BSNL JTO EXAM (20-10-2009) SOLVED PAPER

PART I

1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
(A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar
2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
(A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D)x-ray region
3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectricloss should be respectively
(A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low.
4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress
(A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component
5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only (C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none
6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
(A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
(B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
(C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
(D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates.
7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization
8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion
(A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony
9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
(A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.
10. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none
11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to
(A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate
(C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal
12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have
(A) (b+n) links (B) b – n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links
13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45
14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy.
15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
(A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate
16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the wire round strain guage is that
(A) it is more sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent (D) it’s cost is low
17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
(A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
(C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current.
18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
(A) recombine with holes in the base (B) recombine in the emitter itself
(C) pass through the base to the collector (D) are stopped by the junction barrier
19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at m0 bias is
(A) 0.5 volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt
20. A UJT can
(A) be triggered by any one of it’s three terminals (B) not be triggered
(C) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (D) be triggered by all of its terminals only.
21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and inform charge density in vacuum is

22. Maxwells divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by

23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 1 at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then its radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
(A) R/2 O (B) R O (C) 2R O (D) 4R O
24. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
(A) TE111 and TM111 (B) TE011 and TM011 (C) TE022 and TM111 (D) TE111 and TM011
25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its efficiency
will be nearly
(A) 0.19 (B) 0.81 (C) 0.97 (D) 1.19
26.The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge rectifier is
(A) 0.812 (B) 0.286 (C) 0.693 (D) 0.782
27. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in its characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHZ signal then if
d is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
(A) d = 1.5 cm (B) d is less then 1.5 cm (C) d is greater then 1.5 cm (D) d = 3cm
28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
(A) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power (B) an output power which is one-half of the input power
(C) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage. (D) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power.
29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer
(A) the terminals are kept shorted (B) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
(C) the terminals are kept open circuited (D) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals.
30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms.
Which of the following values represent full series arm R1 and shunt arm R2?
1.R1 = 147 O 2. R1 = 153 O 3. R1 = 1.5 O 4. R1= 3750 O
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294 µH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
(A) 49 O (B) 60 O (C) 70 O (D) 140 O
32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
33. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 =Z22 2. h12 = h21 3.Y12 = -Y21 4.BC – AD = -1 then the network is reciprocal if and only if
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) 4 alone is correct.
34. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
(A) will become half (B) will remain unchanged
(C) will become double (D) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known.
35. A iron cored choke is a
(A) Linear and active device (B) Non linear and passive device (C) Active device only (D) Linear device only
36. Poynting vector watt-meter is based on
(A) Seebeck effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect
(D) Hall effect
37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense?
(A) Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric pick-up (C) Photo voltaic cell (D) LCD.
38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, de to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
(A) Converter system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor
39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is
(A) 0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59%
40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
(A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz
41. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
(A)sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular
42. Strain gauge is
(A) not a transducer (B) an active transducer (C) not an electronic instrument
43. A high Q coil has
(A) large band width (B) high losses (C) low losses (D) flat response
44. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale
reading, the percentage limiting error is
(A) 1.810% (B) 0.181% (C)12.45% (D) 0.0018%
45. The ‘h’ parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
(A) High frequency, large signal operation (B) High frequency, small signal operation (C) Low frequency, large signal operation.
46. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on
(A) Values of input in the past and in the future (B) Values of input at that time and in the past
(C) Values of input at that time and in the future (D) none
47. Form the hot metal surface electrons escape because
(A) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. (B) of change of state from gas to metal
(C) the energy supplied is greater than the work function (D) the energy is greater than Fermi level
48. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is
(A) amplifier (B) triode (C) diode (D) transistor
49. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (D) plate.
50. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
(A) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (B) Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise (D) Not effect the noise

PART – II

51. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
(A) SCR (B) PCR (C) VCR (D) DCR
52. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the
combination will be a
(A) constant voltage source (B)constant current source
(C) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source. (D) resistance
53. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
(A) electrons only (B) electrons or holes (C) electrons and holes (D) holes only
54. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ration from primary to secondary are respectively
(A) ferrite : 20 : 1 (B) laminated iron : 1 :1 (C) ferrite : 1 : 1 (D) powered iron : 1: 1
55. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse mode is a
(A) 1 phase full converter (B) 3 phase half wave converter (C) 3 phase semi converter (D) 3 phase full converter.
56. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
(A) square wave (B) triangular wave (C) step function (D) pulsed wave
57. a single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
(A) 100V (B)141.4V
(C)200V (D)282.8V
58. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
(A) T keeping Ton constant (B) Ton keeping T constant
(C) Toff keeping T constant (D) None of the above
59.An ideal power supply consist of
(A) Very small output resistance (B) Zero Internal resistance
(C) Very large input resistance (D) Very large output resistance
60. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
(A) ? (B) gamma (C) ? (D) e
61. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
(A) 1111101 (B) 0001 0010 0101 (C) 7D (D) None of the bove
62. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures

A) Current series feedback (B) Current shunt feedback
(C) Voltage series feedback (D) Voltage shunt feedback
63. Class A amplifier is used when
(A) No phase inversion is required (B) Highest voltage gain is required
(C) dc voltages are to be amplified (D) Minimum distortion is desired.
64. Identity the correct match for the given transister

(A) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (B) Depletion type N channel MOSFET
(C) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET (D) Depletion type P channel MOSFET
65. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter, the constructed signal will
be
(A) Distortion-less (B) Small in amplitude (C) Having higher frequencies suppressed (D) Distorted
66. IC which has quad 2 input AND gates
(A) 7411 (B) 7404 (C)7400 (D) 7408
67. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
(A) left shift register (B) right shift register (C) shift registers (D) none of the above
68. The expression ABC can be simplified to

69. Read the following
(i) Routh Herwitz’s criterion is in time domain
(ii) Root locus plot is in time domain
(iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain
(iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
(A) 2,3 and 4 are correct (B) 1,2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) all four are correct
70. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(A) count pulses (B) store binary operation (C) shift operation
(C) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip.
71. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 200
72. On different unit impulse function results in
(A) Unit parabolic function (B) Unit triplet (C) Unit doublet (D) Unit ramp function
73. … watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
(A) 100 (B) 500 (C) 2000 (D) 1000
74. The ripple factor in an LC filter.
(A) Increases with the load current (B) Increases with the load resistance
(C) Remains constant with the load current (D) Has the lowest value
75. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
(A) Language digits (B) Access digits (C) Area codes (D) Central office codes
76. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
(A) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
(B) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
(C) its use avoids receiver complexity
(D) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity.
77. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.

