POSTAL / SORTING ASSISTANTS 2008 PREVIOUS FULLY SOLVED PAPER

FOR POSTAL / SORTING ASSISTANTS 2008 PREVIOUS FULLY SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

ESIC LDC SOLVED PAPER 2008

EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE CORPORATION

(ESIC) 2008 SOLVED PAPER

(Held on 01-06-2008)

 

1. A prepaid service 'TRUMP' was launched by
(A) VSNL
(B) MTNL
(C) Bharati Cellular Ltd.
(D) None of these
ANS- B
2. Which of the following countries won highest gold medals in 27th Olympics ?
(A) Russia
(B) USA
(C) aUSTRALIA
(D) china
ANS- B
3. Which of the following languages belong to the Austric Group ?
(A) Marathi
(B) Laddakhi
(C) Khasi
(D) Tamil
ANS- C
4. Who did not oppose the attack of the USA and her allies on Iraq in March 2003 ?
(A) France
(B) India
(C) Turkey
(D) Pakistan
ANS- A
5. SMS is a service associated with :
(A) E-Mail
(B) Cellular Phones
(C) Internet Surfing
(D) Fax Transmission
ANS- B
6. What was the original Nationality of Annie Besant ?
(A) British
(B) Irish
(C) French
(D) American
ANS- B
7. Which foreign country is closest to Andman Island ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Myanmar
(C) Indonesia
(D) Bangladesh
ANS- B
8. Which country is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Italy
(B) Canada
(C) Germany
(D) Australia
ANS- D
9. The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world is :
(A) Spanish
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Mandaren
ANS- D
10. Wich of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument ?
(A) Cheque
(B) Promissory note
(C) Bill of exchange
(D) Receipt of fixed deposit
ANS- D
11. Which of the following is nat a part of the exportable item from India ?
(A) Tea
(B) Shoes
(C) Steel
(D) Milk
ANS- D
12. GATT was founded in the year :
(A) 1940
(B) 1942
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
ANS- C
13. Who among the following has not been awarded death sentence in the case of attack on the Indian Parliament ?
(A) Mohammed Afzal
(B) SAR Geelani
(C) Shaukat Hussain Guru
(D) Afshan Guru
ANS- D
14. Stock Market are regulated by :
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) The ministry of finance
(D) None of these
ANS- B
15. No smoking is a :
(A) Rule
(B) Procedure
(C) Plan
(D) Policy
ANS- A
16. In raw Jute and Jute goods production, India ranks at number :
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
ANS- A
17. National bird is observed on :
(A) October 12
(B) November 12
(C) December 13
(D) December 18
ANS- B
18. Famous Food and Drug store "JUSCO" belongs to :
(A) Britain
(B) Netherland
(C) Japan
(D) Switzerland
ANS- C
19. The words "Satyamave Jayate" are taken from :
(A) Gita
(B) Garur Puran
(C) Mundaka Upnishad
(D) Mahabharat
ANS- C
20. Which of the following is not a component of revenue expenditure :
(A) Interest
(B) Public Administration
(C) Subsidies
(D) Buying of capital equipment
ANS- B
21. Sweat Glands occure in greatest niumber in the skin of :
(A) Forehead
(B) Armpits
(C) Back
(D) Plam of hand
ANS- B
22. Which of the following is a flightless bird ?
(A) Emu
(B) Hen
(C) Swan
(D) None of these
ANS- A
23. The bats are able to fly in dark since their wings produce :
(A) Sound waves
(B) Ultrasonic Waves
(C) Infra red rays
(D) Ultraviolet rays
ANS- B
24. Which of the following diseases is inheritable ?
(A) Leukemia
(B) Colour Blindness
(C) Maligency
(D) Hepatites
ANS- B
25. Honey has the largest percentage of :
(A) Water
(B) Starch
(C) Glucose
(D) Sucrose
ANS- D
26 Which of the following is a mixed fertilizer ?
(A) Urea
(B) Ammonium
(C) CAM
(D) NPK
ANS- D
27. Which of the following is an exception to cell theory ?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Virus
(D) Lichens
ANS- C
28. Light emmited by sun reaches Earth in :
(A) 1 second
(B) 10 seconds
(C) 13 seconds
(D) 8 seconds
ANS - D
29. Which of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution ?
(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Coal
ANS- C
30. The average salt content of sea water is :
(A) 1.0 %
(B) 3.5 %
(C) 10.0 %
(D) 12.3 %
ANS- B
31. Blood grouping was discovered by :
(A) William Harvey
(B) Landsteinar
(C) Robert Coach
(D) Luis Pasteur
ANS- B
32. The extreme form of Ahinsa or non-violence is practiced is :
(A) Buddhism
(B) Hinduism
(C) Jainism
(D) None of these
ANS- C
33. The great Hindu Law giver was :
(A) Kapil
(B) Banbatta
(C) Kautilya
(D) Mnau
ANS- D
34. Chandragupta Maurya spent his last days at :
(A) Ujjain
(B) Nalanda
(C) Shravanbela gola
(D) Patna
ANS- C
35. The court language of Mughals was :
(A) Arabic
(B) Hindi
(C) Persian
(D) Urdu
ANS- C
36. The Dutch first established their hold in India in 1605 at :
(A) Goa
(B) Surat
(C) Gujarat
(D) Masulipatnam
ANS- D
37. The English weekly edited by :
(A) Kesari
(B) Comrade
(C) Bombay Chronicle
(D) Young India
ANS- D
38. Who among the following was a prominent officer of Azad Hind Fauz ?
(A) Aruna Asaf Ali
(B) Shahnawaz Khan
(C) Dr. M.A.A nsari
(D) Ghaffar Khan
ANS- B
39. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India ?
(A) Bhajan Lal
(B) Chimanbhai Patel
(C) Jyoti Basu
(D) Hiteshwar Saikia
ANS- C
40. Among the following which is the largest Island in the world ?
(A) England
(B) Japan
(C) Borneo
(D) New Guinea
ANS- B
41. Which of the following is the Black Mountain ?
(A) Andes
(B) Alps
(C) Rocky Mountain
(D) Vosges
ANS- C
42. Which of the following is a deepest lake ?
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Caspian
(C) Lake Superior
(D) Lake Baikal
ANS- D
43. The original home of the Gyosies was :
(A) Russia
(B) Persia
(C) India
(D) Egypt
ANS- D
44. Dry farming in India is extensively practised in :
(A) Kanara plains
(B) Deccan region
(C) Coromandel Plains
(D) Punjab Plains
ANS- B
45. Deepest mine in India is located at ?
(A) Anantpur
(B) Bellary
(C) Kolar
(D) Hspet
ANS- C
46. At present India's largest mineral resource is
(A) Copper
(B) Coal
(C) Iron-ore
(D) None of these
ANS- B
47. The length of the Konkan Railway is :
(A) 560 kms
(B) 660 kms
(C) 760 kms
(D) 860 kms
ANS- C
48. Which of the following is known as Queen of Arabian Sea ?
(A) Cochin
(B) Trivendrum
(C) Aalleppey
(D) Mangalore
ANS- A
49. Who wrote the famous book "We The People" ?
(A) JRD TATA
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) T.N.Kaul
(D) Nana Palkhivala
ANS- D
50. MS Kim Campbell is the first woman prime minister of :
(A) Congo
(B) Portugal
(C) Philippines
(D) Canada
ANS- D

Haryana School Teachers Eligibility Test (Master/Mistress), 2009 Solved Paper

Haryana School Teachers Eligibility Test (Master/Mistress), 2009

(Held on 13-12-2009)

Social Science

1. What aspiration the doctrine of Lebensraum denotes in the foreign policy of Hitler ?
(A) Colonial expansion of Germany
(B) Membership of League of Nations for Germany
(C) To acquire labourers (workmen) for Germany
(D) Territorial expansion of Germany
Ans : (D)

2. Blue Revolution is related with—
(A) Mineral production
(B) Semi precious stones trade
(C) Fishing
(D) Food processing
Ans : (C)

3. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner ?
(A) President
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Parliament
Ans : (A)

4. GDP is the total value of …… produced during a particular year.
(A) All final goods and services
(B) All intermediate and final goods
(C) All goods and services
(D) All intermediate goods and services
Ans : (A)

5. Which country first granted universal adult franchise ?
(A) New Zealand
(B) America
(C) Germany
(D) Britain
Ans : (C)


6. State, which constituted maximum in rubber production in India, is—
(A) Kerela
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

7. In which year Mandal Commission was constituted ?
(A) 1980
(B) 1979
(C) 1977
(D) 1975
Ans : (B)

8. Which war resulted into the unification of Germany and Italy ?
(A) Crimean War, 1854
(B) The First Balkan War, 1912
(C) The battle of Sedan, 1870
(D) The battle of Sedova, 1866
Ans : (A)

