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Sunday, February 27, 2011

SPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA LDC, JUNIOR ACCOUNTANT SELECTION PROCESS

SELECTION PROCESS
 Eligible candidates will have to undergo a written test of 100 marks for both the posts (duration
of examination is 2 hours).


 Syllabus for examination
a) For LDC : The written examination will be objective type of 100 marks consisting the following
topics:-
1. General Knowledge - 25 Marks
2. General English - 25 Marks
3. Numerical Aptitude - 25 Marks
4. Reasoning ability - 25 Marks


b) For Jr. Accountant: The written examination will be in two parts of 40 and 60 marks
respectively consisting the following syllabus:-
Part-I
1. General Knowledge - 10 Marks
2. General English - 10 Marks
3. Numerical Aptitude - 10 Marks
4. Reasoning ability - 10 Marks
Part-II
Accounts (up to B.Com. standard) - 60 Marks


The candidates would be selected out of the merit list prepared only on the basis of marks secured
in the written test. The candidates would have to secure a minimum of 40% marks (33% for SC/ST) to be
eligible for consideration. However, the written test would be followed by a skill test i.e. typing test for
LDC with minimum speed of 35 wpm in English and 30 wpm in Hindi on computer and for Junior
Accountant, skill test on MS Excel and Tally Software on computer (qualifying marks 40% out of 100
marks) which will be qualifying in nature. A total number of candidates 5 times the number of vacancies
would be asked to appear for the qualifying skill test. A final merit list would be prepared amongst those
who qualify in the skill test. Post would be offered to candidates based only on merit list prepared on the
basis of marks secured in the written examination. There will be no interview for the post Jr. Accountant and LDC.

Sunday, February 20, 2011

CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011 NOTIFICATION

Examination Notice No. 05/2011-CSP

F. No. 1/8/2010-E.I(B) : Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Services and Posts mentioned below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 12th June, 2011 in accordance with the Rules published by the Department of Personnel & Training in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 19th February, 2011.
  1. Indian Administrative Service.
  2. Indian Foreign Service.
  3. Indian Police Service.
  4. Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’.
  5. Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
  6. Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise), Group ‘A’.
  7. Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
  8. Indian Revenue Service (I.T.), Group ‘A’.
  9. Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A’ (Assistant Works Manager, Administration).
  10. Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’.
  11. Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
  12. Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’.
  13. Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group 'A'.
  14. Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’.
  15. Post of Assistant Security Commissioner in Railway Protection Force, Group ‘A’
  16. Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’.
  17. Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A’.
  18. Indian Trade Service, Group 'A' (Gr. III).
  19. Indian Corporate Law Service, Group "A".
  20. Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade).
  21. Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group 'B'.
  22. Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service, Group 'B'.
  23. Pondicherry Civil Service, Group 'B'.
  24. Pondicherry Police Service, Group 'B'.
  • The number of vacancies to be filled on the result of the examination is expected to be approximately 880. The number of vacancies may get increased.
  • Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically Disabled Categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.
Note I : The list of services participating in the Civil Services Examination, 2011 is tentative.
Note II : Services identified suitable for Physically Disabled Categories along with respective functional classification and physical requirements are given below :-

Qualification:

The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification.
NOTE I : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination.  All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required  to produce proof of passing the requisite examination with their application for the Main Examination failing which such  candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. The applications for the Main  Examination will be called sometime in the month of July/August, 2011.
NOTE II : In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/ she has passed examination conducted by  the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE III : Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
NOTE IV : Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted  to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed  the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award of the Degree.

Age:

  • A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on 1st August, 2011

Plan of Examination:

The Civil Services Examination will consist of two successive stages (vide Appendix I Section-I below).
(i) Civil Services Preliminary Examination (Objective type) for the selection of candidates for the Main Examination; and
(ii) Civil Services Main Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various Services and posts noted above.
Applications are now invited for the Preliminary Examination only. Candidates who are declared by the Commission to have qualified for admission to the Main Examination will have to apply again, in the Detailed Application Form which would be supplied to them. The Main Examination is likely to be held in October/November, 2011.

FEE :

(a) Candidates applying Online (exempting Female/SC/ST/PH Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a reduced fee of Rs. 50/- (Rupees Fifty only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.
(b) Candidates applying Offline (through Common Application Form) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only) through a single Central Recruitment Stamp. Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (NOT Postage Stamp) of the requisite denomination may be obtained from the Post Office and affixed on the application form in the space provided therein. The stamp must be got cancelled from the issuing Post Office with the date stamp of the Post Office in such a manner that the impression of the cancellation mark partially overflows on the application form itself but within the space provided on the Application  form itself. The impression of the cancellation mark should be clear and distinct  to facilitate the identification of date and the Post Office of issue.
Candidates residing abroad should deposit the prescribed fee in the office of India's High Commissioner, Ambassador or representative abroad as the case may be for credit to account head "051-Public Service Commission-Examination Fees" and attach the receipt with the application.

Center of Examination:

AGARTALA CHANDIGARH IMPHAL LUCKNOW RANCHI
AHMEDABAD CHENNAI ITANAGAR MADURAI SAMBALPUR
AIZAWL CUTTACK JAIPUR MUMBAI SHILLONG
ALIGARH DEHRADUN JAMMU NAGPUR SHIMLA
ALLAHABAD DELHI JODHPUR PANAJI (GOA) SRINAGAR
AURANGABAD DHARWAD JORHAT PATNA THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
BANGALORE DISPUR KOCHI PUDUCHERRY TIRUPATI
BAREILLY GANGTOK KOHIMA PORT BLAIR UDAIPUR
BHOPAL HYDERABAD KOLKATA RAIPUR VISHAKHAPATNAM

IMPORTANT

1. Candidates To Ensure Their Eligibility For The Examination

The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.
Mere issue of admission certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Commission take up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original
documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.

