Friday, January 29, 2010


Untitled Document


Thursday, January 28, 2010


SSC (Staff Selection Commission) Central Police Organisation (CPO) SI (Sub Inspector) Recruitment Exam. December 2007.


1. In which State was the first non- Congress Government set up in Independent India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala

2. Cheap money means
(a) low rates of interest
(b) low level of saving
(c) low level of income
(d) low level of standard of living

3. Under the rules of the IMR, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal tender money in terms of the US dollars and
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Pound Sterling
(d) Diamond

4. The Government takes ‘Ways and means advances’ from
(a) RBI
(b) IDBI
(c) SBI

5. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in
(a) 1991
(b) 1996
(c) 1998
(d) 2000

6. Compared to the rich the poor save
(a) a large part of their income
(b) an equal part of their income
(c) a smaller part of their income
(d) all of their incomes

7. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is
(a) imposition of import duties
(b) liberalization of the economy
(c) recession in other countries
(d) diversification of exports

8. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is
(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Recession
(d) Stagflation

9. With which crop has Green Revolution been associated?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane

10. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of India ?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

11. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than
(a) 21 years of age
(b) 25 years of age
(c) 30 years of age
(d) 32 years of age

12. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 52nd
(d) 56th

13. Nov. 26, 1949 is a significant day in the history of our constitution because
(a) India took a pledge of complete independence on this day
(b) the Constitution was adopted on this day
(c) India became a Republic on the day
(d) the first amendment of the Constitution was passed on this day

14. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the India Constitutions?
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(b) Socialist
(c) Secular
(d) Federal

15. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Zakir Hussain
(d) V. V. Giri

16. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is
(a) 530
(b) 545
(c) 540
(d) 550

17. How many readings does a non-Money Bill have in each House of the Parliament?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One

18. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the
(a) Governor of the State
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(d) Finance Minister of the State

19. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) V. P. Singh
(d) Chandrashekhar

20. The Union Parliament consists of
(a) the President of India
(b) the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
(c) the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(d) All of these

21. The Indian National Congress had passed the famous resolution on “Non-Cooperation” in 1920 as its session held at
(a) Lucknow
(b) Delhi
(c) Bombay
(d) Calcutta

22. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Surendranath Banerjee

23. Which of the following can be considered as the most useful and outstanding reforms made by Lord Curzon, especially in respect of the people living in the undivided province of Punjab?
(a) Educational Reforms
(b) Police Reforms
(c) Industrial Reforms
(d) Agricultural Reforms

24. Who among the following was sent as an Ambassasdor to the royal court of Jahangir by James I, the then King of England?
(a) John Hawkins
(b) William Todd
(c) Sir Thomas Roe
(d) Sir Walter Raleigh

25. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in the Government of India Act of
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these

Click Here for SSC CPO SI Syllabus
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1 (d), 2 (a), 3 (b), 4 (a), 5 (c), 6 (c), 7 (a), 8 (a), 9 (b), 10 (b),
11 (c), 12 (a), 13 (b), 14 (d), 15 (b), 16 (d), 17 (b), 18 (c), 19 (a), 20 (d),
21 (d), 22 (a), 23 (d), 24 (c), 25 (b)

Wednesday, January 27, 2010

Thursday, January 21, 2010

Wednesday, January 20, 2010


ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization)

Scientist/Engineers Recruitment

Sample Paper for Computer Science (IT)

This Sample Paper is based on the expected syllabus for ISRO Scientist/Engineer Recruitment Exam. Candidates may get an idea about what to read for the Computer Science / IT Stream Examination. We wish all of you a good luck for the paper. This question paper has been adapted from GJ Tutorial's IT Study material based on the vast experience in teaching for various similar recruitment and admission exams.

1. Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

(a) Data are often deleted

(b) Most applications consists of transactions

(c) Data are rarely deleted

(d) Relatively few records are processed by applications

(e) None of these

2. Which of the following is a transaction?

(a) A group of SQL statements consisting of one read and one write operation

(b) A group of SQL statements consisting only of ready operations.

(c) A group of SQL statements defining a user-oriented task

(d) A group of SQL statements consisting only of write operations.

(e) None of these

3. There are several security devices used to stop individuals from exploiting your system. Which of the following is used in conjunction with a firewall?

(a) Proxy server

(b) Intrusion- detection system

(c) Terminal server

(d) Web server

(e) None of these

4. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following......

(a) Undo all changes to the data- base resulting from the execution of the transaction

(b) Undo the effects of the last UPDATE command

(c) Restore the content of the database to its state at the end of the previous day

(d) Make sure that all changes to the database are in effect

(e) None of these

5. A client / server network ..........

(a) has clients that provide functions such as application control and shared computation.

(b) uses client computers to provide copies of software to the server to allow server processing.

(c) provides a company with the capability to downsize from lager computer systems and move away from legacy systems.

(d) has server computers that perform all processing, clients are' dumb' input/ output devices only.

(e) None of these.

6. An applet is ....... Document application program.

(a) a static

(b) a dynamic

(c) an active

(d) a passive

(e) None of these

7. The local antenna for satellite connections is called a ........

(a) modem

(b) terminal

(c) VSAT

(d) DTA

(e) None of these

8. What are the four basis connecting hardware devices?

(a) Repeater, bridge, router and gateway

(b) Repeater, bridge, router and dell

(c) Repeater, connector, router and gateway

(d) Amplifier, bridge, router and gateway

(e) None of these

9. Which type of processing speed measurement is used primarily with supercomputers?

(a) Flops

(b) Fractions of second

(c) Gigahertz

(d) MIPS

(e) None of these

10. This type of software is designed for users who want to customize the programs they use.

(a) Shareware

(b) Open-source software

(c) Freeware

(d) Macros

(e) None of these

11. What is the term associated with the second part of an e-mail address?

(a) Local address

(b) Eight characters long

(c) User name

(d) Domain name

(e) None of these

12. A port that allows 8 bits at a time to be transmitted simultaneously is a (n) .....

(a) dedicated port

(b) parallel port

(c) SCSI port

(d) USB port

(e) None of these

13. In order for computers to communicate across a network, they must be connected through a(n).....

(a) TCP/IP

(b) Topology

(c) Ethernet

(d) Thin client

(e) None of these

(e) C. Rangarajan

14. What is a specialized software program that allows input and output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system?

(a) Utility driver

(b) Utility program

(c) Data compression utility

(d) Device driver

(e) None of these

15. Single party disk relying on the disk controller for finding out which disk has failed is used by-

(a) RAID level 5

(b) RAID level 2

(c) RAID level 4

(d) RAID level 3

(e) RAID level 1

16. Which of these terms refers to the feature of an OS that allows a single computer to process the tasks of several users at different stations, in round-robin fashion?

(a) Multiprocessing

(b) Multiprogramming

(c) Multitasking

(d) Time processing

(e) Time-sharing

17. Which of the following statements is not true about two-tier client-server database architecture?

(a) SQL statements are processed on the server

(b) SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients

(c) Business logic is mostly processed on clients

(d) Business logic may be processed on the server

(e) None of these

18. A Relational operator that yields all values from selected attributes is known as a -

(a) difference

(b) product

(c) select

(d) project

(e) join

19. Normalization is:

(a) the process of creating small stable data structures from complex groups of data when designing a relational database

(b) a methodology for documenting database illustrating the relationship between various entities in the database

(c) an approach to data management that stores both data and the procedures acting on the data as object that can be automatically retrieved and shared

(d) a representation of data as they would appear to an application programmer or user

(e) a representation of data as they actually would be organized on physical storage media

20. The process of building a model that demonstrate the features of a proposed product, service or system is called a -

(a) JAD

(b) RAD

(c) templating

(d) prototyping

(e) TAD

21. Which of the following is mandatory component of a URL?

(a) Resource Path

(b) Protocol

(c) Port Number

(d) Domain Name

(e) None of these

22. DBMS allows you to extrapolate information from your data by using a-

(a) query language

(b) table generator

(c) report generator

(d) wizard

(e) None of these

23. A subschema is -

(a) a description of the physical and logical structure of data and the relationship among the data

(b) a file that identifies the subset of data that a group of users can access

(c) a detailed description of all data contained in the database

(d) a description of the types of modifications that users can make to a database

(e) Either (c) or (d)

24. Which of the following is not a type of hub?

(a) Passive hub

(b) Inactive hub

(c) Switching hub

(d) Intelligent hub

(e) None of these

25. The ........... lists the location of files on the disk

(a) FAT

(b) boot sector

(c) root folder

(d) data area

(e) None of these


1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (e) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d)
16. (e) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (e) 22. (a) 23. (e) 24. (b) 25. (a)

Vizag Steel Plant (VSP) Management Trainee Recruitment Exam.