9. Which African country got independence first ?
(A) Zambia
(B) Ghana (Gold Coast)
(C) South Africa
(D) Nigeria
Ans : (B)

10. ‘Himadri’ is the name, used for—
(A) Lesser Himalayas
(B) Outer Himalayas
(C) Trans Himalayas
(D) Greater Himalayas
Ans : (D)

11. Which of the following is not an essential element of a political party ?
(A) Members
(B) Money
(C) Leadership
(D) Ideology
Ans : (B)

12. Which of these is not a function of RBI ?
(A) Formulating monetary policy
(B) Deciding the value of rupee
(C) Printing Currency
(D) Maintaining minimum cash balance of commerical banks
Ans : (B)

13. Who said it “Democracy is a rule of the people, for the people and by the people” ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Diecy
(C) Aristotle
(D) Abraham Lincoln
Ans : (D)

14. How many types of ‘Ration Cards’ are in India ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 3
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following is a challenge to democracy in India ?
(A) Political parties
(B) Strong bureaucracy
(C) Use of money in politics
(D) Large size of the country
Ans : (C)

16. Match the following—
Author
(a) Charles Dickens
(b) Thomas Hardy
(c) Emily Brante
(d) Daniel Defoe
Novel
1. Wuthering Heights
2. Pickwick Papers
3. Mayor of Casterbridge
4. Robinson Crusoe
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (C)

17. The tribe belonging to the hills of Orissa is—
(A) Galong
(B) Digari
(C) Juang
(D) Patkoi
Ans : (C)

18. What was the real purpose behind the Berlin Conference of 1884-85 ?
(A) To find the solution of Turkish problem
(B) To find the solution of Russian-Austrian dispute
(C) To divide Africa for the colonial interest of European powers
(D) To resolve the disputes of Balkan nations
Ans : (C)

19. How many industries are now reserved for public sector ?
(A) Four
(B) Six
(C) Five
(D) Three
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is the highest mountain peak in India ?
(A) K–2
(B) Mount Abu
(C) Kanchanjanga
(D) Mount Everest
Ans : (A)

21. How many Lok Sabha constituencies are in India ?
(A) 545
(B) 543
(C) 540
(D) 560
Ans : (B)

22. Where is the headquarters of BIS located ?
(A) Bangalore
(B) Mumbai
(C) New Delhi
(D) Jaipur
Ans : (C)

23. Who is the father of consumer movement ?
(A) Aruna Ray
(B) Rajendra Singh
(C) Ralph Nadar
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (C)

24. Which is the most poor state of India ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Bihar
Ans : (C)

25. Who among the following worked for eradication of caste inequalities ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Lokmanya Tilak
(C) Periyar Ramaswami Naickar
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (C)

26. Which of the following is most affected by chemical weathering ?
(A) Sand stone
(B) Granite
(C) Lime stone
(D) Igneous rocks
Ans : (D)

27. The slogan of Janta Party in 1977 elections was—
(A) Increase in food production
(B) Green revolution
(C) Save democracy
(D) Garibi Hatao
Ans : (C)

28. Which state has the lowest IMR in India ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerela
(C) Punjab
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (B)

29. The struggle for democracy is centred round—
(A) Elections and vote
(B) Resources and strength
(C) Political equalitiy, freedom and justice
(D) Power and government
Ans : (C)

30. What is literary percentage of Rural India, as per the census 2001 ?
(A) 37•68
(B) 39•93
(C) 59•04
(D) 49•93
Ans : (C)

31. For how many days budget proposals can be detained by Rajya Sabha ?
(A) 15 days
(B) 25 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 14 days
Ans : (D)

32. Which English novelist used social impacts of industrialisation as subject-matter of his/her novels ?
(A) Jane Austen
(B) Daniel Defoe
(C) Richardson
(D) Charles Dickens
Ans : (D)

33. How many members UNO has at present ?
(A) 192
(B) 190
(C) 189
(D) 195
Ans : (A)

34. River, which joins Rann of Kutch, is—
(A) Luni
(B) Chambal
(C) Mahi
(D) Subarmati
Ans : (A)

35. A political party can be recognised as a state party, if—
(A) It gets at least 5 seats in the state legislative assembly elections
(B) It gets 2% votes in the state legislative assembly elections
(C) It gets at least 6% votes and win 2 seats in the state legislative assembly elections
(D) It gets 10% votes in the state legislative assembly elections
Ans : (C)

36. What is the largest source of credit in rural households of India ?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Landlords
(C) Commerical Banks
(D) Cooperative Societies
Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following country does not provide right to vote to women ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Spain
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) China
Ans : (C)

38. When was ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ launched ?
(A) Year 2004
(B) Year 2003
(C) Year 2000
(D) Year 1998
Ans : (C)

39. Which of the following is not true ?
(A) Democracy produces good governance
(B) Democracy is not free from corruption
(C) Democracy has greater success in regulating elections
(D) Democracy is not good for big countries
Ans : (D)

40. Which among the following Hindi literators is considered as ‘Upanyas Samrat’ (the greatest novelist) ?
(A) Devkinandan Khatri
(B) Munshi Premchand
(C) Acharya Hazari Prasad Dwivedi
(D) Acharya Ram Chandra Shukla
Ans : (B)

41. The state, which is a leading chemical fertilizer producer in India, is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (D)

42. Which among the following was not the cause of economic depression ?
(A) Growing habit of speculation
(B) World wide famine
(C) Repercussion of first world war
(D) Narrow economic nationalism
Ans : (A)

43. Which of the following is a selfemployment programme ?
(A) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojna
(B) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojna
(C) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

44. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the river Indus ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Gandak
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
Ans : (B)

45. How many seats are reserved for scheduled caste in Lok Sabha ?
(A) 70
(B) 78
(C) 79
(D) 75
Ans : (C)

46. What is the name of the grade standard which is given to the agriculture products in India ?
(A) AGMARK
(B) ISI Mark
(C) Hall Mark
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

47. In S.H.G. (Self Help Group) most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by—
(A) Members
(B) Government
(C) Bank
(D) NGO
Ans : (D)

48. The estimated calorie intake to determine the poverty in India for a rural person is—
(A) 2200 calories
(B) 2000 calories
(C) 2400 calories
(D) 2100 calories
Ans : (C)

49. How many fundamental rights were provided in the Indian Constitution orginally ?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (A)

50. Which of the following was a French dynasty ?
(A) Saxons
(B) Habsburg
(C) Romonov
(D) Bourbons
Ans : (D)

51. What is the prescribed educational qualification for elected representatives in India ?
(A) Secondary
(B) No educational qualification prescribed
(C) Post-graduation
(D) Graduation
Ans : (B)

52. BMI refers to—
(A) Body Mass in India
(B) Basic Materials in India
(C) Body Material Index
(D) Body Mass Index
Ans : (D)

53. In which year a democratic constitution was adopted by the United States of America ?
(A) 1787
(B) 1791
(C) 1760
(D) 1780
Ans : (A)

54. Which of the following is known as ‘Manchester of India’ ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

55. A coalition government means—
(A) Government formed by the majority party
(B) Government elected by the Parliament
(C) Government nominated by the President
(D) Government formed by alliance of two or more political parties
Ans : (D)

56. Which among the following can not be considered as the social impact of industrialisation ?
(A) Urbanisation
(B) Decrease in gender discrimination
(C) Origin of Labour class
(D) Origin of nuclear family
Ans : (B)

57. Which of the following is not a feature of democracy ?
(A) Struggle by the people
(B) Rule of one man
(C) Popular participation
(D) Freedom of press
Ans : (B)

58. Which is not a tertiary sector activity ?
(A) Electricity production
(B) Education
(C) Trade
(D) Transport
Ans : (A)

59. Right to information is a law that allows people to—
(A) Register a complain against the government
(B) Watch proceedings in the Legislative Assembly
(C) Find out what is happening in the government
(D) Take part in elections
Ans : (C)

60. Which of the following cities is located on IST line ?
(A) Lucknow
(B) Varanasi
(C) Allahabad
(D) Kanpur
Ans : (C)

61. In democracy rulers—
(A) work according to liking of their party
(B) work according to liking of some people
(C) are free to do what they like
(D) have to follow rules
Ans : (D)

62. Minimum support price of Agriculture Products is recommended by—
(A) CACP
(B) PDS
(C) FCI
(D) NSSO
Ans : (A)

63. Which of the following metro cities has the highest density of population ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumabi
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

64. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
Literator — Language
(A) Bankim Chandra Chatterji — Bangla
(B) Jai Shankar Prasad — Hindi
(C) Fakir Mohan Senapati — Oriya
(D) Chandu Menon — Tamil
Ans : (D)

65. Hydel Power projet in Himachal Pradesh is—
(A) Salal
(B) Lower Jhelum
(C) Chamera
(D) Mukeria
Ans : (C)

66. Which among the following American President gave the slogan of ‘New–Deal’ ?
(A) Roosevelt
(B) Truman
(C) Hoover
(D) Eisenhower
Ans : (A)