2. How To Apply

(a) Candidates may apply Online by using the website  http://www.upsconline.nic.in  Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the abovementioned website.
(b) Candidates may also apply Offline in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices (specified in Appendix III of the Notice) throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 30/- (Rupees Thirty only). Each such Form can be used only once and only for one examination. In case of any difficulty in obtaining Application Forms from the designated HPOs/ POs, the candidates should immediately contact the concerned post Master or UPSC’s “FORMS SUPPLY MONITORING CELL” over Telephone No. 011- 3389366/FAX No. 011-23387310.
(c) Candidates are advised to read carefully the Instructions for filling up the "Online Application Form” given in Appendix-II (A) and Instructions for Offline Applications given in Appendix II (B) of this notice.

3. Lat Date For Receipt of Applications:

(a) Online:
  • The online Applications can be filled up to 21st March, 2011 till 11.59 PM after which the link will be disabled.
(b) Offline:
  • All offline applications must reach the “Controller of Examinations, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi - 110069” either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by Courier, on or before the 21st March,2011. Candidates should note that applications will be received by hand, only one at a time, at the designated counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only. However, in respect of candidates residing abroad or in certain remote localities specified in para 6 of this Notice the last date for receipt of application by Post/Speed Post only (not by Hand or by Courier) is 28th March, 2011.

4. Penalty For Wrong Answer

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

5. Facilitation Counter For Guidance of Candidates

In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011- 3385271/011-23381125/011- 23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.

6. Mobile Phones Banned

(a) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured.
7. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe-keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.


FOR CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011 Detailed Notification CLICK HERE

Saturday, February 19, 2011

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011


UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (UPSC)
Dholpur House, Shahjahan road, New Delhi - 110069

Civil Service Examination, 2011

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011 on 12/06/2011 for recruitment of nearly 880 various posts of Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and certain other Group 'A' and Group 'B' Central Services / Posts.
Eligibility:
  • Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 01/08/2011. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
  • Educational Qualification: Degree of a recognised university or an equivalent qualification.
  • Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
  • Number of Attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible will be as follows:

    • General Category : Four
    • Physical Handicapped : Seven
    • OBC : Seven
    • SC / ST : No Limit
Offline Application Form: The candidates must apply in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/ Post offices throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 30/- only. OR published in the Employment News.

Online Application Submission : Candidates can apply Online also at http://upsconline.nic.in/ upto 21/03/2011.
Fee: Rs. 100/- through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. SC/ST/PH/Female candidates are exempted from payment (OBC candidates required to pay full fee) for the candidates applying offline. Those who are applying Online need to deposit Rs. 50/- in any branch of SBI
How To Apply Offline : All Offline applications must reach the "Controller of Examination, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by courier on or before the 21/03/2011. [Candidates from far-flung areas can send application through post/speed post upto 28/03/2011]
Candidates can obtain details of the examination and can get information about registration of their applications, venues of the examination and syllabus etc will be posted on the website of the UPSC at http://upsc.gov.in/ or in the Employment News dated 19/02/2011.

Thursday, February 17, 2011

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Recruitment 2011-12


Solved GK Paper of Preliminary Examination for Post Graduate Teachers
Exam held on 11th Feb. 2011
 

1. The headquarters of World Trade Organisation is located in :
    a) 
Geneva
    b) Paris
    c) Washington
    d) New York   

  2. The number of High Courts in India is :
    a) 31
    b) 
21
    c) 25
    d) 24
 

3. Under which section of the Hindu marriage Act, 1955 the provision relating to registration of
    Marriage is given?.
    a) 
8
    b) 7
    c) 6
    d) 5
 

4. A radar which detects the presence of an enemy aircraft uses :
    a) sound waves
    b) 
radio waves
    c) electric waves
    d) ultrasound waves
 

5. “Sub Prime Lending” is a  term applied to the loans made to :
    a) 
those borrowers who do not have a good credit history.
    b) those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets.
    c) those who have a good credit history and are known to bn since 10 years.
    d) those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the bank.
 

6. Production function explains the relationship between :
    a) 
Initial inputs and ultimate output
    b) Input and ultimate consumption
    c) Output and consumption
    d) Standard deviation
 

7. The 50th percentile is also known as :
    a) Mean
    b) Mode
    c) 
Median
    d) Standard deviation
 

8. The World’s Number two economy is :
    a) USA
    b) Japan
    c) 
China
    d) Germany
 

9. Saina Nehwal has been named the brand ambassador for :
    a) Orissa
    b) 
Andhra Pradesh
    c) Tamil nadu
    d) Kerala
 

10. NASA is planning to establish a permanent base at :
     a) 
Moon
     b) Mars
     c) Venus
     d) Jupiter
 

11. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the
     a) Pulsars
     b) White dwarf
     c) 
Atomic clocks
     d) Quartz clocks
 

12. The overall objective of Fundamental Rights is to ensure :
     a) Democratic government
     b) 
Individual liberty
     c) Judicial independence 

     d) Secularism    

13. The Governor is responsible to the :
     a) 
State legislature
     b) State legislative assembly
     c) President
     d) Prime Minister
 

14.Who among the following received the Noble prize twice in the same subject?
     a) Madam Curie
     b) Pierre Curie
     c) Linus Pauling
     d) 
John Bardeen  

15. Which of the following was known from the title of “Nightangale of India”?
     a) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
     b) 
Sarojini Naidu
     c) Maria montessori
     d) Suraiya
 