(A) 15o (B) 45o (C) 30o (D) 60o
78. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
(A) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain
(B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action
(C) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback
(D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action,
79. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function.

A -80 dB/dec to -60 dB/dec
B 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec
C 20 dB/dec to -40 dB/dec
D 40 dB/dec to -20 dB/dec
80. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by K
Number of asymptotes of its root loci
is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
81. In a closed – loop transfer function

A. ±j228 B. ±j2.28 C. ±j1.14 D. j114
82. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. Of these statements
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct.
83. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
(A) ANIK (B) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat – 1) (C) WESTAR (D)MOLNIYA
84. When A = 0., B = 0, C = 1 then in two input logic gate we get gate
(A) XOR gate (B) AND gate (C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate
85. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
(A) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency (B) amplifies the output of local oscillator
(C) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (D) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
86. A duplexer is used to
(A) Couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
(B) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
(C) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
(D) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference.
87. Boolean algebra is based on
(A) numbers (B) logic (C) truth (D) symbols
88. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
(A) linear amplifier (B) harmonic generators (C) class C power amplifiers (D) class untuned amplifiers
89. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
(A) maximum power of the transmitter (B) pulse repetition frequency
(C) width of the transmitted pulse (D) sensitivity of the radar receiver.
90. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
(A) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace
(B) help vertical synchronization (D) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
91. The frequency range 30MHz – 300MHz is
(A) medium frequency (B) very high frequency (C) super high frequency (D) Infrared frequency
92. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
(A) TE (B) TM (C) TEM (D) HE
93.Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
(A) upto 18 kms from earth (B) from 18 to 70 km (C) 70 to 500 km (D) above 500km
94. A two cavity klystron tube is a
(A) velocity modulated tube (B) frequency modulated tube
(C) Amplitude modulated tube (D) simple triode
95. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get.
(A) doubled (B) quadruped (C) unchanged (D) halved.
96.Which one is a cross field tube
(A) Klystron (B) Reflex Klystron (C) Magnetron (D) TWT
97. The degree of coupling depends
(A) size of hole (B) location of holes (C) size and location of holes (D) not depend on size or location of hole
98. The thermal noise depends on
(A) direct current through device
(B) resistive component of resistance
(C) reactive component of impedance
(D) load to connected.
99. The charge on a hole is
(A) 1.6 x 10-9 (B) 1.6 x 10-19 (C) 1.6 x 101 (D) 1.6 x 1020
100. Intel’s 8085 microprocessor chip contains
(A) seven 8 bit registers (B) 8 seven bits registers (C) seven 7 bit registers (D) eight 8 bit registers.

PART III

101. The words ‘Satyameva Jayathe’ have been taken from
(A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E) None of these
102. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
(A) USA (B) USSR (C) China (D) Pakistan
103. “Kathakali” dance is connected with
(A) Kerala (B) Rajastan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
104. The term “Ashes” is associated with
(A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these.
105. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
(A) Gupta architecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D) Chola architecture
106. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
(A) Joint sitting of the two Houses
(B) President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) BY a special committee for the purpose
107. Which of the following is not work of kalidasa?
(A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara
108. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
(A) Akbar the Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji
109. With the beginings of space travel, we entered a new
(A) Era of great history (B) List (C) Book (D) Year
110. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
(A) Funny poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy
111. If stare is glance so gulp is
(A) Sip (B) Tell (C) Salk (D) Admire
112. He hardly works means
(A) The work is hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D) He work very little.
113. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
(A) antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor
114. Nanometre is ……. part of metre
(A) MIllionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionth
115. Malaria affects
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs
116. Sindhu Rakshak is a /an
A) Aircraft carrier (B) Submarine (C) Multiple purpose fighter (D) Anti-aircraft gun
117. With which subject is “Dada Saheb Phalke Award” associated.
(A) Best film director
(B) Best musician
(C) Best documentary
(D) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film industry
118. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
(A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes
119. In which state in Kanha Part situated?
(A) M.P (B) U.P (C) Assam (D) W.Bengal
120. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
(A) 24th October (B) 4th July
(C) 8th Auguest (D) 10th December

ANSWERS:

1. (C)     2. (B)     3. (C)     4. (C)     5.(C)     6. (C)     7.(B)     8. (D)   9. (A)  10.(B)
11. (B)    12. (B)    13.(B)    14. (B)    15.(C)    16. (A)    17.(C)    18. (C)   19. (C)
20. (C)    21. (C)    22.(B)    23. (D)    24.(D)    25. (B)    26.(B)    27. (A)   28. (A)
29. (B)    30. (A)    31.(C)    32. (B)    33.(D)    34. (C)    35.(B)    36. (C)   37. (D)
38. (A)    39. (C)    40.(C)    41. (A)    42.(B)    43. (C)    44.(C)    45. (C)   46. (B)
47. (C)    48. (C)    49.(C)    50. (B)    51.(A)    52. (B)    53.(C)    54. (C)   55. (C)
56. (B)    57. (D)    58.(A)    59. (B)    60.(D)    61. (A)    62.(A)    63. (D)   64. (B)
65. (D)    66. (D)    67.(C)    68. (D)    69.(D)    70. (D)    71.(B)    72. (C)   73. (D)
74  (D)    75. (C)    76.(C)    77. (C)    78.(D)    79. (A)    80.(D)    81. (A)   82. (C)
83. (C)    84. (C)    85.(C)    86. (C)    87.(B)    88. (C)    89.(B)    90. (C)   91. (B)
92. (C)    93. (C)    94.(A)    95. (C)    96.(C)    97. (B)    98.(B)    99. (B)   100. (A)
101. (A)    102. (A)    103.(A)    104. (B)    105.(D)    106. (C)    107.(D)    108. (A)
109. (A)    110. (D)    111. (A)    112. (D)    113.(B)    114. (B)    115.(B)    116. (D)
117. (C)    118. (C)    119.(B)    120. (A).

BSNL JTO Previous Question Paper 2008

Syllabus for BSNL Junior Telecom Officers (JTO)

                                                                   TELECOM BRANCH

JTO Telecom SECTION - I

1. Materials and Components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.
2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.
3. Network Theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore's and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.
4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, micro strip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.
5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

JTO Telecom SECTION - II

1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.
2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.
3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol's Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol's Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.
4. Communication Systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalization; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.
5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propagation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.
6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.
7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.