67. Which of the following is not a non-conventional source of energy ?
(A) Tidal energy
(B) Coal
(C) Solar energy
(D) Biogas
Ans : (B)

68. ‘Sundarvan’ is situated—
(A) Along the delta of rivers Ganga and Brahmaputra
(B) Along Himalayan foot hills
(C) Along Malabar coast
(D) Along the delta of river Godavari
Ans : (A)

69. Beside Hindi, how many languages have been recognised by the Constitution as scheduled languages ?
(A) 25
(B) 21
(C) 18
(D) 15
Ans : (B)

70. Under COPRA a district level court may deal only with the case involving claims upto—
(A) Rs. 1 crore
(B) More than 1 crore
(C) Rs. 20 lakhs
(D) Rs. 20 thousand
Ans : (C)

71. In which year COPRA was enacted ?
(A) 1987
(B) 1988
(C) 1985
(D) 1986
Ans : (D)

72. When was ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Act’ passed ?
(A) October 2005
(B) December 2005
(C) November 2005
(D) September 2005
Ans : (D)

73. Which of the following is not correct about pressure groups ?
(A) All pressure groups are political parties
(B) Pressure groups are useful in democracy
(C) It seeks to promote interest of a particular group
(D) It tries to influence the government
Ans : (A)

74. In France ‘Tithe tax’ was collected by—
(A) Church
(B) Local Municipal Bodies
(C) Feudal Lords
(D) King
Ans : (A)

75. What was the immediate cause of Russian Revolution of 1905 A.D. ?
(A) Police attack on a peaceful procession (The event of bloody Sunday)
(B) Famine
(C) Russian defeat in war
(D) Economic crisis
Ans : (A)

76. ……… refers to total income of country divided by total population.
(A) National income
(B) Personal income
(C) Per capita income
(D) Disposable income
Ans : (C)

77. Salvador Allende was President of—
(A) Argentina
(B) Peru
(C) Brazil
(D) Chile
Ans : (D)

78. Konkan coast is situated between—
(A) Goa and Thiruvananthapuram
(B) Tuticorin and Puduchery
(C) Mumabi and Goa
(D) Goa and Daman
Ans : (D)

79. Amnesty International is related to which of the following ?
(A) Food Aid
(B) Human Rights
(C) Education
(D) Law and Justice
Ans : (B)

80. Which among the following is not correctly matched ?
Inventor—Invention
(A) James Hargreaves—Spinning Jenny
(B) James Watt —Diesel Engine
(C) Stephenson—Steam Engine
(D) Graham Bell —Telephone
Ans : (B)

81. Which agency of UNO is responsible to maintain peace and security ?
(A) Security Council
(B) UNESCO
(C) ILO
(D) UNICEF
Ans : (A)

82. Which type of unemployment is mainly found in urban areas ?
(A) Educated unemployment
(B) Cyclical unemployment
(C) Disguised unemployment
(D) Seasonal unemployment
Ans : (A)

83. Democratic Reforms should relate to—
(A) Good governance
(B) Collection of more taxes
(C) Not providing money to politicial parties
(D) Assigning more power to government
Ans : (A)

84. Which of the following physiographic divisions of India is known as the store house of minearls ?
(A) Chhotanagpur plateau
(B) Deccan plateau
(C) Aravalli region
(D) Malwa plateau
Ans : (A)

85. Who said it “I have fought against white domination and I have fought against black domination” ?
(A) Fidel Castro
(B) Sukarno
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Boutras Ghali
Ans : (C)

86. What is buffer stock ?
(A) Stock of raw material
(B) Stock of goods
(C) Stock of wheat and rice
(D) Stock of money
Ans : (B)

87. Where in India Jhoom cultivation is practised ?
(A) Western India
(B) North Eastern India
(C) Western Ghats
(D) Southern India
Ans : (B)

88. W.T.O. was started on the initiative of …… countries.
(A) Develped
(B) Developing
(C) Under-developed
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

89. Which of the following is not owned by Hindustan Fertilizer Corporation Ltd. ?
(A) Nangal
(B) Durgapur
(C) Namrup
(D) Barauni
Ans : (C)

90. Which among the following are famous as Bretton Woods institutions ?
(A) UNESCO and UNICEF
(B) World Trade Organisation (W.T.O.) and World Trade Center (W.T.C.)
(C) World Bank and International Monetary Fund (I.M.F.)
(D) World Health Organisation and International Labour Organisation (I.L.O.)
Ans : (C)

91. Development of a country can generally be determined by its—
(A) Per capita income
(B) Average literacy level
(C) Health status of its people
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

92. Hirakud project is situated along which of the following rivers ?
(A) Son
(B) Godavari
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Mahi
Ans : (C)

93. Which of the following is known as the third tier of government ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Local Self Government
Ans : (C)

94. When was the W.T.O. established ?
(A) 1st March, 1996
(B) 1st January, 1996
(C) 1st January, 1995
(D) 1st December, 1995
Ans : (C)

95. Which of these is not a standard for qualtiy ?
(A) Hall Mark
(B) Jago Grahak Jago
(C) ISI
(D) Agmark
Ans : (B)

96. What is the most difficult challenge faced by independent India ?
(A) Unemployment
(B) Poverty
(C) Pollution
(D) Population
Ans : (D)

97. Who wrote the book ‘Discovery of India’ ?
(A) Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Madan Mohan Malviya
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (D)

98. Who was the architect of ‘Reign of Terror’ during French Revolution ?
(A) Marat
(B) Napoleon
(C) Dante
(D) Robespierre
Ans : (D)

99. What were the ‘Soviets’ in Russia ?
(A) Peasant organisations
(B) Military regiments
(C) Police force
(D) Local autonomous organisations in Russia
Ans : (D)

100. ‘Opium Wars’ are related to—
(A) History of Vietnam
(B) History of Modern Japan
(C) History of Modern China
(D) History of Modern France
Ans : (C)

101. The fundamenal basis of a political party is—
(A) Power
(B) Strength
(C) Ideology
(D) Money
Ans : (C)

102. River, which is known as ‘Dakshin Ganga’ (Ganga of South), is—
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Pennar
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Cauvery
Ans : (D)

103. When was National Human Rights Commission constituted in India ?
(A) 1989
(B) 1995
(C) 1993
(D) 1990
Ans : (C)

104. What was the Zollverain ?
(A) Economic union of German states
(B) Religious association of Geman States
(C) Political organisation of German states
(D) Cultural organisation of German states
Ans : (A)

105. ‘Red Sindhi’ is—
(A) A buffalo breed
(B) A horse breed
(C) A cow breed
(D) A human breed
Ans : (C)

106. In year 2001, the literacy rate of India was—
(A) 70%
(B) 61%
(C) 65%
(D) 48%
Ans : (C)

107. Who distributes symbols to political parties ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(C) Parliament
(D) Cabinet
Ans : (A)

108. The activities of Primary, Secondary and Tertiary sectors are—
(A) Organised
(B) Unorganised
(C) Independent
(D) Interdependent
Ans : (D)

109. Apartheid was related to—
(A) Racial discrimination
(B) Struggle for independence
(C) Forced imprisonment
(D) Categorisation of people
Ans : (A)

110. For which of the following nation groups the word ‘Indo-China’ is used ?
(A) Loas–Malayasia–Indonesia
(B) Vietnam–Korea–Japan
(C) Vietnam–Laos–Cambodia
(D) Cambodia – Philippines–Indonesia
Ans : (C)

111. Which rank does Ahmedabad stand at in urban population as per census 2001 ?
(A) Tenth
(B) Eleventh
(C) Sixth
(D) Seventh
Ans : (D)

112. In which continent ‘novel’ as a literary form first originated ?
(A) Eurpoe
(B) America
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans : (A)

113. Which of the following plant is not engaged in production of heavy water ?
(A) Talcher
(B) Tarapur
(C) Trambey
(D) Hazira
Ans : (C)

114. Where did the Industrial Revolution first begin ?
(A) Germany
(B) England
(C) France
(D) Russia
Ans : (B)

115. Which of the following sources contribute most in irrigation in India ?
(A) Pond
(B) Canal
(C) Wells and Tube wells
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

116. Which of the following contributes most in electric power generation in India ?
(A) Hydel
(B) Winds
(C) Thermal
(D) Atomic
Ans : (C)

117. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Democracy accommodates social diversity
(B) Democracy promotes social diversity
(C) Democracy aggravates social classes
(D) Democracy leads to disintegration
Ans : (A)

