.
5. Evaluation of choices.
Select the correct sequences of the above from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 4, 5, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 4, 1, 5, 3 and 2
17. Formal Communication usually flows in :
(A) six directions
(B) four directions
(C) three directions
(D) nine directions
18. Which one of the following is not correct among the assumptions made by a Theory ‘Y’ leader ?
(A) Expenditure of energy is undesirable.
(B) Self-direction and self-control is desirable.
(C) Self-actualization is a motivating force.
(D) Working conditions conducive for acceptance of responsibilities are desirable.
19. The book ‘Prismatic Society Revisited’ has been authored by :
(A) Robert A. Dahl
(B) Robert A. Merton
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) G.M. Gaus
20. Arrange the various phases of evolution of Public Administration in chronological order :
1. Politics–Administration Dichotomy
2. Crises of Identify.
3. Search for Universal Principles.
4. Era of Challenge.
5. Public Policy Perspective.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 2
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 3
21. Which of the following are the British legacies ?
1. Planning Commission.
2. District Administration.
3. Civil Services.
4. Ministerial Resposibility.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
22. "Public Administration is detailed and systematic application of law."
The above definition has been given by :
(A) L. D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson
23. Which of the following are the three aspects of Science of Public Administration discussed mainly in Kautilya’s Arthashastra ?
1. Principles of Public Administration
2. Principles of Financial Administration
3. Machinery of Government
4. Personnel Management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above
24. Who of the following described recruitment as the "Corner stone of whole personnel administration" ?
(A) Glenn O. Stahl
(B) L. D. White
(C) F. A. Nigro
(D) None of the above
25. The President of India addresses his letter of resignation, when wanting to do so, to the :
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
26. The Mayor of a City Corporation in Uttarakhand :
(A) is elected directly by people
(B) is elected from among themselves by Corporators
(C) is elected by its Executive Committee
(D) is the nominee of the majority party in the Corporation
27. A Directorate :
1. is office of the executive head of a department.
2. functions directly under the Minister.
3. performs line functions.
4. also acts as a staff agency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Central Secretariat is a think tank and treasure house of vital information.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat carries out a comprehensive and detailed scrutiny of every issue.
Select correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
29. The four bases of organization as identified by Luther Gullick are :
(A) Planning, Organising, Coordinating, Controlling
(B) Objective, People, Plan, Action
(C) Plead, Persuade, Order, Punish
(D) Purpose, Process, Persons, Place
30. ‘Authority’ and ‘Responsibility’ are governed by the :
(A) Principle of coincidence
(B) Principle of correspondence
(C) Principle of compulsion
(D) Principle of co-ordination
31. ‘Span of Control’ depends upon
1. centralized system of authority
2. type of work to be supervised
3. competence of the supervisor
4. techniques of supervision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
32. Hierarchy :
1. facilitates delegation of authority
2. establishes superior–subordinate relationships
3. acts as a channel of communication
4. facilitates operation of gang plank
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
33. A formal organization :
1. is a structure of authority
2. is a division of functions
3. consists of individuals
4. reflects social and psychological relationships
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
34. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ emphasizes upon one master.
Reason (R) : In complex government organizations ‘Unity of Command’ becomes easy. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
35. Decentralization :
1. improves administrative efficiency
2. reduces stress of responsibilities at the headquarter.
3. provides for involvement of insiders in organizational functioning.
4. is responsible for cost-escalation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
36. The traditional theory of Authority has been opposed by :
1. Max Weber
2. C.I. Bernard
3. H. Simon
4. Mooney and Reiley
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
37. The ‘Line’ agencies :
1. perform functions according to organizational objectives.
2. have authority to take decisions and enforce them.
3. involve insiders of the organization
4. keep outsiders away from the system.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
38. Which of the following statements about ‘Delegation of authority’ are correct ?
1. It should be made to an individual.
2. It should be properly planned.
3. It should be backed by adequate resources.
4. It can be conditional.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
39. Human Relations Theory of Organization focusses on the :
1. individual
2. physical structure
3. functional structure
4. social relationships
5. spirit of participation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5
40. Weber’s bureaucratic model has been characterised by his critics as :
1. a machine theory
2. a closed system model
3. suitable for changing environment
4. suitable for creative jobs
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
41. Which of the following types of leadership were delineated by Max-Weber ?
1. Charismatic
2. Traditional
3. Religious
4. Legal-rational
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
42. Which one of the following is not an intrinsic factor of job satisfaction as per the Hygiene Theory of Motivation ?