16. NPC concerns :
     a) Industries
     b) 
Schools
     c) Agriculture
     d) Medicine  

17. World Food Day is observed on :
     a) 18 February
     b) 11 June
     c) 28 September
     d) 
16 October  

18.The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
     a) 
1542
     b) 1601
     c) 1677
     d) 1809
 

19. The lowest layer of atomosphere is called :
     a) Stratosphere
     b) 
Troposphere
     c) Ionosphere
     d) Exosphere
 

20. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I.  Nigeria           1. Luanda
      II. Qatar             2. Abuja
      III. Zambia          3. Lusaka
      IV. Angola          4. Doha

      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   2     4       3        1           
           b)   4     3       2        1
           c)   1     2       3        4
           d)   4     2       3        1
21. Which of the following countries does not have its emblem as ‘Lion’ ?
     a) Belgium
     b) Norway
     c) Sri Lanka
     d) 
Spain  
22. ‘Swaythling Cup’ is associated with the sport:
     a) World badminton (Men)
     b) 
World Table tennis (Men)
     c) Horse racing
     d) Car racing
 
23. Which of the following is not a famous ‘Tabla Player’ ?
     a) Allarakha
     b) Zakir Husain
     c) 
Pandit Jasraj
     d) Gudai Maharaj
 
24. Which of the following is not a dance/dance drama associated with the state ‘Kerla’ ?
     a) Koodiyattam
     b) Mudiyettu
     c) Kottam
     d) 
Tappatri Kai  
25. Shivaji’s war strategy used against the Mughals was:
     a) 
Alert army
     b) Political supremacy     
     c) Large army
     d) 
Guerilla warfare  
26. Asian games 2014 will be held in :
     a) Gouangjhou, China
     b) 
Incheon, South Korea
     c) New Deslhi, India
     d) NBusan, South Korea
 
27. Next US Presidential election will be held in :
     a) 
November, 2012
     b) Januaary, 2013
     c) November, 2013

     d) January, 2012  
28. Amitabh Bachchan has won three times the Best Actor National Awrd. Which of the films
     is not the one when he was not given the National Award for Best Actor?
     a) Agneepath
     b) 
Sholay
     c) Black
     d) Paa
 
29. Sound travesl with a different speed in different media. In what order does the velocity of
     sound increase in these media?
     a) Water, iron and air
     b) Iron, air and water
     c) 
Air, water and iron
     d) Iron, water and air
 
30. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I.  Carbon dioxide           1. Reducing agent
      II. Chlorine                     2. Anaesthetic in dentisty
      III. Hydrogen                  3. Bleaching powder
      IV. Nitrous oxide            4. Refrigerant
  
      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   1     2       3        4
           b)   4     3       2        1
           c)   
4     3       1        2
           d)   2     1       3        4
 
31. Medula oblongata is a part of human :
     a) heart
     b) 
brain
     c) liver
     d) sex organs
 
32. Funk discovered :
     a) Proteins
     b) 
Vitamins
     c) Enzymes
     d) Hormones
 
33. The 8th schedule of the constitutions deals with :
     a) Fundamental Rights
     b) Directive Principles of State Policy
     c) 
The list of 18 regional languages
     d) All the above  
34. Thirty-Sixth Amendment of Indian Constitution, 1975 conferred statehood on :
     a) Arunachal Pradesh
     b) Nagaland
     c) Meghalaya

     d) Sikkim
35. Who among the following has a right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceeding
     of either House of Parliament and to be a member of any Parliamentary Committee but is
     not entitled to vote?.
     a) The Chief Election Commissioner
     b) Chairmain of Finance Comission
     c) 
The Attorney General
     d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Tuesday, February 15, 2011

RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN RAJYA SABHA SECRETARIAT (EXAM HELD ON 16-01-2011) SOLVED PAPER

JUNIOR LIBRARY ASSISTANT IN LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT (EXAM HELD ON 16-01-2011) SOLVED PAPER

JUNIOR PARLIAMENTARY REPORTER (ENGLISH/HINDI) IN RAJYA SABHA SECRETARIAT (EXAM HELD ON 21-11-2010) SOLVED PAPER

SECURITY ASSISTANT GRADE-II IN LOK SABHA AND RAJYA SABHA SECRETARIATS SOLVED PAPER

FOR SECURITY ASSISTANT GRADE-II IN LOK SABHA AND RAJYA SABHA SECRETARIAT(EXAM HELD ON 01-08-2010) SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

Sunday, February 13, 2011

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (Mains) Exam., 2009

General Studies 
(Held on 30-11-2010)

1. AGMARK Act came into force in India in—
(A) 1937
(B) 1952
(C) 1957
(D) 1965
Ans : (A)

2. Clonal selection can be used in—
(A) Groundnut
(B) Mustard
(C) Wheat
(D) Potato
Ans : (D)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I(a) F.A.O. Headquarters
(b) Central Agmark Lab
(c) Central Rice Research Institute
(d) Central Potato Research Institute
List-II
1. Shimla
2. Cuttack
3. Rome
4. Nagpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)

4. In which of the following crops, Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer in the country ?
1. Potato
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Tobacco
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (D)

5. Bhatkhande Sangeet Sansthan, Lucknow became a Deemed University in—
(A) 1998
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2004
Ans : (B)


6. Dry Ice is—
(A) Liquid Nitrogen
(B) Water Ice
(C) Solid Carbon dioxide
(D) Frozen Ethanol
Ans : (C)

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Amir Khusrau —Etah
(B) Mirza Ghalib —Agra
(C) Josh —Malihabad
(D) Ram Prasad Bismil —Allahabad
Ans : (D)

8. The Growth Centre Project was introduced in Uttar Pradesh in—
(A) October 2001
(B) September 2005
(C) December 2005
(D) February 2006
Ans : (C)