Solved Sample Question Paper for Vizag Steel Plant (VSP) Management Trainee Recruitment Exam.

Section - I

Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)

1. Four prime numbers are written in ascending order of their magnitudes the product of the first three is 385 and that of the last three is 1001. The largest given prime number is

a. 11

b. 13

c. 17

d. 19

2. Mahavir deposited in the bank from Monday to Saturday the amounts of Rs. 87.80, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 3677.98, Rs. 92899.01, Rs. 66 and Rs. 554945.19 respectively. Find his total deposit for this week

a. Rs. 651879.61

b. Rs. 652779.61

c. Rs. 650879.51

d. Rs. 655889.71

3. Amar deposited in Vijay Bank Rs. 259206.16 on Monday. Rs. 201890.48 on Tuesday, Rs. 284.16 on Wednesday. He withdrew Rs. 50000.00 on Thursday. He again deposited Rs. 230.01 on Friday and Rs. 72.62 on Saturday. Find his total balance in the bank for this week

a. Rs. 501783.43

b. Rs. 501683.43

c. Rs. 511693.43

d. Rs. 511683.43

4. I was born on October 17, 1927. How old I was on Jan. 26, 1978?

a. 49 years and 101 days

b. 50 years and 100 days

c. 50 years and 101 days

d. 50 years and 103 days

5. Find the total of the following amount

Rs. 1230.79, Rs. 11368.08, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 10314.89, Rs. 64.8, Rs. 101.00 and Rs. 3677.98

a. Rs. 27961.1

b. Rs. 26961.17

c. Rs. 26951.17

d. Rs. 25961.17

6. How many pieces, each of length 4.5 m can be cut of 225 m of wire?

a. 40

b. 54

c. 56

d. 50

7. Parkash and Girish were travelling together. Prakash paid Rs. 200 for their stay in a hotel and Girish paid taxi fare of Rs. 80. If they have to share these expenses equally, then

a. Prakash should pay Rs. 60 to Girish

b. Girish should pay Rs. 120 to Prakash

c. Girish should pay Rs. 60 to Prakash

d. Prakash should pay Rs. 120 to Girish

8. Sum of the numbers from 1 to 20 is

a. 210

b. 110

c. 220

d. 105

9. Which of the following is equal to 115 x 15?

a. 105 x 10 + 115 x 5

b. 11 x 515

c. 1151 x 5

d. 110 x 15 + 5 x 15

10. The unit's digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is

a. 0

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

11. The smallest natural number by which the product of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible is

a. 16

b. 32

c. 48

d. 96

12. The number of prime factors of (6)10 x (7)17 x (55)27 is

a. 54

b. 64

c. 81

d. 91

13. The total income of Hazari and Murari is Rs. 3000. Hazari spends 60% of his income and Murari spends 80% of his income. If their savings are equal. Find the income of Hazari

a. Rs. 2000

b. Rs. 3000

c. Rs. 1500

d. Rs. 1000

14. Bholanath save 25% if his income, but due to dearness the expenses increased by 25%, still he saves Rs. 30. Find his income

a. Rs. 400

b. Rs. 480

c. Rs. 450

d. Rs. 475

15. In a city 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich 10% are illiterate. What percentage of the poor population is illiterate?

a. 36%

b. 60%

c. 40%

d. None of these

Section - II

Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)

Directions (Q 1-5): Find the missing characters from the following series

1. ab _ a _ b _ a _ bba

a. aaab b. baba

c. abba d. baab

2. _ bc _ _ bb _ aabc

a. abab b. caab

c. acac d. aaab

3. cc _ a _ cabccb _ cca _ c _ ba

a. cbaba b. bacbc

c. bcabc d. abcbc

4. cba _ cb _ ccb _ c _

a. caac b. cbca

c. cbac d. cabc

5. aa _ cb _ aa _ _ bba _ ccb _

a. cabaac b. ababab

c. cbccab d. aaabca

6. If day before yesterday was Sunday then next Monday will be after ____ days.

a. 4 b. 5

c. 6
d. 7

7. If Sept 9 was Friday then the last Tuesday of the same Month will fall on

a. 25 b. 26

c. 27
d. 28

8. If the month of May begins on Sunday then the third Friday will fall on

a. 19 b. 20

c. 21
d. 22

9. If January 31 in a particular year falls on a Saturday then January 1 will be

a. Sunday b. Tuesday

c. Thursday d. Monday

10. At 6 PM the hour hand of a clock will point towards

a. North b. South

c. SW
d. SE

11. A boy walked 400 m north from his home, then he turned right and walked 100 m, then he turned left and walked 500 m. in which direction is he walking now

a. North b. South

c. NE
d. NW

12. A car starts from a point A. Then it moves 4 KM towards South. Then it turns right and moves 3 KM. How far is it from point A now.

a. 3 KM b. 4 KM

c. 5 KM d. 0 KM

13. 3, 10, 29, 66, _

a. 137
b. 127

c. 103
d. 218

14. 41, 29, 19, 11, _

a. 5 b. 6

c. 4
d. 3

15. ZXUQ : ACFJ : : NLIE : :




Section - I Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)

1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b

6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. d, 10. b

11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. b, 15. a

Section - II Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)

1. b, 2. c, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c

6. c, 7. c, 8. b, 9. c, 10. b

11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14. a, 15. d


Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2009
English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 20-9-2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a great Palace by the sea, there once dwelt a very rich old lord, who had only one little grand daughter, whose face he had never seen in all her life. He hated her bitterly, because at her birth his daughter died; and when the old nurse brought him the baby, he swore, that he would never look on her face as long as she lived. So he turned his back, and sat by his window looking out over the sea, shedding tears for his lost daughter. Meanwhile, his grand daughter grew up with no one to care for her, or clothe her. An old nurse would sometimes give her a dish of scraps from the kitchen, or an torn dress from the rag-bag. Soon she became known as “Tattercoats”, amongst all as she always wore torn out dresses. And so she grew up, with little to eat or wear, spending her days in the fields and lanes, with only a herd of parrots for a companion.

One day, people told each other that the King was travelling to their town and was to give a great party to all the lords and ladies of the country, where the Prince, his only son, was to choose a wife. Tattercoats had heard of the event in the town. She was excited as she had never been to a party. However, she was heartbroken when she soon realized that her grandfather would never take her to the party.

The parrots listened to her story and proposed that they should go together into the town but she looked sorrowfully down at her rags and bare feet. She said that in such attire, the king’s men would never let her enter the town. She sat under a tree crying and sobbing. Just then a handsome young man, splendidly dressed, rode up and stopped to ask the way to the town as he had lost it and had been wandering in the area for a long time without a clue about the directions. Tattercoats explained the way to the town to him. The young man was charmed by her beauty and simplicity but soon realized that she was upset. On asking the reason the parrots told him the whole story. The young man felt sad for Tattercoats. He returned the next day with a beautiful gown and jewels and gave her so that she could wear these to the king’s party. Tattercoats looked astonished and refused to accept the expensive gifts. The young man however insisted that she must accept these as a token of thanks for helping him finding the way to the town when he was lost.

