1. Which of the following is the Currency of Bahrain ?
(A) Peso (B) Dinar (C) Riyal
(D) Baht (5) Kwacha
Ans : (B)
2. Which of the following organisations/bodies formulates the rule of international trade among/between the nations ?
(A) World Trade Organisation (B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund (D) World Bank
(5) United Nations Development Programme
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following services is provided only by the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Compilation of economic data (B) Issue of currency notes
(C) Purchase and sale of gold/gold coins (D) Sale of Demand Drafts
(5) Safe deposit lockers for keeping valuables
Ans : (B)
4. Which of the following Committees/Task Force was set up to suggest reforms in Banking Sector ?
(A) Task Force on Infrastructure (B) Narasimham Committee
(C) Rajinder-Sachar Committee (D) Swaminathan Committee
(5) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. Pranab Mukherjee won the Presidential election against–
(A) P. A. Sangma (B) Pratibha Pail (C) Hamid Ansari
(D) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (5) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. ‘SEBI’ Tightens Consent Normswas the headline in some papers/magazines recently. What is the full form of SEBI ?
(A) Secured Economy Bureau of India (B) Small Economy Based Investment
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (D) Severe Ecological Balance and Internet
(5) Society for Ecological Balance and Internet
Ans : (C)
7. Which of the following is the Capital of Australia?
(A) Perth (B) Sydney (C) Hobart
(D) Darwin (5) Canberra
Ans : (5)
8. Which of the following nations is not the member of OPEC ?
(A) Algeria (B) Iran (C) Libya
(D) Qatar (5) France
Ans : (5)
9. Ms. Christine Lagarde is the–
(A) Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) (B) President, World Bank
(C) Secretary General of UNO (D) Foreign Minister of Russia
(5) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Baseline (B) Chop (C) Back Pass
(D) Drop Shot (5) Grand Slam
Ans : (C)
11. Which of the following is a Public Sector Undertaking ?
(A) AXIS Bank (B) Reliance Power (C) Hindustan Motors
(D) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. (5) Ambuja Cements
Ans : (D)
12. Ms. Hillary Clinton who was on a visit to India in May 2012 is the Secretary of State of–
(A) Britain (B) France (C) USA
(D) Germany (5) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. The 6th World Water Forum was organised in March 2012 in–
(A) London (B) Tokyo (C) Perth
(D) Berlin (5) Marseilles
Ans : (5)
14. Which of the following countries had launched a Spy Satellite Kobalt-M in May 2012?
(A) France (B) China (C) Iran
(D) Russia (5) USA
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following countries is the newest member of the FIFA ?
(A) South Sudan (B) Bangladesh (C) Brazil
(D) Cuba (5) Chile
Ans : (A)
16. Which of the following is the name of a Patton Tank developed in India?
(A) Agni (B) Arjun (C) Shakti
(D) Basant (5) Pawan
Ans : (B)
17. Jim Yong Kim has taken over as the new President of–
(A) World Bank (B) IMF (C) ADB
(D) UNESCO (5) Bank of America
Ans : (A)
18. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8
(D) 9 (5) None of these
Ans : (5)
19. Which of the following is a food grain grown in India ?
(A) Rose (B) Mustard (C) Sunflower
(D) Banana (5) Paddy
Ans : (5)
20. Dr. D. Subbarao is a well known name in the field of–
(A) Science & Technology (B) Politics (C) Sports
(D) Banking (5) Literature
Ans : (D)
21. Viswanathan Anand is a world famous–
(A) Cricket player (B) Chess player (C) Hockey player
(D) Golf player (5) Lawn Tennis player
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following is decided by the RBI?
(A) Interest rate on time deposits (B) Rent of safe deposit vaults
(C) Inflation Rate (D) Dearness Allowance to Govt. Employees
(5) Cash Reserve Ratio
Ans : (5)
23. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a period of–
(A) 4 years (B) 5 years (C) 6 years
(D) 3 years (5) 6 1/2 years
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following Acts ensures that every child gets school education?
(A) RTI Act (B) RTE Act (C) Apprentice Act
(D) Govt. Grants Act (5) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. Which of the following books is written by Anita Desai ?
(A) Where Shall We Go This Summer (B) A General and His Army
(C) An Eye to China (D) Between Hope and History (5) Coolie
Ans : (A)
26. Which of the following Awards is given to Cine persons for their life time achievement ?
(A) Saraswati Samman (B) Kalidas Samman (C) Arjuna Award
(D) Dada Saheb Phalke Award (5) Kirti Chakra
Ans : (D)
27. Commonwealth Games-2014 will be organised in–
(A) London (B) New Delhi (C) Glasgow
(D) Toronto (5) Wellington
Ans : (C)
28. Who among the following is a Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet?
(A) Sachin Pilot (B) Milind Deora (C) A. K. Antony
(D) Rahul Gandhi (5) None of these
Ans : (C)
29. Which of the following statements is true about Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana launched by the Government of India?
(A) This scheme is only for children upto 14 years of age
(B) Scheme was launched in 1983 but was withdrawn in 2000
(C) In 12th Five-Year Plan about 7 crore families will be provided insurance cover under the scheme
(D) All those-who are above 60 will get an insurance cover of Rs. 10 lakh
(5) None of these
Ans : (5)
30. What does the letter ‘C’ denote in the term ‘CBS’ as used in banking operations ?
(A) Central (B) Critical (C) Commercial
(D) Core (5) Capital
Ans : (D)
31. Who among the following is the Foreign Secretary of India at present ?
(A) Ajit Seth (B) S. K. Tripathi (C) Pulok Chatterjee
(D) Mukul Joshi (5) None of these
Ans : (5)
32. Who among the following was a famous author of Sanskrit language ?
(A) Kalidas (B) Mirabai (D) Tulsidas
(D) Jaidev (5) Raskhan
Ans : (C)
33. Deepika Kumari’s name is associated with–
(A) Swimming (B) Archery (C) Billiards
(D) Golf (5) Cricket
Ans : (B)
34. Which of the following countries has imposed new sanctions on Iran and Syria?
(A) India (B) Sri Lanka (C) Russia
(D) USA (5) South Africa
Ans : (D)
35. Which of the following places in India does not have a nuclear power plant?
(A) Narora (B) Rawatbhata (C) Silchar
(D) Tarapore (5) Kalpakkam
Ans : (C)
36. Who among the following is from Trinamool Congress Party ?
(A) Srikant Jena (B) Navin Jindal (C) Gurudas Dasgupta
(D) Dinesh Trivedi (5) Sanjay Nirupam
Ans : (D)
37. Which of the following terms is not associated with banking/finance?
(A) RTGS (B) SLR (C) Repo Rate
(D) Credit (5) LBW
Ans : (5)
38. Oscar Awards are given in the field of–
(A) Economics (B) Social Service (C) Literature
(D) Films (5) Sports
Ans : (D)
39. Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Cricket?
(A) Ranji Trophy (B) Davis Cup (C) Thomas Cup
(D) Nehru Trophy (5) Agha Khan Cup
Ans : (A)
40. Which of the following is a Union Territory of India ?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Chandigarh (C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Kerala (5) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
Showing posts with label IBPS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label IBPS. Show all posts
Sunday, September 22, 2013
Thursday, December 8, 2011
IBPS Probationary Officers Written Exam., 2011
Computer Knowledge
(Held on 18-9-2011)
1. Computer uses the……….number system to store data and perform calculations.
(A) binary
(B) octal
(C) decimal
(D) hexadecimal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is–
(A) Memory-only
(B) Write-only
(C) Once-only
(D) Run-only
(E) Read-only
Ans : (E)
3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document ?