9. Rani Laxmi Bai Dam is located on the—
(A) Betwa
(B) Ken
(C) Rihand
(D) Tons
Ans : (A)

10. Kartik is a folk dance of—
(A) Bundelkhand
(B) Avadh
(C) Purvanchal
(D) Rohilkhand
Ans : (A)

11. Which trade zone of Uttar Pradesh tops in the collection of trade tax ?
(A) Ghaziabad
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Noida
Ans : (A)

12. Assertion (A) : Uttar Pradesh shares 9•4% of country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Reason (R) : Uttar Pradesh shares 66% of the total exports of the country.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

13. Which one of the following deals with the marketing of milk ?
(A) CACP
(B) GCMMF
(C) NAFED
(D) TRIFED
Ans : (B)

14. In Uttar Pradesh, the famous place of pilgrimage of both Jain and Baudh is at—
(A) Devipatan
(B) Kaushambi
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (B)

15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Industrial Establishments)(a) Indian Telephone Industries
(b) Transformer Factory
(c) Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation
(d) Fertilizer Factory
List-II (City)1. Kanpur
2. Rae Bareli
3. Jhansi
4. Phoolpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (C)

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List–I (Fair)
(a) Govind Saheb
(b) Kailash Mela
(c) Syed Salar
(d) Shakumbhari Devi
List-II (District)
1. Bahraich
2. Saharanpur
3. Azamgarh
4. Agra
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (B)

17. Arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order of population (2001) and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Allahabad
2. Gorakhpur
3. Lucknow
4. Mathura
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans : (C)

18. Who among the following did not contribute to the cultural activities of Lucknow ?
(A) Binda Deen
(B) Ustad Dulhe Khan
(C) Menhdi
(D) Ilias Khan
Ans : (C)

19. Under the international agreement on agriculture the Green Box includes economic assistance for—
1. Agricultural Research
2. Fertilizer
3. Irrigation
4. Plant Protection
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

20. Assertion (A) : Aluminium is the green metal.
Reason (R) : It provides replacement of wood for saving forest.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Ans : (D)

21. A ‘Letter of Credit’ is produced by—
(A) An exporter
(B) An importer
(C) Both by exporter and importer
(D) Shipping company
Ans : (C)

22. The theory of trusteeship of the business assest was pronounced by—
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (B)

23. Treasury bills are sold in India by—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Governments
(C) Commercial Banks
(D) SEBI
Ans : (A)

24. In U.P. Value Added Tax (VAT) was levied with effect from—
(A) 1st April, 2007
(B) 1st January, 2008
(C) 1st January, 2009
(D) 1st April, 2008
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following organisations is involved in providing the insurance against various risks to the exporters ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Trading Corporation of India
(C) EXIM Bank
(D) Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation
Ans : (D)

26. ‘Principle of Indemnity’ does not apply to—
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Marine Insurance
(C) Fire Insurance
(D) All the above
Ans : (A)

27. “Everything else can wait, but not agriculture.”
The above statement is attributed to—
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)

28. Consider the following statements—
1. The third rail coach factory is being established at Amethi in U.P.
2. Firozabad in U.P. is famous for pottery industry.
3. U.P. DESCO is a Corporation under the Electronics Department.
4. The first polyester fibre factory in U.P. has been set up at Barabanki.
Of these statements—
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans : (D)

29. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest industrial growth rate during—
(A) 5th Five Year Plan
(B) 6th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) 11th Five Year Plan
Ans : (B)

30. ‘Inside trading’ is related to—
(A) Public Expenditure
(B) Taxation
(C) Share Market
(D) Hawala
Ans : (C)

31. In Uttar Pradesh, the festival ‘Sulah Kul’ a symbol of Hindu-Muslim unity is organised in—
(A) Meerut
(B) Aligarh
(C) Lucknow
(D) Agra
Ans : (D)

32. The Operation Green Project was launched in U.P. in—
(A) 1952
(B) 1995
(C) 2001
(D) 2005
Ans : (C)

33. The North-South and East-West corridors meet at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (A)

34. Which one of the following is not correctly matched in the context of U.P. ?
(A) Food Research and Analysis Centre —Lucknow
(B) Food Park —Noida
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University —Meerut
(D) Indian Pulses Research Institute —Agra
Ans : (D)

35. The famous painting Satyam Shivam Sundaram was prepared by—
(A) Sd. Shobha Singh
(B) Nandkishore Sharma
(C) Shivnandan Nautiyal
(D) Vishwanath Mehta
Ans : (A)

36. The Centre for CAD—‘Computer Aided Designing’ Project in Uttar Pradesh is located at—
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

37. Consider the following statements—
1. India’s first EPZ was set up in 1965.
2. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy in India was formulated in 2000.
3. Vadodara is famous for Patola Silk.
4. Panna in Madhya Pradesh is famous gold mines.
Of these statements—
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (A)

38. The urban population of the world out-excelled its rural population in—
(A) 2001
(B) 2004
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Ans : (D)

39. Navdatoli is situated in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

40. Which of the following classical works of literature were written during the Gupta Era ?
1. Amarkosh
2. Kamsutra
3. Meghduta
4. Mudrarakshas
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

41. In ancient India the irrigation tax was called—
(A) Bidakabhagam
(B) Hiranya
(C) Udranga
(D) Uparnika
Ans : (C)

42. The famous rock-out temples of Elephanta are ascribed to the—
(A) Chalukyas
(B) Cholas
(C) Pallavas
(D) Rashtrakutas
Ans : (D)