(A) Achievement
(B) Advancement
(C) Opportunities for growth
(D) Job Security
43. Fredrick Herzbgerg’s Theory of Motivation has listed some elements which are related to job content. Their number is :
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
44. Factors responsible for bounded rationality include :
1. dynamic nature of objectives
2. imperfect information
3. imcompetence for analysis
4. time constraints
5. personal values
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5
45. Factors taken into consideration while using ‘motivation’ as a function of management include :
1. goal
2. physiological deficiency
3. psychological need
4. technique to be used
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
46. "A communication that cannot be understood can have no authority." The above statement is attributed
to :
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) C.I. Bernard
(C) Millet
(D) Peter Drucker
47. The aspects of organizational communication include :
1. internal communication
2. external communication
3. inter-personal communication
4. intra-personal communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
48. Which one of the following is not a stage in Simon’s model of decision making ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Design
(C) Choice
(D) Participation
49. Which one of the following as qualities of leadership, as mentioned by Barnard is correct ?
(A) Vitality and Endurance
(B) Decisiveness
(C) Persuasiveness and Responsibility
(D) All of the above
50. Which one of the following statements about Decision-making is not correct ?
(A) Every decision is based upon two premises
(B) A factual premise cannot be disproved
(C) A value premise can be tested
(D) Ends and means have their importance
51. Theory ‘Y’ is connected with :
(A) Democratic leadership style
(B) Autocratic leadership style
(C) Laissez-faire leadership style
(D) None of the above
52. Who of the following developed Contingency Theory of Leadership ?
(A) Fred E. Feidler
(B) Likert
(C) Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
53. Robert T. Goelembioski has considered as transitional incident to :
(A) Private Administration
(B) Public Administration
(C) Neo Public Administration
(D) New Public Administration
54. Who of the following did not criticise Politics-administration dichotomy of Woodrow Wilson ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Marshall E. Dimock
(D) Nicholas Henry
55. Which one of the following statements is correct about New Public Administration ?
(A) It believes in Science of Public Administration
(B) It focusses on Social Administration
(C) It gives priority to the study of structural aspect of organization
(D) It believes in collective decision-making
56. Third phase (1938–1947) of the development of Public Administration is marked by :
1. emphasis on the practical study of Public Administration.
2. emphasis on human behaviour in an organization.
3. doubt regarding non-universality of the principles of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) only 3
(D) 2 and 3
57. Who of the following differentiated Politics and Administration by saying that ‘Politics has to do policies or expression of the State will’ and ‘Administration has to do with the execution of the policies’ ?
(A) Peter Self
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Frank Goodnow
(D) Dwight Waldo
58. New Public Administration lays emphasis on :
(A) relevance, values, democracy and change
(B) relevance, values, equity and change
(C) relevance, values, efficiency and change
(D) relevance, efficiency, equity and change
59. ‘Public Administration is the Art and Science of Management as applied to affairs of the State.’ Who of the following said this ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) L.D. White
(C) Frank Marini
(D) Dwight Waldo
60. "Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of law." Who of the following has said this ?
(A) L.D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson
61. About the significance of Public Administration who of the following said "The Administrative process is universal" ?
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) H. Finer
(D) D. Waldo
62. "Public Administration is characterized by red-tape while Private Administration is free from it." The statement was made by :
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Josia Stamp
63. The Minnobrook Conference held in 1988 laid emphasis on :
1. Leadership
2. Constitutional and Legal perspective
3. Policy perspective
4. Social equity and change
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above
64. The Conference on New Public Administration in 1960s was held under the patronage of :
(A) Robert T. Golembiewaski
(B) Frank Marini
(C) Fredrickson
(D) Dwight Waldo
65. Consider the following :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is crosscultural and cross-national in character.
Reason (R) : Its goal became unattainable.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Correct :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
66. Ecological approach undertakes studies of :
1. dynamics of interaction
2. political environment
3. social realities
4. influence of administrative system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
67. Which of the following decisionmaking approach is usually advocated by the Policy makers for urban community development in India ?
(A) Mixed approach
(B) Public choice approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Participative approach
68. Who of the following scholar/scholars point out that bureaucratic responsibility has to be seen in terms of accountability and ethical behaviour ?
(A) Fesler and Kettle
(B) Rosen
(C) Romzek and Dubnick
(D) Mohit Bhattacharya
69. Civil Servants are trained through :
1. foundation courses
2. on the job programmes
3. field exposures
4. refresher programmes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
70. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on the recommendation of :