(A) CTRL+A
(B) ALT+F5
(C) SHIFT+A
(D) CTRL+K
(E) CTRL+H
Ans : (A)
4. ……….are 'attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
(A) Phishing
(B) Computer viruses
(C) Spyware scams
(D) Viruses
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)
5. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of–
(A) control
(B) output
(C) processing
(D) feedback
(E) input
Ans : (E)
6. A Web site's main page is called its–
(A) Home Page
(B) Browser Page
(C) Search Page
(D) Bookmark
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is–
(A) multiprogramming
(B) multitasking
(C) time-sharing
(D) multiprocessing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as–
(A) an ASCII code
(B) a magnetic tape
(C) an OCR scanner
(D) a bar code
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the button and then point to AutoFit Contents.
(A) Fit to Form
(B) Format
(C) Autosize
(D) Contents
(E) AutoFit
Ans : (E)
10. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends ?
(A) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(B) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(C) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(D) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(E) It is not unethical-anyone can access a computer
Ans : (C)
11. Reusable optical storage will typica1ly have the acronym–
(A) CO
(B) DVD
(C) ROM
(D) RW
(E) ROS
Ans : (D)
12. The most common type of storage devices are–
(A) persistent
(B) optical
(C) magnetic
(D) flash
(E) steel
Ans : (D)
13. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be–
(A) distributed
(B) free
(C) centralized
(D) open source
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a–
(A) hacker
(B) analyst
(C) instant messenger
(D) programmer
(E) spammer
Ans : (A)
15. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is–
(A) dragging
(B) dropping
(C) right-clicking
(D) shift-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click–
(A) UPPERCASE
(B) UPPER ALL
(C) CAPS LOCK
(D) Lock Upper
(E) Large Size
Ans : (A)
17. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a–
(A) tab
(B) cell
(C) box
(D) range
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. You can keep your personal files / folders in–
(A) My folder
(B) My Documents
(C) My Files
(D) My Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. In Word you can force a page break–
(A) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(B) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter
(C) By using the Insert/Section Break
(D) By changing the font size of your document
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. A DVD is an example of a(n) –
(A) hard disk
(B) optical disc
(C) output device
(D) solid-state storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. The default view in Excel is……….view.
(A) Work
(B) Auto
(C) Normal
(D) Roman
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called–
(A) downloading
(B) uploading
(C) FTP
(D) JPEC
(E) downsizing
Ans : (A)
23. ……….is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(A) End
(B) Staft
(C) Turnoff
(D) Restart
(E) Reboot
Ans : (B)
25. The contents of……….are lost when the computer turns off.
(A) storage
(B) input
(C) output
(D) memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off–
(A) RAM
(B) Motherboard
(C) Secondary storage device
(D) Primary storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other computers is a(n) –
(A) supercomputer
(B) minicomputer
(C) laptop
(D) server
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. The……….folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
(A) Drafts
(B) Outbox
(C) Address Book
(D) Sent Items
(E) Inbox
Ans : (B)
29. Grouping and processing all of a firm's transactions at one time is called–
(A) a database management system
(B) batch processing
(C) a real-time system
(D) an on-line system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. The……….enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.
(A) tab box
(B) pop-up helper
(C) tab row
(D) address bar
(E) Esc key
Ans : (C)
31. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards ?
(A) BUS
(B) CPU
(C) USB
(D) MIDI
(E) MINI
Ans : (C)
32. You can……….a search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results.
(A) refine
(B) expand
(C) load
(D) query
(E) slowdown
Ans : (A)
33. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(A) RAM
(B) Floppy
(C) CPU
(D) CO-ROM
(E) ROM
Ans : (E)
34. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel ?
(A) Name box
(B) Row Headings
(C) Formula bar
(D) Task pane
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel over telephone lines is called a–
(A) red wire
(B) blue cord
(C) tower
(D) modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
36. Video processors consist of……….and………., which store and process images.
(A) CPU and VGA
(B) CPU and memory
(C) VGA and memory
(D) VGI and DVI
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. If you want to connect to your own computer through the Internet from another location, you can use–
(A) e-mail
(B) FTP
(C) instant message
(D) Telnet
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. To reload a Web page, press the……….button.
(A) Redo
(B) Reload
(C) Restore
(D) Ctrl
(E) Refresh
Ans : (E)
39. This first step in the transaction processing cycle captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website–
(A) Document and report generation
(B) Database maintenance
(C) Transaction processing startup
(D) Data Entry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. A(n) ……….is a special visual and audio effect applied in Power-point to text or content.
(A) animation
(B) flash
(C) wipe
(D) dissolve
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. When the pointer is positioned on a……….it is shaped like a hand.
(A) grammar error
(B) Formatting error
(C) Screen Tip
(D) Spelling error
(E) hyperlink
Ans : (E)
42. Personal computers can be connected together to form a–
(A) server
(B) supercomputer
(C) network
(D) enterprise
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
43. A……….is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
(A) blog
(B) hit
(C) link
(D) view
(E) success
Ans : (E)
44. ……….are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control words
(B) Control structures
(C) Reserved words
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
45. Mobile Commerce is best described as–
(A) The use of Kiosks in marketing
(B) Transporting products
(C) Buying and selling goods/services through wireless handheld devices
(D) Using notebook PC's in marketing
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
46. Which of, the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information–
(A) floppy diskette
(B) hard disk
(C) permanent disk
(D) optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. The computer abbreviation KB usually means–
(A) Key Block
(B) Kernel Boot
(C) Key Byte
(D) Kit Bit
(E) Kilo Byte
Ans : (E)
48. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called?
(A) Configuration
(B) Download
(C) Storage
(D) Upload
(E) Installation
Ans : (D)
49. In Excel……….allows users to bring together copies of work-books that other users have worked on independently.
(A) Copying
(B) Merging
(C) Pasting
(D) Compiling
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
50. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
(A) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large, amount of data and information
(B) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
(C) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(D) An of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Saturday, December 3, 2011
IBPS CWE GENERAL AWARENESS MODEL PAPER
1. Lucas Papadesmos became the new Prime Minister of which of the following countries in November 2011?
1) Spain
2) Italy
3) Greece
4) Belgium
5) None of these
2. Which Indian city hosted the World Economic Forum's (WEF) Indian Economic Summit in November 2011?
1) Mumbai
2) New Delhi
3) Chennai
4) Bangalore
5) Hyderabad
3. Moshe Katsav has been sentenced to seven years in prison on the charges of sexual harassment and obstruction of justice. He was the 8th President of whi-ch of the following countries?
1) Iran
2) Israel
3) Syria
4) Sudan
5) Germany
4. Which former Australian cricketer's autobiography is titled 'Fierce Focus'?
1) Allan Border
2) Shane Warne
3) Steve Waugh
4) Greg Chappell
5) Adam Gilchrist
5. Which of the following teams lifted the Beighton Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) IOC
2) ONGC
3) Air India
4) Railways
5) None of these
6. Who became the first batsman in Test cricket history to score four centuries in successful fourth innings run chases in November 2011?