Finally when night came, the hall in the castle was full of light and music and the lords and ladies were dancing before the King. Soon Tattercoats entered, followed by the flock of chirpy parrots. She walked straight up the party hall while the ladies whispered, the lords laughed, and the King seated at the far end stared in amazement. But as they came in front of the throne, a young man rose from beside the King and came to greet her. Much to Tattercoat’s surprise he was the same young man whom she had told the way to the town. Taking her by the hand he turned to the King.

“Father !” he said, for he was the Prince himself, “I have made my choice, and here is my bride, the loveliest girl in all the land, and the sweetest as well !” The king was proud of his son’s decision and as he rose to greet his daughter-in-law, the trumpets sounded loudly in honour of the new Princess.

The couple lived happily ever after. The parrot herd continued to be the best companion of the princess. Her grandfather, however, bound by his vow could never see his granddaughter – Tattercoats – the princess in his entire life.

1. What did the handsome young man ask Tattercoats on his way to the town ?
(A) He asked her to accompany him to the town.
(B) He asked her to accept the gifts he had brought for her.
(C) He promised her that the prince would choose her as his wife during the party.
(D) He asked for the directions to the town as he had lost his way.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. What was the King’s intention in throwing a party in the town ?
(A) To please the rich landlords and ladies of the town.
(B) So that his only son could select a wife for himself.
(C) He was happy that his son had chosen Tattercoats as his wife.
(D) He wanted to visit the town as he had never visited it before.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. Why did Tattercoats cry even when the parrots offered to accompany her to the King’s party ?
(A) She did not have good clothes and shoes to wear for the occasion.
(B) She feared that her grandfather would punish her for attending the party.
(C) She had lost her way to the town on her way to the town.
(D) The lords and the ladies at the party had made fun of her appearance.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The rich landlord finally forgave her granddaughter.
(B) Tattercoats always had a comfortable childhood since her grandfather was a wealthy landlord.
(C) A prince had asked Tattercoats for the way to the town.
(D) Tattercoats was never able to attend the party held by the King.
(E) All are true
Ans : (C)

5. What did the young man do when Tattercoats refused to accept the gifts ?
(A) He had to take the gifts back.
(B) He was impressed by her self respect and decided to marry her.
(C) He said that unless she accepts the gifts she would not be able to attend the party.
(D) He promised to buy more expensive gifts for her.
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. Why did the rich landlord swear never to see his granddaughter’s face ?
(A) He was upset that she had married the prince against his wish.
(B) He always wanted a grandson and not a granddaughter.
(C) He held her responsible for the death of his daughter.
(D) He was upset with her since she did not take good care of him.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. How did the King react to his son’s decision to marry Tattercoats ?
(A) He was upset since his son had chosen her over the rich and wealthy ladies present in the party.
(B) He was very happy with his son’s decision and gladly welcomed Tattercoats.
(C) He was unhappy with the marriage as he had sworn never to see Tattercoats’s face in his life.
(D) He stared in amazement and laughed at his son’s choice.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following best describes Tattercoats ?
(A) Shrewed
(B) Manipulative
(C) Opportunist
(D) Clever
(E) Beautiful
Ans : (E)

9. Why did the rich landlord’s granddaughter become known as Tattercoats ?
(A) She was named so by her parents.
(B) Her grandfather named her so as he hated her and wanted her to be mocked around by the people
(C) She liked to play around with parrots who were her only companions
(D) She was always dressed in old and torn out clothes.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following statements regarding the prince is true ?
(A) He wanted to marry a rich and wealthy lady.
(B) He did not allow Tattercoats to attend the party hosted by the king.
(C) He made a joke of Tattercoats’ attire and condition
(D) A herd of parrots were his only friends in the whole world
(E) None of the above statements is true
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

(A) Tastelessly
(B) Intensely
(C) Rudely
(D) Eagerly
(E) Purposefully
Ans : (B)

(A) Happy
(B) Shocked
(C) Embarrassed
(D) Surprised
(E) Frightened
Ans : (D)

13. VOW
(A) Pledge
(B) Sacrifice
(C) Assurance
(D) Declaration
(E) Announcement
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14 –15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

(A) Wisely
(B) Unfairly
(C) Rudely
(D) Reluctantly
(E) Unimpressively
Ans : (E)

(A) Offended
(B) Stunned
(C) Repulsed
(D) Jealous
(E) Outraged
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. They asked him (A) / how did he received (B) / the wound but he (C) / refused to answer. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

17. Babar was not only (A) / a great soldier, (B) / but also a (C) / very wisest ruler. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. Weather permitting, (A) / there will be a (B) / garden party on (C) / the farm house tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. As the airplane was (A) / ready for takeoff, (B) / the passengers and the crew (C) / fastened themselves’ seatbelts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

20. The teacher admires Rahul (A) / as he has always (B) / admired students which (C) / speak the truth. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Instead of running (A) / as fast as possible (B) / he could not (C) / win the race. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

22. The meeting was not (A) / of much help (B) / as there was too much talk (C) / and little work. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. Reema is the tallest (A) / of my two daughters (B) / eventhough she is (C) / 5 years younger. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

24. The walls of the house (A) / are made of stone (B) / whereas the floor (C) / is made of wood. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

25. His son has make (A) / much progress in life (B) / owing to his (C) / hard work and determination. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following Six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(a) It can be done in many simple ways such as turning off the taps, fixing leaks on time and reusing used water etc.
(b) Only 1% of all the water on the Earth is usable.
(c) With such growth rate it is important that we conserve water, use it wisely and not waste it.
(d) The rest is either salt water or permanently frozen.
(e) If everyone makes efforts to follow these simple ways, the water crisis would be solved to a great extent.
(f) As population grows, more and more people are using this limited resource.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (e)
(D) (d)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions Six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer.

31. (a) IS
(c) HE
(e) POET
(f) THE
Ans : (C)

32. (a) CAR
(c) IS
(d) THAN
(e) MY
Ans : (E)

33. (a) A
(c) HE
(d) OF
(e) IS
(f) MAN
Ans : (B)

34. (a) YOUNGER
(c) IS
(d) MY
(e) A
Ans : (A)

(b) HE
(e) HIS
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. Although (A) it was the first time the King had lead his troupes (B) to the battle, he showed (C) remarkable (D) courage. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

37. As the dinner was ready (A) the hosts requested (B) everyone to procede (C) to the dining (D) hall. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

38. The police stopped (A) him and asked for the lisence (B) which he unfortunately (C) did not carry while going (D) for the drive. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

39. His father thought (A) that he had moe potential (B) to become (C) an engineer then (D) a doctor. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

40. The doctors at the hospital says (A) that he will be absolutely (B) fine within a week’s time, given (C) that he follows their advice. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day in the King’s Court, Birbal happened to have an argument with Akbar. The casual argument soon became very hot. Akbar, being a very sensitive king, got very angry and …(41)… Birbal to get out of his Palace and also his kingdom. Birbal had to …(42)… the King’s order and left the court immediately. After a couple of days, Akbar couldn’t stop …(43)… about Birbal. He …(44)… him very much and wanted to bring him back to the court. But, Birbal was missing and could not be …(45)… anywhere. Soon Akbar got an idea and made an …(46)… to the kingdom saying “I would reward 1,000 gold coins to the person who can walk in the Sun with half shade on him.”

The very next day a villager came to the court. It was a hot sunny day and the villager was holding a String Cot above his head. He came to Akbar and said “Oh’ King ! I walked in the sun and by holding this string cot over my head, I have half shade on me. So, please …(47)… over my reward” At once Akbar understood that it must be the plan of Birbal. He asked the villager who taught him this idea. The Villager …(48)… that it was Birbal’s …(49)…. On hearing this Akbar was very happy. He requested Birbal to come back to the palace and they had a happy …(50)….