(A) First Pay Commission
(B) Second Pay Commission
(C) Third Pay Commission
(D) Fourth Pay Commission
71. Which one of the following reports laid down the traditional concept of Civil Service neutrality in Britain ?
(A) Masterman Committee Report
(B) Hoover Commission Report
(C) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(D) Fulton Committee Report
72. The country which practices position classification in Civil Service is :
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) Germany
73. The final work of the Union Public Service Commission in recruitment process is :
(A) Selection
(B) Appointment
(C) Certification
(D) Placement
74. Which one of the following countries permits the right to strike to Civil Servants ?
(A) U.K.
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) U.S.A.
75. Which one of the following illustrates the nature of traditional concept of Civil Service Neutrality ?
(A) Committed
(B) Positive minded
(C) Non-Partisan
(D) Impartial
76. Which one of the following Committee/Commission was associated during British rule with the Civil Services in India ?
(A) Wheeler Commission
(B) Maxwell Committee
(C) Risley Commission
(D) Islington Commission
77. Which of the following statements about Neutrality of Civil Service are correct ?
1. The Civil servants should remain non-political.
2. It developed as a tradition in the U.S.A.
3. The demand for committed bureaucracy has created confusion.
4. The developing countries bureaucracy remained depoliticised.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
78. The advantages of rank classification include :
1. it introduces an element of flexibility.
2. it is more suitable for generalist cadre.
3. it helps in applying the principle of equal pay for equal work.
4. it facilitates matching job requirements with incumbents’s qualifications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
79. Which one of the following about position classification is not correct ?
(A) It is also known as duties classification.
(B) It is concerned with the person holding the position.
(C) Position acts as the basic unit.
(D) It helps in developing common practices.
80. The correct sequence of the process adopted in recruitment is :
(A) Advertisement, Selection, Appointment, Probation
(B) Advertisement, Selection, Probation, Training.
(C) Advertisement, Appointment, Training, Probation.
(D) Advertisement, Selection, Posting, Probation.
81. The Separation of Accounts and Audit took place in India in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1961
(C) 1976
(D) 1990
82. Which one of the following about Accounts is not correct ?
(A) They are statements of facts relating to money.
(B) They are recored to show transactions.
(C) They reveal the financial condition of the organisation.
(D) The cannot be manipulated.
83. Preparation of performance budget was introduced in India on the recommendation of :
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Appleby Report
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission
84. To enhance legislative literacy and administrative responsibility, the budget system should accept :
(A) Zero Based Budgeting
(B) P.P.B.S.
(C) Performance Budgeting
(D) Professional Scrutiny by experts
85. Which one of the following statements about Budget is not correct ?
(A) It is a policy document
(B) It is merely a tool of resource mobilisation
(C) It is a tool of planning and control
(D) It is a statement of income and expenditure
86. Which one of the following is not a part of the Execution of Budget ?
(A) Release of grants
(B) Feedback on expenditure
(C) Audit of expenditure
(D) Reappropriation, when required
87. Audit :
1. is a means of legislative control.
2. is usually regulatory in nature.
3. is concerned with the propriety of expenditure.
4. can be performance related.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
88. The stages involved in the enactment of the Budget include :
1. Presentation
2. Voting on demands for grants
3. General discussion
4. Passing of Financial Bills
5. Passing of Appropriation Bill
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above five stages ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5 and 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 5, 4 and 3
89. Non-votable items of expenditure, by the Parliament, include :
1. emoluments and allowances of the President.
2. emoluments and allowances of Vice-President.
3. salary and allowances of C and A.G.
4. salary and allowances of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
90. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year :
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1925
(D) 1926
91. In the process of passing the budget, which one of the following is not in the purview of the Legislature?
(A) Give assent to the demand
(B) Reduce the demand
(C) Refuse the demand
(D) Increase and demand
92. The studies of Comparative Public Administration came to decline because :
(A) they were involved in trivialities
(B) they exhibited arrogance of developed countries
(C) they indulged in comparison of cultures
(D) they were over shadowed by Fred Riggs
93. Which one of the following is not included in the types of leadership, as distinguished by M.P. Follett ?
(A) Leadership of position
(B) Leadership of personality
(C) Leadership of learning
(D) Leadership of function
94. The Comparative Administration Group (CAG) in U.S.A. was formed in the year :
(A) 1959
(B) 1960
(C) 1961
(D) 1962
95. Advantages of ‘Right to Information’ as a means of Citizens’ control over administration include :
1. Administration becomes more accountable to people.
2. It increases the gap between administration and people.
3. It reduces chances of abuse of authority.
4. It reduces scope for corruption in administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
96. Who of the following said :
‘I always consider the question time in the House is one of the finest examples of Democracy ?’
(A) E. Attlee
(B) W. Wilson