1) Hashim Amla
2) Graeme Smith
3) Ricky Ponting
4) Rahul Dravid
5) Sachin Tendulkar
7. Who was reelected as the Presid-ent of Liberia in November 2011?
1) Joseph Boakai
2) Gyude Bryant
3) William Tolbert
4) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
5) None of these
8. Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh addressed the People's Majlis recently. It is the Parliament of which of the following countries?
1) Iraq
2) Maldives
3) Lebanon
4) UAE
5) Saudi Arabia
9. Which country lifted the inaugural Sultan of Johor Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) Malaysia
2) Australia
3) India
4) South Korea
5) None of these
10. Which country test fired Jericho, a ballistic missile, in November 2011?
1) Pakistan
2) Israel
3) Iran
4) Iraq
5) None of these
11. Who is the winner of the National Premier Women's chess championship that was held in Chennai in November 2011?
1) Mary Ann Gomes
2) Eesha Karavade
3) Tania Sachdev
4) Nisha Mohota
5) Padmini Rout
12. Who is the first player to take 500 catches in Test cricket?
1) Rahul Dravid
2) Adam Gilchrist
3) Mark Boucher
4) Kumar Sangakkara
5) None of these
13. Joe Frazier died of liver cancer. In which of the following sports did he excel?
1) Golf
2) Boxing
3) Squash
4) Snooker
5) Weightlifting
14. Which city hosted the 23rd annual meeting of the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) in November 2011?
1) Canberra
2) Singapore
3) Seoul
4) Bangkok
5) Honolulu
15. Which of the following statements about the South Asian Association for Regional Coope-ration (SAARC) is/are true?
1) SAARC was started in 1985 with headquarters in Kathmandu.
2) It is dedicated to economic, technological, social and cultural development emphasizing collective self reliance.
3) Mohamed Nasheed is the present chairman of SAARC.
4) The 17th SAARC Summit was held in Addu city, Maldives in November 2011.
5) All the above are correct.
16. ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL), the overseas arm of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, has signed an agreement to take a 25 per cent stake in Satpayev oil block. In which country is Satpayev block located?
1) Russia
2) Mongolia
3) Ukraine
4) Kazakhstan
5) Kyrgyzstan
17. Which state became the first in the country to achieve total financial inclusion in September 2011? (Each household in the state has at least one bank account)
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Kerala
3) Karnataka
4) Manipur
5) Assam
18. DVC, NHPC, PGCIL and NTPC are the four public sector undertakings working in which of the following sectors?
1) Coal
2) Telecom
3) Power
4) Textiles
5) None of these
19. Who is the author of the book "India and Global Financial Crisis: Managing Money and Finance"?
1) P. Chidambaram
2) Pranab Mukherjee
3) C.Rangarajan
4) Y.V.Reddy
5) Bimal Jalan
20. What is the full form of NFSM?
1) National Food Security Mechanism
2) New Food Security Mechanism
3) National Food Security Mission
4) National Farmers Security Mechanism
5) None of these
21. India is not a member of which of the following organizations?
1) BRICS
2) IBSA
3) SAARC
4) OPEC
5) The Commonwealth
22. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
1) Rice
2) Wheat
3) Sorghum
4) Bajra
5) Ragi
23. What per cent of foreign direct investment (FDI) is allowed in apiculture (beekeeping) under controlled conditions?
1) 20%
2) 26%
3) 100%
4) 49%
5) None of these
24. The FDI limit in FM radio has been increased from the existing 20% to?
1) 26%
2) 51%
3) 49%
4) 100%
5) None of these
25. Which is the largest producer and the consumer of tea in the world?
1) Brazil
2) India
3) Indonesia
4) Pakistan
5) Vietnam
26. Which state has the highest number of operational special economic zones in India?
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Karnataka
3) Maharashtra
4) Kerala
5) Andhra Pradesh
27. Which of the following has become the first public sector company to introduce Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) for its employees?
1) NMDC
2) IOC
3) NALCO
4) NTPC
5) ONGC
28. Which of the following groups can be called financially excluded people?
1) Urban slum dwellers
2) Marginal farmers
3) Landless laborers
4) Unorganized sector employees
5) All the above
29. In which year was the Bank of Calcutta established?
1) 1802
2) 1805
3) 1806
4) 1809
5) 1800
30. Which of the following stock exchanges was initially known as "The Native Share & Stock Brokers Association"?
1) Bombay
2) Madras
3) Jaipur
4) Cochin
5) Uttar Pradesh
31. Who among the following served as the Finance Minister before becoming the President of India?
1) N.Sanjeeva Reddy
2) Pratibha Patil
3) R.Venkatraman
4) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
5) S.Radhakrishnan
32. Which bank has recently launched 'Everywhere Teller Machine' service in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh? (ETM allows debit card holders to withdraw upto Rs.1000 in cash per day from a Point of Sale terminal at select merchant outlets.)
1) ICICI Bank
2) Axis Bank
3) SBI
4) SBH
5) HDFC Bank
33. The Hindustan Copper Limited will develop an underground copper-ore mine at Malanjkhand with an investment of Rs.1,856 crore. In which state is this mine located?
1) Rajasthan
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Jharkhand
4) Orissa
5) Bihar
34. Alok Prasad is the Chief Executive Officer of which of the following industry associations?
1) ASSOCHAM
2) FICCI
3) MFIN
4) NASSCOM
5) None of these
35. Who is the chairman of the Wor-king Group on Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR) appointed by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Deepak Mohanty
2) Bimal Jalan
3) Usha Thorat
4) R.V.Gupta
5) None of these
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (5) 15. (5) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (5) 27. (3) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1)
1) Spain
2) Italy
3) Greece
4) Belgium
5) None of these
2. Which Indian city hosted the World Economic Forum's (WEF) Indian Economic Summit in November 2011?
1) Mumbai
2) New Delhi
3) Chennai
4) Bangalore
5) Hyderabad
3. Moshe Katsav has been sentenced to seven years in prison on the charges of sexual harassment and obstruction of justice. He was the 8th President of whi-ch of the following countries?
1) Iran
2) Israel
3) Syria
4) Sudan
5) Germany
4. Which former Australian cricketer's autobiography is titled 'Fierce Focus'?
1) Allan Border
2) Shane Warne
3) Steve Waugh
4) Greg Chappell
5) Adam Gilchrist
5. Which of the following teams lifted the Beighton Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) IOC
2) ONGC
3) Air India
4) Railways
5) None of these
6. Who became the first batsman in Test cricket history to score four centuries in successful fourth innings run chases in November 2011?
1) Hashim Amla
2) Graeme Smith
3) Ricky Ponting
4) Rahul Dravid
5) Sachin Tendulkar
7. Who was reelected as the Presid-ent of Liberia in November 2011?
1) Joseph Boakai
2) Gyude Bryant
3) William Tolbert
4) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
5) None of these
8. Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh addressed the People's Majlis recently. It is the Parliament of which of the following countries?
1) Iraq
2) Maldives
3) Lebanon
4) UAE
5) Saudi Arabia
9. Which country lifted the inaugural Sultan of Johor Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) Malaysia
2) Australia
3) India
4) South Korea
5) None of these
10. Which country test fired Jericho, a ballistic missile, in November 2011?
1) Pakistan
2) Israel
3) Iran
4) Iraq
5) None of these
11. Who is the winner of the National Premier Women's chess championship that was held in Chennai in November 2011?
1) Mary Ann Gomes
2) Eesha Karavade
3) Tania Sachdev
4) Nisha Mohota
5) Padmini Rout
12. Who is the first player to take 500 catches in Test cricket?
1) Rahul Dravid
2) Adam Gilchrist
3) Mark Boucher
4) Kumar Sangakkara
5) None of these
13. Joe Frazier died of liver cancer. In which of the following sports did he excel?
1) Golf
2) Boxing
3) Squash
4) Snooker
5) Weightlifting
14. Which city hosted the 23rd annual meeting of the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) in November 2011?
