Q.1 Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?
(A) Shikimic acid - tyrosine
(B) Shikimic acid - tryptophan
(C) Shikimic acid - cathinone
(D) Shikimic acid - phenylalanine
Q.2 Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?
(A) Prunus serona
(B) Tribulus terrestis
(C) Ammi visnaga
(D) Vanilla planifolia
Q.3 Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell
division and release of lateral bud dormancy?
(B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(C) Indoleacetic acid
Q.4 A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:
Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and
stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings?
(A) Clove bud powder
(B) Clove bud powder with stalk
(C) Mother Clove
(D) None of the above
Q.5 Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue
Q.6 Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the
following classes of compounds?
Q.7 Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?
Q.8 Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation
(highest to lowest):
[P] Stearic [Q] Oleic acid [R] Linolenic acid [S] Linoleic acid
Q.9 Each Of the following options lists a phytoconstituent, its phytochemical
grouping, pharmacological activity and corresponding semisynthetic analogue.
Find a MISMATCHING option.
(A) Podophyllotoxin, lignan, anticancer, etoposide
(B) Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin
(C) Atropine, alkaloid, anticholinergic, homatropine
(D) THC. terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone
Q.10 Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation
(A) ADP receptor antagonism
(B) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonism
(C) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
(D) Prostacvclin inhibition
Q.11 Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidyl
Q.12 Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e. drug type and Hemp type are cultivated.
[P] Drug type cannabis is rich in (-)A-trans-tetrahydrocannabinol .
[Q] Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[R] Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[S] Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true
(B) P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true
(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D) P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false
Q.13 Inhibition/induction of which of the following Cytochrome P450enzyme system is
most likely to be involved in important drug-druginteractions?
Q.14 Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?
[P] Cardiomyopathy [Q] Rheumatoid arthritis
[R] Myasthenia gravis [S] Ulcerative colitis
(A) Q & S are autoimmune disorders
(B) P & Q are autoimmune disorders
(C) P & R are not autoimmune disorders
(D) R & S are not autoimmune disorders
Q.15 Most of the emergency contraceptives have one of the following active
Q.16 Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following
(A) Integrase inhibition
(B) CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism
(C) Fusion inhibition
(D) Reverse transcriptase inhibition
Q.17 Which one of the followings is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?
(A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor
(B) Alpha adrenoceptor
(C) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
(D) Beta adrenoceptor
Q.18 Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?
(A) It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide
(B) It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria
(C) It does not cure relapsing malaria
(D) It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria
Q.19 Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent
bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect?
Q.20 What is chemotaxis?
(A) Toxicity of chemicals
(B) Taxonomy of chemicals
(C) Inhibition of Inflammation
(D) Movement of leucocytes in inflammation
Q.21 Which of the followings used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a
biologic response modifier?
Q.22 Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse
transcriptase in HIV?
Q.23 Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?
(A) Penicillanic acid
(B) Embonic acid
(C) Cephalosporanic acid
(D) Clavulanic acid
Q.24 Neural tube defects may occur by which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?
(C) Valproic acid
Q.25 Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in pharma industry
for drying of soft shell capsules?
(A) Truck drying
(B) Fluid bed drying
(C) Vacuum drying
(D) Microwave drying
Q.26 If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation
concentration. In which case the sink conditions are said to be maintained?
(A) C < 20% of Cs
(B) C > 20% of Cs
(C) C < 10% of Cs
(D) C >10% of Cs
Q.27 All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one.
(B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Left ventricular dysfunction
Q.28 Which water is used for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical
(A) Potable water
(B) Purified water
(C) Disinfectant water
(D) Soap water
Q.29 hich one of the followings does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion compound?
(C) Silica gels
Q.30 Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose
bioavailability study of an immediate release product?
(A)Sampling period should be atleast three t1/2 ei
(B)Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases
(C)There should be atleast four sampling points during elimination phase
(D)Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is atleast equal to 80% of AUC
Q.31 Which of the following isothem are produced when the heat of condensation of
successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer?
(A) Type III and IV
(B) Type II and V
(C) Type I and III
(D) Type III and V
Q.32 The minimal effective flow rate of air in Luminar Flow hood should be not less
than how many cubic feet per minute?
Q.33 Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?