41. (A) proposed
(B) requested
(C) invited
(D) ordered
(E) arrange
Ans : (D)

42. (A) defy
(B) obey
(C) adhere
(D) comply
(E) deny
Ans : (B)

43. (A) missing
(B) disappointing
(C) hating
(D) consider
(E) thinking
Ans : (E)

44. (A) missed
(B) hated
(C) avoided
(D) ignored
(E) scolded
Ans : (A)

45. (A) met
(B) placed
(C) gathered
(D) found
(E) familiarized
Ans : (D)

46. (A) appeal
(B) order
(C) announcement
(D) enquiry
(E) suggestion
Ans : (C)

47. (A) give
(B) hand
(C) provide
(D) supply
(E) deliver
Ans : (B)

48. (A) confessed
(B) pleaded
(C) appealed
(D) ashamed
(E) appreciated
Ans : (A)

49. (A) conspiracy
(B) indication
(C) fraud
(D) trap
(E) suggestion
Ans : (E)

50. (A) unite
(B) joining
(C) recovery
(D) reunion
(E) retrieval
Ans : (D)

SBI CLERKS EXAM 15-11-2009

State Bank of India
Clerical Cadre (Clerk) Recruitment Exam., 2009
[Held on 15-11-2009 (I Shift)]
General English : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

King Hutamasan felt he had everything in the world not only due to his riches and his noble kinghts, but because of his beautiful queen, Rani Matsya. The rays of the sun were put to shame with the iridescent light that Matsya illuminated, with her beauty and brains. At the right hand of the king she was known to sit and aid him in all his judicial probes. You could not escape her deep-set eyes when you committed a crime as she always knew the victim and the culprit. Her generosity preceded her reputation in the kingdom and her hands were alway full to give. People in the kingdom revered her because if she passed by, she always gave to the compassionate and poor.

Far away from the kingly palace lived a man named Raman with only ends to his poverty and no means to rectify it. Raman was wrecked with proverty as he had lost all his land to the landlord. His age enabled him little towards manual labour and so begging was the only alternative to salvage his wife and children. Every morning he went door to door for some work, food or money. The kindness of people always got him enough to take home. But Raman was a little self-centered. His world began with him first, followed by his family and the rest. So he would eat and drink to his delight and return home with whatever he found excess. This routine followed and he never let anyone discover his interests as he always put on a long face when he reached home.

One day as he was relishing the bowl of rice he had just received from a humble home, he heard that Rani Matsya was to pass from the very place he was standing. Her generosity had reached his ears and he knew if he pulled a long face and showed how poor he was, she would hand him a bag full of gold coins– enough for the rest of his life, enough to buy food and supplies for his family. He thought he could keep some coins for himself and only reveal a few to his wife, so he can fulfill his own wishes.

He ran to the chariot of the Rani and begged her soldiers to allow him to speak to the queen. Listening to the arguments outside Rani Matsya opened the curtains of her chariot and asked Raman what he wanted. Raman went on his knees and praised the queen. I have heard you are most generous and most chaste, show this beggar some charity. Rani narrowed her brows and asked Raman what he could give her in return. Surprised by such a question, Raman looked at his bowl full of rice. With spite in him he just picked up a few grains of rice and gave it to the queen. Rani Matsya counted the 5 grains and looked at his bowl full of rice and said, you shall be given what is due to you. Saying this, the chariot galloped away.

Raman abused her under his breath. This he never thought would happen. How could she ask him for something in return when she hadn’t given him anything ? Irked with anger he stormed home and gave his wife the bowl of rice. Just then he saw a sack at the entrance. His wife said some men had come and kept it there. He opened it to find it full of rice. He put his hand inside and caught hold of a hard metal only to discover it was a gold coin. Elated he upturned the sack to find 5 gold coins in exact for the five rice grains. If only I had given my entire bowl, thought Raman, I would have had a sack full of gold.

1. According to the passage, which of the following is definitely true about Rani Matsya ?
(1) She was beautiful
(2) She was intelligent
(3) She was kind
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

2. What does the phrase ‘pulled a long face’ as used in the passage mean ?
(A) Scratched his face
(B) Looked very sorrowful
(C) Disguised himself
(D) Put on makeup
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. What can possibly be the moral of the story ?
(A) Do onto others as you would want others to do to you
(B) Patience is a virtue
(C) Winning is not everything, it is the journey that counts
(D) Change is the only constant thing in life
(E) Teamwork is more we and less me
Ans : (A)

4. Why was begging the only option for Raman to get food ?
(A) As Raman belonged to a family of beggars
(B) As begging was the easiest way for him to obtain food
(C) As Raman’s family had forced him to beg
(D) As he had lost all his property and was too old to do manual work
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following words can be used to describe Raman ?
1. Deceitful
2. Selfish
3. Timid
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All the three 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

6. What did Raman find after he returned home from his meeting with Rani Matsya ?
(A) The Rani’s soldiers
(B) An empty house
(C) The five grains of rice that he had given to Rani Matsya
(D) A sack full of rice and five gold coins
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. What emotion did Raman feel when he saw that the Rani had given him five gold coins ?
(A) Determination
(B) Regret
(C) Hatred
(D) Suspicion
(E) Thrill
Ans : (B)

8. What did Raman do when Rani Matsya asked him for something in return for her charity ?
(A) He gave her five grains of rice out of his full bowl of rice
(B) He gave her the five gold coins that he had saved
(C) He handed over the entire bowl of rice that he possessed
(D) He refused to give her anything as he was offended with her request
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. Why was Raman angry with Rani Matsya ?
(A) As she had not stopped despite Raman’s calling out to her
(B) As she had insulted him in front of his family
(C) As she had taken the rice grains from him and had not given him anything in return
(D) Not mentioned in the passage
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. How did Raman treat his own family ?
(A) He gave his family plenty to eat
(B) He saved whatever food and money he got and handed it over to his family
(C) He loved his family a lot and always put their interests before his
(D) He beat up his wife and children out of frustration
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

(A) Hurtled
(B) Stumbled
(C) Slumbered
(D) Jumped
(E) Ran
Ans : (E)

(A) Remembered
(B) Feared
(C) Talked about
(D) Embraced
(E) Respected
Ans : (E)

13. HAND
(A) Arm
(B) Throw
(C) Give
(D) Limb
(E) Lend
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14 –15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

(A) Stop
(B) Conceal
(C) Present
(D) Pending
(E) Tell
Ans : (B)

(A) Afraid
(B) Poor
(C) Happy
(D) Depressed
(E) Grounded
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. Because of the black and white rats the branch would fall on the ground very soon and the man woke up with a start only to realize that it was a dream.
2. On climbing, he looked down and saw that the lion was still there waiting for him.
3. Once a man dreamt that a lion was chasing him.
4. One rat was black and the other one was white.
5. The man then looked to his side where the branch he was sitting on was attached to the tree and saw that two rats were circling around and eating the branch.
6. The man ran to a tree, climbed on to it and sat on a branch.

16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (F)

19. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

21. In order to forget his worries Rahul take to smoke day and night.
(A) took to smoke
(B) taking to smoking
(C) take to smoking
(D) took to smoking
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

22. Prerna was very please with the gift she had received from her best friend on her birthday—
(A) was very pleased
(B) was very pleasing
(C) is very pleased
(D) is very pleasing
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

23. She was so scared on seeing the lion that she shooked like a leaf.
(A) shaked like a leaf
(B) shook like a leaf
(C) shook like a leaves
(D) shake like a leaf
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

24. Meena had the presence of mind to get out of the way as the bus sped out of control past her.
(A) present of mind
(B) present mind
(C) presence in mind
(D) presence to mind
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

25. Finally Suhas had gather the courage to speak against his father’s atrocities—
(A) gathering the courage
(B) gathers courage
(C) gathered the courage
(D) gather the couraged
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. The designer will showcash (A) her collection (B) at an upcoming (C) fashion (D) event in the city. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

27. Our mind is like a garden (A) which can either be intelligently (B) cultivated (C) or be allowed to run wilde. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

28. Researchers (A) have identified (B) the early master cells that make up the human heart could be used to make patches (C) to fix damaged (D) hearts. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

29. The girl spends (A) every knight (B) studying, as she wants to graduate (C) from a well known college (D) with good marks. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The next time your gym instructor (A) tells you to do some stretching (B) exersises (C) before starting the workout, (D) say no. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

There was a man who had four sons. He …(31)… his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he sent them each on a …(32)… in turn, to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away. The first son went in the winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in autumn. When they had all gone and come back, he …(33)… them together to …(34)… what they had seen. The first son said that the tree was ugly, bent, and twisted. The second son said, “No ! It was covered with green buds and full of promise.” The third son disagreed; he said it was laden with blossoms that …(35)… so sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most graceful thing he had …(36)… seen. The last son disagreed with all of them; he said it was ripe and drooping with fruit, full of life and fulfillment. The man then …(37)… to his sons that they all were right, because they had each seen but only one …(38)… in the tree’s life. He told them that you …(39)… judge a tree, or a person, by only one season, and that the …(40)… of who they are and the pleasure, joy, and love that comes from that life can only be measured
at the end, when all the seasons are over.