1) Canberra
2) Singapore
3) Seoul
4) Bangkok
5) Honolulu
15. Which of the following statements about the South Asian Association for Regional Coope-ration (SAARC) is/are true?
1) SAARC was started in 1985 with headquarters in Kathmandu.
2) It is dedicated to economic, technological, social and cultural development emphasizing collective self reliance.
3) Mohamed Nasheed is the present chairman of SAARC.
4) The 17th SAARC Summit was held in Addu city, Maldives in November 2011.
5) All the above are correct.
16. ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL), the overseas arm of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, has signed an agreement to take a 25 per cent stake in Satpayev oil block. In which country is Satpayev block located?
1) Russia
2) Mongolia
3) Ukraine
4) Kazakhstan
5) Kyrgyzstan
17. Which state became the first in the country to achieve total financial inclusion in September 2011? (Each household in the state has at least one bank account)
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Kerala
3) Karnataka
4) Manipur
5) Assam
18. DVC, NHPC, PGCIL and NTPC are the four public sector undertakings working in which of the following sectors?
1) Coal
2) Telecom
3) Power
4) Textiles
5) None of these
19. Who is the author of the book "India and Global Financial Crisis: Managing Money and Finance"?
1) P. Chidambaram
2) Pranab Mukherjee
3) C.Rangarajan
4) Y.V.Reddy
5) Bimal Jalan
20. What is the full form of NFSM?
1) National Food Security Mechanism
2) New Food Security Mechanism
3) National Food Security Mission
4) National Farmers Security Mechanism
5) None of these
21. India is not a member of which of the following organizations?
1) BRICS
2) IBSA
3) SAARC
4) OPEC
5) The Commonwealth
22. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
1) Rice
2) Wheat
3) Sorghum
4) Bajra
5) Ragi
23. What per cent of foreign direct investment (FDI) is allowed in apiculture (beekeeping) under controlled conditions?
1) 20%
2) 26%
3) 100%
4) 49%
5) None of these
24. The FDI limit in FM radio has been increased from the existing 20% to?
1) 26%
2) 51%
3) 49%
4) 100%
5) None of these
25. Which is the largest producer and the consumer of tea in the world?
1) Brazil
2) India
3) Indonesia
4) Pakistan
5) Vietnam
26. Which state has the highest number of operational special economic zones in India?
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Karnataka
3) Maharashtra
4) Kerala
5) Andhra Pradesh
27. Which of the following has become the first public sector company to introduce Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) for its employees?
1) NMDC
2) IOC
3) NALCO
4) NTPC
5) ONGC
28. Which of the following groups can be called financially excluded people?
1) Urban slum dwellers
2) Marginal farmers
3) Landless laborers
4) Unorganized sector employees
5) All the above
29. In which year was the Bank of Calcutta established?
1) 1802
2) 1805
3) 1806
4) 1809
5) 1800
30. Which of the following stock exchanges was initially known as "The Native Share & Stock Brokers Association"?
1) Bombay
2) Madras
3) Jaipur
4) Cochin
5) Uttar Pradesh
31. Who among the following served as the Finance Minister before becoming the President of India?
1) N.Sanjeeva Reddy
2) Pratibha Patil
3) R.Venkatraman
4) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
5) S.Radhakrishnan
32. Which bank has recently launched 'Everywhere Teller Machine' service in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh? (ETM allows debit card holders to withdraw upto Rs.1000 in cash per day from a Point of Sale terminal at select merchant outlets.)
1) ICICI Bank
2) Axis Bank
3) SBI
4) SBH
5) HDFC Bank
33. The Hindustan Copper Limited will develop an underground copper-ore mine at Malanjkhand with an investment of Rs.1,856 crore. In which state is this mine located?
1) Rajasthan
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Jharkhand
4) Orissa
5) Bihar
34. Alok Prasad is the Chief Executive Officer of which of the following industry associations?
1) ASSOCHAM
2) FICCI
3) MFIN
4) NASSCOM
5) None of these
35. Who is the chairman of the Wor-king Group on Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR) appointed by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Deepak Mohanty
2) Bimal Jalan
3) Usha Thorat
4) R.V.Gupta
5) None of these
ANSWERS:
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (5) 15. (5) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (5) 27. (3) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1)
Saturday, November 5, 2011
BANK EXAMS COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following are the major components in a computer
a) CPU, CD_Rom, Mouse, Keyboard
b) Memory, Video card, Monitor
c) Modem, Printer, Screen
d) CPU, Memory, System bus, Input H/w, Output H/w
2. How the information is transformed from one component to another component in a system?
a) System bus
b) Memory
c) Keyboard
d) Monitor
3. MS-Access, MS-Foxpro is the examples of what type of software?
a) Spread Sheet
b) Presentation Software
c) Database Management
d) None of the above
4. Windows operating system have
a) Graphical User Interface
b) Command based Interface
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
5. ___ Allows more data to be stored on a disk?
a) Data Compression
b) Disk Defragmentation
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
6. A text-based language with codes or tags used for developing web pages is called?
a) Java
b) HTML
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
7. CASE stands for?
a) Computer Aided Software Engineering
b) Common Aided Software Engineering
c) Computer Access Software Engineering
d) Computer Aided Software Engine
8. The primary job of the information system is?
a) Data collection
b)Data transfer
c) Transform inputs to information
d) None of the above
9. ___ Is the software that allows the computer to interact with users and hardware?
a) System Software
b) Application software
c) Development software
d) None of the above
10. This type of boot occurs when the computer is already on, and you restart it without turning off the power?
a) Generic boot
b) Live boot
c) Warm boot
d) Cold boot
11. A concentric ring on a hard disk is referred to as a?
a) Track
b) Sector
c) Table
d) None of the above
12. Which of the following best describes the purpose of generating a flowchart as part of the design of a computer program?
a) To test and maintain the efficiency of the overall program
b) To present the steps needed to solve the programming problem
c) To ensure that all methods are appropriately linked
d) To determine the necessary number of global and local variables
13. Which of the following would best facilitate the expansion of a computer program?
a) Incorporation of diagrams into the design documents
b) Minimal use of global variables in the source code
c) Construction of methods that are highly dependent on one another
d) Extensive use of functions, that support the debugging process
14. ___ Is/are the steps that tell the computer how to perform a particular task?
a) Data
b) Instructions
c) Information
d) Documentation
15. A computer contain many electric, electronic, and mechanical components known as?
a) Software
b) Input devices
c) Output devices
d) Hardware
16. ___ Is the most widely used coding scheme used to represent data
a) ASCII
b) Unicode
c) EBCDIC
d) Multi code
17. ___ Is the most common type of volatile memory?