(A) Turbine pump
(B) Volute Pump
(C) Air binding pump
(D) Baltic pump
Q.34 Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer.
(A) 57.77° under proof
(B) 57.77° over proof
(C) 47.41° over proof
(D) 47.41° under proof
Q.35 What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100:
(A) 2790 cal/ mole
(B) 7290 cal / mole
(C) 7920 cal/mole
(D) 9720 cal/mole
Q.36 Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?
(A) Triethanolamine oleate
(B) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate
(C) N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate
(D) Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
Q.37 Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?
(A) Schedule F
(B) Schedule M
(C) Schedule G
(D) Schedule P
Q.38 By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may
be made elastic?
(A) Polyethylene glycol
(C) Propylene glycol
(D) Dibutyl phthalate
Q.39 Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the followings?
(A) Strip packing
(C) Injection packing
(D) Glass containers
Q.40 How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose
solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?
(A) 500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%
(B) 1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%
(C) 4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%
(D) 1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%
Q.41 P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?
(A) Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen
(B) Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes
(C) Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries
(D) Transporting the drugs from Peyer's patches into the gut lumen.
Q.42 The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is
characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Capillary state
(B) Pendular state
(C) Funicular state
(D) Droplet state
Q.43 The degree of flocculation of a suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume
is 0.75. What will be the ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?
Q.44 A drug is administered to a 65 Kg patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours.
Half- life of the drug is 3 h, volume of distribution is 2 liter/Kg and oral
bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state concentration
of the drug?
(B) 4.50 mcg/ml
(C) 3.53 mcg/ml
(D) 3.00 mcg/ml
Q.45 Statement [X] : Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes
as per their ionic size.
Statement [Y] : The relative coagulating power is given by:
[P] Al+++ > Ba++ [Q] Li- > F- [R] NH4+ > Na+
Choose the correct statement :
(A) Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(B) Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(C) Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y
(D) Statement X is false and P is false in Statement Y
Q.46 Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formation of what quality of
(A) Harder tablets
(B) Softer tablets
(C) Fluffy tablets
(D) Brittle tablets
Q.47 Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?
(A) Klotz reciprocal plot
(B) Sandberg modified equation
(C) Blanchard equation
(D) Detli plot
Q.48 According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus
should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the
Q.49 Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?
(A) It is also called differential distillation
(B) It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids -
(C) It can be applied for volatile substances
(D) It can be used for separation of miscible liquids
Q.50 What is Primogel?
(A) Substituted HPMC for direct compression
(B) Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression
(C) Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation
(D) Modified starch for disintegration
Q.51 Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15 % moisture.
Statement [Q] : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10 % moisture.
Choose the correct statement?
(A) Both of the above statements P & Q are true
(B) Both of the above statements P & Q are false
(C) Statement P is true and Q is false
(D) Statement P is false and Q is true
Q.52 A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L in water, when given orally at a doseof 500 mg
is absorbed upto 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class
according to the BCS classification?
(A) Class I
(B) Class II
(C) Class III
(D) Class IV
Q.53 The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler
standard is in the ratio of,
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 6
(C) 1: √2
(D) 1: √3
Q.54 Iodine-131 as sodium iodide solution is used as a radiopharmaceutical for
diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Its usage is dependent on the release of
the following emissions:
[P] Alpha particles [Q] Positrons [R] Beta emission [S] Gamma radiation
Choose the correct combination of statements?
Q.55 Alkenes show typical electrophilic addition reactions. If an
electronwithdrawing group is attached to one of the carbons bearing the double
bond, what will happen to the mechanism of the addition reaction?
(A) It remains electrophilic
(B) It becomes free radical addition
(C) It becomes pericyclic reaction
(D) It becomes nucleophilic
Q.56 Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds show a much higher rate of electrophilic
aromatic substitution reactions than the six-membered ones. This is due to
which one of the following reasons?
(A) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have higher circulating
electrondensity in the ring than the six-membered ones
(B) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have lower circulating electron
density in the ring than the six-membered ones
(C) Five-membered rings are smaller in size than the six membered ones which
affects their reaction rates
(D) Six membered heteroaromatic rings are flat while the five-membered ones are
Q.57 Arrange the following Lowry-Bronsted acids into their decreasing order of
acidity (highest to lowest)?