31. (A) created
(B) wanted
(C) placed
(D) meant
(E) teach
Ans : (B)

32. (A) quest
(B) airplane
(C) expedition
(D) pilgrimage
(E) requested
Ans : (A)

33. (A) followed
(B) tied
(C) called
(D) said
(E) bound
Ans : (C)

34. (A) all
(B) predict
(C) maintain
(D) describe
(E) talk
Ans : (D)

35. (A) was
(B) fell
(C) colour
(D) smelled
(E) cooked
Ans : (D)

36. (A) worriedly
(B) mostly
(C) ever
(D) forever
(E) forcefully
Ans : (C)

37. (A) tell
(B) leaked
(C) reprimanded
(D) stood
(E) explained
Ans : (E)

38. (A) flower
(B) season
(C) ground
(D) more
(E) leaf
Ans : (B)

39. (A) let
(B) not
(C) must
(D) should
(E) cannot
Ans : (E)

40. (A) essence
(B) danger
(C) tree
(D) fear
(E) journey
Ans : (A)

Monday, January 18, 2010

SSC Tax Assistant Exam Solved Paper 2009

SSC Tax Assistant Exam Solved Paper 2009

1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachhendri Pal
(B) Phew Dorajee
(C) Onn Saang Su Kayi
(D) Yoko Ono
Ans : (A)

2. Epicentre is concerned with—
(A) Earthquake
(B) Volcano
(C) Cyclone
(D) Land-sliding
Ans : (A)

3. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ?
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chemistry
(C) Fluid Mechanics
(D) Astrophysics
Ans : (D)

4. Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquake ?
(A) Richter
(B) Metric
(C) Centigrade
(D) Newton
Ans : (A)

5. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(B) V. K. Krishna Menon
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rajeshwar Dayal
Ans : (A)

6. Sea-coast of which of the following states is the longest ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

7. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ?
(A) Ready Action Force
(B) Rapid Action Force
(C) Reverse Action Force
(D) Repeat Action Force
Ans : (B)

8. Bolometer is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Frequency
(B) Temperature
(C) Velocity
(D) Wavelength
Ans : (B)

9. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmputra
(C) Bhagirathi
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(A) AIDS is a retroviral disease
(B) AIDS disease spreads due to homosexual and bisexual relations
(C) AIDS was first diagnosed in 1981 in USA
(D) Due to AIDS, ano-genetal warts are formed
Ans : (C)

11. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Tajikistan
Ans : (D)

12. Who won the U.S. Open Tennis Men’s Singles in August 2008 ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

13. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ?
(A) Sh. Shivraj Patil
(B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Sh. P. Chidambaram
(D) Sh. A.K. Anthony
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following has been appointed as the Secretary of State by Barack Obama, President of U.S.A. ?
(A) Hillary Clinton
(B) Joe Biden
(C) Condoleezza Rice
(D) Ben Porritt
Ans : (A)

15. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008—
(A) Saumika Mishra
(B) Santosh Sen
(C) Amit Kumar
(D) Pappu
Ans : (A)

16. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2006 was awarded by the President of India to—
(A) Tapan Sinha
(B) Madhur Bhandarkar
(C) Dilip Kumar
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (A)

17. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) Ireland
Ans : (D)

18. ‘Jeevan Aastha’—a scheme relating to investment and saving, was launched during 2008-09, by—
(A) Tata AIG
(B) ICICI Prudential
(C) Bajaj Allianz
Ans : (D)

19. The three medals that Indians won in the Beijing Olympics were in—
(A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling
(B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery
(C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis
(D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey
Ans : (A)

20. ATM stands for—
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
Ans : (A)

21. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Chief Justice of a High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Vice President
Ans : (C)

22. Only one of the following can be the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. He is the—
(A) Minister for Planning and Development
(B) Home Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (C)

23. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from—
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Barmer
Ans : (D)

24. Which one of the following cricketers has been awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2007 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Saurav Ganguly
(C) M.S. Dhoni
(D) Virender Sehwag
Ans : (C)

25. Garba is a dance form of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)
26. Which one of the following countries has become the world leader in the carbon credit business in 2007 ?
(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) Mexico
(D) China
Ans : (D)

27. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ?
(A) Mohinder Singh
(B) Ajit Pal Singh
(C) Joginder Singh
(D) Milkha Singh
Ans : (D)

28. Find the odd one (with reference of 26th January 2009 awards).
(A) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
(B) Harbhajan Singh
(C) Pankaj Advani
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (B)

29. Fundamental Rights are not given to—
(A) Bankrupt persons
(B) Aliens
(C) Persons suffering from incurable disease
(D) Political sufferers
Ans : (B)

30. Which is the lowest layer of the atmosphere ?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ?
(A) Non-violence of the brave
(B) Non-violence of the weak
(C) Non-violence of the coward
(D) Non-violence of the downtrodden
Ans : (A)

32. Why was the name of Kuber Singh, a 17-year old student of G.D. Goenka World School, in the news on 20th January 2009 ?
(A) He was declared as the winner of the Sanjay Chopra Award
(B) He broke the record for fastest memorising of a 9 digit number
(C) He witnessed the Swearingin-Ceremony of President Barack Obama of USA, as an official invitee
(D) He solved the crossword puzzle of the famous USA magazine
Ans : (C)

33. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(D) Five years
Ans : (C)

34. What was the reason for Gandhiji’s support to decentralization of power ?
(A) Decentralisation ensures more participation of the people into democracy
(B) India had decentralisation of power in the past
(C) Decentralisation was essential for the economic development of the country
(D) Decentralisation can prevent communalism
Ans : (C)

35. Consent of the people means consent of—
(A) A few people
(B) All people
(C) Majority of the people
(D) Leader of the people
Ans : (C)

36. For how many categories has A. R. Rehman, the Golden Globe Award Winner for original sound track in the film ‘Slum Dog Millionaire’ been nominated at the Oscars ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Gram Cooperative Society
(D) Nyaya Panchayat
Ans : (C)

38. Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party ?
1. Motilal Nehru
2. Sardar Patel
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

39. Match the following—

Union Territory
(a) Puducherry
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Daman and Diu

Jurisdiction (High Court)
1. Kerala
2. Bombay
3. Madras
4. Calcutta

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional and nonstatutory body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Election Commission
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

42. Deep fried food materials are carcinogenic because they are rich in—
(A) Fats
(B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Cooking oil
(D) Nicotine
Ans : (A)

43. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Zinc
Ans : (A)

44. If the radius of blood vessels of a person decreases his/her blood pressure will—
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remain unaffected
(D) increase for males and decrease for females
Ans : (A)

45. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as—
(A) Neutrophilia
(B) Nephrosis
(C) Necrosis
(D) Neoplasia
Ans : (A)

46. Insufficient blood supply in human body is referred as—
(A) Ischemia
(B) Hyperemia
(C) Hemostasis
(D) Hemorrhage
Ans : (A)

47. Typhoid is caused by—
(A) Pseudomonas sp.
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Bacillus
(D) Salmonella typhi
Ans : (D)