43. Who represented the Indian National Congress in the Partition Council headed by Lord Mountbatten ?
1. Abul Kalam Azad
2. Jawahar Lal Nehru
3. Sardar Patel
4. Rajendra Prasad
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (B)

44. Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed the policy of ‘blood and iron’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Jalaluddin Firoz Khalji
(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Tarikh-i-Hind
(b) Tarikh-i-Dilli
(c) Rehla
(d) Tabqat-i-Nasiri
List-II
1. Ibn Batuta
2. Minhaj
3. Alberuni
4. Khusrau
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)

46. Which medieval ruler introduced the system of ‘patta’ and ‘qabuliyat’ to help the peasants ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Giyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sher Shah
Ans : (D)

47. Saint Ramdas is associated with the period of rule of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Jehangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (A)

48. Which is the correct chronological order of the following ?
I. Cripps Mission
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Simon Commission
IV. Partition of the country
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, I, IV, III
(C) II, I, III, IV
(D) III, II, I, IV
Ans : (D)

49. Ash mound is associated with the Neolithic site at—
(A) Budihal
(B) Sangan Kallu
(C) Koldihwa
(D) Brahmgiri
Ans : (A)

50. Who had the longest tenure as the Viceroy of India ?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Mayo
Ans : (A)

51. The famous book ‘The Alphabet’ was written by—
(A) Buhler
(B) David Diringer
(C) G. S. Ojha
(D) Sir William Johns
Ans : (B)

52. Which of the following inscriptions tells about the Aryan’s movement from Iran to India ?
(A) Man Sehra
(B) Shahbajgarhi
(C) Boghajkoi
(D) Junagarh
Ans : (C)

53. Satya Shodhak Movement was launched by—
(A) Chhatrapati Sahuji Maharaj
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Jyotirao Phule
(D) T. N. Nair
Ans : (C)

54. Under whose Governor-Generalship was the Vernacular Act repealed ?
(A) Lord Ripon
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Dufferin
Ans : (A)

55. Which of the following sources gives a detailed account of city administration of the Mauryas ?
(A) Kautilya’s Arthashastra
(B) Megasthanese’s Indica
(C) Mudrarakshasa of Vishakha Datta
(D) Inscription of Ashoka
Ans : (B)

56. Which one of the following is not true about the Mughal Mansabdari System ?
(A) There were 33 divisions
(B) They got conditional or Mashrut rank
(C) Their ‘Sawar’ rank could exceed the ‘Zat’ rank
(D) All civil and military officers were given mansabs
Ans : (D)

57. With which Army General (Commander) did Shivaji sign the ‘Treaty of Purandhara’ (1665 AD) ?
(A) Jai Singh
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Shaiyasta Khan
(D) Afzal Khan
Ans : (A)

58. “The British Government is not responsible for the partition of India.” The above statement is attributed to—
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Lord Attlee
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (B)

59. Who among the following emperors may be called ‘an enlightened despot’ ?
(A) Babur
(B) Humayun
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (D)

60. Which of the following Kings is credited to have issued gold coins for the first time ?
(A) Kujula Kadphisa
(B) Wim Kadphisa
(C) Kanishka I
(D) Huviska
Ans : (B)

61. Who among the following has been called as a ‘Heaven Born General’ ?
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Robert Clive
(C) Francis Dupleix
(D) Lord Cornwallis
Ans : (B)

62. Tipu Sultan defeated the British army in 1780 at—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Pollilur
(C) Srirangapatnam
(D) Nizamabad
Ans : (B)

63. During which one of the following battles, did Babur declare ‘Jehad’ ?
(A) Battle of Panipat
(B) Battle of Khanwa
(C) Battle of Chanderi
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

64. Mahatma Gandhi launched the first Satyagraha campaign in—
(A) Bardoli
(B) Baroda
(C) Champaran
(D) Dandi
Ans : (C)

65. Yugantar Party was led by—
(A) Jatindranath Mukherjee
(B) Sachindranath Sanyal
(C) Rashbehari Bose
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans : (A)

66. The Mughal style of painting was initiated by—
(A) Akbar
(B) Humayun
(C) Jehangir
(D) Shah Jahan
Ans : (B)

67. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Unhappy India —Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Durgesh Nandini —Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(C) India Wins Freedom —Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Poverty and Un British rule in India —Dadabhai Naoroji
Ans : (A)

68. Read the following events connected with the Indian National Movement—
1. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress – 1931
2. Execution of Rajguru
3. Gandhi Irwin Pact
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 3, 2, 1
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 1
(D) 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)

69. The statement, “We shall either free India or die in the attempt.” is associated with—
(A) Non-cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Individual Satyagraha
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (D)

70. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation was read out by Lord Canning on 1st November, 1858 at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Calcutta
(C) Bombay
(D) Madras
Ans : (A)

71. The book ‘Mountbatten and the Partition of India’ was written by—
(A) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
(B) M. N. Das
(C) Louis Fischer
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

72. Which Sultan of Delhi brought Ashoka’s Pillar to Delhi ?
(A) Firozshah Tughlaq
(B) Jalaluddin Khilji
(C) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
Ans : (A)

73. Name the tribe which does not belong to the Panchajana of Rig Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Yadu
(B) Puru
(C) Turvasa
(D) Kikat
Ans : (D)

74. The first society founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy was—
(A) Brahma Samaj
(B) Atmiya Sabha
(C) Brahma Sabha
(D) Tatvabodhini Sabha
Ans : (B)

75. The Sarnath Buddha image of Bhumisparshmudra belongs to—
(A) Mauryan period
(B) Sunga period
(C) Kushana period
(D) Gupta period
Ans : (C)

76. Who among the following medieval scholars/writers belonged to the Jain religion ?
(A) Maladhar Vasu
(B) Hemchandra Suri
(C) Parthasarthi
(D) Saayan
Ans : (B)