[P] C2H5OH [Q] H3C-CsCH [R] H20 [S] CH3NH2
Q.58 Aprotic polar solvents increase the rate of SN2 reactions manifold. Enhancement
in the rate of such reactions is due to which one of the following effects?
(A) Solvation of the anion by the solvent leaving the cation unaffected
(B) Solvation of both of the ionic species
(C) Desolvation of the cation and solvation of the anion
(D) Solvation of the cation by the solvent leaving the anion unaffected
Q.59 In context of complexometry (complexometric titrations), the two terms labile
and inert complexes, are used frequently. Choose the correct statement about
(A) Labile complexes are formed instantly while inert complexes take hours or
days in their formation
(B) Labile complexes take much longer tine in formation than inert complexes
(C) Labile complexes get hydrolyzed in water immediately while inert complexes
are stable in water
(D) Labile complexes get decomposed on mild heating in aqueous solutions while
inert complexes do not decompose
Q.60 In colorimetric estimation of a drug, the following sequence of reactions is
carried out: treatment of the aqueous solution of the drug with sodium nitrite
solution in acidic medium followed by addition of sulphamic acid and then
treatment with N-(l-naphthyl)ethylene- diamine in slightly basic medium to
obtain a pink colour; which is measured at a fixed wavelength to correlate the
quantity of the drug with the optical density. Identify the drug under
(A) Streptomycin sulphate
(B) Thiamine hydrochloride
Q.61 In the electrochemical series, the standard reduction potentials of copper and
zinc are + 0.337 V and - 0.763 V, respectively. If the half cells of both of
these metals are connected externally to each other through an external circuit
and a salt bridge, which one of the following processes will take place?
(A) Zinc metal electrode will start cussohing.in solution while copper ions will
start depositing on the copper electrode.
(B) Copper metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while zinc ions
will start depositing on the zinc electrode
(C) Both of the metal electrodes will start dissolving in the solution
(D) Both types of ions will start depositing on their respective electrodes
Q.62 Indicators used in complexometric titrations are chelating agents. Choose the
correct statement about them?
(A) Indicator-metal ion complex should have higher stability than EDTA-Metal ion
(B) Indicator-metal ion complex should have lower stability than EDTA-Metal ion
(C) Indicator-metal ion complex should have equal stability as EDTA-Metal ion
(D) Stability of the indicator-metal ion complex is not an important criterion
in complexometric titrations
Q.63 Name the compound used for standardization of Karl-Fisher reagent in
(A) Sodium tartrate dihydrate
(B) Copper sulphate pentahydrate
(C) Sodium iodide
(D) Sodium thiosulphate
Q.64 The following statements are given:
[P] Conformational isomers are interconvertible by rotation around a single
bond while configurational isomers cannot be interconverted without
breaking a bond.
[Q] Configurational isomers could be optically active or optically inactive
while conformational isomers are optically inactive
[R] Geometric isomers must have a double bond in their structures
[S] Geometric and optical isomers are the two distinct categories of
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & S are true while R is false
(B) P, R & S are true while Q is false
(C) Q, R & S are true while P is false
(D) P, Q & R are true while S is false
Q.65 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the
Assertion (a): Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde both undergo Cannizaro reaction
while acetaldehyde and phenyacetaldehyde undergo Aldol
Reason (r) : Aldehydes can undergo both Cannizaro as well as Aldol
condensation while ketones undergo only Cannizaro reaction.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are false
(B)(a) is true but (r) is false
(C)(a) is false but (r) is true
(D) Both (a) and (r) are true
Q.66 Choose the correct statement for writing the sequence of amino acids in a
(A) Amino terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the carboxyl
terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(B) Carboxyl terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the amino
terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(C) Any of the amino acid terminals can be written on any sides but it is to be
mentioned by specifying the amino terminal and the carboxyl terminal in
(D) It varies from author to author how the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide is to be written
Q.67 A carbocation will NOT show one of the following properties. Choose that.
(A) Accept an electron to give a carbene
(B) Eliminate a proton to afford an alkene
(C) Combine with a negative ion
(D) Abstract a hydride ion to form an alkane
Q.68 Choose the FALSE statement for E2 mechanism in elimination reactions?
(A) These reactions are accompanied by rearrangements
(B) These reactions show a large hydrogen isotope effect.