CIVIL BRANCH

JTO Civil SECTION - I

1. Building Material:
Timber: Different types and species of structural timber, density-moisture relationship, strength in different directions, defects, influence of defects on permissible stress, preservation, dry and wet rots, plywood, codal provision for design.
Bricks: Types, Indian standard classification, absorption, saturation factor, strength in masonry, influence of mortar strength and masonary strength.
Cement: Compounds, different types, setting times, strength.
Cement Mortar: Ingredients, proportions, water demands, mortar for plastering and masonry.
Concrete: Importance of W/C ratio, strength, ingredients including admixtures, workability, testing, elasticity, non-destructive testing mix design method.
2. Solid Mechanics
Elastic constants, stress, plane stress, Mohr's circle of stress, strains, plain strain, Mohr's circle of strain, combined stress. Elastic theories of Failure, simple and shear bending, Torsion of circular and rectangular section and simple members.
3. Structural Analysis
Analysis of determinate structures- different methods including graphical methods. Analysis of indeterminate skeletal frames- moment distribution, slope deflection, stiffness and force methods, energy methods. Muller-Breslau principal and application. Plastic analysis of indeterminate beams and simple frames-shape factors.
4. Design of Steel Structures
Principle of working stress method. Design of connections of simple members. Built up sections and frames. Design of Industrial roofs. Principles of ultimate load design. Design of members and frames.
5. Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures
Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces, Codal provisions for slabs, beams, walls and footings. Working stress method of design of R.C. members.
Principles of pre-stressed concrete design, material, method of pre-stressing losses. Design of simple members and determinates structures. Introductions to pre-stressing of indeterminate structures.
Design of brick masonary as per I.S. codes.
6. Construction Practice, Planning and Management
Concreting Equipment:
Weight batcher, Mixer, vibrator, batching plant, concrete pump.
Cranes, hoists, lifting equipment.
Earthwork Equipment:
Power shovel, hoe, dozer, dumper, trailers and tractors, rollers, sheep foot rollers, pumps.
Construction, planning and Management:
Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow diagrams. Critical path, probabilistic activity durations; Event-based networks.
PERT network: Time-cost study, crashing; Resource allocation.

JTO Civil SECTION - II

1.
(a) Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel, Pipe Flow
Fluid properties, pressure, thrust, Buoyancy, Flow Kinematics, integration, of flow equation, Flow measurement, Relative motion, Moment of momentum, Viscosity, Boundary layer and control, Drag, Lift, Dimensional analysis, Modelling, Cavitations, Flow oscillations, Momentum and Energy principles, in open cannel flow, Flow control, Hydraulic jump, Flow section and properties, Normal flow, Gradually varied flow, Flow development and losses in pipe flows, Measurements, Siphons, Surges and Water hammer, Delivery of Power Pipe networks.
(b) Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower
Centrifugal pumps, performance parameters, scaling, pumps in parallel, Reciprocating pumps, air vessels, performance parameters;
2.
(a) Hydrology:
Hydrological cycle, precipitation and related data analysis, PMP, unit and synthetic hydrographs, Evaporation and transpiration, floods and their management, PMG, Streams and their gauging, .River morphology. Rooting of floods, Capacity of reservoirs.
(b) Water Resources Engineering
Water resources of the globe: Multipurpose uses of Water, Soil Plant water relationships, irrigation systems, water demand assessment, Storage and their yields, ground water yield and well Hydraulics, Water logging, drainage design, Irrigation revenue, Design of rigid boundary canals, Lacy' and Tractive force concepts in canal design, lining of canals; Sediment transport in canals; Non-Overflow and overflow sections of gravity dams and their design, Energy dissipaters and tail water rating, Design of head works, distribution work, falls, cross-drainage work, outlets, River training.
ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING
3.
(a) Water Supply Engineering
Sources of supply, yield, design of intakes and conductors, Estimation of demand, Water quality standards, Control of water born diseases. Primary and secondary treatment, detailing and maintenance of treatment units. Conveyance and distribution systems of treated water, leakage and control, Rural water supply, Institutional and Industrial water supply.
(b) Waste Water Engineering
Urban rain water disposal, system of sewage collection and disposal, Design of sewers and sewerages systems, pumping, Characteristic of sewage and its treatment, Disposal of products of sewage treatment, stream flow rejuvenation, Institutional and industrial sewage management, plumbing system, Rural and semi-urban sanitation.
(c) Solid Waste Management
Sources, classification, collection and disposal, Design and Management of landfills.
(d) Air and Noise Pollution and Ecology
Sources and effects of air pollution, monitoring of Air pollution, Noise-pollution and standards; Ecological Chain and balance, Environmental assessment.
4.
(a) Soil Mechanics
Properties of soils, classification and interrelationship, Compaction behaviour, method of compaction and their choice, Permeability and seepage, flow nets, Inverter filters, Compressibility and consolidation ,shearing resistance, stresses and failure, SO testing in laboratory and in-situ, Stress path and applications, Earth pressure theories, stress distribution in soil, soil exploration, samplers, load tests ,penetration tests.
(b) Foundation Engineering
Type of foundations, Selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement, laboratory and field test, Types of piles and their design and layout, Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and it prevention , foundation on swelling soils.
5.
(a) Surveying
Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy, Measurement of distances-direct and indirect methods, optical and electronic devices, Measurement of directions, prismatic compass, local attraction, Theodolites-types Measurement of elevations, Spirit and trigonometric levelling, Relief representation, Contours, Digital elevation modelling concept, Establishment of control by triangulations and traversing measurements and adjustment of observations, computation of coordinates, Field astronomy, concept of global positioning system, Map preparation by plane tabling and by photogrammetry, Remote sensing concepts, map substitutes.
(b) Transportation Engineering
Planning of highway systems, alignment and geometric design, horizontal and vertical curves, grade separation, Materials and construction methods for different surfaces and maintenance, Principles of pavement design, Drainage.
Traffic surveys, intersections, signalling, Mass transit systems, accessibility, networking.
Planning of railway systems, terminology and designs, relating to gauge, track controls, transits, rolling stock, tractive power and track modernization, Maintenance Appurtenant works, Containerisation.