a) ROM
b) CMOS
c) Flash Memory
d) RAM
18. A ___ is equal to approximately 1 million bytes?
a) Kilobytes
b) Mega bytes
c) Giga bytes
d) Tera bytes
19. Two categories of software are?
a) Operating System & System Software
b) Utility Programs
c) System software and Utility Programs
d) System software and Application Software
20. Notebook computers?
a) Can run on batteries or standard power supply
b) Are less expensive than a desktop with similar capabilities
c) Facilities are less
d) None of the above
21. The world's largest computer network is?
a) Internet
b) Intranet
c) LAN
d) MAN
22. Transaction Processing Systems are the basic business systems that serve which level of the organization?
a) Middle level
b) Senior level
c) Operational level
d) None of the above
23. In batch processing?
a) Transactions are processed immediately in batches
b) Transactions are accumulated in batches until it is time to process them
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
24. Which of the following is the most powerful computer?
a) Mainframe computer
b) Micro computer
c) Super computer
d) Mini computer
25. A program written in a machine language is called ___ program?
a) Object
b) Computer
c) Assembler
d) High level
26. A collection of wires that connects several devices is called?
a) Link
b) Bus
c) Cable
d) Port
27. The fastest type of memory is?
a) Tape
b) Semi conductor memory
c) Disk memory
d) Bubble memory
28. Which of the following translator program coverts assembly level language program to object program?
a) Assembler
b) Complier
c) Micro processor
d) Linker
29. Barcodes stores information by using?
a) Dots b) Thick and thin lines
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
30. Which of the following are the main problems in File Management System?
a) Data redundancy
b) Difficulty in updating
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
31. In a database related fields are grouped to form?
a) Record
b) File
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
32. Which of the following parts of a computer is necessary to enable it to play music?
a) Sound cards
b) CD-Ram
c) MIDI interface
d) Serial interface
33. Which one of the following printers is suitable for printing sprocket fed carbon copies?
a) Laser
b) Dot matrix
c) Ink jet
d) None of the above
34. To be effective a virus checker should be?
a) Replaced regularly
b) Never updated
c) Updated regularly
d) None of the above
35. Passwords enable users to?
a) Get into the system quickly
b) Make efficient use of time
c) Retain confidentiality of files
d) Simplify file structure
36. Automated transaction for the purchase of goods over the Internet is called?
a) E-Shopping
b) Web-Purchase
c) E-Commerce
d) Web-Shopping
37. Which one of the following would be the best to use to produce hundreds of letters at a time with same matter to different addresses?
a) Personal information
b) Email group
c) DTP
d) Mail merge
38. A:\ refers to?
a) A file name
b) Root directory
c) Hard drive
d) None of the above
39. Which of the following input device would be best suited to capturing images for use with a personal computer?
a) Digital camera
b) Graphics tablet
c) Touch Screen
d) Optical Mark Reader
40. The concept of "Zero Administ-ration" is associated with?
a) Network computer
b) Mini computer
c) Micro computer
d) None of the above
ANSWERS:
1) d 2) a 3) c 4) a 5) a 6) b 7) a 8) c 9) a 10) c 11) a 12) b 13) b 14) b 15) d 16) a 17) d 18) b
19) d 20) a 21) a 22) c 23) c 24) c 25) a 26) b 27) b 28) a 29) b 30) c 31) b 32) a 33) b 34) c
35) c 36) c 37) d 38) b 39) d 40) a
a) CPU, CD_Rom, Mouse, Keyboard
b) Memory, Video card, Monitor
c) Modem, Printer, Screen
d) CPU, Memory, System bus, Input H/w, Output H/w
2. How the information is transformed from one component to another component in a system?
a) System bus
b) Memory
c) Keyboard
d) Monitor
3. MS-Access, MS-Foxpro is the examples of what type of software?
a) Spread Sheet
b) Presentation Software
c) Database Management
d) None of the above
4. Windows operating system have
a) Graphical User Interface
b) Command based Interface
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
5. ___ Allows more data to be stored on a disk?
a) Data Compression
b) Disk Defragmentation
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
6. A text-based language with codes or tags used for developing web pages is called?
a) Java
b) HTML
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
7. CASE stands for?
a) Computer Aided Software Engineering
b) Common Aided Software Engineering
c) Computer Access Software Engineering
d) Computer Aided Software Engine
8. The primary job of the information system is?
a) Data collection
b)Data transfer
c) Transform inputs to information
d) None of the above
9. ___ Is the software that allows the computer to interact with users and hardware?
a) System Software
b) Application software
c) Development software
d) None of the above
10. This type of boot occurs when the computer is already on, and you restart it without turning off the power?
a) Generic boot
b) Live boot
c) Warm boot
d) Cold boot
11. A concentric ring on a hard disk is referred to as a?
a) Track
b) Sector
c) Table
d) None of the above
12. Which of the following best describes the purpose of generating a flowchart as part of the design of a computer program?
a) To test and maintain the efficiency of the overall program
b) To present the steps needed to solve the programming problem
c) To ensure that all methods are appropriately linked
d) To determine the necessary number of global and local variables
13. Which of the following would best facilitate the expansion of a computer program?
a) Incorporation of diagrams into the design documents
b) Minimal use of global variables in the source code
c) Construction of methods that are highly dependent on one another
d) Extensive use of functions, that support the debugging process
14. ___ Is/are the steps that tell the computer how to perform a particular task?
a) Data
b) Instructions
c) Information
d) Documentation
15. A computer contain many electric, electronic, and mechanical components known as?
a) Software
b) Input devices
c) Output devices
d) Hardware
16. ___ Is the most widely used coding scheme used to represent data
a) ASCII
b) Unicode
c) EBCDIC
d) Multi code
17. ___ Is the most common type of volatile memory?
a) ROM
b) CMOS
c) Flash Memory
d) RAM
18. A ___ is equal to approximately 1 million bytes?
a) Kilobytes
b) Mega bytes
c) Giga bytes
d) Tera bytes
19. Two categories of software are?
a) Operating System & System Software
b) Utility Programs
c) System software and Utility Programs
d) System software and Application Software
20. Notebook computers?
a) Can run on batteries or standard power supply
b) Are less expensive than a desktop with similar capabilities
c) Facilities are less
d) None of the above
21. The world's largest computer network is?
a) Internet
b) Intranet
c) LAN
d) MAN
22. Transaction Processing Systems are the basic business systems that serve which level of the organization?
a) Middle level
b) Senior level
c) Operational level
d) None of the above
23. In batch processing?
a) Transactions are processed immediately in batches
b) Transactions are accumulated in batches until it is time to process them
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
24. Which of the following is the most powerful computer?
a) Mainframe computer
b) Micro computer
c) Super computer
d) Mini computer
25. A program written in a machine language is called ___ program?
a) Object
b) Computer
c) Assembler
d) High level
26. A collection of wires that connects several devices is called?
a) Link
b) Bus
c) Cable
d) Port
27. The fastest type of memory is?
a) Tape
b) Semi conductor memory
c) Disk memory
d) Bubble memory
28. Which of the following translator program coverts assembly level language program to object program?
a) Assembler
b) Complier
c) Micro processor
d) Linker
29. Barcodes stores information by using?
a) Dots b) Thick and thin lines
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
30. Which of the following are the main problems in File Management System?
a) Data redundancy
b) Difficulty in updating
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
31. In a database related fields are grouped to form?
a) Record
b) File
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
32. Which of the following parts of a computer is necessary to enable it to play music?
a) Sound cards
b) CD-Ram
c) MIDI interface
d) Serial interface
33. Which one of the following printers is suitable for printing sprocket fed carbon copies?
a) Laser
b) Dot matrix
c) Ink jet
d) None of the above
34. To be effective a virus checker should be?
a) Replaced regularly
b) Never updated
c) Updated regularly
d) None of the above
35. Passwords enable users to?
a) Get into the system quickly
b) Make efficient use of time
c) Retain confidentiality of files
d) Simplify file structure
36. Automated transaction for the purchase of goods over the Internet is called?
a) E-Shopping
b) Web-Purchase
c) E-Commerce
d) Web-Shopping
37. Which one of the following would be the best to use to produce hundreds of letters at a time with same matter to different addresses?