(C) Churchill
(D) Chamberlin
97. Which one of the following is the tool of Executive Control over Public Administration ?
(A) Civil Service Code
(B) Budget
(C) Hierarchical system
(D) All of the above
98. The subject of ‘Ensuring transparency and Right to Information’ was included in the agenda of the Chief Ministers’ Conference in the year :
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1998
(D) 2002
99. The mechanisms for citizen’s control over administration include :
1. Ombudsman system
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. General elections
4. Pressure Groups
5. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5
100. Administrative organisations are mainly responsible to :
1. Legislature
2. Judiciary
3. Citizens
4. Media
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
101. Which one of the following is the example of executive control over administration ?
(A) Rules of financial transactions framed by Finance ministry for agencies responsible for expenditure
(B) Issue of ordinance by the President of India
(C) Audit by C and G
(D) Approval of Budget proposals by the President of India.
102. Which one of the following is under the control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions ?
(A) National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Joint Consultative Machinery
(D) All the above
103. What is the number of membership including President of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation of Parliament ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 22
(D) 30
104. The rules and regulations framed by the administrative authorities can be declared illegal by the courts :
(A) If they violate the limitation inherent in the parent Act
(B) If they violate the provisions of the constitution
(C) If the parent Act violates the provisions of the constitution
(D) In all above conditions
105. The corruption has increased manifold because :
1. There is a close nexus among the politicians, bureaucrates and criminals.
2. The cost of getting scotfree is very high.
3. Reduced fear of punishment.
4. Involvement of higher officials in the corruption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the above
106. The tools of legislative control over administration are :
1. debates and discussions in the House.
2. censure motion against the government.
3. no confidence motion against the government.
4. consideration and passage of budget by the House.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above
107. Which one of the following statements about the Cabinet Secretary is not correct ?
(A) He is head of the Civil Service
(B) He interacts directly with the bureaucracy in the ministries
(C) He acts as a deity in the annual conference of Chief Secretaries
(D) He presides over the meeting of Secretaries in the Central Government
108. Under the Indian Constitution, the CAG is :
(A) responsible only to the Executive head
(B) responsible to both Parliament and Executive
(C) responsible only to Parliament
(D) independent of both Parliament and the Executive
109. Which of the following is/are not mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Collective responsibility
3. Resignation of Ministers
4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
110. Assessment of the implementation of national plan from time to time is the function of :
(A) Programme Evaluation Organisation
(B) National Sample Survey Organisation
(C) Union Finance Commission
(D) Union Ministry of Programme Implementation
111. A large number of cases against officials in the courts pertain to :
(A) error of procedure
(B) lack of jurisdiction
(C) error of facts
(D) abuse of discretion
112. Which of the following organization in the centre basically operate as staff agencies ?
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Directorate General of supplies and Disposal
4. Planning Commission of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
113. Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
1. is appointed by the President
2. submits his report to the Parliament
3. controls the financial system of the country
4. upholds the Constitution in respect of financial administration
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
114. Which of the following about President of India are correct ?
1. He/She should not be a member of the Parliament.
2. He/She is a constituent part of Parliament.
3. He/She should be eligible for election as a Lok Sabha member.
4. He/She is directly elected by the people.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above
115. The Civil Service in India :
1. is governed by the norm of anonymity.
2. is not accountable to the Parliament.
3. is protected by the Minister concerned in all kinds of acts.
4. remains accountable to the Minister concerned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four
116. The relationship between political executive and permanent executive is based on :
(A) ability of Minister
(B) capability of Civil Servant
(C) mutual respect and confidence between Ministers and Civil Servants
(D) All of the above
117. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The Constitution authorises the Parliament to create a new All-India Service.
Reason (R) : Rajya Sabha takes a decision on the basis of recommendation of Lok Sabha in this regard.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
118. The system of open competition as the method of recruitment to Indian Civil Services was introduced
by the :
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Regulatory Act of 1773
(D) Charter Act of 1754
119. Which of the following departments in the Uttarakhand Government have a Directorate under it ?
1. Education
2. Health
3. Home
4. Agriculture
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
120. The Police force of a district maintains law and order under the general supervision of :
(A) Home Minister of the State
(B) Law Minister of the State
(C) Collector and Magistrate of the District
(D) S.P. of the district

