UNION BANK OF INDIA PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL AWARENESS
(EXAM HELD ON 09-01-2011)

1. A hockey player is supposed to know the meaning of the term?
(A) Dead Ball
(B) Bouncer
(C) LBW
(D) Penalty Corner
(E) Frozen Ball
ANS: D
2. Which one of the following have provided bailout package to Ireland to deal with its debt crisis?
(A) EU only
(B) IMP only
(C) World Bank only
(D) Only (A) and (B) above
(E) All (A), (B) and (C) above
ANS: D
3. Which one of the following Indian Company is the only company from India to be included in the Top Ten 2010 Value creators Global Ranking released by global management consulting firm BCG?
(A) RIL
(B) Tata Steel
(C) Bharti Airtel
(D) JSPL
(E) Bajaj Auto
ANS: D
4: Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) UNIDO
(E)UNESCO
ANS: D
5. BIPA with Sudan comes into effect was the news in various newspaper recently. It is an agreement for?
(A) Investment in a country
(B) Peaceful use of atomic power
(C) Allowing students to visit each others nation
(D) Allowing people to come for medical treatment
(E)
ANS: A
To form an alliance with each other in case of a war
6. In which one of the following sports Sandhya Rani Devi bagged
Silver in Asiad 2010, Games?
(A) Shooting
(B) Squash
(C) Taekwondo
(D) Ten-pin bowling
(E) Wushu
ANS: E
7. Which of the’ following terms is normally not seen in the field of
International Relations?
(A) Exchange Rate
(B) Free Trade
(C) MFN
(D) Alluvial Soil
(E) OECD
ANS: D
8. According to mid term review of Indian economy, which one of the following segments will be the major contributor to GDP growth?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Mining
(E) None of these
ANS: C
9. Which of the following films directed by Aamir Khan was sent for OSCARs Award nominations from India?
(A) Rang De Basanti
(B) Peepli Live
(C) Tare Zamin Par
(D) Lagan
(E) None of these
ANS: B
10. In which one of the following states, population growth rate is lower than national average?
(A) Dethi
(B) Gujarat
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Orissa
ANS: E
11.In broad gauge, the distance between the rails is
(A) 1.00 metre
(B) 3 metre
(C) 1.67 metre
(D) 2.67 metre
(E) 0.76 metre
ANS: C
12. Who is Indra Nooyi?
(A) CEO Coca Cola
(B) CEO PepsiCo.
(C) Managing Director Nano Division
(D) India’s permanent representative to UNO
(E) None of these
ANS: B
13. ET Now and CNBC TV18, TV Channels essentially broadcast
(A) English News
(B) Classic English Movies
(C) Political Events and News
(D) Business and Economic News
(E) All important national and international news in English
ANS: D
14. Amongst the following sports men/women, who has won the first gold medal at Guangzhou Asian Games?
(A) Yuan Xiachao
(B) Wang Migluen
(C) Zhu Oianward
(D) Takeshi Matsuda
(E) Wu Jingbiao
ANS: A
15. With which one of the following fields was Satyajit Ray associated?
(A)Films
(B) Sports
(C) Social Work
(D). Drama
(E)Short Stories
ANS: A
16. ‘Daniel Vettroi’ is captain of which one of the following teams?
(A) New Zealand Cricket Team
(B)South Africa Cricket Team
(C)New Zealand Basket Ball Team
(D) West Indies Cricket Team
(E) Australia Cricket Team
ANS: A
17. Who amongst the following carried Indian Tricolour at
Guangzhou Asian Games?
(A) Sania Mirza
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Gagan Narang
(D) Suranjay Singh
(E) Randhir Singh
ANS: C
18. Financial ratio analysis of a company helps in understanding—
1. The long term debt raising capacity
2. The short term solvency
3. The reasons for fluctuation in its stock prices
4. The net worth of the company
5.The profitability
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 2,3,4
(C)3,4,5
(D) 3,1,2,4
(E) 1,2,4,5
ANS: E
19. Human breath is visible in winter but not in summer because—
(A) The difference in outside pressure gives visibility to breath
(B) Breath contains certain impurities and visible matters
(C) Water vapour in breath condenses in cold air, making it visible
(D) Breath has heat in it which evaporates in cold air giving visibility
(E) None of these
ANS: D
20. Which of the following is/are not the names of Seven North
Eastern States?
1. Jorhat
2. Manipur
3. Meghalaya
4. Agartala
5. Dimapur
(A) 1,2,3
(B) 2,3,4
(C) 3, 4, 1
(D) 1, 4, 2
(E) 1,4,5
ANS: E
21. According to a recent newspaper survey, which one of the following is the most preferred language for leisure reading among the Indian Youth?
(A) Hindi
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) Telugu
(E) English
ANS: E
22. Who was Dr. C. Rangarajan?
(A) Chairman, PMEAC
(B) Member, Planning Commission
(C) Chief Economist, IBA
(D) RBI Governor
(E) Member, Minority Commission
ANS: D
23. Which of the following is an oilseed?
(A) Garlic
(B) Clove
(C) Cardamom
(D) Cumin Seed
(E) Mustard
ANS: E
24. The RBI reviews its credit and monetary policy at regular intervals and also in between. What is the purpose of the same?
1. To ensure that inflation does not cross the limit
2. To ensure that banks have enough liquidity
3. To ensure that cost of the fund does not reach a very high level
(A) Only 1
(B) Only2
(C) All1,2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) None of these
ANS: C
25. The name of the white revolution is associated with?
(A) J. V. Narlikar
(B) J.C.Bose
(C) Kurien Verghese
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
(E) C. Rangarajan
ANS: C