77. In which of the Vedas, Sabha and Samiti are called as two daughters of Prajapati ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (D)

78. The Poorna Swaraj Resolution adopted at the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress was moved by—
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) J. L. Nehru
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)

79. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Babur —Tuzuk-i-Babari
(B) Humayun —Humayun Namah
(C) Sher Shah —Tarikh-i-Sher Shahi
(D) Akbar —Tabkat-i-Akbari
Ans : (A)

80. Which country has the largest percentage of its total area under forests ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Surinam
(D) Guyana
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Great Himalayan National Park —Manali
(B) Rajaji National Park —Dehradun
(C) Keoladeo National Park —Bharatpur
(D) Van Vihar National Park —Jabalpur
Ans : (C)

82. The most polluted city of India is—
(A) Ankleshwar
(B) Lucknow
(C) Ludhiana
(D) Raipur
Ans : (A)

83. The garden of five seasons is located near—
(A) Dal Lake
(B) Mehrauli
(C) Silent Valley
(D) Ooty
Ans : (B)

84. Which one of the following does not find a place in UNESCO network of biosphere reserve ?
(A) Sunderban
(B) Gulf of Mannar
(C) Rann of Kutch
(D) Nilgiri
Ans : (C)

85. The growth rate of population in U.P. out-excelled the national growth rate during—
(A) 1941–51
(B) 1951–61
(C) 1961–71
(D) 1971–81
Ans : (D)

86. Which one of the following points does not figure in the 10-year Action Plan formulated under the National Population Policy ?
(A) Greater involvement of members of self help groups
(B) Free and compulsory elementary education
(C) Compulsory registration of marriages and pregnancy
(D) Special reward for men who adopt terminal family planning methods
Ans : (A)

87. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their population density (2001).
Use the codes given below to select the correct answer—
1. Bihar
2. Kerala
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Codes :(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 4, 1, 3, 2
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans : (C)

88. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest growth rate of urban population during—
(A) 1961–71
(B) 1971–81
(C) 1981–91
(D) 1991–2001
Ans : (D)

89. The population of Uttar Pradesh out-excels that of—
1. Brazil
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Russia
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

90. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their slum population. Use the codes given below to select the correct answer—
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Codes :(A) 2, 1, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (A)

91. In India, the largest percentage of decadal growth of urbanization has been witnessed during—
(A) 1961–71
(B) 1971–81
(C) 1981–91
(D) 1991–2001
Ans : (B)

92. Urban corridors are concerned with—
(A) Expanding urban functions
(B) Urban transport hazards
(C) Rural-urban fringe
(D) Counter-urbanisation
Ans : (A)

93. The two leading producers of coffee in the world are—
(A) Brazil and Columbia
(B) Brazil and Vietnam
(C) Mexico and India
(D) Ethiopia and Mexico
Ans : (B)

94. Three leading producers of coal in descending order are—
(A) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Orissa
(B) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Orissa
(C) Orissa, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
(D) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)

95. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I
(a) Windhoek
(b) Accra
(c) Nairobi
(d) Lusaka
List-II1. Kenya
2. Namibia
3. Ghana
4. Zambia
Codes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (B)

96. Africa’s highest mountain peak Mt. Kilimanjaro lies—
(A) Kenya
(B) Malawi
(C) Tanzania
(D) Zambia
Ans : (C)

97. The Horn of Africa does not include—
(A) Ethiopia
(B) Eritrea
(C) Somalia
(D) Sudan
Ans : (D)

98. The Death Valley of the U.S.A. lies in the State of—
(A) Alaska
(B) California
(C) Maine
(D) Atlanta
Ans : (B)

99. The largest reserves of uranium are found in—
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Kazakhstan
(D) South Africa
Ans : (B)

100. The Inuit people are not found in—
(A) Alaska
(B) Greenland
(C) Canada
(D) Sweden
Ans : (D)

101. Hagari is a tributary of—
(A) Bhima
(B) Godavari
(C) Krishna
(D) Tungbhadra
Ans : (D)

102. The leading producer of tin in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)

103. The production of wheat in India during 2006-07 and 2009-10 has—
(A) Maintained an upward trend
(B) Experienced a shortfall
(C) Experienced fluctuations
(D) Remained stagnant
Ans : (A)

104. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Amguri – Petroleum
(B) Lanjgarh – Bauxite
(C) Kamptee – Copper
(D) Bellary – Iron ore
Ans : (C)

105. The leading producer of Titanium in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) Russia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans : (C)

106. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
Power Projects – States
(A) Jawahar Sagar – Rajasthan
(B) Nagarjun Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
(C) Sivasamudram – Kerala
(D) Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)

107. Assertion (A) : There is a shortage of pulses but not of protein in India.
Reason (R) : The demand for pulses remains a priority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

108. Which one of the following is the longest inland waterways of the country ?
(A) Kakinada – Marakkam
(B) Kollam – Kottapuram
(C) Sadia – Dhubri
(D) Allahabad – Haldia
Ans : (D)

109. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their rice production and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Punjab
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 1, 3, 2
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (C)

110. Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic State in—
(A) 1950
(B) 1953
(C) 1956
(D) 1961
Ans : (B)

111. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Amlai —Chhattisgarh
(B) Ballarpur —Maharashtra
(C) Brajrajnagar —Orissa
(D) Rajahmundry —Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (A)

112. The two largest consumers of chemical fertilizers in India are—
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(B) Punjab and Haryana
(C) Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)

113. United Nations Organization has designated 2010 as ‘International Year for the Youth’. From which date does the international year for the youth begin ?
(A) January 1, 2010
(B) August 1, 2010
(C) August 12, 2010
(D) January 12, 2010
Ans : (C)