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (*) All the options given in the question are correct. The committee on subordinate legislation performs all the four function. It appears that the question is incomplete as the ‘codes’ are not given below.
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C)
46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B)
56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (B)
86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (D) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (C)
116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (C)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009


PART–I
General Knowledge  
(Exam Held on 7-3-2010)

1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Ans : (D)

2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (A)

3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
Ans : (B)

4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
Ans : (C)

5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
Ans : (B)


6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Anglo-Indian Community
(D) Parsi Community
Ans : (C)

7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age of—
(A) 58 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
Ans : (D)

8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly
(B) The State Cabinet
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Governor
Ans : (D)

9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu is related with—
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker under Article 105 of the Constitution
Ans : (C)

10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission
Ans : (A)

11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution
Ans : (A)

12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by—
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ?
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti
Ans : (B)

14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for—
(A) Words Words Words
(B) Wide Word Words
(C) World Wide Web
(D) When Where Why
Ans : (C)

15. To which of the following companies, the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
(B) TISCO
(C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

16. The Article of the Indian Constitution which automatically become suspended on Proclamation of Emergency is—
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
Ans : (B)

17. Which State in India implemented the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

18. In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’ ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
Ans : (B)

19. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’ takes place ?
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Inter-State Council
Ans : (A)

20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

21. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal
Ans : (B)

22. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (D)

23. In which of the following cases constitutionality of the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

24. How many times the emergency has been proclaimed in India on the ground of internal disturbance ?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Never
Ans : (A)

25. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India ?
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) Never
Ans : (D)

26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Governor of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
Ans : (C)

27. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged State of the Indian Territory ?
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (B)

28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament may admit a new State in the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1
(B) In Article 2
(C) In Article 3
(D) In Article 4
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State policy under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work
(C) Promotion of international peace and security
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor children upto fourteen years of age
Ans : (D)

30. The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San- Francisco on—
(A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
(C) January 26, 1946
(D) December 30, 1941
Ans : (A)

31. Where the head office of the United Nations is situated ?
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) The Hague
Ans : (C)

32. How many members are in the Security Council ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 15
Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following Article of United Nations Charter is related to the procedure of voting ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