26. The cabinet committee recently approved the ‘IGMSY’ a scheme for the welfare of the people of India. Who amongst the following will get the benefit of the scheme?
(A) Mothers and pregnant women
(B) Children upto 12 years of age
(C) Youth
(D) Old and Senior Citizens
(E) All the above
ANS: A
27. The Govt. of India provides direct financial support to which of the following schemes?
(A) Jeevan Bharati Scheme
(B) ULIP
(C) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(D) Packing Credit Guarantee Scheme
(E) All of the above
ANS: C
28. Who amongst the following is a famous Urdu author/poet who received Jnanpith Award recently?
(A)Akhlaq Khan Shabryar
(B)ONV Kurup
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Krishna Sobti
(E)None of these
ANS: A
29. Who amongst the following is the author of the Book ‘A Bend in the River’?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Arun Shourie
(C) Octavia Paz
(D) Daniel Defoe
(E) Walter Scott
ANS: A
30. Which of the following is called
the pink city of India?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Lucknow
(C) Kota
(D) Hyderabad
(E) Jaipur
ANS: E
31. Which of the following states got a new Chief Minister without
new assembly elections?
(A) Goa
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Gujarat
(E) Delhi
ANS: C
32. A two days National level conference /event was organised in
Chandigarh in September 2010.
Which was the conference /event?
(A) Miss India 2010
(B) Asian Women Hockey Finals 2010
(C) Conference of the Finance Ministers of SAARC
(D) National Rabi Conference
(E) None of these
ANS: E
33. Which of the following Summits took place in Hanoi in October
2010?
(A) ASEAN Summit
(B) SAARC Summit
(C) G-20 Summit
(D) G-8 Summit
(E) None of these
ANS: A
34. The Reserve Bank does not have an office in?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Jaipur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Bhopal
(E) Gulbarga
ANS: E
35. A Badminton player is supposed to know the meaning of the term
(A) Bouncer
(B) Love
(C) LBW
(D) Punch
(E) Booster
ANS: B
36. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2010?
(A) Ishant Sharma
(B) Hariom Singh
(C) M.S.Dhoni
(D) Sushil Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal
ANS: E
37. India extended a credit of US $ 250 million to which of the following countries, which will be used for infrastructural development there?
(A)China
(B) Pakistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
(E)Sudan
ANS: D
38. Which one of the following makes a case for intensive, modem farming?
(A) Higher output using organic method
(B) Remunerative price
(C) Cropping pattern
(D) Land acquisition for non agricultural needs
(E) None of these
ANS: C
39. In which one of the following States multi-thousand-food grain scam has recently been noticed by the High Court?
(A)M. P.
(B) Orissa
(C)Bihar
(D) Jharkhand
(E)U.P.
ANS: C
40. Which one of the following is the objective of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) issued by the Government?
(A), To ensure that Companies take steps for rehabilitation of project affected people
(B) To ensure that Companies use some of their profits for educating the project affected people
(C) To ensure that Companies provide health care to project affected people
(D) To ensure that Companies take preventive measures to avoid environmental damage
(E) None of these
ANS: A
41. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging
from?
(A) 2009—2014
(B) 2008—2013
(C) 2007—2012
(D) 2006—2011
(E) None of these
ANS: C
42. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to
(A) Meet its current liabilities
(B) Service its shareholders
(C) Meet its long term debt obligations
(D) Raise further capital
(E) None of these
ANS: C
43. An IPO is—
(A) Initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(B) An offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public
(C) Used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(D) A book building process
(E) None of these
ANS: B
44. A decreasing current ratio indicates
(A) A stable liquidity
(B) An increasing liquidity
(C) A strained liquidity
(D) Satisfactory current solvency
(E) None of these
ANS: E
45. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on
(A) The age of the company
(B) The location of the company
(C) The activity undertaken by the company
(D) The creditability and the valuation of the company
(E) The existing profitability of the company
ANS: E
46. The synagogue is generally
(A) An epic
(B) A religion
(C) Jewish House of Prayer
(D) The Parsi temple
(E) A palace
ANS: C
47.Deuce is a term used in
(a) Polo
(b) Lawn tennis
(c) Badminton
(d) Boxing
(e) Volley ball
(A) a,b,c
(B) b, c, d
(C) c,d,a
(D) a,b,e
(E) b,c,e
ANS: E
48. ISI is the intelligence agency of
(A) United Kingdom
(B) United States of America
(C) Israel
(D) Pakistan
(E) India
ANS: D
49. Air Traffic Controller’s job involves—
1. Control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
2. Control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
3. Following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
4. Control of commercial air line flights according to government regulations
5. To authorize and regulate
commercial airline flights
(A) 1,2
(B)2,3
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(E) 3,4,5
ANS: A
50. Animal assisted therapy is employed in?
(A) Operations
(B) ICU
(C) Old age homes
(D) Training animals
(E) Natural healing
ANS: D