a) Personal information
b) Email group
c) DTP
d) Mail merge
38. A:\ refers to?
a) A file name
b) Root directory
c) Hard drive
d) None of the above
39. Which of the following input device would be best suited to capturing images for use with a personal computer?
a) Digital camera
b) Graphics tablet
c) Touch Screen
d) Optical Mark Reader
40. The concept of "Zero Administ-ration" is associated with?
a) Network computer
b) Mini computer
c) Micro computer
d) None of the above
ANSWERS:
1) d 2) a 3) c 4) a 5) a 6) b 7) a 8) c 9) a 10) c 11) a 12) b 13) b 14) b 15) d 16) a 17) d 18) b
19) d 20) a 21) a 22) c 23) c 24) c 25) a 26) b 27) b 28) a 29) b 30) c 31) b 32) a 33) b 34) c
35) c 36) c 37) d 38) b 39) d 40) a
Wednesday, October 5, 2011
IBPS CLERKS GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS
1. The largest bank in India is ..........?
1) ICICI bank
2) Syndicate Bank
3) Union bank of India
4) Bank of India
5) State Bank of India
2. State bank of India head office is in ..........?
1) New Delhi
2) Kolkata
3) Chennai
4) Mumbai
5) Hyderabad
3. Mumbai has the head offices of many Financial Institutes. Which of the following bank/ institute/ PSU do not have the head office in Mumbai?
1) SEBI
2) RBI
3) Bank of Baroda
4) Bank of India
5) IDBI
4. Bank of Baroda, Andhra Bank and L&G(U.K) established 'M/S India Invest'. M/S India Invest is a ..........?
1) Real Estate Company
2) Insurance Company
3) Foreign Exchange Office
4) Stock Exchange
5) Savings Plan
5. Insurance Company 'Met Life' has headquarters in ..........?
1) Canada
2) Japan
3) England
4) U.S.A
5) Australia
6. Australia based IAG (Insurance Australia Group) and .......... had tie up to do General Insurance business?
1) SBI
2) LIC
3) UTI
4) Reliance Industries
5) Rcom
7. SBI is the largest public sector bank. Which is the second largest public sector bank crossed having of 5,000 branches?
1) Bank of India
2) Bank of Baroda
3) ICICI 4) Punjab National Bank
5) Union Bank of India
8. Punjab National Bank and .......... had tie up together to have Core Banking Solutions (CBS) linking of its Regional Rural Banks (RRB)?
1) NABARD
2) SBI
3) IDBI
4) UTI
5) SBI DHFI
9. NABARD ( National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) established JLG to extract the productive capability from rural population?
1) Junior Link Group
2) Join Life Group
3) Joint Line Gauge
4) Joint Liability Group
5) None
10. Joint Liability Groups replicate the ..........?
1) Sole Help Group
2) Sole Help Grain
3) Stone Help Group
4) Second Help Group
5) Self Help Group
11. Self Help Groups will be provided with 7 % rate of interest on par with .......... as decided by central government recently?
1) Vehicle Loan
2) Business Loan
3) Home Loan
4) Agriculture Loan
5) All of above
12. Agriculture Loans are called Regulated Loans. Which Deposit is Regulated Deposit other than NRI account?
1) Savings Account
2) Fixed Deposit
3) Current Account
4) Recurring Account
5) Joint Account
13. Savings Deposits cannot be opened/operated by ..........?
1) Public Sector Banks
2) Co-operative Banks
3) Foreign Banks
4) Non-Banking Finance Companies
5) Private Sector Banks
14. Non-Banking Companies list given. Pick up wrong one?
1) Sri Ram Finance
2) Mutthoot Finance
3) Manappuram Finance
4) ICICI Bank
5) Margadarsi Finance
15. ICICI is the ..........private bank in India?
1) Second largest
2) Third largest
3) Sixth largest
4) Largest
5) Tenth largest
16. Largest borrower in India is ..........?
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) Government of India
3) State bank of India
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) None
17. Government of India declares Minimum Support Price (MSP) for many goods/products every year. Which of the following commodities do not cover MSP in principle?
1) Paddy
2) Bank Products
3) Wheat
4) Gram
5) Millets
18. Bank products do not cover ..........?
1) Deposit
2) Judicial Stamps
3) Loans
4) Credit Cards
5) All of above
19. Judicial Stamps and Postal Stamps are printed in Indian Security press Nasik. Nasik is in ..........?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Odisha
4) Tamilnadu
5) Maharastra
20. Maharastra based bank, Bank of Maharastra celebrated .......... celebrations in 2010. Its head office is in Pune?
1) Silver
2) Gold
3) Platinum
4) Centenary
5) Diamond
21. Platinum Celebrations of .......... celebrated On that eve, One rupee coin minted?
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) State Bank of India
3) Central Bank of India
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
5) None
22. Reserve Bank of India established Credit Guarantee Corporation of India ( CGCI) in 1971 to encourage more flow of banks credit to ..........?
1) Big industries 2) Self Help Groups
3) Small business firms
4) Co-operative banks
5) Software industries
23. Small business and poor families approach ..........to take small amounts of loans?
1) Foreign banks
2) Public Sector banks
3) Private Sector banks
4) Micro-Finance Companies
5) Rating Agencies
24. Micro-Finance companies Bill passed by ..........to control nuisance of micro-finance
companies?
1) Karnataka
2) Maharastra
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) West Bengal
5) Odisha
25. Andhra Pradesh head office bank is ..........?
1) State bank of Hyderabad
2) Syndicate bank
3) Union bank of India
4) HDFC
5) United Bank of India
26. The term not related to banking is ..........?
1) Crossing
2) NPA
3) Priority Sector Lending
4) On Line banking
5) Call option
27. Term not related to Stock Market is ..........?
1) DEMAT
2) Bad Delivery
3) Badala
4) Bid and Offer
5) Basel
28. Term not related to Economics?
1) Diminishing Marginal Utility
2) Demand and Supply
3) National Income
4) Consumer Surplus
5) Law of Motion
29. Which term not related to Banking Technology?
1) NEFT
2) RTGS
3) BOUNCE
4) SWIFT
5) ATM
30. Which is not a currency of any country in the world?
1) Dolla
2) Lira
3) Brussels
4) Pound
5) Yuan
31. Which is not a subsidiary/Associate/agency of any bank in India?
1) SBH
2) ICICI Lombard
3) NABARD
4) SBI Life
5) All of above
32. 113th Constitutional amendment related to ..........?