118. At present (2006) what is the total membership of W.T.O. ?
(A) 160
(B) 153
(C) 150
(D) 149
Ans : (B)

119. According to the census (2001) what is the sex ratio in India ?
(A) 930
(B) 933
(C) 946
(D) 926
Ans : (B)

120. What is the full form of NSSO—
(A) National Social Survey Organization
(B) National Social Sample Organization
(C) National Sample Survey Organization
(D) National Statistical Survey Organization
Ans : (C)

121. Match the following—
Power Plants Places
(a) Periyar
(b) Durga Duani
(c) Anta
(d) Narora
Nature of Plant
1. Thermal
2. Tidal Energy
3. Atomic
4. Hydro Power
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (B)

122. The doctrine of ‘Separation of Power’ is a contribution of which Francis thinker ?
(A) Voltaire
(B) Didaro
(C) Montesquieu
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (C)

123. What is the full form of ‘Commintern’ ?
(A) Communist Terminology
(B) Confederation of Communists
(C) Communist International
(D) Commissar International
Ans : (C)

124. When did the Santhal Uprising happen ?
(A) 1898-99
(B) 1930-32
(C) 1830-32
(D) 1855-56
Ans : (D)

125. Equinox position occurs on—
(A) July 4
(B) December 22
(C) March 21
(D) January 3
Ans : (C)

126. Which of the following is not an island of the Arabian sea ?
(A) Minicoy
(B) Sriharikota
(C) Kheriabet
(D) Bhatkal
Ans : (B)

127. Which of the following is true about sharing of power by government bodies ?
(A) Undermine unity of the country
(B) Creates a balanace of power
(C) Delays government decisions
(D) Increases instability
Ans : (B)

128. Which among the following statements is not true about the European revolutions of 1848 ?
(A) Installation of national assembly at Frankfurt by German states
(B) The passing of first Reform Act in England
(C) Installation of Constitutional Monarchy in Naples
(D) Installation of Republican Government in France
Ans : (B)

129. The first textile industry in India was established at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Gwalior
(C) Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)

130. The workforce population includes people from—
(A) 18 to 60 years
(B) 21 to 60 years
(C) 25 to 59 years
(D) 15 to 59 years
Ans : (D)

131. Which of the following should not happen in a good democracy ?
(A) Respect to minority voice
(B) Discrimination on the basis of caste, religion and gender
(C) Free and fair elections
(D) Good governance
Ans : (B)

132. Underemployment occurs when people—
(A) Are working less than what they are capacble of doing
(B) Are not paid for their work
(C) Do not want to work
(D) Are working in busy manner
Ans : (A)

133. The institution which prepares constitution is called—
(A) Election Commission
(B) Constituent Assembly
(C) Parliament
(D) Legislature
Ans : (B)

134. Match the following—
National Leader
(a) Ahamad Sukarno
(b) Ho-Chi-Minh
(c) Aung-San
(d) Gamal Abdel Nasser
Nation
1. Egypt 2. Myanmar
3. Indonesia 4. Vietnam
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

135. Which of the following is the largest natural port of India ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (D)

136. The credit of inventing the printing technique goes to—
(A) Egypt
(B) India
(C) China
(D) France
Ans : (C)

137. Which of the following states has registered lowest population growth in last decade (1991–2001) ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka
(C) Goa
(D) Kerela
Ans : (D)

138. Which among the following can not be considered as a reason of industrial revolution in Europe ?
(A) Population growth in Europe and the discovery of new markets in America and Asia
(B) High intellectual level of European citizens
(C) Renaissance and the origin of scientific attitude in Europe
(D) Mercantile revolution and beginning of capitalism
Ans : (B)

139. Which of the following is the period of sixth five year plan ?
(A) 1974-78
(B) 1985-90
(C) 1992-97
(D) 1980-85
Ans : (D)

140. Aliabet is situated—
(A) Near Kolkata (West Bengal)
(B) Near Thiruvananthapuram (Kerela)
(C) Near Bhavnagar (Gujarat)
(D) Near Mumbai (Maharashtra)
Ans : (C)

141. Which countries in the world has highest women political representation ?
(A) India
(B) Russia
(C) Nordic countries (Sweden, Finland, Norway)
(D) America
Ans : (A)

142. What are the main sectors into which Indian economy is classified on the basis of ownership ?
(A) Primary and Secondary Sector
(B) Secondary and Tertairy Sector
(C) Private and Public Sector
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

143. When the first complete census was done in India ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1911
(C) 1872
(D) 1881
Ans : (D)

144. How many people in India live in poverty ?
(A) 26 crore
(B) 28 crore
(C) 32 crore
(D) 30 crore
Ans : (A)

145. Proportion of rural population in India as per 2001 census is—
(A) 27•8
(B) 78•2
(C) 72•2
(D) 27•2
Ans : (C)

146. The fall of Bastille took place on—
(A) July 4, 1914
(B) September 1, 1939
(C) July 4, 1776
(D) July 14, 1789
Ans : (D)

147. In post revolution Russia, which among the following policies was adopted for economic development ?
(A) Corporatisation
(B) Mixed Economy
(C) Privatisation
(D) Five Years Planning
Ans : (C)

148. Where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute situated ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Dehradun
(C) Simla
(D) Imphal
Ans : (B)

149. Khetri in Rajasthan is famous for—
(A) Iron
(B) Coal
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper
Ans : (D)

150. Who were the protagonists of Chartist Movement in England ?
(A) Workmen (Labourers)
(B) Capitalists
(C) Upper class Citizens
(D) Peasants
Ans : (A)

151. What is not true about a federal system ?
(A) Promote unity of the country
(B) Encourage dictatorship
(C) Ensure power sharing
(D) Accommodate regional diversity
Ans : (B)

152. Who was the founder of ‘Young Itlay’ movement ?
(A) Mussolini
(B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi
(D) Mazzini
Ans : (D)

153. Which of the following is associated with Aluminium production ?
(A) NHAI
(B) NAPP
(C) NALCO
(D) HAL
Ans : (C)

154. In India the infant mortality rate has come down from 147 per thousand in 1951 to …… in 2000.
(A) 65
(B) 80
(C) 70
(D) 75
Ans : (D)

155. Which of the following is a correct statement about democracy ?
(A) Democracy discourages people’s initiatives
(B) Democracy and development go together
(C) Dictatorship is better than democracy
(D) Democracy promotes inequalities
Ans : (B)

156. NREGA stands for—
(A) National Rural Equal Guarantee Act
(B) National Rural Equal Grant Act
(C) National Rual Employment Guaratnee Activity
(D) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
Ans : (D)

157. In which year elections to the constituent Assembly were held in India ?
(A) January 1947
(B) July 1946
(C) August 1947
(D) December 1946
Ans : (B)

158. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
European Coloniser —African Territories
(A) David Livingstone—Zambisi Valley
(B) De Braza —Cape Colony
(C) Henry Stanley—Congo River Valley
(D) Cecil Rhodes —Rhodesia
Ans : (B)

159. Shivasamudram Hydro Power Project is situated in the state—
(A) Karnataka
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerela
Ans : (A)

160. Match the following—
City
(a) Paris
(b) London
(c) New York
(d) Cairo
Related River
1. Thames
2. Seine
3. Nile
4. Hudson
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

161. The corridor connecting Thiruvananthapuram with Western Tamil Nadu is known as—
(A) Aleppi
(B) Calicut
(C) Palghat
(D) Shenkotta
Ans : (C)

162. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (D)

163. What does the abbreviations DPIP stands for ?
(A) District Population Improvement Programme
(B) District Poverty Initiative Programme
(C) Department of Poverty Improvement Programme
(D) Department of Population Improvement Programme
Ans : (B)

164. ‘Ten Degree Channel’ is located between—
(A) Little Nicobar island and Great Nicobar island
(B) Battimalv island and Chaura island
(C) Car Nicobar island and Battimalv island
(D) Car Nicobar island and Little Andaman island
Ans : (D)

165. Who said this : “Politics be guided by ethics” ?
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Ambedkar
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (D)

166. Formal sources of credit does not includes—
(A) Banks
(B) Cooperatives
(C) Employers
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

167. A feature of Martial Law is—
(A) Army takes part in election
(B) Army is not a part of civil administration
(C) Army assumes political power
(D) Army of a country invades the other country
Ans : (C)

168. Identify the state where ‘Green Revolution’ was not introduced first—
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Western Uttar Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

169. Which of the following physiographic divisions in India owns highest population density ?
(A) Coastal plains
(B) Western desert
(C) Lower Gangetic plain
(D) Upper Gangetic plain
Ans : (C)

170. ‘Metternich’ was the—
(A) Foreign Minister of Russia
(B) President of France
(C) Foreign Minister of Austria
(D) Chancellor of Prussia
Ans : (C)

171. What was the nature of Fascist ideology ?
(A) Humanism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Radical Nationalism
(D) Socialism
Ans : (C)

172. When did the II World War begin ?
(A) On July 14, 1940
(B) On August 4, 1940
(C) On November 1, 1939
(D) On September 1, 1939
Ans : (D)