34. Which one of the following is not one of the principal organ of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) International Labour Organization
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (C)

35. Two official languages of the United Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi
(B) English and German
(C) English and Urdu
(D) English and French
Ans : (D)

36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been taken from which one of the following ?
(A) The Constitution of Ireland
(B) The Constitution of United States of America
(C) The Constitution of Australia
(D) The Constitution of Canada
Ans : (A)

37. P’s passport was cancelled by the authority without giving him any reasonable opportunity of being heard which was mandatory. In such case—
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the authority has no obligation to act fairly
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in interest of security of India, no one can challenge the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued
Ans : (A)

38. The maximum period of continuation of emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is—
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
Ans : (A)

39. Which one of the following Schedule was added in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI
(C) Schedule XI
(D) Schedule IX
Ans : (C)

40. The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in—
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5)
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 126
Ans : (A)

41. Participation of workers in management of industries is provided under Indian Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A
(B) In Article 48 A
(C) In Article 43 A
(D) In Article 45
Ans : (C)

42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution by—
(A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (A)

43. Socialist and secular words were added in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 48th Amendment
Ans : (B)

44. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is not related to the environmental protection ?
(A) Article 48 A
(B) Article 51 A(i)
(C) Article 51 A(g)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans : (B)

45. In International Court of Justice, there are—
(A) President and 15 other members
(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : (D)

46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
(C) 14th July
(D) 26th November
Ans : (B)

47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Paris
Ans : (C)

48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
Ans : (C)

50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (D)

Thursday, February 9, 2012

ISRO PURCHASE & STORES OFFICER QUESTION PAPERS

Purchase and Stores Officer 2007 2008

ISRO ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER QUESTION PAPERS

Administrative Officer 2007 2008

ISRO PURCHASE & STORES OFFICER QUESTION PAPERS

Accounts Officer 2007 2008




 

SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of MECHANICAL Old Question Papers

Mechanical 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of Electronics Old Question Papers

Electronics 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of COMPUTER SCIENCE Old Question Papers

Computer Science 2007 2008 2009






 
 

ISRO Assistant and Junior Personal Assistant Old Question Papers

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of ELECTRONICS Old Question Papers

Electronics 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of MECHANICAL Old Question Papers