(C) These reactions show a large element effect
(D) These reactions are not accompanied by hydrogen exchange
Q.69 Polyamine polystyrene resins belong to which category of ion-exchange resins?
(A) Strongly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(B) Strongly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
(C) Weakly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(D) Weakly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
Q.70 Which amongst the following auxochromes produces a shift towards higher energy
Q.71 Chloroform is stored in dark colored bottles because it is oxidized in presence
of light and air to a toxic compound. Identify that.
Q.72 Given are the four statements about NMB:
[P] 13CMR is a less sensitive technique than PMR
[Q] Both 13C and :H have 1=1/2
[R] Precessional frequency of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
applied magnetic field
[S] Deuterium exchange studies can be performed to ascertain protons attached to
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & R are true while S is false
(B) R, S & Q are true while P is false
(C) S, P & Q are true while R is false
(D) All are true
Q.73 Discrepancies in potential measurements involving factors like 'alkaline error'
and 'asymmetry potential' are associated with which of the following electrodes?
(A) Hydrogen electrode
(B) Quinhydrone electrode
(C) Saturated calomel electrode
(D) Glass Electrode
Q.74 What is the wave number equivalent of 400 nm wavelength?
(A) 0.0025 cm-1
(B) 0.25 cm-1
(C) 2500 cm-1
(D) 25000 cm-1
Q.75 All of the given compounds show n —> sigma* transition. Identify which one will
have the highest λmax?
(C) Methyl iodide
(D) Methyl bromide
Q.76 Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?
[P] It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil. [Q] It is obtained
from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium. [R] It is obtained from young
plants of six months to one year age. [S] It contains derivatives of
(D) Q & S
Q.77 Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?
Q.78 Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium
oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?
Q.79 A glycoalkaloid,
[P] contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule.
[Q] is glycosidic in nature.
[R] can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.
[S] always contains endocyclic nitrogen in its molecule.
Choose the correct option.
Q.80 Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?
Q.81 The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family.
Find a WRONG combination.
(A) Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae
(B) Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae
(C) Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae
(D) Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae
Q.82 Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class,
pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG
(A) Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida
(B) Benzoin, balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin
(C) Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii
(D) Papaine, enzyme, proteolytic, Carica papaya
Q.83 Determine the correctness or otherwise mt the following Assertion [a] and the
Assertion (a) : Tannins are polyphenohc substances occurring in plant cell sap.
Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match
Reason (r) : The condensed tannin- are resistant to acid hydrolysis,
therefore stain the lignin present in match stick.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true, and r . - reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r is NOT :he correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Q.84 In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to
formation of monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils.
[P] Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units
[Q] Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms
[R] The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give monoterpenes
[S] Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 H8.
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is false
(B) P is false, Q is true, R is true, S is false
(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D) P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is true
Q.85 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Assertion (a) : Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative.
Reason (r) : The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at
C-12 position which is responsible for its solubility in
alcohol and its purgative action.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(B) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(C) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Q.86 Which of the following drugs does NOT induce mydriasis?
Q.87 Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce
mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure?
Q.88 Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following
classes of drugs?
(A) ACE inhibitors
(C) Calcium channel blockers
(D) Sodium channel blockers
Q.89 Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerine should be advised not
to take sildenafil. This drug-drug interaction causes which of the following
(A) Respiratory failure
(B) Severe hypotension
(C) Prolongation of QT interval
(D) Myocardial ischemia
Q.90 Which of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensin-II?
(A) Causes myocyte hypertrophy
(B) Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system
(C) Increases force of myocardial contraction
(D) Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone
Q.91 All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation. Choose the correct statement
(A) P & Q cause release of nitric oxide
(B) Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide
(C) R & S cause release of nitric oxide
(D) P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide
Q.92 Blood level monitoring of HbAlc is important in which of the given diseased
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Myocardial infarction
(D) Congestive heart failure
Q.93 Which of the fallowings is the most effective monotherapy for raising HDL
(D) w-3-Fatty acids
Q.94 Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity for Sa-reductase?
(A) Letrozole and androstenedione
(B) Finasteride and testolactone
(C) Finasteride and 5-DHT
(D) Finasteride and testosterone
Q.95 Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?