ELECTRICAL BRANCH

JTO Electrical SECTION - I

1. EM Theory
Electric and magnetic fields. Gauss's Law and Amperes Law. Fields in dielectrics, conductors and magnetic materials. Maxwell's equations. Time varying fields. Plane-Wave propagating in dielectric and conducting media. Transmission lines.
2. Electrical Materials
Band Theory, Conductors, Semi-conductors. and Insulators. Superconductivity. Insulators for electrical and electronic applications. Magnetic materials. Ferro and ferri magnetism. Ceramics, Properties and applications. Hall effect and its applications. Special semi conductors.
3. Electrical Circuits
Circuits elements. Kirchoff's Laws. Mesh and nodal analysis. Network Theorems and applications. Natural response and forced response. Transient response and steady state response for arbitrary inputs. Properties of networks in terms of poles and zeros. Transfer function. Resonant circuits. Three phase circuits. Two-port networks. Elements of two-element network synthesis.
4. Measurements and Instrumentation
Units and Standards. Error analysis, measurement of current, Voltage, power, Power-factor and energy. Indicating instruments. Measurement of resistance, inductance, Capacitance and frequency. Bridge measurements. Electronic measuring instruments. Digital Voltmeter and frequency counter. Transducers and their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, flow-rate displacement, acceleration, and noise level etc. Data acquisition systems. AID and D/A converters.
5. Control System
Mathematical modelling of physical systems. Block diagrams and signal flow graphs and their reduction. Time domain and frequency domain analysis of linear dynamical system. Errors for different type of inputs and stability criteria for feedback systems. Stability analysis using Routh-Hurwitz array, Nyquist plot and Bode plot. Root locus and Nicols chart and the estimation of gain and phase margin. Basic concepts of compensator design. State variable matrix and its use in system modelling and design. Sampled data system and performance of such a system with the samples in the error channel. Stability of sampled data system. Elements of non-linear control analysis. Control system components, electromechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic components.

JTO Electrical SECTION - II

1. Electrical Machines and Power Transformers
Magnetic Circuits - Analysis and Design of Power transformers. Construction and testing. Equivalent circuits. Losses and efficiency. Regulation. Auto-transformer, 3-phase transformer. Parallel operation.
Basic concepts in rotating machines. EMF, torque, basic machine types. Construction and operation, leakage losses and efficiency.
D.C. Machines. Construction, Excitation methods. Circuit models. Armature reaction and commutation. Characteristics and performance analysis. Generators and motors. Starting and speed control. Testing, Losses and efficiency.
Synchronous Machines. Construction. Circuit model. Operating characteristics and performance analysis. Synchronous reactance. Efficiency. Voltage regulation. Salient-pole machine, Parallel operation. . tiunting. Short circuit transients.
Induction Machines. Construction. Principle of operation. Rotating fields. Characteristics and performance analysis. Determination of circuit model. Circle diagram. Starting and speed control.
Fractional KW motors. Single-phase synchronous and induction motors.
2. Power systems
Types of Power Stations, Hydro, Thermal and Nuclear Stations. Pumped storage plants. Economics and operating factors.
Power transmission lines. Modelling and performance characteristics. Voltage control. Load flow studies. Optimal power system operation. Load frequency control. Symmetrical short circuit analysis. ZBus formulation. Symmetrical Components. Per Unit representation. Fault analysis. Transient and steady-state stability of power systems. Equal area criterion.
Power system Transients. Power system Protection Circuit breakers. Relays. HVDC transmission.
3. Analog and Digital Electronics and Circuits
Semiconductor device physics, PN junctions and transistors, circuit models and parameters, FET, Zener, tunnel, Schottky, photo diodes and their applications, rectifier circuits, voltage regulators and multipliers, switching behavior of diodes and transistors.
Small signal amplifiers, biasing circuits, frequency response and improvement, multistage amplifiers and feed-back amplifiers, D.C.
amplifiers, Oscillators. Large signal amplifiers, coupling methods, push pull amplifiers, operational amplifiers, wave shaping circuits. Multivibrators and flip-flops and their applications. Digital logic gate families, universal gates-combination circuits for arithmetic and logic operational, sequential logic circuits. Counters, registers, RAM and ROMs.
4. Microprocessor
Microprocessor architecture-Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Micro-processors in power system.
5. Communication Systems
Types of modulation; AM, FM and PM. Demodulators. Noise and bandwidth considerations. Digital communication systems. Pulse code modulation and demodulation. Elements of sound and vision broadcasting. Carrier communication. Frequency division and time division multiplexing, Telemetry system in power engineering.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices. Thyristor. Power transistor, GTOs and
MOSFETS. Characteristics and operation. AC to DC Converters; 1phase and 3-phase DC to DC Converters; AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors; switched capacitor networks.
Inverters; single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

General Ability Test

Section-III (for all JTO Branches)

The candidate's comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.