Maharashtra Gramin Bank Officers 2009 Solved Paper

1. The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open more IITs during the year 2008-09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States?
(A) Bihar,Rajasthan,Andhra Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh,Orissa,Karnataka
(C) Karnataka,Tamilnadu,Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh,Madhya Pradesh,Bihar
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
2. Which of the following is /are NOT the highlights of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
(1) A risk Capital fund is to be set up and maintained by one of the financial Institutes.
(2) Allocation for defence is reduced by 10% to make it Rs. 10,000 Crore.
(3) Several new scheme to be introduced for providing social security to the people in unorganized sectors.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (B) The amount allocated for for defence in the budget 2008-09 is Rs. 105600 Crore which is higher than that in the Budget 2007-08.
3. To help farming community the Govt. of India has decided to raise the minimum support price of Paddy for current Kharif marketing season. What is that Price ?
(A) Rs. 800/quintal
(B) Rs. 900/quintal
(C) Rs. 950/quintal
(D) Rs. 1200/quintal
(E) none of these
ANS (D) The purchase price recommended by the CACP fOR The Crop Year 2008-09 for general category Rice is Rs. 1000 per quintal and for A- Grade is Rs. 1050 per quintal.
4. Wchich of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial paper ?
(1) It is nothing but the popular name of the judicial stamp papers used to register financial transactions.
(2) It is one of the instrument through which corporate raise debt from the market.
(3) It is the name of the “Certificate of Deposits” provided by the banks to its retail customers.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All (1),(2) & (3)
ANS (B)
5. As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at which of the following levels? Approximately—
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 98%
(D) 90%
(E) 81%
ANS (E) As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at 81.4% .
6. As per the new figures released in recent past what has been the ratio of taxes to gross domestic product (Tax-GDP)in 2007-08 ? Approximately —
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10-%
(D) 11.5%
(E) 12.5%
ANS (E)
7. Which of the following companies has got “Navratna Status” recently ?
(A) National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC)
(B) National Textile Corporation (NTC)
(C) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(D) IDBI Bnak Ltd.
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
8. Who amongst the following established the “Anandvan” a rehabilitation centre for Leprocy patients in Maharashtra ?
(A) Baba Amte
(B) Pandurang Shashtri Athawle
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Asaram Bapu
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
9. Thaksin Shinawatra’s name is associated with which of the follwing countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) North Korea
(D) Soth Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
10. Who amongst the following agreed to supply aircraft carrier “Gorshkov” to India for its defense services ?
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
11. Bhupen Hazarika is the recipient of the life time achievement award and is provided the status of the cabinet minister . Which of the following Stae Govt. has honoured him in this manner ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Assam
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
12. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the “Kishore Kumar Award” given by the Madhya Pradesh Govt. ?
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Manoj Kumar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
13.The Under -19 Cricket world cup 2008 was won by which of the following contries ?
(A) Malysia
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Australia
(E) England
ANS (B) India defeated South Africa in the final match by seven runs.
14. Who amongst the following was the chief guest in India’s Republic Day Function ?
(A) Samak Sundaravej
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Nikolas Sarkozy
(E) None of these
ANS (E)
15. Who amongst the following is the recipient of Padma Vibhushan given away recently ?
(A) Anu Malik
(B) Shan
(C) Asha Bhosle
(D) Sonu Nigam
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
16. Which of the following Staes tops in primary ,upper primary education in India ?
(A) Tamilnadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
17. The 11th five year paln wishes to raise the existing 2% growth in agriculture and allied activities to which of the following levels by the year 2012 ?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 5%
(D) 4%
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
18. As a policy the Reserve Bank of India wishes to contain inflation at which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 4%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
19. World Day of Water is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) March 22
(B) February 22
(C) January 22
(D) May 22
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
20. Who amongst the following players has completed 16000 runs in One Day International Cricket matches recently ?
(A) Anil Kumble
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Saurav Ganguly
(D) Irfan Pathan
(E) Sachin Tendulkar
ANS (E)
21. Why was the name of Anatolyevic Medvedev in news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the president of Russia
(B) He has taken over as the prime minister of Russia
(C) He is the new president of South Korea