(A) Tyrosine kinase
Q.96 A 64 year old woman with a history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart
failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her
Q.97 Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study
gives indication of the rate of drug absorption?
Q.98 Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the
contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers?
Q.99 Choose the correct pair of the neurodegenerative disorders from those given
(A) Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease
(B) Schizophrenia and Mania
(C) Alzheimer's disease and Schizophrenia
(D) Parkinson's disease and Autism
Q.100 Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of
pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?
(A) Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
(B) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
(C) Mifepristone is an antiandrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
(D) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
Q.101 Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as? -
Q.102 Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer: [P] Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.
[Q] IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.
(A) P is correct and Q is incorrect
(B) P is incorrect and Q is correct
(C) Both P and Q are correct
(D) Both P and Q are incorrect
Q.103 Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to
[P] Enzyme induction
[Q] Active secretion
Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both P and Q are true
(B) P is true, Q is false
(C) Q is true, P is false
(D) Both P and Q are false
Q.104 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media
(B) The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi
(C) Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media
(B) The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi
Q.105 Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?
Q.106 Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?
(A) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(B) Pseudomonas diminuta
(C) Bacillus subtilis
(D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q.107 Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?
(A) 253.7 nm
(B) 275.5 nm
(C) 283.5 nm
(D) 240.0 nm
Q.108 Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?
(A) Resonance forces
(B) Resonance and London dispersion forces
(C) Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
(D) Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions
Q.109 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the fallowing statements:
[P] Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol farms gel more readily when sheared gently.
[Q] In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.
[R] Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.
(AT [R] is true but [P] and [Q] are false
(B) [P] is true but [Q] and [R] are false
(C) [P], [Q] and [R], all are false
(D) [P], [Q] and [R], all are true
Q.110 Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis
(B) Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis
(C) Mobility in two directions and no rotation
(D) Mobility in three directions and no rotation
Q.111 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.
Reason [r] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.
(A) [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [r] are false
(C) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
Q.112 Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.
(A) The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor
(B) The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor
(C) The process of separating white blood cells from blood
(D) The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders
Q.113 Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate in packaging materials?
(A) Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC
(B) Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC > Paper
(C) Aluminium foil > PVdC > PVC > Paper
(D) Paper > PVC > PVdC > Aluminium foil
Q.114 What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?
(A) 96 mg
(B) 480 mg
(C) 960 mg
(D) 48 mg
Q.115 The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the followings?
(A) Inertial forces to gravitational forces
(B) Inertial forces' to viscous forces
(C) Viscous forces to inertial forces
(D) Viscous forces to gravitational forces
Q.116 What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
(A) To increase turbulence
(B) To decrease turbulence
(C) To prevent corrosion
(D) To increase shell side passes
Q.117 Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?
(A) They are also called amphiphiles
(B) They contain aggregated molecules
(C) They show partial solvation
(D) They are also called micelles
Q.118 What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?
(C) 9 hr
(D) 0.5 hr
Q.119 What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH = 7)]
(A) 1 : 101
(B) 1 : 201
(C) 2 : 101
(D) 1 : 202
Q.120 If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings?
(A) Saturated liquid
(B) Saturated vapor
(C) Superheated liquid
(D) Superheated vapor
Q.121 S.O.S means which one of the followings?
(A) Take occasionally
(B) Take immediately
(C) Take when necessary
(D) Take as directed
Q.122 Which of the followings is NOT a reciprocating pump?
(A) Plunger pump
(B) Diaphragm pump
(C) Gear pump
(D) Piston pump
Q.123 Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which csold be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.
[P] Astringent action [Q] Nascent hydrogen releasing action
[R] Oxidizing action [S] Mechanical cleansing action
Choose the correct statements- for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds?
(D) R & S
Q.124 Boric acid is a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?
(A)Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol
(B) Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol
(C) Boric acid gives a tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol
(D)Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol
Q.125 A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the followings?
(A) Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice
(B) Stannous fluoride is a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent
(C) Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent
(D) Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent
Q.126 Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties:
[P] It has a fixed chemical composition
[Q] It forms colloidal silicone dioxide
[R] Magnesium ions overcome constipation
[S] Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin than aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements?
Q.127 An iron compound used as heamatinic agent must meet two requirements i.e. it should be biologically available and be non-irritating. Which one of the following compounds meet the above two requirements most closely?