                    BSNL JTO Previous Question Paper 2008

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
a. Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b. Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c. The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d. The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.
2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
a. Polarization
b. Conductivity
c. Structural homogeneties
d. Ionization
3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon
a. Boron
b. Indium
c. Germanium
d. Antimony
4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
a. High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b. Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c. High thermal conductivity and low melting point
d. Low thermal conductivity and high melting point
5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
a. infrared region
b. ultraviolet region
c. visible region
d. x-ray region
6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
a. high and high
b. low and high
c. high and low
d. low and low
7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
a. odd harmonics
b. even harmonics
c. fundamental component
d. dc component
8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
a. mutual inductance between two coils only
b. self inductances of the two coils only
c. mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d. none
9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
a. paper
b. rubber
c. ceramic
d. Mylar
10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
a. always positive
b. always negative
c. sometime positive, sometime negative
d. numerically less than its kinetic energy
11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no -
a. channel
b. gate
c. P-N junctions
d. substrate
12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a. it is more sensitive
b. it is more linear
c. it is less temperature dependent
d. it's cost is low
13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
a. thermally generated electrons and holes
b. diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c. migration of minority carriers across the junction
d. flow of drift current
14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
a. recombine with holes in the base
b. recombine in the emitter itself
c. pass through the base to the collector
d. are stopped by the junction barrier
15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is -
a. 0.5
b. 0
c. 1.0
d. 0.8
16. A UJT can
a. be triggered by any one of it's three terminals
b. not be triggered
c. be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d. be triggered by all of its terminals only
17. An SCR can only be turned off via it's
a. cathode
b. anode
c. gates
d. none
18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to
a. increase the recombination rate
b. reduce the recombination rate
c. make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d. make silicon semi-metal
19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have
a. (b + n) links
b. b - n + 1 links
c. b - n - 1 links
d. b + n + 1 links
20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
a. 7
b. 9
c. 10
d. 45
21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
a. an output power which is one - quarter of the input power
b. an output power which is one - half of the input power
c. an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d. an output power which is 0.707 of the input power
22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer -
a. the terminals are kept shorted
b. critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c. the terminals are kept open circuited
d. it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals
23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2?
1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
a. 49w
b. 60w
c. 70w
d. 140w
25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC - AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 4 alone is correct
27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
a. will become half
b. will remain high
c. will become double
d. cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known
28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum is-
Ans. 5.4x109xQ2/r where Q=4/3(pie.r3d
29. Maxwell's divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
Ans. y
30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it's radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it's radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
a. R/2 ohms
b. R ohms
c. 2R ohms
d. 4R ohms
31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a. TE111 and TM111
b. TE011 and TM011
c. TE022 and TM111
d. TE111 and TM011
32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it's efficiency will be nearly
a. 0.19
b. 0.81
c. 0.97
d. 1.19
33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a. Zero
b. IF
c. 4pF
d. OF
34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it's characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if 'd' is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a. d = 1.5 cm
b. d is less then 1.5 cm
c. d is greater than 1.5 cm
d. d = 3cm
35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is
a. 0.89159 %
b. 8.9159 %
c. 89.159 %
d. 891.59 %
36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a. 5 KHz
b. 15 KHz
c. 75 KHz
d. 200 KHz
37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
a. sinusoidal
b. square
c. rectangular
d. triangular
38. Strain gauge is
a. not a transducer
b. an active transducer
c. not an electronic instrument
d. none
39. A high Q coil has
a. large band width
b. high losses
c. low losses
d. flat response
40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
a. 1.810%
b. 0.181%
c. 18.10%
d. 0.0018%
41. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
a. High frequency, large signal operation
b. High frequency, small signal operation
c. Low frequency, small signal operation
d. Low frequency, large signal operation
42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on -
a. Values of input in the past and in the future
b. Values of input at that time and in the past
c. Values of input at that time and in the future
d. None
43. A iron cored choke is a
a. Linear and active device
b. Non linear and passive device
c. Active device only
d. Linear device only
44. Pointing vector wattmeter uses
a. Seebeck effect
b. Ferranti effect
c. Induction effect
d. Hall effect
45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a. Thermocouple
b. Piezoelectric pick - up
c. Photo voltaic cell
d. LCD
46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
a. Converter system
b. Inverter
c. Chopper
d. Thyristor
47. It is a unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
a. SCR
b. PCR
c. VCR
d. DCR
48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
a. constant voltage source
b. constant current source
c. constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d. resistance
49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
a. electrons only
b. electrons or holes
c. electrons and holes
d. holes only
50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively
a. ferrite: 20: 1
b. laminated iron: 1: 1
c. ferrite: 1: 1
d. powdered iron: 1: 1
51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a
a. 1 phase full converter
b. 3 phase half wave converter
c. 3 phase semi converter
d. 3 phase full converter
52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
a. square wave
b. triangular wave
c. step function
d. pulsed wave
53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with center tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
a. 100V
b. 141.4V
c. 200V
d. 282.8V
54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
a. T keeping Ton constant
b. Ton keeping T constant
c. Toff keeping T constant
d. None of the above
55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a. of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b. of change of stats from gas to metal.
c. the energy supplied is greater than the work function
d. the energy is greater than Fermi level.
56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is -
a. amplifier
b. triode
c. diode
d. transistor
57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a. Either cathode
b. Either anode
c. The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d. Either plate
58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
a. Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b. Reduce the noise