(D) He is the new prime minister of South Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
22. International Desert Festival 2008 was organized in February 2008 in —
(A) Bhuj Ganganagar
(B) Ganganagar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
23. The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010. These games will be orgsnized in –
(A) Moscow
(B) New Delhi
(C) Beijing
(D) Quala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS (E) The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010 in Singapore.
24. Who amongst the following has taken over as the president of Serbia ?
(A) Raul castro
(B) Stefen Spielberg
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Jose Manual Ramos Horta
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
25. The general election in Iran are due in 2008. Iran elects its parliament for a period of —
(A) 2 years only
(B) 3 years only
(C) 4 years only
(D) 5 years only
(E) 6 years only
ANS (C)
26. Luciana Aymar who aws adjudged the world hockey player 2007 is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Germany
(B) Argentina
(C) Italy
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
27. which of the following State Government has decided to provide ownership rights to Tribal over forest land being cultivated by them since last 10 years ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
28. Which of the following committees recommended the revival of Cooperative Credit Institutions in States ?
(A) Vaidyanathan Committee
(B) Rangrajan Committee
(C) Sachchar Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
29. As we all know the Chinese economy is a booming economy and its export have played a significant role in it. What was the share of China’s Export as compared to its GDP in 2007 ?
(A) 20%
(B) 30
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
30. Delhi won the Ranji Trophy for the seventh time in January 2008 by defeating ——-
(A) Railways
(B) Haryana
(C) Mharashtra
(D) Guajarat
(E) Uttar Pradesh
ANS (E)
31. Gagan Nrang , who got a silver medal in an International Championship held in Munich,is a/an —
(A) 100 metre runner
(B) Badminton Player
(C) Chess Player
(D) Swimmer
(E) Air Fifle Shooter
ANS (E)
32. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India two financial inclusion funds are set up with an overall corpus of Rs. 500 Crore each. These funds- financial inclusion fund and financial inclusion technology funds are to be set up by the initial contribution made by the –
(A) SIDBI,NABARD & UTI
(B) NABARD,UTI & RBI
(C) Govt. of India,NABARD & RBI
(D) SIDBI,Govt. of India & IDBI Bank
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
33. As per the Govt. Policy the provision of the subsidy for interest subvention to Coopeartive Sugar Mills is done by which of the following agencies/organizations ?
(A) Commission for Agriculture cost & price
(B) Nationa Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Natioanl Commission on Farmers
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
34. Banks these days have launched a new scheme product known as “Reverse Mortage” . The scheme is designed keeping which of the following groups of society in consideration ?
(A) Youngers who have just started earning
(B) Defense personnel whose life is always at high risk
(C) Senior Citizen
(D) Women who do not have independent source of income
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
35. Which of the following countries is governed by the Norweigen-mediated ceasefire Agreement to end its dispute with a group of rebellions ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
36. As per the news report SEBI has allowed short selling by FIs/MFs from ist February,2008 . What is “Short Selling” ?
(1) Selling of shares that the seller does not own at the time of trading
(2) Selling of shares on the same day or on the day they were alloted to the trader.
(3) Selling of shares on a much lower price due to turbulent market situations
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
37. Prime minister os India on his visit to China a few months back signed a detailed agreement with the sama. What is/are the major highlights of the agreement ?
(1) Both the countries agreed to continue high level exchange of views. Indian President is invited to China.
(2) India to host joint millitary exercise in 2008.
(3) India has decided to raise the issue of Tibet in UNO. China has agreed for the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (C)
38. As per the reports in the leading newspapers Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has asked the Mutual Fund Industry to stop “MISSELLING” their scheme to investors. What is misselling of Products ?
(1) Misselling takes place when mutual funds are sold without telling the likely returns.
(2) When agents sell the products without telling investors what are the risk involved in investing in mutual funds.
(3) When agents invest somebody’s money in mutual funds without their knowledge , it is called Misselling.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
39. The sensitive Index of the Bombay Stock Exchsange keeps on changing positively and negatively both. Which of the following is/are the main reasons which contributed for his sudden change in the same ?
(1) Higher GDP growth
(2) Continuous foreign funds flow
(3) High volume of forex reserves
(4) Only 1 Recession in USA
(A) Only 1 & 2
(B) Only 2 & 3
(C) Both 3 & 4
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1,2 ,3 & 4
ANS (B)
40. The USA , as reported in the leading newspapers is proceeding towards ‘recession’. What happens when an economy goes in the grip of ‘recession’?
(1) GDP growth slow down
(2) People lose their jobs
(3) Foreign exchange reserve goes up substantially as lot of loans/grants star pouring in .
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