173. Second highest density of population is found at (census 2001)—
(A) Pondicherry
(B) Lakshwadeep
(C) Delhi
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)

174. Who was a socialist thinker among the following ?
(A) Jermi Bentham
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Saint Simon
(D) T. H. Green
Ans : (C)

175. Match the following—
Defeated Nations in Ist World War
(a) Germany
(b) Austria
(c) Turkey
(d) Hungary
Name of Treaty
1. Treaty of Saint Germain
2. Treaty of Versailles
3. Treaty of Trianon
4. Treaty of Sevres
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

176. Which among the following indirectly prepared the back ground of the unification of Germany ?
(A) Peter the Great
(B) Joseph Ferdinand
(C) Napolean Bonapart
(D) Matternich
Ans : (D)

177. The width of India from East to West is—
(A) 15200 km
(B) 2933 km
(C) 3214 km
(D) 7516 km
Ans : (B)

178. When and where the most devastating famine occurred in India ?
(A) Famine of Orissa in 1926
(B) Famine of Bihar in 1947
(C) Famine of Bengal in 1943
(D) Famine of Rajasthan in 1943
Ans : (C)

179. Which of the following is not true about political parties ?
(A) Political parties are involved in grouping
(B) Political parties are faced with leadership clashes
(C) Political parties are involved in corruption
(D) Political parties are not required in democracy
Ans : (D)

180. In Minimum Support Price there is—
(A) Purchase of food grains by farmers
(B) Purchase of food grains by government
(C) Purchase of food grains by traders
(D) Purchase of food grains by foreign countries
Ans : (B)

181. A Republican state is that—
(A) Where head of the state is elected
(B) Where head of the state is appointed
(C) Where head of the state is hereditary
(D) Where head of the state is nominated
Ans : (A)

182. Who were the founders of ‘Orange-Free State’ in South Africa ?
(A) French
(B) German
(C) Britishers
(D) Dutch
Ans : (D)

183. Chipko movement was effectively led by—
(A) Ramanathan
(B) Ranganathan
(C) S. L. Bahuguna
(D) H. N. Bahuguna
Ans : (C)

184. Where in the world was the first underground rail service started ?
(A) Calcutta
(B) New York
(C) Paris
(D) London
Ans : (D)

185. EI-NINO orginates in—
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Mediterranean Sea
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) Atlantic Ocean
Ans : (C)

186. When is the National Consumer Day celebtrated ?
(A) December 24
(B) March 24
(C) March 15
(D) April 15
Ans : (A)

187. Where the Gir National Park is located ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (D)

188. Which of the following is not a ‘Tiger project’ ?
(A) Indravati
(B) Ghataprabha
(C) Ranthambhor
(D) Sariska
Ans : (B)

189. Answer to communalism is—
(A) Secularism
(B) Special status to majority religions
(C) Ban on religion
(D) Control over religious activities
Ans : (A)

190. Which is the largest producing sector of Indian Economy ?
(A) Tertiary Sector
(B) Public Sector
(C) Primary Sector
(D) Secondary Sector
Ans : (A)

191. In 1904-05 Russia was defeated by which of the following countries ?
(A) Turkey
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (B)

192. In which year Parliament of India enacted R.T.I. (Right to Information) Act ?
(A) 2006
(B) 2007
(C) 2004
(D) 2005
Ans : (D)

193. Which of the following states is a leading tea producer ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Kerela
(C) Assam
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (C)

194. The Congress of Vienna (1814-15) was convened—
(A) To resolve the Spanish succession dispute
(B) To keep peace and security in the European territories of Turkish empire
(C) For the political settlement of European states after the fall of Napoleon
(D) For the division of African colonies among European powers
Ans : (C)

195. Which among the following wasnot a cause of Hitler’s rise ?
(A) Repercussions of economic depression
(B) The weakness of French government
(C) The treaty of Versailles
(D) Failure of Vimar republic
Ans : (B)

196. In November 1936, between which countries the Anti Commintern Pact took place ?
(A) Between Turkey-Italy
(B) Between England-France
(C) Between Germany-Japan
(D) Between Germany-Italy
Ans : (C)

197. Where is the highest malefemale ratio in India (census 2001) ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerela
(C) Pondicherry
(D) Delhi
Ans : (B)

198. Who among the following is considered as the Father of Scientific Socialism ?
(A) Charles Fourier
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Robert Oven
(D) Louis Blanc
Ans : (B)

199. What is the literal meaning of the title of Hitler’s autobiography ‘Mein Kampf’ ?
(A) My Life
(B) My Country
(C) My Struggle
(D) My Victory
Ans : (C)

200. From the following activities, which is a Non-economic activity ?
(A) Neena helps her son with his home-work
(B) Shilpa is a nurse in a hospital
(C) Anoop works as a teacher in a school
(D) Kartik works in a private firm
Ans : (A)

United India Insurance AO Exam (Held On 24-05-2009)

Reasoning Ability

Directions—(Q. 1—5) In the following questions, the symbols +, -,x
÷ and = are used with the following meanings
A + B means A is greater than B;
A – B means A is greater than or equal to B;
A x B means A is equal to B;
A ÷ B means A is smaller than B; and
A = B means A is smaller than or equal to B.
For each question you have to assume given statements to be true and then decide which of the two given conclusions is are definitely true. Give answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true;
(B) If only conclusion II is true;
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true; and
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
1. Statements:
D=S, N + V, D x R, R + V
Conclusions: I. S + V
II D+N
2. Statements:
K x P, M + J, C÷ P, K = M
Conclusions: I. M + P
II. M x P
3. Statements:
L – R, N x M, L ÷ M, N = P
Conclusions: I. M + R
II. R+P
4.Statements:
W + K, S = Z, X – W, S x K
Conclusions: I. K x Z
II. X÷K
5. Statements:
P ÷ Q, W – N, P — N, T + W
Conclusions: I. P x W
II. Q÷W
Directions—(Q. 6—10) There are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II , III and IV. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) .
6. Statements:
Some songs are throngs.
Some throngs are longs.
Conclusions:
I. Some songs are longs.
II. No songs are longs.
III. Only longs are songs.
IV Only songs are longs.
(A) Only I Follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Either III or IV follows
7. Statements:
Some charts are darts.
All darts are carts.
Some carts are smarts.
Conclusions:
I. Some charts are carts.
II. Some carts are darts.
Ill. Some darts are smarts.
IV. Some smarts are charts.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
8. Statements:
All blanks are beams.
All bridges are beams.
All bridges are cows.
Conclusions:
I. Some cows are beams.
II. Some blanks are cows.
III. Some blanks are bridges.
IV. Some bridges are not cows.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) I,II and III follow
(D) None follow