48. BCG immunization is for—
(A) Measles
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Leprosy
Ans : (B)

49. Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by—
(A) Proteins
(B) Fats
(C) Minerals
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (B)

50. The limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin—
(A) A
(B) B1
(C) D
(D) E
Ans : (C)
51. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as—
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Filtration
(C) Flocculation
(D) Water softening
Ans : (D)

52. Major gaseous pollutant of the thermal power station is—
(A) H2S
(B) NH3
(C) NO2
(D) SO2
Ans : (D)

53. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by—
(A) Koch
(B) Hansen
(C) Fleming
(D) Harvey
Ans : (B)

54. Where are the traces of Portuguese culture found in India ?
(A) Goa
(B) Calicut
(C) Cannanore
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)

55. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ?
1. Hemant Karkare
2. M. C. Sharma
3. Gajendra Singh
4. Vijay Salaskar
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

56. Who laid the wreath at the ‘Amar Jawan Jyoti’ (India Gate) on 26th January 2009 ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Defence Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Minister for External Affairs
Ans : (B)

57. The British introduced the railways in India in order to—
(A) Promote heavy industries in India
(B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(C) Move foodstuff in case of famine
(D) Enable Indians to move freely within the country
Ans : (B)

58. According to Dadabhai Naoroji ‘Swaraj’ meant—
(A) Complete independence
(B) Self government
(C) Economic independence
(D) Political independence
Ans : (C)

59. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(B) R. G. Bhandarkar
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) B. G. Tilak
Ans : (A)

60. Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka’s administrative policy ?
(A) The third Buddhist Council
(B) The Kalinga War
(C) His embracing of Buddhism
(D) His sending of missionary to Ceylon
Ans : (B)

61. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (D)

62. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal ?
(A) Robert Clive
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) William Bentinck
(D) Cornwallis
Ans : (B)

63. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)

64. Match the following—

(a) Tughlaqabad Fort
(b) Red Fort (at Delhi)
(c) Hauz Khas
(d) The City of Siri

1. Alauddin Khilji
2. Shah Jahan
3. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
4. Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (B)

65. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath
2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh
3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal
4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : ()

66. Which of the undermentioned facts about Taj Mahal is not correct ?
(A) It is a magnificent mausoleum
(B) It was built by Shah Jahan
(C) It is situated outside Agra Fort
(D) The names of artisans who built it are engraved on it
Ans : (D)

67. Where did Babar die ?
(A) Agra
(B) Kabul
(C) Lahore
(D) Delhi
Ans : (A)

68. The present Indian monetary system is based on—
(A) Gold Reserve System
(B) Proportional Reserve System
(C) Convertible Currency System
(D) Minimum Reserve System
Ans : (D)

69. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is considered as—
(A) Absolute Poverty
(B) Relative Poverty
(C) Urban Poverty
(D) Rural Poverty
Ans : (A)

70. Full convertibility of a rupee means—
(A) Purchase of foreign exchange for rupees freely
(B) Payment for imports in terms of rupees
(C) Repayment of loans in terms of rupees
(D) Determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freely by the market forces of demand and supply
Ans : (D)

71. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of—
1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector
4. Cooperative Sector
(A) 1, 4
(B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 4
Ans : (B)

72. The term stagflation refers to a situation where—
(A) Growth has no relation with the change in prices
(B) Rate of growth and prices both are decreasing
(C) Rate of growth is faster than the rate of price increase
(D) Rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase
Ans : (D)

73. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, according to 2001 census ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)

74. The term ‘Green Revolution’ has been used to indicate higher production through—
(A) Creation of grasslands
(B) Planting more trees
(C) Enhanced agricultural productivity per hectare
(D) Creation of gardens in urban areas
Ans : (C)

75. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by—
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) P. A. Samuelson
(D) J. S. Mill
Ans : (C)
76. Gross Domestic Product is defined as the value of all—
(A) Goods produced in an economy in a year
(B) Goods and services produced in an economy in a year
(C) Final goods produced in an economy in a year
(D) Final goods and services produced in an economy in a year
Ans : (D)

77. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves—
(A) Upward to the right
(B) Downward to the right
(C) Horizontally
(D) Vertically
Ans : (A)

78. Production function explains the relationship between—
(A) Initial inputs and ultimate output
(B) Inputs and ultimate consumption
(C) Output and consumption
(D) Output and exports
Ans : (A)

79. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi
(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(D) Shri D. Subbarao
Ans : (D)

80. The Draft of the Five Year Plans in India is approved by the—
(A) National Development Council
(B) Planning Commission
(C) National Productivity Council
(D) Ministry of Finance
Ans : (A)

81. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have—
(A) Same meaning
(B) Different meaning
(C) Opposite meaning
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

82. Nature of unemployment in agriculture in India is—
(A) Only seasonal
(B) Only disguised
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

83. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is—
(A) Saturn
(B) Uranus
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
Ans : (D)

84. A soap bubble shows colours when illuminated with white light. This is due to—
(A) Diffraction
(B) Polarisation
(C) Interference
(D) Reflection
Ans : (C)

85. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is—
(A) Terrestrial telescope
(B) Astronomical telescope
(C) Compound microscope
(D) Simple microscope
Ans : (A)

86. A person is hurt on kicking a stone due to—
(A) Inertia
(B) Velocity
(C) Reaction
(D) Momentum
Ans : (C)

87. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in—
(A) Inductance
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Capacitance
Ans : (B)

88. Which of the following is an example for cantilever beam ?
(A) Diving board
(B) Bridge
(C) See-saw
(D) Common balance
Ans : (A)

89. It is difficult to cook rice—
(A) At the top of a mountain
(B) At the sea level
(C) Under a mine
(D) Same anywhere
Ans : (A)

90. A dynamo is a device which—
(A) creates mechanical energy
(B) creates electrical energy
(C) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(D) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
Ans : (C)

91. X-rays were discovered by—
(A) Becquerel
(B) Roentgen
(C) Marie Curie
(D) Van Lue
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following substance is highly plastic ?
(A) Quartz
(B) Mica
(C) Granite
(D) Clay
Ans : (D)

93. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Pune
Ans : (D)

94. A medicine which promotes the secretion of urine is called—
(A) Adrenaline
(B) Monouretic
(C) Diuretic
(D) Triuretic
Ans : (C)

95. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are—
(A) Hormones
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Pheromones
(D) Steroids
Ans : (C)

96. The tip of the match-stick contains—
(A) Phosphorus pentoxide
(B) White phosphorus
(C) Red phosphorus
(D) Phosphorus trichloride
Ans : (C)

97. Match the source in Column B with the product of Column A.
Column A (Product)
(a) Formic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Tartaric acid
Column B (Source)
1. Lemon
2. Tamarind
3. Ants

(a) (b) (c)

(A) 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 2 1 3
Ans : (B)

98. Commercially, sodium bicarbonate is known as—
(A) Washing soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Bleaching powder
(D) Soda ash
Ans : (B)

99. An emulsifier is an agent which—
(A) Stabilises an emulsion
(B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion
(C) Accelerates the dispersion
(D) Homogenises an emulsion
Ans : (A)

100. Mortar is a mixture of water, sand and—
(A) Slaked lime
(B) Quick lime
(C) Limestone
(D) Gypsum
Ans : (A)

BSNL Junior Accounts Officers 2009 Sample Question Paper

BSNL Junior Accounts Officers 2009 Sample Question Paper

1. What is Double Entry Book Keeping System?

2. What is the purpose of preparation of Final Accounts?

3. Journalise the following transaction :
(a) Depreciation on machinery Rs. 5,000.
(b) Salary paid to employees Rs. 6,000.