1) Change the state name of Orissa to Odisha
2) Right to Education
3) Voter's eligibility age reduced from 21 years to 18 years
4) Establishment of GST council
5) Making Election commission as multiple body
33. Coal India recently got the status of ..........?
1) Navarathna
2) Mini-Ratna
3) Maharatna
4) Veerratna
5) None
34. As per the 2011 census, the lowest population state is ..........?
1) Sikkim
2) Goa
3) Manipur
4) Meghalaya
5) Assom
35. First time Lokpal Bill introduced in parliament in ..........?
1)1968
2)1971
3)1951
4) 2001
5) 2011
36. New war ship 'Trikhand' introduced in Indian Navy. It is manufactured and imported from ..........?
1) USA
2) France
3) Australia
4) Russia
5) Japan
37. 'Scotia Prince' is the boat run between ..........after 30 years?
1) India and China
2) India and Australia
3) India and Myanmar
4) India and Sri Lanka
5) India and Russia
38. Expand PURA?
1) Urban Areas in Rural Areas
2) Universal Amenities in Rural Areas
3) Urban Amenities in Roll Areas
4) Urban Areians in Rural Areas
5) Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
39. Co-ordinated Boarder Management plan is the agreement between India and..........?
1) Pakistan
2) Bhutan
3) Bangladesh
4) Nepal
5) Sri Lanka
40. Which city celebrated 372 years entry on 22nd August 2011?
1) Hyderabad
2) Mumbai
3) Chennai
4) Bengaluru
5) Mumbai
41. West Bengal name changed to ..........?
1) Purva Banga
2) Uttama Banga
3) Pachima Banga
4) Eleve Banga
5) Tagore Banga
42. 99th Science congress summit will be held in ..........?
1) Tamilnadu
2) Delhi
3) Rajasthan
4) Odisha
5) Goa
43. In BRICS summit, 'S' stands for..........?
1) Somalia
2) South Korea
3) Sri Lanka
4) South Africa
5) Swaziland
44. 2012 Pravasa Bharatiya Summit venue is ..........?
1) Jodhpur
2) Jaipur
3) Lucknow
4) Chennai
5) Bellary
45. Which IPS officer crossed palk strait on 25 march 2011?
1) Aruna Bahuguna
2) Rajiv Verma
3) Rajiv Trivedi
4) Madam Straint
4) None of above
46. .......... was appointed as chief of Change Management Team by UNO?
1) Anitha Kapur
2) Jeevan Reddy
3) Atul Khare
4) Y.V.Reddy
5) H S Puri
47. Coasta First Naval Award 2010 got by ..........?
1) Red Cross Society
2) Asha Bhonsle
3) Kiswar Desai
4) Manoj Pandey
5) Diwakar Prem
1)5 2)4 3)3 4)2 5)4 6)1 7)4 8)1 9)4 10)5 11)4 12)1 13)4 14)4 15)4 16)2
17)2 18)2 19)5 20)3 21)1 22)3 23)4 24)3 25)1 26)5 27)5 28)5 29)3 30)3 31)3 32)1
33)3 34)1 35)1 36)4 37)4 38)5 39)3 40)3 41)3 42)4 43)4 44)2 45)3 46)3 47)3.
1) ICICI bank
2) Syndicate Bank
3) Union bank of India
4) Bank of India
5) State Bank of India
2. State bank of India head office is in ..........?
1) New Delhi
2) Kolkata
3) Chennai
4) Mumbai
5) Hyderabad
3. Mumbai has the head offices of many Financial Institutes. Which of the following bank/ institute/ PSU do not have the head office in Mumbai?
1) SEBI
2) RBI
3) Bank of Baroda
4) Bank of India
5) IDBI
4. Bank of Baroda, Andhra Bank and L&G(U.K) established 'M/S India Invest'. M/S India Invest is a ..........?
1) Real Estate Company
2) Insurance Company
3) Foreign Exchange Office
4) Stock Exchange
5) Savings Plan
5. Insurance Company 'Met Life' has headquarters in ..........?
1) Canada
2) Japan
3) England
4) U.S.A
5) Australia
6. Australia based IAG (Insurance Australia Group) and .......... had tie up to do General Insurance business?
1) SBI
2) LIC
3) UTI
4) Reliance Industries
5) Rcom
7. SBI is the largest public sector bank. Which is the second largest public sector bank crossed having of 5,000 branches?
1) Bank of India
2) Bank of Baroda
3) ICICI 4) Punjab National Bank
5) Union Bank of India
8. Punjab National Bank and .......... had tie up together to have Core Banking Solutions (CBS) linking of its Regional Rural Banks (RRB)?
1) NABARD
2) SBI
3) IDBI
4) UTI
5) SBI DHFI
9. NABARD ( National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) established JLG to extract the productive capability from rural population?
1) Junior Link Group
2) Join Life Group
3) Joint Line Gauge
4) Joint Liability Group
5) None
10. Joint Liability Groups replicate the ..........?
1) Sole Help Group
2) Sole Help Grain
3) Stone Help Group
4) Second Help Group
5) Self Help Group
11. Self Help Groups will be provided with 7 % rate of interest on par with .......... as decided by central government recently?
1) Vehicle Loan
2) Business Loan
3) Home Loan
4) Agriculture Loan
5) All of above
12. Agriculture Loans are called Regulated Loans. Which Deposit is Regulated Deposit other than NRI account?
1) Savings Account
2) Fixed Deposit
3) Current Account
4) Recurring Account
5) Joint Account
13. Savings Deposits cannot be opened/operated by ..........?
1) Public Sector Banks
2) Co-operative Banks
3) Foreign Banks
4) Non-Banking Finance Companies
5) Private Sector Banks
14. Non-Banking Companies list given. Pick up wrong one?
1) Sri Ram Finance
2) Mutthoot Finance
3) Manappuram Finance
4) ICICI Bank
5) Margadarsi Finance
15. ICICI is the ..........private bank in India?
1) Second largest
2) Third largest
3) Sixth largest
4) Largest
5) Tenth largest
16. Largest borrower in India is ..........?
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) Government of India
3) State bank of India
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) None
17. Government of India declares Minimum Support Price (MSP) for many goods/products every year. Which of the following commodities do not cover MSP in principle?
1) Paddy
2) Bank Products
3) Wheat
4) Gram
5) Millets
18. Bank products do not cover ..........?
1) Deposit
2) Judicial Stamps
3) Loans
4) Credit Cards
5) All of above
19. Judicial Stamps and Postal Stamps are printed in Indian Security press Nasik. Nasik is in ..........?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Odisha
4) Tamilnadu
5) Maharastra
20. Maharastra based bank, Bank of Maharastra celebrated .......... celebrations in 2010. Its head office is in Pune?
1) Silver
2) Gold
3) Platinum
4) Centenary
5) Diamond
21. Platinum Celebrations of .......... celebrated On that eve, One rupee coin minted?
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) State Bank of India
3) Central Bank of India
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
5) None
22. Reserve Bank of India established Credit Guarantee Corporation of India ( CGCI) in 1971 to encourage more flow of banks credit to ..........?
1) Big industries 2) Self Help Groups
3) Small business firms
4) Co-operative banks
5) Software industries
23. Small business and poor families approach ..........to take small amounts of loans?
1) Foreign banks
2) Public Sector banks
3) Private Sector banks
4) Micro-Finance Companies
5) Rating Agencies
24. Micro-Finance companies Bill passed by ..........to control nuisance of micro-finance
companies?
