Uttarakhand PSC (J) (Pre.) Solved Paper

1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
(Ans) : (D)

2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
(Ans) : (A)

3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
(Ans) : (B)

4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
(Ans) : (C)

5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(B) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(Ans) : (B)

6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Anglo-Indian Community
(D) Parsi Community
(Ans) : (C)

7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age of—
(A) 58 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
(Ans) : (D)

8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly
(B) The State Cabinet
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Governor
(Ans) : (D)

9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu is related with—
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker under Article 105 of the Constitution
(Ans) : (C)

10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission
(Ans) : (A)

11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(A) of the Constitution
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution
(Ans) : (A)

12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by—
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)

13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ?
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(Ans) : (B)

14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for—
(A) Words Words Words
(B) Wide Word Words
(C) World Wide Web
(D) When Where Why
(Ans) : (C)

15. To which of the following companies, the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
(B) TISCO
(C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

16. The Article of the Indian Constitution which automatically become suspended on Proclamation of Emergency is—
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
(Ans) : (B)

17. Which State in India implemented the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(Ans) : (A)

18. In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
(Ans) : (B)

19. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’ takes place ?
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Inter-State Council
(Ans) : (A)

20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)

21. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal
(Ans) : (B)

22. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
(Ans) : (D)

23. In which of the following cases constitutionality of the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

24. How many times the emergency has been proclaimed in India on the ground of internal disturbance ?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Never
(Ans) : (A)

25. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India ?
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) Never
(Ans) : (D)

26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Governor of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
(Ans) : (C)

27. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged State of the Indian Territory ?
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(Ans) : (B)

28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament may admit a new State in the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1
(B) In Article 2
(C) In Article 3
(D) In Article 4
(Ans) : (B)

29. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State policy under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work
(C) Promotion of international peace and security
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor children upto fourteen years of age
(Ans) : (D)

30. The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San- Francisco on—
(A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
(C) January 26, 1946
(D) December 30, 1941
(Ans) : (A)

31. Where the head office of the United Nations is situated ?
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) The Hague
(Ans) : (C)

32. How many members are in the Security Council ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 15
(Ans) : (D)

33. Which one of the following Article of United Nations Charter is related to the procedure of voting ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)

34. Which one of the following is not one of the principal organ of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) International Labour Organization
(D) International Court of Justice
(Ans) : (C)

35. Two official languages of the United Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi
(B) English and German
(C) English and Urdu
(D) English and French
(Ans) : (D)

36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been taken from which one of the following ?
(A) The Constitution of Ireland
(B) The Constitution of United States of America
(C) The Constitution of Australia
(D) The Constitution of Canada
(Ans) : (A)

37. P’s passport was cancelled by the authority without giving him any reasonable opportunity of being heard which was mandatory. In such case—
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the authority has no obligation to act fairly
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in interest of security of India, no one can challenge the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued
(Ans) : (A)

38. The maximum period of continuation of emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is—
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
(Ans) : (A)

39. Which one of the following Schedule was added in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI
(C) Schedule XI
(D) Schedule IX
(Ans) : (C)

40. The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in—
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5)
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 126
(Ans) : (A)

41. Participation of workers in management of industries is provided under Indian Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A
(B) In Article 48 A
(C) In Article 43 A
(D) In Article 45
(Ans) : (C)

42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution by—
(A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
(Ans) : (A)

43. Socialist and secular words were added in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 48th Amendment
(Ans) : (B)

44. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is not related to the environmental protection ?
(A) Article 48 A
(B) Article 51 A(i)
(C) Article 51 A(g)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(Ans) : (B)

45. In International Court of Justice, there are—
(A) President and 15 other members
(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
(Ans) : (D)

46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
(C) 14th July
(D) 26th November
(Ans) : (B)

47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Paris
(Ans) : (C)

48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
(Ans) : (D)

49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
(Ans) : (C)

50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
(Ans) : (D)

PART–II Law

51. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by—
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

52. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(Ans) : (C)

53. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
(Ans) : (A)

54. A decree may be executed by—
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
(Ans) : (D)

55. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of ‘Res Judicata’ is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
(Ans) : (D)

56. Right to lodge a ‘caveat’ has been provided under—
(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(Ans) : (B)

57. Arrest of a person in execution of a decree has been provided—
(A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(Ans) : (D)

58. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or amend the proceedings to—
(A) Either party
(B) To plaintiff only
(C) To defendant only
(D) To only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant
(Ans) : (A)

59. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‘Mesne Profit’ ?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
(Ans) : (D)

60. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with—
(A) Appeal to Supreme Court
(B) Appeal by indigent person
(C) Appeal against orders
(D) Appeal from appellate decrees
(Ans) : (D)

61. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit—
(A) For partition
(B) For partnership
(C) For possession and mesne profit
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)

62. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in—
(A) District Court
(B) The court of lower grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (B)

63. Pleading has been defined in—
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(Ans) : (A)

64. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest ?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1
(B) Order 2, Rule 2
(C) Order 1, Rule 8
(D) Order 1, Rule 9
(Ans) : (C)

65. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
(Ans) : (D)

66. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with ‘Revision’ ?
(A) Section 110
(B) Order VI, Rule 13
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 120
(Ans) : (C)

67. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides a protection to the members of Armed Forces from arrest ?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
(Ans) : (B)

68. In a summary trial the maximum period of imprisonment is—
(A) Not exceeding three months
(B) Not exceeding six months
(C) Not exceeding one year
(D) Not exceeding two years
(Ans) : (A)

69. Which of the following are liable under Section 125(1)(D) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for payment of maintenance to their parents, who are unable to maintain themselves ?
(A) Sons only
(B) Daughters only
(C) Sons and daughters both
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)

70. Section 2(C) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines—
(A) Bailable offence
(B) Non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable offence
(D) Non-cognizable offence
(Ans) : (C)

71. Who can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)

72. The procedure of trials held before the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of Criminal Procedure under—
(A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Sections 220 to 224
(C) Sections 225 to 237
(D) Sections 238 to 245
(Ans) : (C)

73. On being submitted the sentence of death by Court of Sessions, the High Court may—
(A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Annul the conviction
(C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)

74. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines the term—
(A) Investigation
(B) Charge
(C) Inquiry
(D) Offence
(Ans) : (A)

75. Which ‘Section’ of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for prosecution for offences against marriage ?
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)

76. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that “no statement made by any person to a police officer if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it” ?
(A) Section 161
(B) Section 162
(C) Section 163
(D) Section 164
(Ans) : (B)

77. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment—
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)

78. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for anticipatory bail ?
(A) Section 436
(B) Section 438
(C) Section 439
(D) Section 437
(Ans) : (B)

79. In which of the following cases some important principles regarding the defence of unsoundness of mind were propounded ?
(A) Mc’Naughten Case
(B) R. V. Prince
(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen
(D) Reg V. Govinda
(Ans) : (A)

80. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘affray’ ?
(A) Section 159
(B) Section 160
(C) Section 161
(D) Section 148
(Ans) : (A)

81. ‘A’ attempts to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hand into ‘Z’s’ pocket. ‘A’ fails in his attempt as ‘Z’ had nothing in his pocket. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
(Ans) : (B)

82. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious liability ?
(A) Section 120A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 159
(Ans) : (C)

83. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal
(Ans) : (C)

84. Which one of the following Provisions of the Indian Penal Code defiens ‘Unlawful Assembly’ ?
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 142
(C) Section 146
(D) Section 149
(Ans) : (A)

85. The maxim ‘Ignorantia facit excusat’ relates to—
(A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)

86. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “nothing is an offence which is done by accident” ?
(A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)

87. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional as violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 314
(Ans) : (B)

88. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for abetment to commit suicide ?
(A) Section 306
(B) Section 307
(C) Section 308
(D) Section 309
(Ans) : (A)

89. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mc’Naughten’s case—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(B) D.P.P. V. Beard—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(C) Basudeo V. State—Section 86 of I.P.C.
(D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal —Section 79 of I.P.C.
(Ans) : (B)

90. How many kinds of hurts are included under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(Ans) : (D)

91. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for cheating ?
(A) Section 415
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 416
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)

92. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable ?
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278
(C) Section 279
(D) Section 280
(Ans) : (A)

93. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the offence is punishable ?
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death
(C) Waging war against Government of India
(D) Theft
(Ans) : (C)

94. Adultery is an offence committed—
(A) With the consent of a married woman
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband
(D) With the consent of a minor girl
(Ans) : (A)

95. How many exceptions have been provided for the offence of defamation under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 9
(Ans) : (B)

96. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State related to—
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C.
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)

97. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence ?
(A) Jaidev Vs. State
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer
(Ans) : (A)

98. ‘A’ enters ‘Z’ house through a window. Here ‘A’ commits—
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (C)

99. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
(A) R. Vs. Prince
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
(Ans) : (D)

100. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be, not free consent ?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 89
(Ans) : (B)