4. Find net profit ratio from the following :
Gross profit : Rs.1,50,000
Salaries paid : Rs.10,000
Tax paid : Rs. 10,000
Dividend paid : Rs. 20,000
Depreciation : Rs. 10,000
Sales for the year : Rs. 2,00,000

5. From the following balance sheets, prepare a schedule of changes in working capital.

Balance Sheets

Liabilities 2007 2008 Assets 2007 2008
Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs.
Share capital 1,00,000 1,50,000 Fixed Assets 75,000 1,50,000
Reserves & Surplus 50,000 60,000 Stock 25,000 40,000
Current Liabilities 20,000 40,000 Debtors 50,000 50,000
Other liabilities 10,000 5,000 Cash in hand 10,000 10,000
- - Cash at bank 20,000 5,000
Total 1,80,000 2,55,000 Total 1,80,000 2,55,000

6. What is Budget? Explain the types of budget.

7. Write short notes on :
(a) Error of Principle.
(b) Error of Omission.
(c) Error of Commission.

8. The summarized balance sheets of ABC Limited as on 31.12.2007 and 31.12.2008 are given below :

Balance Sheets (Rs. in thousands)

Liabilities 2007 2008 Assets 2007 2008
Rs. Rs. Rs. Rs.
Share capital 400 400 Fixed Assets 400 320
Reserves 300 310 Investment 100 80
P & L a/c 60 66 Stock 300 200

Creditors 100 66 Debtors 100 400
Provision for taxation 75 10 Investment 100 80
Bank Loan 148 Bank 35
Total 935 1,000 Total 935 1,000

Additional Information :
(a) Provision for tax made during the year was Rs. 9,000 p.a.
(b) Dividend paid during the year was Rs. 4,000 p.a.
Prepare Funds Flow Statement.

9. From the following particulars, find
(a) P/V Ratio.
(b) BEP Sales (in rupees).
(c) Margin of Safety.
Sales 1,00,000
(—) Variable cost 60,000
Contribution 40,000
(—) Fixed cost 20,000
Profit 20,000

10. From the data given below compute the value of current asset, current liability and liquid ratio.
Working capital – Rs. 60,000.
Working capital ratio = 3.5.
Current ratio = 4.5.
Stock – Rs. 10,000.

11. Prepare trading account of Archana for the year ending 31.12.96 from the following information :
Opening stock : Rs. 80,000
Purchases : Rs. 8,60,000
Freight inward : Rs. 52,000
Wages : Rs. 24,000
Credit sales : Rs. 14,40,000
Purchase returns : Rs.10,000
Sales returns : Rs. 3,16,000
Closing stock : Rs. 1,00,000

Adjustments :
(a) Outstanding wages Rs. 1,000.
(b) Unrecorded cash sales amounted to Rs. 6,000.

12. Compute working capital turnover ratio :
Current Assets : Rs.
Stock 60,000
Debtors 40,000
B/R 1,00,000
Cash in hand 40,000
Cash at bank 20,000
Interest accrued 10,000
Prepaid insurance 30,000
Current Liabilities : Rs.
B/P 40,000
Outstanding expenses 20,000
Creditors 40,000
Sales for the year 4,00,000
Sales return 40,000

BHEL Mechanical Engineering Paper

BHEL Mechanical Engineering Paper

I attended the BHEL Engineer Trainee written test in Mechanical stream. They conducted for four brances in Engineering: Comp sci, ECE, EEE and Mechanical. In Mechanical Branch there were a total of 240 questions. 120- Technical questions in Mechanical Engineering. 120- General Apptitude questions. (Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage).

The questions were mainly asked in


Engineering Mechanics

Theory of machines

Production tech

If you are thorough with your subject, you can really do well in this session.

[One Mark for correct answer, 1/5th for wrong answer. Five choices were given] Some questions which i remember are :

1)Unit of Entropy (J/kg K or kJ/kg K)?

2)A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1 m and penetrates the sand into for 1 m. What is the resistance force given by sand?

3)Ratio of specific heats of air ? (1.41)

4)A body weighs 3 kg in air. If it is submerged in a liquid, it weighs 2.5 kg. What is the specific gravity of the liquid ?

5)Two cars travell in same direction at 40 km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in a opposite direction in 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between them?

6)A simple problem involing in hoops stress. For sphere: M= [3/2]*p*V* [density of pressure vessel material/Maximum working stress it can tolerate] For Thin walled pressure walls: Hoops stress or stress in the radial direction =p*r/2t?

7) A problem in force calculation in a body moving in a inclined surface?

8)Composition of bronze?
ans. Copper+zinc.

9) Compostion of stainless steel.?
ans. iron+chromium+nickel+carbon.

10) CI is manifactured in which process?
ans. cupola process

11)What percentage of carbon is preset in pig iron?
ans. 4.5 to 6%.

12)Water is available at 10m height. What is the pressure available?
ans= pressure=density*g*height;

13)What will happen if the speed of the centrifugal pump doubles?

14)The unit eV is widely used in ?
ans. Nuclear and atomic physics.

15)What will happen to the resistance, when the diameter of the conductor is doubled?

16)The power comsumed by a electrical device is 1000W at 250V, What is the resistance in the device?
ans. Power= Voltage*current,
amps. V=IR,
Therefore R=250/4=62.5 ohms.

17)Why DC current is not used in transformer?

18)On what principle the sonar/ radar works?

19)Bending moment diagram for the UDL is in what shape?

20)Function of the distributor in petrol vehicles?
ans. Spark timing.

21)Which is not present in CI engines?
ans. carburrettor.

22)What will happen if one cylinder recieves more amount of fuel spray from injectors than other injectors?

23)Purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines?

ans. The purpose of a draft tube is toconvert some of the kinetic energy of the flow from the runner (the rotating part of the turbine) intopressure energy and thereby increase the efficiency ofthe hydro power turbine.

24)What is the effect or reheater in the gas turbine?

The advantage of reheater is significantly increased thrust; the
disadvantage is it has very high fuel consumption and inefficiency.

25)Problems involving with fricition coefficient.

26)Factor of safety = Yeild stress/Working stress.

27)Which is the example of non parallel power transmission (Universal coupling)?

28)For perpendicular shafts worm gear is used?

29)A planet gear with 25 teeth is meshed with a sun gear of 100 teeth. Both are connected using a arm. How many rotations are needed for planet gear to complete one rotation around the sun gear?

30)What is equivalent spring constant for spring in parallel?

31) Some questions was asked related to boundary layer and vortex flow.

32) 5 questions were asked in PERT, Process planning, Product planning, Break even analysis.

33)How are tungsten and sintered composite materials are machined?
(Electro Discharge Machining, EDM)

General Apptitude:

very easy.

There are 120 questions .


Detect the words with wrong spellings (5 questions).
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words(5 questions).
Two reading comprehensions were given(10 questions).
Find the error in the sentence (8 questions).


Seating arrangement problems.
Find the relation between them.

Quantitative ability:

50% of the questions are from basic geometry .
Remaining were very general and easy. But many questions are there that's y you should consider time factor and be quick.



1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2007 IRDA Agent Licensing – Sample Test papers

2007 IRDA Agent Licensing – Sample Test papers

(1) Potential purchaser of product is called ________________
(a) Prospect
(b) Consumer
(c) Customer
(d) Client

(2) If policyholder is in grievance,__________________ will solve
(a) Grievance officer
(b) Court order
(c) Ombudsman
(d) All the above

(3) 20,000 policies in the 5th year are to be made from _________sector
(a) Rural
(b) Social
(c) None
(d) Urban

(4) Insurance Agent is governed by ____________________
(a) Contract act
(b) Insurance Act
(c) IRDA
(d) All above

(5) Doctors appointed by insurers will be _____________
(a) General Physicians
(b) Specialists
(c) Surgeons
(d) All of above

(6) __________is the document produced to establish one’s age
(a) Birth Certificate
(b) Affidavit
(c) License
(d) Proof of age

(7) Who is the person who identifies the customer and get the necessary insurance for him ?
(a) Intermediary
(b) Retailer
(c) Broker
(d) Agent

(8) Which kind of Insurance plan can meet all need of a proponent?
(a) Endowment
(b) Money Back
(c) Multipurpose
(d) None of them