c. Increase the noise
d. Not effect the noise
59. Match the given feedback circuit with it's proper nomenclatures
a. Current series feedback
b. Current shunt feedback
c. Voltage series feedback
d. Voltage shunt feedback
60. Class A amplifier is used when
a. No phase inversion is required
b. Highest voltage gain is required
c. dc voltages are to be amplified
d. Minimum distortion is desired
61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor
a. Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
b. Depletion type N channel MOSFET
c. Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
d. Depletion type P channel MOSFET
62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be
a. Distortion less
b. Small in amplitude
c. Having higher frequencies suppressed
d. Distorted
63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is
a. 7411
b. 7404
c. 7400
d. 7408
64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
a. left shift register
b. right shift register
c. shift registers
d. none of the above
65. The expression ABC can be simplified to
Ans. A + B + C
66. An ideal power supply consist of
a. Very small output resistance
b. Zero internal resistance
c. Very large input resistance
d. Very large output resistance
67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
a. count pulses
b. store binary operation
c. shift registers
d. made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip
69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
a. 1111101
b. 0001 0010 0101
c. 7D
d. None of the above
70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 200
71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in
a. Unit parabolic function.
b. Unit triplet.
c. Unit doublet.
d. Unit ramp function.
72. Read the following;
i. Routh Hermitz's criterion is in time domain.
ii. Root locus plot is in time domain.
iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain.
iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
a. 2, 3, and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct.
73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
a. 150
b. 450
c. 300
d. 600
74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
a. Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.
b. Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.
c. Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.
d. Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.
75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function
a. -40dB/dec to -20dB/dec
b. 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec
c. -20dB/dec to -40dB/dec
d. 40dB/dec to -20dB/dec
76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77. In a closed - loop transfer function
the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be
78. Considering the following statement:
In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.
Of these statements
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
a. ANIK
b. EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1)
c. WESTAR
d. MOLNIYA
80. --- watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
a. 100
b. 500
c. 2000
d. 1000
81. The ripple factor in an LC filter
a. Increases with the load current
b. Increases with the load resistance
c. Remains constant with the load current
d. Has the lowest value
82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
a. Language digits
b. Access digits
c. Area codes
d. Central office codes
83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
a. it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
b. compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
c. its use avoids receiver complexity
d. no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
a. linear amplifier
b. harmonic generators
c. class C power amplifiers
d. class B untuned amplifiers
85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
a. maximum power of the transmitter
b. pulse repetition frequency
c. width of the transmitted pulse
d. sensitivity of the radar receiver
86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
a. equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
b. help vertical synchronization
c. help horizontal synchronization.
d. simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
87. The frequency range 30MHz - 300MHz is
a. medium frequency
b. very high frequency
c. super high frequency
d. Infrared frequency
88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
a. TE
b. TM
c. TEM
d. HE
89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
a. upto 18kms from earth
b. from 18 to 70 km
c. 70 to 500 km
d. above 500 km
90. A two cavity klystron tube is a
a. velocity modulated tube
b. frequency modulated tube
c. Amplitude modulated tube
d. simple triode
91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get
a. doubled
b. quadrupted
c. unchanged
d. halved
92. Which one is a cross field tube
a. Klystron
b. Reflex Klystron
c. Magnetron
d. TWT
93. The degree of coupling depends on
a. size of hole
b. location of holes
c. size and location of holes
d. not depend on size or location of hole
94. The thermal noise depends on
a. direct current through device
b. resistive component of resistance
c. reactive component of impedance
d. load to connected
95. The charge on a hole is
Ans. 1.6x10-19
96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
a. is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
b. amplifies the output of local oscillator
c. is fixed tuned to one particular frequency
d. can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
97. A duplexer is used to
1) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
2) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
3) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
4) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference
98. Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains
a. seven 8 bit registers
b. 8 seven bits registers
c. seven 7
d. eight 8
99. Boolean algebra is based on
a. numbers
b. logic
c. truth
d. symbols
100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get - - gate
a. XOR
b. AND
c. NAND
d. NOR
101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new - -
a. Era of great history
b. List
c. Book
d. Year
102. An - - though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
a. Funny poem
b. Newspaper article
c. Orthodox talk
d. Elegy
103. If stare is glance so gulp is
a. Sip
b. Tell
c. Salk
d. Admire
104. He hardly works means
a. The work is hard
b. He is hard
c. The work is easy
d. He works very little
105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
a. antipathy
b. unsightliness
c. inexperience
d. languor
106. Nanometre is - - - - part of a metre.
a. Millionth
b. Ten millionth
c. Billionth
d. Ten billionth
107. Malaria affects
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Intestine
d. Lungs
108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an
a. Aircraft carrier
b. Submarine
c. Multiple-purpose fighter
d. Anti-aircraft gun
109. With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated?
a. Best film director
b. Best musician
c. Best documentary
d. Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry
110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
a. Aryabhatta
b. Newton
c. Einstein
d. Archimedes
111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?
a. M.P.
b. U.P.
c. Assam
d. W. Bengal
112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
a. 24th October
b. 4th July
c. 8th August
d. 10th December
113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
a. Gupta architecture
b. Rashtrakuta architecture
c. Chalukya architecture
d. Chola architecture
114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
a. Joint sitting of the two Houses
b. President of India
c. Prime Minister of India
d. By a special committee for the purpose
115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa?
a. Meghdoot
b. Raghuvansha
c. Sariputra Prakarma
d. Ritushamhara
116.Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
a. Akbar the Great
b. Mahmud Ghaznvi
c. Shah Jahan
d. Alauddin Khilji
117. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from
a. Vedas
b. Bhagwad Gita
c. Mundaka Upanishada
d. Mahabharata
e. None of these
118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
a. USA
b. USSR
c. China
d. Pakistan
119. "Kathakali" dance is connected with
a. Kerala
b. Rajasthan
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Tamil Nadu
120. The term "Ashes" is associated with
a. Hockey
b. Cricket
c. Soccer
d. none of these