9. Statements:
Some Chinese are not Russians.
All Russians are Africans.
Some Africans are Indians.
Conclusions:
I. Some Chinese are not Africans.
II. Some Chinese are not Indians.
Ill. All Russians are Indians.
IV. Some Indians are Chinese.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Either II or IV follows
10. Statements:
All chalks are cheese.
No cheese are ships.
Some herds are ships.
Conclusions:
I. Some herds are not chalks.
II. Some herds are cheese.
Ill. Some cheese are not herds.
IV. No chalk is a ship.
(A) I, II and IV follow
(B) Either II or III and IV follows
(C) II and III follow
(D) II and IV follow
Directions—(Q. 11—15) A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular logic. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement?
Input: CRI END YAM STU THE
StepI:YAM THE CRI END STE
StepII:YAM THE STE END CRI
Step III:STU CRI YAM THE END
Step IV;STU CRI END THE YAM
Study the logic and answer questions
11. If step VII of an input is ‘OVER THE PRE NEW BONE’ what is
the step IV of that input?
(A) BONE THE PRE OVERNEW
(B) THE PRE BONE NEW OVER
(C) THE BONE PRE OVER NEW
(D) PRE BONE THE OVER NEW
12. Given the following input— SYM REACH LAD PHOTO CAL
what step will the following arrangement?
REACH LAD PHOTO SYM CAL
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) IV
(D) III
13. If Step VI of a given input be ‘MAP IND PAK RUS ENG’, what would be the input?
(A) IND MAP PAK RUS ENG
(B) IND MAP ENG RUS PAK
(C) ENG RUS IND PAK MAP
(D) RUS MAP IND ENG PAK
14. Given the following input, what would be Step VIII of the input?
Input : BANK CRIS ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
(A) PRIZE WITH CRIS ATTRACT BANK
(B) CRIS BANK PRIZE WITH ATTRACT
(C) PRIZE WITH BANK ATTRACT CRIS
(D) CR15 BANK ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
15. In which step will we get the same arrangement as the input?
(A) VIII
(B) IX
(C)X
(D)XI
Directions—(Q. 16—20) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I II and III. You have to consider the statement and the assumption, and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Then decide which one of the answers, (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct.
16. Statement : Considering the tickets sold during the last seven days, the circus authorities decided to continue the show for another fortnight which includes two weekends.
Assumptions:
I. People may not turn up on weekdays.
II. The average number of people who will be visiting circus will be more or less the same as that of the last seven days.
III. There may not be enough responses at other places.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
17. Statement : The telephone company informed the subscribers through a notification that those who do not pay their bills by the due date will be charged penalty for every defaulting day.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by the due date to avoid penalty.
II. The money collected as penalty may set off the losses due to delayed payment.
III. People generally pay heed to such notices.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
18. Statement The national air carrier has decided to start a weekly air service from town ‘A’ to town ‘B’.
Assumptions:
I. There will be enough passengers to make the operation economically viable.
II. Other carriers may not start such service.
III The people staying around these towns can afford the cost of air travel.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Both II and III are implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) ALL are implicit
19. Statement : A group of friends decided to go for a picnic to Dum Duma Lake during the next holiday season to avoid crowd of people.
Assumptions:
I. Generally many people do not go to Dum Duma Lake.
II. People prefer other spots to Dum Duma Lake.
III. Many people do not know about Dum Duma Lake.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) All are implicit
20. Statement : “Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession”—Advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Flats are available in court
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
Ill. It is a practice to give such an advertisement.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only III is implicit
(D) All are implicit
21. pq—rqp—qrrq—p—rrqpp—r
(A) rqpqr
(B) qprrq
(C) qrprp
(D) rppqq
22. nnt—qqn—tt—qnn—tq-.
(A) nnqtq
(B) qntnq
(C) tnqtq
(D) ttqtq
Directions(Q. 23 and 24)
P + Q means P is the brother of Q
P – Q means P is the sister of Q
P x Q means P is the father of Q
P ÷ Q means P is the mother of
Q.
23. A÷B-C x D,
then A is D
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Mother
(D) Grandmother
24. Which of the following shows that V is the grandmother of Y?
(A) VxR+KVY
(B) V÷RxK-Y
(C) V÷R+KxY
(D) VxR-K÷Y
25. How many pairs of letters are there in the word STRAIGHT FORWARD which have numbers of letters between them in the word equal to the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(A)4
(B)5
(C)6
(D)7
26. Milk: Butter
(A) Banana : Fruit
(B) Juice : Health
(C) Wood: Paper
(D) Chili Spices
27. Hat : Headwear
(A) Shark : Fish
(B) Crocodile : Terrapin
(C) Shoe : Socks
(D) Glove: Hand
28. Horse : Cow
(A) Milk: Ice-cream
(B) Mars : Moon
(C) Snow : Water
(D) Pink: Blue
29. Hair : Head
(A) Teeth : Mouth
(B) Tea-leaves : Mountain slopes
(C) Hand: Arm
(D) Footpath : Road
30. Fore: Hind
(A) Sky:Space
(B) Land:Sea
(C) North : South
(D) Face:Neck
Directions—(Q. 31—35) Read the following information to answer the questions— A, B, C, D and E are sons of P, Q ,R, S and T but not in the same order.
Match the right mother and son on the basis of the information given below—
Q is not B’s or C mother.
A’s or Es mother is not T.
C is not R’s son.
E is not Q’s or S’s son and his mother’s name does not start with the letter ‘R’.
A’s mother is not Q or R
31. Who is S’s son?
(A)A
(B)B
(C)C
(D)D
32. Who is C mother?
(A)P
(B)R
(C)S
(D)T
33. Who is Q’s son?
(A)A
(B)D
(C)B
(D)E
34. Who is P’s son?
(A)B
(B)C
(C)D
(D)E
35. Who is son of R ?
(A)E
(B)A
(C)B
(D)D
Lflrections—(Q. 36-40) In each of the following number series, two terms are put within brackets. Mark in the answer-sheet—
(A) If both the bracketed terms are right;
(B) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong;
(C) If the first bracketed term is wrong and second is right;
(D) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.
36. 5, 17, (30), 73, 129, (225)
37. 11, 29, (55), 89, (131), 181
38. 3, 12, 28, 32, (42), (57), 61, 70, 86
39. 2,3,6, (11), 18, (27), 38
40. 4, 14, (18), (24), 31, 36, 38, 48, 53
Directions—(Q. 41-45 )Choose the odd one.
41.
(A) YNHIA
(B) SGRFI
(C) ISEPU
(D) FHUJU
42.
(A) PROUD
(B) DRIVER
(C) WHEAT
(D) TRAIN
43.
(A) CXHIA
(B) RCFCL
(C) MTOWF
(D) CPRSV
44.
(A) JOT
(B) OUT
(C) TEN
(D)DIN
45. (A) HR
(B) GT
(C) KP
(D) FU
Directions—(Q. 46-49) Read the following information and answer the questions given below it. If ranks of five candidates P, Q ,R S and T are arranged in ascending order of their marks in Numerical Ability, T is the fourth and S is the first. When they are arranged in the ascending order of marks in General Awareness, P takes the place of T and T takes the place of Q. R’s position remains the same in both the arrangements. Q’s marks are lowest in one test and highest in the other test. P has more marks than R in Numerical Ability.
46. Who has secured the highest marks in General Awareness?
(A)Q
(B)T
(C)S
(D)R
47. Who has secured the highest marks in Numerical Ability?
(A)S
(B)R
(C)P
(D)Q
48. Which of the following groups of candidates has improvement in rank in General Awareness as compared to that in Numerical Ability?
(A) SPT
(B) PSR
(C) QST
(D) SPQ
49. Whose marks in General Awareness are more than R’s marks in General Awareness?
(A) Only P’s
(B)P’s, Q’s and S’s
(C) P’s, S’s and T’s
(D) P’s, Q’s and T’s
50. In a certain code CAMEL is written as XPOGT and RABBITS as YPUULFZ. How can AIRMAIL be written in that code?
(A) PIYOPLT
(B) PLYOPTL
(C) PLROPLT
(D) PLYOPLT
Answers:

1	A
2	C
3	A
4	B
5	D
6	C
7	A
8	D
9	D
10	B
11	C
12	B
13	D
14	C
15	C
16	B
17	D
18	C
19	D
20	A
21	D
22	C
23	D
24	B
25	C
26	C
27	D
28	B
29	A
30	C
31	A
32	D
33	B
34	D
35	C
36	C
37	A
38	C
39	A
40	D
41	D
42	B
43	C
44	B
45	A
46	B
47	D
48	A
49	C
50	D

BSF ASST. SUB INSPECTOR MODEL PAPER

Syllabus and Model Test paper Science for Border Security Force BSF exam Assistant Sub Inspector & Head Constable. This exam will Consist of a Written paper of 2 hrs 30 Minutes Duration containing objective type questions of 200 Marks.
This Paper will be Subdivided into Paper I Physics : 60 Marks
Paper II Mathematics : 60 Marks
Paper III Chemistry : 30 Marks
Paper IV English and GK : 50 Marks
For paper I,II and III Questions will be of 10+2 Level

MODEL QUESTIONS:

1. Which of the following elements are present in all proteins?
1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Oxygen
4. Nitrogen
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2,3and 4
Answer: d
2. The main difference between raw soyabeans and cooked soyabeans is in respect of
(a) Calorific value
(b) Amino acid composition
(c) Protein content
(d) Biological value of proteins
Answer: c
3. Oranges are rich source of
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Answer: d
4. Persons suffering from gout
(a) Are given high doses of insulin
(b) Have increased number of red blood cells in their body
(c) Have too much acid in their blood
(d) Are given vitamin B complex to regain the loss of body weight
Answer: c
5. In which of the following types of diseases can X-ray be used as a treatment?
(a)Pathological
(b) Cancerous
(c)Cardiovascular
(d) Psychological
Answer: b
6. Which of the following toxic gases in the environment lowers the resistance to pneumonia in human beings?
(a)Sulphur dioxide
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c)Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen chloride
Answer: a
7. Match the following:
Pulse Protein %
A. Cow pea 1. 22.9
B. Rajmah 2. 43.2
C. Soyabean 3. 24.1
D. Dry peas 4. 19.7
ABCD ABCD
(a) l 4 3 2 (b)1 234
(c) 3 1 24 (d) 4312
Answer: c
8. Which of the following diseases is inheritable?
(a)Leukemia
(b) Color blindness
(c) Malignancy
(d) Hepatitis
Answer: b
9. Which of the following has the lowest carbohydrate content?
(a) Rice
(b) Millet
(c) Sorghum
(d) Ragi
Answer: d
10. Which of the following is of the highest nutritive value?
(a) Arhar
(b) Maize
(c)Soyabean
(d) Groundnut
Answer: c
11. A pregnant woman is advised to undergo abortion if she contracts a disease called
(a) Measles
(b) Small pox
(c) Chicken pox
(d) German measles
Answer: d
12. Staple food crops, such as potatoes, are low in
(a) Starch and vitamins
(b) Protein and oil
(c) Sugars and carbohydrates
(d) Vitamins and minerals
Answer: b
13. A boy suffers from color blindness. It is a/an
(a)Infectious Disease
(b) Virus Disease
(c) Disease due to Fungal Infection
(d) Genetic Disease
Answer:d
14. Which of the following is least infectious?
(a) Leprosy
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Conjunctivitis
Answer: b
15. Which of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a)Dengue fever
(b) Malaria
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Filariasis
Answer: a
16. A mirage is the result of
(a) fluctuation in refractive index of the atmosphere with height
(b) increase in refractive index of the atmosphere with height
(c) decrease in refractive index of the atmosphere
(d) refraction of light through air having very large temperature gradients
Answer: d
17. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Disease Causative agent
(a) Scabies Entamoeba hisiolytica
(b) Pneumonia Sarcoptes sps.
(c) Filaria Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Tetanus Haemophi pertussis
Answer: b
18. Which of the following are correct?
1. Nicotine occurs in tobacco plant.
2. Morphine occurs in green buds of poppy plant.
3. Cocaine is used as a local anesthetic.
(a) l and 2
(b) 2and 3
(c) l and3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
19. The best method for improving the nutrient composition of a diet is by
(a) Combining various foods
(b) Use of sprouted cereals & pulses
(c) Use of boiled foods
(d) Use of processed foods
Answer: a
20. Which of the following has been found useful in keeping cholesterol level down?
(a)Tulsi
(b) Turmeric
(c)Garlic
(d) Serpentina
Answer: c
21. Which fruit can diabetic patients eat freely?
(a)Banana
(b) Guava
(c)Orange
(d) Mango
Answer: c
22. Which of the following statements is true with respect to Leukemia?
(a) Number of RBCs increases in blood.
(b) Number of WRCs increases in blood.
(c) Number of both RBCs and WOCs decreases in blood.
(d) Number of WBCs decreases in blood.
Answer: b
23. The injection of anti -toxin is given to prevent
(a) Tetanus
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Malaria
Answer: a
24. Which of the following results from the germination of pulses?
1. Increase in thiamine
2. Increase in riboflavin
3 Increase in Vitamin C
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2and 3
(c) 1and 3
(d) 1,2and 3
Answer: a
25. Which of the following diseases is/are likely to spread in the entire community if a leaky septic tank contaminates the water supply?
1. Cholera
2. Typhoid
3. Tuberculosis
4. Leprosy
(a) l only
(b) l and2
(c) 1,2and4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
26. Ready source of energy available for athletes is
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
Answer: a
27. Milk, cheese and eggs are the source of vitamins?
(a) B and C
(b)A and C
(c)C and D
(d) A and D
Answer: d
28 Which of the following contains a water sol neurotoxin which causes lathyrism?
(a)Masoor
(b)Urd
(c) Moong
(d)Kesari
Answer: d
29. Which of the following is termed as good cholesterol?
(a)HDL
(b) LDL
(c)LSD
(d) BHC
Answer: a
30. Prolonged consumption of pigeon pea (arhar or tur dal) adulterated with kesari dal (Lathyrus sativus) leads to
(a) Glaucoma
(b) Liver cirrhosis
(c) Paralysis
(d) Dropsy
Answer: c
31. Who are likely to get tapeworms?
(a)Meat eaters
(b) Pork eaters
(c)Beef eaters
(d) Fish eaters
Answer: b
32. Which element in human diet is considered a major cause of heart disease?
(a) Cholesterol
(b) Carbohydrates
(c)Proteins
(d) Fats
Answer: a
33. A girl ate sweets while fanning the flies away. Due to this, she suffered from a disease diagnosed as
(a)Kwashiorkor
(b) Tuberculosis
(c)Diptheria
(d) Cholera
Answer: d
34. AIDS stands for
(a) Acquired Immune Defective Symptom
(b) Acquired Immune Deficiency Symptom
(c) Acquired Infection Deficiency Syndrome
(d)Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(e) Abnormal Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Answer: d
35. Which of the following is a water borne disease?
(a)Tuberculosis
(b) Cholera
(c) Influenza
(d) Malaria
Answer: b
36. The virus of AIDS affects the growth of
(a) Hemoglobin
(b) RBCs in blood
(c)T cells in blood
(d) Grey cells in brain
Answer: c
37. Tetracycline is used
(a) For air purification
(b) As a pest killer
(c) As anti-plague drug
(d) As a preservative
Answer: c
38. Refrigeration is a process in which the decomposition of food
(a) Retarded
(b) Stopped
(c) Speeded up
(d) Delayed
Answer: d
39. Thought, feeling and perception get altered when one is under the influence of
(a) Amphetamines
(b) Tranquilizers
(c) Morphine
(d) Hashish
Answer: d
40. An ideal godown for storing food grains is the one which keeps the grain
(a) With constant air circulation
(b) In proper humidity
(c) Cool and free from pest
(d) In well-lighted condition
Answer: c
41. The human body is immune to which disease?
(a) Jaundice
(b) Diabetes
(c) Small pox
(d) Tuberculosis
Answer: c
42. Mother’s milk is preferred to cow’s milk because it contains
(a) More fats and more lipids
(b) Less fats and less lipids
(c) More lipids and less fat
(d) More fats and less lipids
Answer: b
43. Which of the following are affected by AIDS?
1. Blood circulatory system
2. Nervous system
3. Immune system
4. Respiratory system
(a) l, 2and3
(b) 2,3and4
(c) 1, 2and4
(d)1,3and4
Answer: d
44. Which of the following chemicals is used for preserving fruit juices?
(a) Ammonium sulphate
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Sodium benzoate
(d) Potassium nitrate
Answer: c
45. Which of the following is not a cereal?
(a) Rice
(b) Mustard
(c) Barley
(d) Maize
Answer: b
46. UP-308 is a variety of
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Millet
(d) Cotton
Answer: a
47. Which of the following is adapted to grow in dry places?
(a) Hydrophytes
(b) Helophytes
(c) Xerophytes
(d) Sciophytes
Answer: c
48. Cotton fiber is rooted from
(a) Leaf
(b) Root
(c) Stem
(d) Seed
Answer: d
49. Plant identical to mother plant can be had from
(a) Seeds
(b) Stem cutting
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer: c
50. The biological process accomplished in preparing wine from grapes is very similar to the one involved in the preparation of
(a) Curd from milk
(b) Cream from milk
(c) Quinine from cinchona
(d) Penicillin from penicillium
Answer: a

EPFO Social Security Assistant Exam., 2009 Paper

EPFO Social Security Assistant Exam., 2009
(Held on 6-9-2009)
English Language
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Emperor had inherited a peaceful and prosperous kingdom at a young age after the untimely death of his father. A few months later a man arrived at court. He stated that he was from a far off land and had the gift of foresight. He impressed the Emperor with his witty remarks and was appointed a courtier. The Emperor and those at court all enjoyed hearing accounts of his travels. One day the newly appointed minister said, “Your Majesty, you are destined for great things. It is written in the stars. I have learnt the art of fortune telling. Do not be content with your kingdom alone. Travel, see the world and conquer. There are many who are oppressed. They will bless you for rescuing them from the tyranny of their rulers.” The Emperor was stunned to hear this but he refused to discuss the matter at the time. The courtiers too were astonished to hear this and began debating among themselves. “It is true,” they said. “Our Emperor’s father was a great warrior and he ruled wisely. Perhaps there is truth in this.” So the newly appointed courtier shrewdly planted the idea of waging war against other kingdoms at court. After hearing several repeated arguments in favour of this idea the Emperor finally agreed. He was a young man and a battle seemed to be exciting and an adventure. So the newly appointed minister planned the first campaign against a smaller neighbouring kingdom. The Emperor knew the ruler was cruel and felt justified in waging war against him. Having the superior army he easily defeated the king. Everyone celebrated. But the campaign did not stop there.

With every victory the new minister would urge the Emperor on the next battle. The soldiers grew tired after over two years at war but did not complain out of respect and loyalty to their ruler. Meanwhile the situation in his kingdom began to deteriorate. With no one to look after the daily administration and to resolve disputes, signs of neglect began to be seen. The Emperor was no longer bothered if he was freeing the oppressed when he attacked a kingdom. He would plunder their riches to fund his wars. The new minister who was in charge of these funds kept a large part for himself and grew richer. An old man who had been a minister in the Emperor’s father’s court grew worried and decided to do something about this situation. A few days later when the Emperor was out riding in the forest, he suddenly saw the old man. He greeted him like an old friend and inquired what he was doing there. The man pointed to two owls in the trees. “I am listening to their conversation”. “What are they saying ?” The Emperor asked unbelieving. “They are negotiating the marriage of their children. The first owl wants to know whether the other will be gifting his daughter fifty villages on her wedding day. To which the second one replied that he would have to gift her one hundred and fifty as the villages were in ruins and as such were worthless but with the Emperor as ruler there would be many such villages.” When the Emperor heard this he realized the error of his ways. He returned home immediately, rewarded the old minister putting him incharge of reconstructing the ruined villages and dismissed the fortune teller from his court.