(A) Ferric chloride
(B) Ferric ammonium sulphate
(C) Ferric ammonium citrate
(D) Ferrous thioglycollate
Q.128 Diels-Alder reaction can be earned out in which of the following heterocyclic compounds most readily?
Q.129 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles.
Reason (r) : Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charged water soluble compounds.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true (r) is false
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Q.130 Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole. This is due to which of the following facts?
(A) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyrrole is localized
(B) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyridine is localized
(C) Nitrogen of pyrrole has one hydrogen atom attached to it while pyridine does not have any
(D) Pyridine has three double bonds while pyrrole has only two
Q.131 In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of their leaving capacity?
[P] Brosyl [Q] Hydroxyl [R] Chloro [S] Mesyl
(D) R > S > Q > P
Q.132 Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid solution in non-aqueous titrations?
(A) Potassium hydrogen phthalate
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Potassium dihydrogen phosphate
(D) Sodium methoxide
Q.133 Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings. Identify that.
(A) It should be inert to the analyse;
(B) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature
(C) It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature
(D) It should have a high resolving power
Q.134 To synthesize sulphonylurea antidiabetics, which of the following reactions can be used?
(A) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic conditions
(B) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative
(C) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative
(D) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative
Q.135 In polarography, DME has a number of advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large hydrogen overpotential. It means which one of the followings?
(A) Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DIME
(B) Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME
(C) Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME
(D) Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME
Q.136 In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer?
(A) A column with high HETP and high number of plates
(B) A column with low HETP and low number of plates
(C) A column with high HETP and low number of plates
(D) A column with low HETP and high number of plates
Q.137 In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups:
[R] -CH = CH2
Using 'Sequence Rules' choose the correct order of priority of the groups?
(A) Q > P > S > R
(B) P > Q > R > S
(C) Q > P > R > S
(D) P > Q > S > R
Q.138 Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?
(A) Fluorescence detector
(B) Photo diode array detector
(C) Refractive index detector
(D) UV detector
Q.139 A 250 jig/ml solution of a drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at a path length of 10 mm. What is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm?
(A) 0.002 cm-1gm-1litre
(B) 0.002 cm-1gm-1 dl
(C) 20 cm-1gm-1 litre
(D) 20 cm1gm-1dl
Q.140 Following statements are given for a chemical reaction:
Change in Gibb's free energy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value Based on the above statements choose the correct answer.
(A) The reaction is spontaneous.
(B) The reaction is non-spontaneous.
(C) The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous.
(D) The reaction can never be spontaneous.
Q. 141 Which of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) The energy required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair < conjugated n < non conjugated n < a
(B) Isotopic ratio is particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, CI and Br atoms in the compound in MS
(C) Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS
(D) The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak
Q.142 The protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the following types?
(A) Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons
(B) Chemically and magnetically equivalent protons
(C) Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons
(D) Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons
Q.143 The peak at m/z 91 in the mass spectrum for alkylbenzenes is due to which one of the followings?
(A) Alpha fission
(B) Mc-Laffartey rearrangement
(C) Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement
(D) Tropylium ion formation
Q.144 Which one of the followings is NOT bioisostearic pair
(A) Divalent ether (-0-) and amine (–N-H)
(B) Hydroxyl (-OH) and thiol (-SH)
(C) Carboxylate (C02-) and sulfone (SO2)
(D) Hydrogen (-H) and fluorine (-F)
Q.145 The catalytic triad in acetylcholineesfcera«e is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?
(A) Serine, Histidine and Glutamate
(B) Serine, Arginine and Glutamate
(C) Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate
(D) Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate
Q.146 Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm
(B) Spin quantum number of proton is 1
(C) Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton
(D) Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than geminal coupling constant
Q.147 Beta-Carboline ring system is present in
Q.148 Of the four stereoisomers of chloramphenicol which one is the biologically active isomer?
Q.149 Fajan's method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the followings?
(A) Colour change
(B) Appearance of a precipitate
(C) Neutralization reaction
(D) Adsorption phenomenon
Q.150 In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the interferometer is to act as a modulator'. What do you understand by this statement?
(A) The function of the interferometer is to act as a monochromator
(B) The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones
(C) The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones
(D) The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time domain spectra