114. To safeguard against cyber attacks and threats of data theft the ‘Centre for Development of Advanced Computing’ has developed a new software called—
(A) AVARODH
(B) NAYAN
(C) TRIKAL
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

115. The Oscar Award 2010 for the best film was given to—
(A) Crazy Heart
(B) The Blind Side
(C) The Cove
(D) The Hurt Locker
Ans : (D)

116. Which one of NTPC plants is not gas-based ?
(A) Auraiya
(B) Aonla
(C) Dadri
(D) Tanda
Ans : (D)

117. According to a survey conducted by the ‘National Council for Applied Economic Research’ (data released recently), which State in India has the highest percentage of population below the poverty line ?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Bihar
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)

118. India concluded its ‘Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement’ with U.K. in—
(A) February 2010
(B) January 2010
(C) March 2010
(D) April 2010
Ans : (A)

119. Who has been chosen to head the Coalition Government in U.K. as a result of Parliamentary elections of May 6, 2010 ?
(A) Nick Clegg
(B) Tony Blair
(C) David Cameron
(D) Margaret Thatcher
Ans : (C)

120. The countries between which the ‘Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty’ (START) was signed in April, 2010 are—
(A) U.S.A. and Russia
(B) Russia and China
(C) U.S.A. and China
(D) U.S.A. and North Korea
Ans : (A)

121. The air crash which occurred in April 2010 and resulted in the death of the President of Poland, took place in—
(A) Poland
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
Ans : (B)

122. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear reactors at Kundankulam in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (A)

123. The President of which Central Asian country fled from his country in April 2010 and submitted his resignation ?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B) Kyrgyzstan
(C) Turkmenistan
(D) Uzbekistan
Ans : (B)

124. The official code name of the Pokhran nuclear test–1974, was—
(A) Smiling Buddha
(B) Thunder Bolt
(C) Flying Garud
(D) Agni Pareeksha
Ans : (A)

125. Garima II is the name of a—
(A) Cloned buffalo
(B) Cloned cow
(C) Cloned sheep
(D) BT tomato
Ans : (A)

126. Who, of the following, has been appointed as Chairman of Mumbai Stock Exchange in March 2010 ?
(A) Prof. Rakesh Mohan
(B) Prof. Bhagwati
(C) S. Rama Dorai
(D) Prof. Manoranjan Mishra
Ans : (C)

127. The International Youth Festival held in August 2010, was in—
(A) Mexico city
(B) Moscow
(C) Beijing
(D) Tokyo
Ans : (B)

128. Which one of the following statements about Brahmos is not correct ?
(A) It is supersonic cruise missile
(B) It has been built in India in collaboration with Russia
(C) It was successfully test-fired in Bay of Bengal on 22 March, 2010
(D) Its flight range is 400 km.
Ans : (D)

129. Who is not a recipient of International Gandhi Peace Prize ?
(A) Dasmond Tutu
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Aung Suu Kyi
(D) Shabana Azmi
Ans : (D)

130. The Fourth Ministerial Meet of the WTO was held at—
(A) Singapore
(B) Geneva
(C) Seattle
(D) Doha
Ans : (D)

131. Who among the following is not included in the list of artists in whose memory, the Indian Post and Telegraph Department has declared on February 24, 2010 to issue postal stamps ?
(A) Kanan Devi
(B) Meena Kumari
(C) Nutan
(D) Madhubala
Ans : (C)

132. What percentage of central tax revenue has been recommended for allocation to the States by the Thirteenth Finance Commission ?
(A) 30•5%
(B) 31•0%
(C) 32•0%
(D) 32•5%
Ans : (C)

133. As per Budget Estimates 2010-11, presented to Parliament on 26-2-10, arrange the following sectors in descending order as per their Central Plan outlay.
1. Rural Development
2. Energy
3. Transport
4. Social Services
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 4, 3, 1
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (D)

134. The new W.P.I. series was introduced on—
(A) 1 April, 2010
(B) 1 July, 2010
(C) 15 August, 2010
(D) 14 September, 2010
Ans : (D)

135. The man who won 3 Grand Slams during 2010 is—
(A) Andre Agassi
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(D) Roy Emerson
Ans : (B)

136. The brand name of 16 digit unique identification number to be assigned to each individual in the country will be—
(A) Pehchan
(B) Maadhyam
(C) Aadhar
(D) Aabhar
Ans : (C)

137. Physicists at the National Institute of Standards and Technology (USA) have built an atomic clock; now recognised as the world’s most precise clock. It is based on—
(A) Mercury atom
(B) Titanium atom
(C) Platinum atom
(D) Aluminium atom
Ans : (D)

138. The book, ‘The Proudest Day’ was authored by—
(A) Alok Bhalla
(B) Durga Das
(C) Chandra Kumar and Mohinder Puri
(D) Anthony Read and David Fisher
Ans : (D)

139. Who, out of the following, has been included in the ‘Hall of Fame’ by I.C.C. in March 2010 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Anil Kumble
Ans : (C)

140. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Deepak Chopra —Physician
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri —Actress
(C) Sunita Williams—Astronaut
(D) Zubin Mehta —Western Music
Ans : (B)

141. Jnanpith Award for 2008 was given to—
(A) Ali Sardar Jafri
(B) Akhlaq Khan Shaharyar
(C) Qurratul Hyder
(D) Raghupati Sahai Firaq
Ans : (B)

142. The 2010 Nobel Prize in Literature was won by—
(A) Herta Muller
(B) Andre Gein
(C) Vargas Lioss
(D) K. Novoselvo
Ans : (C)