Mechanical 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011











Wednesday, February 8, 2012

2011 – UPSC Civil Services Exam – Mains Question Papers

  1. Essay
  2. General Studies Paper I
  3. General Studies Paper II
  4. English Language Compulsory
  5. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Assamese
  6. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Bengali
  7. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Bodo
  8. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Dogri
  9. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Gujarati
  10. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Hindi
  11. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Kannada
  12. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Kashmiri
  13. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Maithili
  14. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Manipuri
  15. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Malayalam
  16. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Marathi
  17. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Nepali
  18. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Oriya
  19. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Punjabi
  20. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Sanskrit
  21. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Tamil
  22. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Telugu
  23. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Urdu
  24. Optional Subjects – Agriculture Paper I
  25. Optional Subjects – Agriculture Paper II
  26. Optional Subjects – Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science Paper I
  27. Optional Subjects – Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science Paper II
  28. Optional Subjects – Anthropology Paper I
  29. Optional Subjects – Anthropology Paper II
  30. Optional Subjects – Botany Paper I
  31. Optional Subjects – Botany Paper II
  32. Optional Subjects – Chemistry Paper I
  33. Optional Subjects – Chemistry Paper II
  34. Optional Subjects – Civil Engineering Paper I
  35. Optional Subjects – Civil Engineering Paper II
  36. Optional Subjects – Commerce and Accountancy Paper I
  37. Optional Subjects – Commerce and Accountancy Paper II
  38. Optional Subjects – Economics Paper I
  39. Optional Subjects – Economics Paper II
  40. Optional Subjects – Electrical Engineering Paper I
  41. Optional Subjects – Electrical Engineering Paper II
  42. Optional Subjects – Geography Paper I
  43. Optional Subjects – Geography Paper II
  44. Optional Subjects – Geology Paper I
  45. Optional Subjects – Geology Paper II
  46. Optional Subjects – History Paper I
  47. Optional Subjects – History Paper II
  48. Optional Subjects – Law Paper I
  49. Optional Subjects – Law Paper II
  50. Optional Subjects – Management Paper I
  51. Optional Subjects – Management Paper II
  52. Optional Subjects – Mathematics Paper I
  53. Optional Subjects – Mathematics Paper II
  54. Optional Subjects – Mechanical Engineering Paper I
  55. Optional Subjects – Mechanical Engineering Paper II
  56. Optional Subjects – Medical Science Paper I
  57. Optional Subjects – Medical Science Paper II
  58. Optional Subjects – Philosophy Paper I
  59. Optional Subjects – Philosophy Paper II
  60. Optional Subjects – Physics Paper I
  61. Optional Subjects – Physics Paper II
  62. Optional Subjects – Political Science and International Relations Paper I
  63. Optional Subjects – Political Science and International Relations Paper II
  64. Optional Subjects – Psychology Paper I
  65. Optional Subjects – Psychology Paper II
  66. Optional Subjects – Public Administration Paper I
  67. Optional Subjects – Public Administration Paper II
  68. Optional Subjects – Sociology Paper I
  69. Optional Subjects – Sociology Paper II
  70. Optional Subjects – Statistics Paper I
  71. Optional Subjects – Statistics Paper II
  72. Optional Subjects – Zoology Paper I
  73. Optional Subjects – Zoology Paper II
  74. Literature Subjects – Arabic Paper I
  75. Literature Subjects – Arabic Paper II
  76. Literature Subjects – Assamese Paper I
  77. Literature Subjects – Assamese Paper II
  78. Literature Subjects – Bengali Paper I
  79. Literature Subjects – Bengali Paper II
  80. Literature Subjects – Bodo Paper I
  81. Literature Subjects – Bodo Paper II
  82. Literature Subjects – Dogri Paper I
  83. Literature Subjects – Dogri Paper II
  84. Literature Subjects – English Paper I
  85. Literature Subjects – English Paper II
  86. Literature Subjects – French Paper I
  87. Literature Subjects – French Paper II
  88. Literature Subjects – German Paper I
  89. Literature Subjects – German Paper II
  90. Literature Subjects – Gujarati Paper I
  91. Literature Subjects – Gujarati Paper II
  92. Literature Subjects – Hindi Paper I
  93. Literature Subjects – Hindi Paper II
  94. Literature Subjects – Kannada Paper I
  95. Literature Subjects – Kannada Paper II
  96. Literature Subjects – Kashmiri Paper I
  97. Literature Subjects – Kashmiri Paper II
  98. Literature Subjects – Manipuri Paper I
  99. Literature Subjects – Manipuri Paper II
  100. Literature Subjects – Maithili Paper I
  101. Literature Subjects – Maithili Paper II
  102. Literature Subjects – Malayalam Paper I
  103. Literature Subjects – Malayalam Paper II
  104. Literature Subjects – Marathi Paper I
  105. Literature Subjects – Marathi Paper II
  106. Literature Subjects – Oriya Paper I
  107. Literature Subjects – Oriya Paper II
  108. Literature Subjects – Pali Paper I
  109. Literature Subjects – Pali Paper II
  110. Literature Subjects – Persian Paper I
  111. Literature Subjects – Persian Paper II
  112. Literature Subjects – Punjabi Paper I
  113. Literature Subjects – Punjabi Paper II
  114. Literature Subjects – Russian Paper I
  115. Literature Subjects – Russian Paper II
  116. Literature Subjects – Sanskrit Paper I
  117. Literature Subjects – Sanskrit Paper II
  118. Literature Subjects – Santali Paper I
  119. Literature Subjects – Santali Paper II
  120. Literature Subjects – Tamil Paper I
  121. Literature Subjects – Tamil Paper II
  122. Literature Subjects – Telugu Paper I
  123. Literature Subjects – Telugu Paper II
  124. Literature Subjects – Urdu Paper I
  125. Literature Subjects – Urdu Paper II