1. How did the minister convince the Emperor to attack the neighbouring kingdom ?
(1) He bribed the courtiers to convince the Emperor that he could be a great ruler
(2) He told the Emperor that his father was a great warrior and would want his son to follow in his footsteps.
(3) He convinced the Emperor that there was no risk involved since his father’s army was inferior to that of the Emperor.
(A) All (1), (2) and (3)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. What effect did the Emperor’s victories have on his people ?
(A) Their respect for him grew with every victory
(B) They prospered as the Emperor spent all the money he plundered on his people
(C) They experienced many daily administrative difficulties
(D) They grew discontented as they had not seen their family members who were in the army for several months
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following best describes the newly appointed minister ?
(1) He was cunning and manipulated the Emperor into going to war.
(2) He was dishonest and stole from the Emperor.
(3) He was jealous of the old minister.
(A) Both (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Both (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


4. Why was the man appointed as a courtier ?
(A) He claimed that he was a relative of the Emperor’s from a distant country
(B) He pleased the Emperor with the gifts he bought and stories about his adventures
(C) He told the Emperor that he would become extremely rich one day
(D) He flattered the Emperor more than the other courtiers did
(E) The Emperor enjoyed his company
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following can be said about the old man ?
(1) The Emperor had removed him from his post on his father’s death.
(2) The Emperor respected his judgement.
(3) He saw how prosperous the new minister had become and he too wanted to become rich.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The Emperor’s father inheri-ted his kingdom at a very young age
(B) The soldiers followed the Emperor only because they were afraid of him
(C) It took time at first to convince the Emperor to conquer other kingdoms
(D) The Emperor was afraid to wage war against the neighbouring kingdom because its ruler was cruel
(E) After his father’s death the Emperor had to wage many wars to ensure his kingdom remained peaceful
Ans : (C)

7. What was the Emperor’s reaction when he saw the old minister ?
(A) He was ashamed to see him because he had replaced him with a new minister
(B) He was relieved to see him because he wanted his advice
(C) He felt sorry for the old man because he was talking to birds
(D) He was pleased to see him
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

8. What justification did the courtier give for attacking the neighbouring kingdom ?
(A) The Emperor needed the money to maintain his army
(B) The money was needed for the benefit of the Emperor’s subjects and to ensure the kingdom did not fall into debt
(C) To better the condition of its people who were being unjustly treated by their ruler
(D) It was his father’s last wish
(E) Its ruler had attacked the Emperor’s kingdom during his father’s reign
Ans : (C)

9. Why did the Emperor reward the old man ?
(A) For his talent of talking to birds
(B) He was succesful at reconstructing the destroyed villages
(C) He felt sorry for his plight in his old age and wanted to do something to help
(D) For narrating an imaginative story to the Emperor
(E) For showing the Emperor where his duty lay
Ans : (E)

10. Under what circumstances did the Emperor inherit his kingdom ?
(A) His father was suddenly killed in battle
(B) His courtiers requested him to become king
(C) He inherited the kingdom on reaching a particular age
(D) His father had died after an illness
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is Most Similar in Meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. GLITTERED
(A) Pulsed
(B) Fluctuated
(C) Sparkled
(D) Winked
(E) Flickered
Ans : (C)

12. ENGROSSED
(A) Engraved
(B) Occupied
(C) Embedded
(D) Embossed
(E) Angered
Ans : (B)

13. DISPOSITION
(A) Temperament
(B) Body
(C) Work
(D) Dance
(E) Smile
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word/group of words which is Most Opposite in Meaning to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. WEAK
(A) Feeble
(B) Proper
(C) Muscular
(D) Rough
(E) Loud
Ans : (C)

15. PLEASED
(A) Painful
(B) Cheerful
(C) Harsh
(D) Discontented
(E) Rude
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Jyotsna quickly got ready to go to the party and asked her husband to do the same.
(A) getting ready to went
(B) getting ready to go
(C) get ready to go
(D) got ready to went
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

17. We should be happy with whatever we are having and not be greedy—
(A) whatever we are have
(B) whatever is being had
(C) whatever we have
(D) whatever we has
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

18. The old lady was bent with age, her hair was grey and her clothes were tattering.(A) was in tatter
(B) were in tatters
(C) were for tatter
(D) were tatter
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

19. She loved buying fashionable clothes and spent quite an amounts of money on them.
(A) quite an amount
(B) quite a amounts
(C) quite amounts
(D) quite some amounts
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

20. Her love for animals grow each day as she watched her pet dog, Bruno, grow, up.
(A) growing every day
(B) grows every day
(C) growth each day
(D) grew each day
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. The boss was weary (A) angry with his subordinate (B) and reprimanded (C) him on his behaviour. (D) All correct. (E)
Ans : (A)

22. We must work (A) hard and not relay (B) on the kindness (C) of others for our daily (D) needs. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

23. Even the most distant (A) dream can be realized (B) with determenation (C) and persistence. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

24. Vikram was sleeping (A) at night (B) in his cabin when suddenly (C) his room filled with lite. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. Your encouraging (A) words can lift someone (B) up and help him or her make (C) it through (D) the day. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) This dwindling down was because the body had discovered that it was easier to hold his temper than to drive nails into the fence.
(2) Once there was a little boy who had a very bad temper.
(3) Finally, the day came when the boy didn’t lose his temper at all.
(4) The first day the boy had driven 37 nails into the the fence.
(5) Over the next few weeks, as he learned to control his anger, the number of nails hammered daily gradually dwindled down.
(6) His father gave him a bag of nails and told him that every time he lost his temper, he must hammer a nail into the fence.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Ankur came home from work (A) / late, tired and irritated, to (B) / find his five year old son (C) / waited for him at the door. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. For many months (A) / Ram has been admiring (B) / the beautiful sports car displayed (C) / in a dealer’s showroom. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

33. Raghu’s father told him (A) / how proudy he was to (B) / have such a a fine son and (C) / how much he loved him. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

34. Before he could make arrangements, (A) / he received a telegram (B) / tell him his (C) / mother had passed away. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

35. His mother looked at him (A) / standing there, and the boy (B) / could see the memories (C) / flashing through her mind. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

36. You can imagine how (A) / annoyed I was (B) / when I learnt that (C) / the match has been postponed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

37. What you (A) /said is (B) / impertinenting to (C) / the occasion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. When he hears that news, (A) / he was almost (B) / in tears and (C) / could not utter a word. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

39. Since she has (A) / been hospitalized, (B) / we must wait till (C) / she is recovering. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

40. Yogesh knew the (A) / value of obedient too well (B) / not to anticipate some (C) / censure of his act. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits in the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Recently I visited Moscow, a Russian city (…41…) many war memorials. There is a huge park in Russia (…42…) as Peace Park. In the middle of the park (…43…) a pillar on which the different battles fought by the Russians have been mentioned alongwith the names and the places. As I was standing under a tree my eyes (…44…) on a young couple who had just been married. I started wondering (…45…) they had come to this monument on their wedding day. They walked up to the monument. (…46…) down a bouquet bowed their heads in silence and walked away. I was (…47…) to know what was going on, so I asked the tourist guide. “Oh, it is a (…48…) in Russia.” he said “Every couple must visit an important national monument nearby on their wedding day. It is a mark of gratitude. Our forefather have (…49…) so much for the country. The newly married couple needs to (…50…) they are free and living in a peaceful country because of their ancestors’ sacrifices. They must ask for their blessings.”

41. (A) with
(B) erected
(C) dedicated
(D) has
(E) built
Ans : (A)

42. (A) identified
(B) mentioned
(C) known
(D) call
(E) title
Ans : (C)

43. (A) placed
(B) located
(C) consturcted
(D) seen
(E) stands
Ans : (E)

44. (A) noticed
(B) go
(C) recognise
(D) fell
(E) drew
Ans : (D)

45. (A) about
(B) why
(C) what
(D) if
(E) where
Ans : (B)

46. (A) dropped
(B) persented
(C) laid
(D) arranged
(E) kept
Ans : (C)

47. (A) curious
(B) puzzled
(C) hasty
(D) disappointed
(E) surprised
Ans : (A)

48. (A) usual
(B) normal
(C) custom
(D) rituals
(E) practise
Ans : (C)

49. (A) gave
(B) surrender
(C) honoured
(D) sacrificed
(E) abandoned
Ans : (D)

50. (A) wish
(B) remember
(C) achieve
(D) remind
(E) dream
Ans : (B)