BSNL TTA EXAM PATTERN

1. Syllabus & Question Paper :

1. There shall be only one Paper of multiple choice objective type of three hours duration as per syllabus with the following details:  

   Part		Marks
   Part- I	General Ability Test	20
   Part- II	Basic Engineering	90
   Part- III	Specialization	90

   
   
                                                             
   2. Total number of Questions in the paper would be 200 and each question shall carry one mark.
   3. The standard of paper in General Ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Diploma holder.  The standard of papers in other subject will approximately be that of Diploma level of an Indian Polytechnic.  In the Specialization Part-III, a candidate has to attempt a common set of questions from the consolidated syllabus prescribed under Specialization Part-III. 

BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) 2008 Paper

1. If the matrix A = is singular, then ? =
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
2. A = is symmetric, then x =
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
3. If A is a 3 x 3 matrix and det(3 A) = k det(A) then k =
a) 9 b) 6 c) 1 d) 27
4. If A = , then A-1 =
a) b) c) d)
5. If A = then A2 is equal to
a) A b) –A c) Null Matrix d) I
6. is a
a) rectangular matrix b) singular matrix
b) non-singular matrix d) skew-symmetric matrix
7. The slope of the straight line whose inclination with negative x-axis is 120º is
a) b) c) 1 d) infinity
8. If two lines whose slopes are m1 and m2 are perpendicular iff
a) m1 = m2 b) m1m2 = 0 c) m1m2 = -1 d) m1 + m2 = -1
9. The rate of increase of the radius of a circle is 1 cm/sec, the rate of increase of its area is 4? cm2/sec at a particular instant. The radius at that instant is
a) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 6 cm
10.If the side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.02 cm/min, the rate at which its area is increasing at the instant when the length of the side is 5 cm is
a) 0.2 cm 2/min b) 0.4 cm 2/min c) 0.1 cm 2/min d) 0.6 cm 2/min
11.A particle is moving on a plane according to the distance-time relationship is given by s = t3 + 6t2 + 8t – 4. When its acceleration is 8 m/sec2, its velocity is
a) 8 m/sec b) 11 m/sec c) 23 m/sec d) -1 m/sec
12.A stone moves vertically upwards according to the distance-time equation s = 16t – 2t2.The greatest height reached by the stone is
a) 4 b) 64 c) 32 d) 96
13.The distance moved by a particle traveling in a straight line in t seconds is given by s = 45t + 11t2 – t3. The time taken by the particle to come to rest is
a) 9 sec b) 5 sec c) 3 sec d) 2 sec
14.The distance s described by a particle in time t is given by the relation s = aet + be-t. The acceleration is equal to
a) velocity b) the distance traveled
c) twice the distance traveled d) the square of the distance traveled
15.The slope of the normal to the curve y = at the point is
a) 9 b) -9 c) d)
17.The normal to the curve y = f(x) will be parallel to x-axis if
a) b) c) d)
18.The maximum point of the function 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x is
a) x = 0 b) x = 5 c) x = 1 d) x = 2
19.The minimum value of 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x – 4 is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 0 d) -2
20.The point of inflection of the function x3 – 3×2 + 3x is
a) (1,0) b) (1,1) c) (6,126) d) (-1,-7)
21.Velocity of sound is greatest in
a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) None of these
22.If the phase difference between the two waves is 2? during superimposition, then the resultant amplitude is
a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Half of maximum d) None of these
23.If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on superimposition produce a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, the wave differ in phase by
a) b) c) d)
24.The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 2sin?(0.5x – 200t) where x and y are expressed in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is
a) 400 cm/sec b) 300 cm/sec c) 200 cm/sec d) 100 cm/sec
25.Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 0.2 cos ?(0.04t + 0.02x – 1/6). The distance is expressed in cm and time in sec. The minimum distance between two particles separated by phase difference ?/2 is radian is
a) 25 cm b) 12.5 cm c) 8 cm d) 4 cm
26.Ultrasonic waves are those waves which
a) Human being can hear b) Human being cannot hear
c) Have high velocity d) Have large amplitude
27.It is possible to distinguish between the transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property of
a) Interference b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
28.The following phenomenon cannot be observed for sound waves
a) Refraction b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
29.Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon
a) Frequency of the wave produced b) Velocity of the source
c) Velocity of the listener/observer d) Distance between source and listener
30.A source of sound of frequency 450 cycles/second is moving towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s then the apparent frequency will be
a) 410 cps b) 550 cps c) 500 cps d) 450 cps
31.An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound of frequency n. The apparent frequency heard by him is 2n. If the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s, then the velocity of observer is
a) 166 m/s b) 664 m/s c) 332 m/s d) 1328 m/s
32.The equation of a wave traveling in a string can be written as y = 3 cos ?(100t – x).Its wavelength is
a) 100 cm b) 5 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 cm
33.Sound velocity is maximum in
a) O2 b) H2 c) He d) N2
34.Phon is the unit of
a) Pitch b) Quality c) Timbre d) Loudness
35.Loudness of sound L and corresponding intensity of sound I are related as
a) L = KI2 b) L = KI c) L = K d) L = K log I
36.The index of refraction of a medium is 1.5. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, then its speed in the medium will be
a) 2 x 108 m/s b) 1.2 x 108 m/s c) 4 x 108 m/s d) 3.2 x 108 m/s
37.The ratio of intensities of the two waves is given by 4:1. The ratio of amplitudes of two waves is
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4
38.Two source of waves are called coherent if
a) Both have the same amplitude by vibrations
b) Both produce waves of different wavelength having constant phase difference
c) Both produce waves of same wavelength having constant phase difference
d) Both produce waves having the same velocity
39.Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light?
a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Polarization d) Photoelectric effect
40.Velocity of light will be minimum in
a) Vacuum b) Air c) Water d) Glass
41.Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz is
a) 2 x 106 m/s b) 3 x 106 m/s c) 4 x 106 m/s d) 5 x 106 m/s
42.A rocket is going away from earth at a speed of 106 m/s. If the wavelength of the light wave emitted by it be 5700 Å, its Doppler’s shift will be
a) 200 Å b) 19 Å c) 20 Å d) 0.2 Å
43.Colour of light is known by its
a) Velocity b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Polarization
44.A rocket is going away from the earth at a speed 0.2c where c = Speed of light. It emits a signal of frequency 4 x 107 Hz. The frequency observed by an observer on the earth will be
a) 4 x 106 Hz b) 3.3 x 106 Hz c) 3 x 106 Hz d) 5 x 107 Hz
45.A light wave has a frequency of 4 x 1014 Hz and a wavelength of 5 x 10-7 m in a medium. The refractive index of the medium is
a) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.0 d) 0.66
46.Stars are twinkling due to optical phenomenon of
a) Refraction b) Scattering c) Reflection d) Diffraction