143. The first Indian who won the Wrestling World Championship–2010 is—
(A) Anil Kumar
(B) Rajendra Kumar
(C) Ravinder Singh
(D) Sushil Kumar
Ans : (D)

144. Who of the following won the Boxing World Championship 5 time in a row ?
(A) Ravi Bala Charu
(B) Ravi Katulu
(C) M. C. Marykom
(D) Amandeep Singh
Ans : (C)

145. Assertion (A) : Organic farming reduces the emission of greenhouse gases.
Reason (R) : It releases in the absorption of CO2 in the soil.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

146. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I(a) Priya Pravas
(b) Gaban
(c) Eternal India
(d) Shahnama
List-II
1. Indira Gandhi
2. Ayodhya Prasad
3. Prem Chand
4. Firdausi
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (B)

147. Breeding work on sugarcane is being done at—
(A) Lucknow
(B) Shahjahanpur
(C) Shravasti
(D) Coimbatore
Ans : (D)

148. Tungo Virus of rice is transmitted by—
(A) Stem borer
(B) Gundhi bug
(C) Gall midge
(D) Green leaf hopper
Ans : (D)

149. Pulse crop which does not fix atmospheric nitrogen is—
(A) Gram
(B) Pea
(C) Rajma
(D) Moong
Ans : (C)

150. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Wheat – Phalaris minor
(B) Potato – Late blight
(C) Bajra – Ergot
(D) Sugarcane – Powdery mildew
Ans : (D)

Saturday, February 5, 2011

U.P.P.S.C General Studies Solved Paper 2011


1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at—
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak

Ans : (C)

2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist

Ans : (B)

3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena

Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta

Ans : (A)

5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala

Ans : (A)

6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath

Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena

Ans : (B)

9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh

Ans : (C)

10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji

Ans : (A)

11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal

Ans : (B)

12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb

Ans : (C)

13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I

Ans : (B)

14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri

Ans : (A)

15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh

Ans : (B)

17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese

Ans : (D)

18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery

Ans : (D)

19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua

Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892

Ans : (A)

21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—

(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta

Ans : (A)

22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry

Ans : (B)

23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference

Ans : (C)

24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings

Ans : (A)

25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale

Ans : (A)

26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

Ans : (C)

27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange

Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a
protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj

Ans : (C)

29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad

Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi

Ans : (A)

31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal

Ans : (D)

32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given
below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2

Ans : (A)

33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4

Ans : (A)

34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 "a car which has brake but no engine" ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose

Ans : (A)

35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal

Ans : (B)

36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave

Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague

Ans : (C)

38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947

Ans : (C)

39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas

Ans : (B)

41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3

Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

Ans : (C)

43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi

Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer

Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander

Ans : (C)

46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Ans : (D)

48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’
to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill

Ans : (A)

49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand

Ans : (B)

50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia

Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya

Ans : (B)

53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India

Ans : (A)

54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087

Ans : (A)

55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada

Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above

Ans : (D)

57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI

Ans : (D)

58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans : (B)

59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006

Ans : (C)

61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland

Ans : (D)

62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans : (A)

63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974

Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992

64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka

Ans : (B)

65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933

Ans : (D)

66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (C)

67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand

Ans : (B)

68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (B)

69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931

Ans : (B)

70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Ans : (D)

71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore

Ans : (D)

72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan

Ans : (D)

73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya

Ans : (A)

74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan

Ans : (B)

75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman

Ans : (D)

76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China

Ans : (A)

77. The Equator passes through—

(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela

Ans : (B)

78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas

Ans : (A)

79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : Incorrect Options

80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat

Ans : (D)

81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter

Ans : (C)

82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia

Ans : (C)

83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla

Ans : (B)

84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand

Ans : (B)

85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand

Ans : (B)

86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi

Ans : (C)

87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari

Ans : (C)

88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits

Ans : (A)

90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests

Ans : (A)

91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum

Ans : (D)

92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau

Ans : (A)

93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995

Ans : (C)

94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad

Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota

Ans : (A)

96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA

Ans : (C)

97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009

Ans : (C)

98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai

Ans : (C)

99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte

Ans : (B)

100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B) 

101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal

Ans : (B)

102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar

Ans : (D)

103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader

Ans : (B)

104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri

Ans : (B)

105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan

Ans : (B)

106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg

Ans : (D)

107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni

Ans : (D)

109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra

Ans : (D)

110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea

Ans : (D)

111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (A)

112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball

Ans : (D)

113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting

Ans : (D)

114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath

Ans : (C)

115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE

Ans : (B)

116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan

Ans : (B)

117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping

Ans : (D)

118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut

Ans : (A)

119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar

Ans : (A)

120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt

Ans : (C)

121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar

Ans : (B)

122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut

Ans : (B)

123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans : (B)

124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum

Ans : (A)

125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

126. Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea
coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)

127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (C)

128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra

Ans : (B)

129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank

Ans : (C)

130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air

Ans : (A)

131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement

Ans : (B)

132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva

Ans : (B)

133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade

Ans : (A)

134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy

Ans : (B)

135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai

Ans : (C)

136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling

Ans : (A)

137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York

Ans : (B)

138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi

Ans : (B)

139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km

Ans : (A)

140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir

Ans : (B)

141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats

Ans : (C)

142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America

Ans : (A)

143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22

Ans : (D)

144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga

Ans : (D)

145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur

Ans : (A)

146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes

Ans : (A)

147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia

Ans : (B)

148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad

Ans : (A)

149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur

Ans : (C)

150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi

Ans : (C)