(9) The principal is responsible for __________ agent
(a) All the acts of agent
(b) Specified acts of agent
(c) Some of acts agent
(d) None of them

(10) Which of the following statements are True:
a) It is the agent’s responsibility to ensure that all material information is made available
b) If the proposal paper is incomplete, the agent will be held accountable
(a) A Statement
(b) B Statement
(c) Both Statement
(d) Neither of Statement

(11) In the case of a policy under the provision of M.W.P. ACT who can make the death claim?
(a) Beneficiary
(b) Life insured Heirs
(c) Trustee
(d) Any of the above

(12) Which kind policies are not entitled bonuses?
(a) Non participatory
(b) Money back
(c) Children’s
(d) Whole life

(13) Claim in question is Rs.23 lakh which consumer court will it go to:__________

(14) A policy which has run for 8 years can be called into question if there is a__________________
(a) Fraud
(b) Misrepresentation
(b) Mistake
(c) None of above

(15) What would be the paid up value of a 25-year-old endowment policy for Rs.50, 000 taken in Oct 1988, if the last ½ year’s premium paid was in Oct 2000?____________

(16) Which of the following statements are True:
a) An insurance agent can be sued under the Consumer Protection Act
b) The Consumer Protection Act does not apply to Govt. Company.
a) A Statement
b) B Statement
c) Both Statements
d) Neither of Statement

(17) If the proponent has no insurable interest in the insured the underwriter will
(a) Accept with reduce sum assured
(b) Decline the proposal
(c) Accept with lien
(d) Accept with extra premium

(18) What is paid by the insurer when the policyholder decides to discontinue the policy
(a) Forfeiture
(b) Surrender Value
(c) Intermediate Claim
(d) Lapse

(19) A person employed to act on behalf of another in dealing with a third person is called _____________
(a) Lawyer
(b) Broker
(c) Employee
(d) Agent

(20) Which are true
a) Proof of age is necessary for proposal and not for agency application
b) After business is complete agent has no role
a) A Statement
b) B Statement
c) Both Statements
d) Neither of the Statement

(21) Which are true
a) Insurance is necessary to cover risk of living too long
b) Insurance helps one to be less dependent on others
a) A Statement
b) B Statement
c) Both Statements
d) Neither of the Statement

(22) Which statement is not appropriate
A) When the prospect said that he had taken sick leave for a few days because he wanted to go outstation for an interview, the agent suggested he need not mention it
B) Agent suggested to the prospect not to mention the fact that the cause of death of one of the brothers who had died young was cardiac arrest, it was mentioned as accident
a) A Statement
b) B Statement
c) Both Statements
d) Neither of the Statement

(23) Which statement is not appropriate
A) The necessity for medical examination depends on S.A.
B) The nature of employment may be a factor to dispense with medical exam
a) A Statement
b) B Statement
c) Both Statements
d) Neither of the Statement

(24) Why does an office conduct special inquiry in the case of death claim which arose after 4 years
(a) As precaution
(b) As a Routine
(c) On suspicion of suppression of facts
(d) For large sum assured

(25) Loans is available only in the policy if
(a) It is a with profit policy
(b) The S.A exceeds Rs.10,000/-
(c) It is in facts underwriter decision
(d) None of the above

(26) Which statement is true
A Lapsed policy can be revived whenever the policy holder choose
B A paid up policy is a lapsed policy
(a) Only statement A
(b) Only statement B
(c) Both false
(d) Both statement

(27) When do the non-forfeiture provision apply
a) When policy is surrendered
b) When loan is taken
c) When premium is not paid
d) All above

(28) True – False
A - DAB is automatic in all life insurance policies
B- DAB is an option on payment of additional payment

(29) True – False
A - Insurance works on the law of large numbers
B - Insurance is possible only when there are many policyholders

(30) True – False
A - A policy that has been in force for 10 years can be called into question for misrepresentation
B - A policy which has been for 10 years called into question for fraud.

(31) True – False
A - An agent must find out the details of proponent and report the same to the insurer. T
B - The income of the proponent must be made known to the insurer.

(32) Loan under policy should not exceed
(a) S.V
(b) S.A.
(c) total premium paid
(d) Bonus

(33) Disability is related to
(a) Sickness
(b) Old age
(c) Loss of limb
(d) all of them

(34) Agent is subject to
(a) IRDA regulation
(b) Term of appointment
(c) Agent’s manual
(d) All of above

(35) The agent has _______freedom to act on behalf of insurer
(a) Limited
(b) Specified
(c) full
(d) none of the above

(36) Write true or false
a) Insurance is an individual issue and not a social one. -
b) “Uberrimae Fides” means “utmost Good Faith”.
c) Whole life policy is the best solution for most of the needs of a person. -
d) There are no “participating” policies in life insurance. -
e) There is no single premium endowment plan. -
F) Loan “Value” is equal to 90% of “Surrender Value”.

(37) Calculate Premium
Date of Birth = 3.06.1954
Date of Calculation = 1.01.2001
Date of commencement of policy = 1.12.2000
Term = 19 years
Sum assured = Rs.1,00,000/-
Mode = Ordinary – monthly
Accident benefit for Rs.50, 000/- only is required.
Tabular Premiums Age 45 = 76.00
Age 46 = 76.80
Age 47 = 78.00

(38) Calculate the premium on basis of data given below:
Age 35 years
S.A.Rs.60, 000/-
T & T 75 - 20
Tabular premium Rs.68.70 per 1000/- mode I) yearly – II) half yearly –
DAB & EPDB Allowed, Occupational Extra Rs.2 per 1000 per year

(39) Calculate paid up value and special S.V.
S.A. Rs.30, 000 /-
T and T 14 - 15
D.O.C. 18.12.1985
L.P.P. 18.3.1991
Mode Quarterly
Bonus addition: Rs.396/- per 1000/- S.A.
S.V.factor 44.2

(44) Match the following
a) Proposal C) let the buyer beware
b) ad idem D) evidence of contract
c) Caveat Emptor E) Pension
d) Policy A) basis of contract
e) Annuity B) of the same mind

(45) Say True or False.
a) A person’s insurable interest in his own life is _____(Unlimited / 10 times his salary / equal to his assets / non of these)
b) How many years must elapse after cancellation of a license, before a new license can be issued (three / four / five)
c) To whom should an application for agency license be given ______________(IRDA / Insurer /Controller of Insurance / any of them)
d) Who fixes the limits of doctors for medical examinations _____________ (IRDA / Medical council / Insurer / None of these)
e) Life Insurance premiums are determined by __________ (Accountants / Underwriter / Actuary)

(46) Calculate paid up value and S.V. in the following case
S.A. Rs. 30,000/-
Mode Half yearly
D.O.C. 28/10/1985
L.P.P. 28/04/1996
S.V. Factor 45
TT 14-25
Bonus Addition Rs.770 per 1000/- S.A.

(47) The route or process through which a product is carried to the customer is known as DISTRIBUTION CHANNEL

(48) Age nearer birthday as on 18/06/2000 of a person with date of birth 28/12/1961 is ________39
(49) The days of grace for monthly mode of premium is ___________ days.15

(50) EDLI scheme is linked to the payment of ________________ (Gratuity / Provident fund / pension)

(51) State whether true or false.
1. Group Gratuity Scheme is beneficial to both the employer as well as employees.
2. Financial planning is not necessary, but agent should seek maximum premium from the customer.
3. There should be no inducement, incase or kind, passing from agent to customer for taking out life insurance.
4. Agents generally get something over and above legitimate commission amount from the insurer.
5. Insurance Advisor is an agent of the insurer and therefore insurer is bound by the acts or omissions of the advisers, there being the principal-agent relationship.
6. As long as the insurer gets the minimum business from an agent, the insurer cannot terminate the agency of such agent.
7. All the information asked in a proposals form is relevant to the assessment of the risk.
8. ONCE the policy lapses there is no way the policy holder can re-start the policy
9. “Nomination” is not compulsory.
10. “Early” claims can be investigated by the insurer.