47.The splitting of white light into several colours on passing through a glass prism is due to
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Interference d) Diffraction
48.In Bohr’s model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro, then the radius of the fourth orbit is
a) 16 ro b) ro c) 4 ro d) ro/16
49.The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximately
a) 8 eV b) 8 MeV c) 8 KeV d) 8 Volt
50.The mass equivalent of 931 MeV energy is
a) 1.66 x 10-20 kg b) 1.66 x 10-27 kg
c) 6.02 x 10-24 kg d) 6.02 x 10-27 kg
51.The energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. is
a) 931 MeV b) 931 eV c) 931 KeV d) 9.31 MeV
52.The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is
a) + 2 b) – 1 c) + 1 d) – 2
53.The size of an atom is of the order of
a) 1 Å b) 1 fermi c) 1 nm b) 1 micron
54.The mass defect per nucleon is called
a) Packing fraction b) Binding Energy
c) Ionization Energy d) Excitation Energy
55.Nuclear Binding Energy is equal to
a) Mass of Nucleus b) Mass defect of Nucleus
c) Mass of Proton d) Mass of Neutron
56.The Pfund series of Hydrogen spectrum lies in the region\
a) Infrared b) Visible c) Ultraviolet d) X-Ray
57.The number of neutrons in 92U238 is
a) 92 b) 238 c) 330 d) 146
58.The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n = 10 state is
a) 136.0 eV b) 13.60 eV c) 1.36 eV d) 0.136 eV
59.The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given by
a) b) c) d)
60.The rest energy of an electron is
a) 510 MeV b) 51 MeV c) 931 MeV d) 93.1 MeV
61.In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, the electron has the angular momentum
a) ?/h b) h/? c) h/2? d) 2?/h
62.Laser is working in the principle of
a) Stimulated emission of radiation b) Spontaneous emission of radiation
c) Population inversion d) Normal population
63.The output beam of Ruby Laser has the wavelength of
a) 6943 Å b) 6328 Å c) 6300 Å d) 5500 Å
64.In the He-Ne Laser , the He-Ne in the mixture of
a) 10:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 5:1
65.The full form of LIDAR is
a) Light Amplitude and Ranging
b) Light Detection and Ranging
c) Light Defect and Ranging
d) Laser Detection and Ranging
66.Which one of the following is solid state laser?
a) Nd:YAG Laser b) He-Ne Laser c) CO2 Laser d) GaAs Laser
67.Populaton Inversion is achieved by means of
a) Optical pumping b) Gas pumping
c) Mechanical pumping d) Solid pumping
68.GRASERS are
a) Galium Arsenide Lasers b) Gamma Ray Lasers
c) General Ranging Lasers d) Gallium Radium Lasers
69.LASER Beam is
a) Highly monochromatic b) Highly Intense
c) Highly Coherent d) All of the above
70.Which one of the following cannot be used as a pulsed device?
a) CFA b) BWO c) TWT d) Magnetron
71.Klystron works in the principle of
a) Velocity Modulation b) Amplitude Modulation
c) Frequency Modulation d) Phase Modulation
72.Strapping in Magnetron is used to
a) prevent mode jumping b) ensure bunching
c) improve the phase focusing effect d) prevent cathode back heating
73.Which is not a TWT slow wave structure
a) Coupled cavity b) helix c) ring bars d) periodic permanent magnet
74.30 to 300 MHz frequency range is categorized as
a) MF b) VHF c) UHF d) SHF
75.Find the centre of the circle whose two extremities of diameter are (2,3) & (4,-1) is
a) (3,1) b) (6,8) c) (3,-2) d) (-6,8)
76.The centre and radius of the circle x2+y2+4x–6y+2=0 are
a) (-2,3) & 5 b) (-2,3) & 5 c) (2,-3) & 5 d) (2,-3) & 2
77.The angle between the straight lines x + 2y -3 = 0 & 2x + 4y -4 = 0 is
a) ? = 90º b) ? = 60º c) ? = 0º d) ? = 45º
78.The condition for the pair of straight lines ax2+2xy+by2+2x+2y+3=0 to be perpendicular is
a) h2–ab = 0 b) ab = 2 c) a+b = 0 d) a-b = 0
79.The particular integral of +3 + 2y = 2e-x is
a) 2xe-x b) 2e-x c) x2e-x d) xe-x
80.The particular integral of +4 + 4y = 3sin2x is
a) – cos2x b) cos2x c) sin2x d) 3xcos2x
81.The complementary function of (D2+3)y = e-x is
a) Ae x + Be x b) (A+Bx) e x
c) A cos3x + B sin3x d) A cos x + B sin x
82.The solution of (D2-2D-15)y = 0 is
a) y = Ae3x + Be5x b) y = Ae-3x + Be-5x
c) y = Ae5x + Be-3x d) y = Ae-5x + Be3x
83.The particular integral of + y = 3 is
a) 3 b) x/3 c) 3/y d) -3
84.The area bounded by x2 = 2y, the x-axis and the lines x = 1 and x = 3 is
a) b) c) d)
85.The area of the curve y = sin x bounded by the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2? is
a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
86.The area enclosed by the curve xy = 8 and x-axis from x = 1 to x = 4 is
a) 8 log 2 b) 16 log 2 c) 4 log 2 d) 2 log 4
87.The area bounded by the curve x = 3y2 – 9 and the lines x = 0, y = 0 and y = 1 is
a) 8 b) c) d) 3
88.When the area enclosed by the curve y = and the x-axis from x = 0 and x = 4 is rotated about the x-axis, the volume generated is
a) b) c) d)
89.The area included between the curve y = x – x2 and the x-axis revolves about the x-axis. The volume generated by the area is
a) b) c) d)
90.If the area enclosed between the curve y2 = x3 + 5x and the x-axis from x = 2 to x = 4 is revolved about the x-axis, the volume of the solid generated is
a) 45? b) 90? c) 120? d) 60?
91.
a) 12 b) 0 c) 6 d) 18
92. =
a) sin-1x b) cos-1x c) tan-1x c) cot-1x
93.
a) log f(x) b) 2 c) f(x) d) f(x)/2
94.
a) sec x b) tan x c) cos x d) cot x
95.The acceleration of a particle at any time t is given by 3×2 – 2x + 1, then the velocity of the particle at any time is
a) x3 -2x 2 + x b) x3 -x 2 + x c) x 2 + x d) x 2 + x +1
96.The Laplace transform of f(t) = t2 e-3t is
a) b) c) d)
97.The Laplace transform of f(t) = 1 + cos2t is
a) b) c) d)
98.The Laplace transform of unit step function is
a) b) c) 1 d)
99.The initial value of the function F(S) =
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d)
100.The inverse Laplace transform of is
a) e-t b) 1-e-t c) 1- et d) 2(1+ e-t)
101.The inverse Laplace transform of is
a) et cos2t b) et sin2t c) e-t cos2t d) e-t sin2t
102.(1+i)3 is equal to
a) 3 + 3i b) 1 + 3i c) 3 – 3i d) 2i – 2
103.The value of i13+i14+i15+i16 is
a) 0 b) -1 c) i d) –i
104. The polar form of complex number -1- i is
a) 2(cos + i sin ) b) 2(cos + i sin )
b) 2(cos – i sin ) d) 2(cos + i sin )
105.The modulus of a complex number is
a) b) 2 c) 1 d)
106.The value of (3+?+3?2)4 is
a) 16 b) 16 ? c) -16 ? d) 0
107.The value of is
a) cos 2? + i sin 2? b) cos ? + i sin ?
c) cos ? – i sin ? d) cos 26? + i sin 26?
108.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) = cosx defined in (-?, ?) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) ? d) -2 ?
109. The value of the fourier coefficient a0 for the half range series for f(x) defined in (0, ?) is
a) a0 = b) a0 =
c) a0 = d) 0
110.The value of the fourier coefficient an for the function f(x) is odd is
a) 0 b) an =
c) an= d) a0 =
111.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) is even is
a) 0 b) bn =
c) bn = d) bn =
112.If u = exy then x
a) u b) u logeu c) logeu d) ueu
113.If u = then the value of is
a) b) 0 c) x+y d) -1
114.If u = sin-1 , then the value of is
a) b) c) d)
115.If u = xy, then is
a) y/x b) xyx-1 c) yxy-1 d) xy-1
116. Given = = 6 and . = 18, the angle between and is
a) b) c) d)
117.( – ) x ( + ) =
a) 2 x b) x c) 2 x d) 2 – 2
118.The volume of the parallelepiped whose three coterminous edges are represented by the vectors + , + , + is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
119.The value of p such that the vectors -2 + 3 , 4 +3 – and 11 +p + 7 are coplanar is
a) -7 b) 0 c) -12 d) 12
120.Reverberation of sound means
a) existence of sound in a room
b) vibration of sound waves
c) existence of sound eventhough the source of sound is cutoff
d) strong echoes
121.Ultrasonic waves can be produced by
a) Piezo-electric effect b) Inverse Piezo-electric effect
c) Magnetostriction effect d) Both b & c
122.The Sabine’s formula for reverberation time is
a) T = b) T =
c) T = d) T = 0.16 aAS