1) Karnataka
2) Maharastra
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) West Bengal
5) Odisha
25. Andhra Pradesh head office bank is ..........?
1) State bank of Hyderabad
2) Syndicate bank
3) Union bank of India
4) HDFC
5) United Bank of India
26. The term not related to banking is ..........?
1) Crossing
2) NPA
3) Priority Sector Lending
4) On Line banking
5) Call option
27. Term not related to Stock Market is ..........?
1) DEMAT
2) Bad Delivery
3) Badala
4) Bid and Offer
5) Basel
28. Term not related to Economics?
1) Diminishing Marginal Utility
2) Demand and Supply
3) National Income
4) Consumer Surplus
5) Law of Motion
29. Which term not related to Banking Technology?
1) NEFT
2) RTGS
3) BOUNCE
4) SWIFT
5) ATM
30. Which is not a currency of any country in the world?
1) Dolla
2) Lira
3) Brussels
4) Pound
5) Yuan
31. Which is not a subsidiary/Associate/agency of any bank in India?
1) SBH
2) ICICI Lombard
3) NABARD
4) SBI Life
5) All of above
32. 113th Constitutional amendment related to ..........?
1) Change the state name of Orissa to Odisha
2) Right to Education
3) Voter's eligibility age reduced from 21 years to 18 years
4) Establishment of GST council
5) Making Election commission as multiple body
33. Coal India recently got the status of ..........?
1) Navarathna
2) Mini-Ratna
3) Maharatna
4) Veerratna
5) None
34. As per the 2011 census, the lowest population state is ..........?
1) Sikkim
2) Goa
3) Manipur
4) Meghalaya
5) Assom
35. First time Lokpal Bill introduced in parliament in ..........?
1)1968
2)1971
3)1951
4) 2001
5) 2011
36. New war ship 'Trikhand' introduced in Indian Navy. It is manufactured and imported from ..........?
1) USA
2) France
3) Australia
4) Russia
5) Japan
37. 'Scotia Prince' is the boat run between ..........after 30 years?
1) India and China
2) India and Australia
3) India and Myanmar
4) India and Sri Lanka
5) India and Russia
38. Expand PURA?
1) Urban Areas in Rural Areas
2) Universal Amenities in Rural Areas
3) Urban Amenities in Roll Areas
4) Urban Areians in Rural Areas
5) Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
39. Co-ordinated Boarder Management plan is the agreement between India and..........?
1) Pakistan
2) Bhutan
3) Bangladesh
4) Nepal
5) Sri Lanka
40. Which city celebrated 372 years entry on 22nd August 2011?
1) Hyderabad
2) Mumbai
3) Chennai
4) Bengaluru
5) Mumbai
41. West Bengal name changed to ..........?
1) Purva Banga
2) Uttama Banga
3) Pachima Banga
4) Eleve Banga
5) Tagore Banga
42. 99th Science congress summit will be held in ..........?
1) Tamilnadu
2) Delhi
3) Rajasthan
4) Odisha
5) Goa
43. In BRICS summit, 'S' stands for..........?
1) Somalia
2) South Korea
3) Sri Lanka
4) South Africa
5) Swaziland
44. 2012 Pravasa Bharatiya Summit venue is ..........?
1) Jodhpur
2) Jaipur
3) Lucknow
4) Chennai
5) Bellary
45. Which IPS officer crossed palk strait on 25 march 2011?
1) Aruna Bahuguna
2) Rajiv Verma
3) Rajiv Trivedi
4) Madam Straint
4) None of above
46. .......... was appointed as chief of Change Management Team by UNO?
1) Anitha Kapur
2) Jeevan Reddy
3) Atul Khare
4) Y.V.Reddy
5) H S Puri
47. Coasta First Naval Award 2010 got by ..........?
1) Red Cross Society
2) Asha Bhonsle
3) Kiswar Desai
4) Manoj Pandey
5) Diwakar Prem
ANSWERS:
17)2 18)2 19)5 20)3 21)1 22)3 23)4 24)3 25)1 26)5 27)5 28)5 29)3 30)3 31)3 32)1
33)3 34)1 35)1 36)4 37)4 38)5 39)3 40)3 41)3 42)4 43)4 44)2 45)3 46)3 47)3.
Friday, September 30, 2011
IBPS CLERKS CWE BANKING AWARENESS QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949
2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body
3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies
4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings
5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products
6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks
7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development
8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support
9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks
10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline
11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor
12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits
13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.
14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit
15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee
16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures
17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization
18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances
19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals
20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks
21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions
22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory
23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.
24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement
25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations
26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month
27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts
28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance
29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice
30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.
31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution
32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits
33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs
34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly
35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis
36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)
37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.
38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management
39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan
40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products
41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance
42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing
43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate
46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.
47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package
49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance
50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments
51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit
52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects
53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers
54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans
55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company
56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services
57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards
58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal
59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC
60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT
61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting
62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity
63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC
64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182
65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account
66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above
67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee
68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%
69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR
70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.
71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee
72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor
73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15
74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI
75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555
76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note
77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan
78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these
79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits
81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.
82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)
83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.
84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one
85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC
86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks
87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.
88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit
89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI
90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit
91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control
92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system
93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate
94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969
95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank
96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent
97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government
98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate
99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores
100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad
Answers
1) d 2) c 3) d 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) d 9) a 10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949
2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body
3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies
4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings
5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products
6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks
7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development
8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support
9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks
10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline
11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor
12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits
13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.
14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit
15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee
16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures
17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization
18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances
19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals
20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks
21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions
22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory
23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.
24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement
25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations
26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month
27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts
28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance
29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice
30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.
31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution
32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits
33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs
34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly
35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis
36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)
37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.
38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management
39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan
40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products
41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance
42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing
43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate
46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.
47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package
49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance
50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments
51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit
52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects
53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers
54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans
55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company
56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services
57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards
58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal
59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC
60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT
61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting
62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity
63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC
64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182
65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account
66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above
67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee
68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%
69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR
70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.
71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee
72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor
73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15
74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI
75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555
76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note
77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan
78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these
79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits
81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.
82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)
83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.
84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one
85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC
86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks
87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.
88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit
89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI
90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit
91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control
92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system
93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate
94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969
95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank
96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent
97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government
98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate
99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores
100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad
Answers
1) d 2) c 3) d 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) d 9) a 10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d
Sunday, September 25, 2011
IBPS CLERKS BANKING AWARENESS MCQs
1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949
2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body
3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies
4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings
5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products
6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks
7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development
8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support
9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks
10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline
11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor
12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits
13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.
14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit
15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee
16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures
17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization
18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances
19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals
20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks
21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions
22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory
23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.
24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement
25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations
26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month
27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts
28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance
29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice
30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.
31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution
32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits
33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs
34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly
35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis
36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)
37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.
38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management
39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan
40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products
41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance
42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing
43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate
46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.
47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package
49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance
50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments
51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit
52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects
53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers
54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans
55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company
56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services
57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards
58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal
59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC
60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT
61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting
62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity
63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC
64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182
65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account
66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above
67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee
68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%
69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR
70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.
71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee
72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor
73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15
74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI
75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555
76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note
77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan
78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these
79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits
81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.
82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)
83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.
84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one
85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC
86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks
87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.
88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit
89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI
90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit
91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control
92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system
93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate
94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969
95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank
96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent
97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government
98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate
99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores
100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad
Answers
1) d 2) c 3) d 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) d 9) a 10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d
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