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CENTRAL TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST (CTET) - 2011

SCHEDULE OF CTET EXAMINATION

DATE OF EXAMINATION	PAPER	TIMING	DURATION
26.06.2011	I	09.30 TO 11.00 HOURS	1.30 HOURS
26.06.2011	II	12.30 TO 14.00 HOURS	1.30 HOURS

Structure and Content of CTET

 All questions in CTET test will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), each carrying one mark, with four alternatives out of which one answer will be correct. There will be no negative marking.

There will be two papers of CTET.
(i)Paper I will be for a person who intents to be a teacher for classes I to V.
(ii)Paper II will be for a person who intents to be a teacher for classes VI to VIII.
Note: A person who intents to be a teacher for both levels (classes I to V and classes VI to VIII) will have to appear in both the papers (Paper I and Paper II).

Paper I (for classes I to V): Duration of examination - one-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content (All Compulsory): (Appendix 1)

(i) Child Development and Pedagogy    30 MCQs      30 Marks
(ii) Language I                                    30 MCQs      30 Marks
(iii) Language II                                  30 MCQs      30 Marks
(iv) Mathematics                                 30 MCQs      30 Marks
(v) Environmental Studies                    30 MCQs      30 Marks
      Total                                           150 MCQs    150 Marks

Nature and standard of questions:

The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educational psychology of teaching and learning relevant to the age group of 6-11 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics and needs of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.
The Test items for Language I will focus on the proficiencies related to the medium of instruction, (as chosen from list of prescribed language options in the application form).
The Language II will be from among the prescribed options other than Language I. A candidate may choose any one language from the available language options and will be required to specify the same in the application form. The test items in language II will also focus on the elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities.
The test items in Mathematics and Environmental Studies will focus on the concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of the subjects. In all these subject areas, the test items will be evenly distributed over different divisions of the syllabus of that subject prescribed for classes� I–V, by the NCERT/CBSE.
The questions in the tests for Paper I will be based on the topics prescribed for classes� I–V, but their difficulty standard, as well as linkages, could be up to the secondary stage.

Paper II (for classes VI to VIII): Duration of examination - one-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content: (Appendix 1)

(i) Child Development & Pedagogy (compulsory)                                            30 MCQs       30Marks
(ii) Language I (compulsory)                                                                            30 MCQs       30Marks
(iii) Language II (compulsory)                                                                          30 MCQs       30Marks
(iv)(a) For Mathematics and Science teacher: Mathematics and Science           60 MCQs       60Marks
     (b) For Social Studies/Social Science Teacher: Social Science                     60 MCQs       60Marks
     (c) For any other teacher � either (a) or (b)

Nature and standard of questions:

The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educational psychology of teaching and learning, relevant to the age group 11-14 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics, needs and psychology of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.
The test items for Language I will focus on the proficiency related to the medium of instruction, as chosen from list of prescribed options in the application form.
The Language II will be a language other than Language I. A candidate may choose any one language from among the available options and as in the specified list in the application form and attempt questions in the one indicated by the candidate in the application form by him. The Test items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities.
The test items in Mathematics and Science, and Social Studies/Social Science will focus on the concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of these subjects. The test items of Mathematics and Science will be of 30 marks each. The test items will be evenly distributed over different divisions of the syllabus of that subject as prescribed for classes VI-VIII by the NCERT/CBSE.
The questions in the tests for Paper II will be based on the topics of the prescribed syllabus of the NCERT/CBSE for classes VI-VIII but their difficulty standard as well as linkages could be up to the senior secondary stage.
DETAILED STRUCTURE AND CONTENT

A. PROCEDURE TO BE FOLLOWED DURING CONDUCT OF CTET

1). The examination rooms/hall will be opened 30 minutes before the commencement of the test. Candidates should take their seat immediately after opening of the examination all. If the candidates do not report in time, they are likely to miss some of the general instructions to be announced in the Examination Hall. 2). The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card for admission in the examination room/hall. A candidate who does not possess the Admit Card issued by the Board shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent. 3). A seat indicating roll number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidates should find and occupy their allotted seat only. Any candidate found to have changed room or the seat on his/her own other than allotted, his/her candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted for it. 4). A candidate who comes after the commencement of the examination shall not be permitted to sit in the examination. 5). Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, and Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits of papers, mobile phone, pager or any other device, except the Admit Card and Blue/ Black Ball Point pen inside the Examination Room/Hall. If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, his/her candidature will be treated as unfairmeans and cancel the current examination & also debarred the candidate for future examination(s) & the material will be seized. 6). No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room until the full duration of the paper is over. Candidates should not leave the room/hall without handing over their Answer Sheets to the Invigilator on duty. 7). Candidates are advised to bring with them a cardboard or a clip board on which nothing should be written, so that they have no difficulty in writing responses in the Answer Sheet even if the tables provided in the examination room/hall do not have smooth surface. They should also bring their own Ball Point Pens (Black/Blue) of good quality. These will not be supplied by the Board. 8). Smoking in the Examination Hall/Room is strictly prohibited. 9). Tea, coffee, cold drinks or snacks are not allowed to be taken into the examination rooms during examination hours. 10). Ten minutes before the commencement of the paper, each candidate will be given sealed Test Booklet with an Answer Sheet placed inside it. 11). Immediately on receipt of the Test Booklet the candidates will fill in the required particulars on the cover page of the Test Booklet with Ball Point Pen only. He/She will not open the Test Booklet until asked to do so by the Invigilator. Do not open/break the seal before the announcement.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS PRIOR TO EXAMINATION

12). Five minutes before the commencement of the paper the candidate will be asked to break/open the seal of the Test Booklet. He/She will take out the Answer Sheet carefully. The candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on the Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 13). Candidate will then write particulars with Blue/Black ball point pen only on both the sides of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. If anybody uses the pencil, his/her answer sheet will be rejected and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard. After completing this step, the candidates will wait for the signal by the invigilator. 14). The test will start exactly at the time mentioned in the Admit Card and an announcement to this effect will be made by the invigilator. 15). During the examination time, the invigilator will check Admit Card of the candidate to satisfy himself/herself about the identity of each candidate. The invigilator will also put his/her signatures in the place provided in the Answer Sheet on Side-1. 16). UNFAIR MEANS :
Candidates shall maintain perfect silence and attend to their Question Paper only. Any conversation or gesticulation or disturbance in the Examination Room/Hall shall be deemed as misbehavior. If a candidate is found using unfair means or impersonating, his/her candidature shall be cancelled and he/she will be liable to be debarred for taking examination either permanently or for a specified period according to the nature of offence.
    If any candidate is in possession of any item(s) as mentioned in Para 5 above, his/her candidature for current examination will be cancelled and also liable to be debarred for future examination(s). 17). After completing the paper and before handing over the Answer Sheet, the candidate should check again that all the particulars required in the Answer Sheet have been correctly written. 18). A signal will be given at the beginning of the examination and at half-time. A signal will also be given before the closing time when the candidate must stop marking the responses. 19). The candidate will check that the Test-booklet contains as many number of pages as are written on the top of the first page of the Test Booklet. The candidate shall not remove any page(s) from the Test-Booklet and if he/she is found to have removed any page(s) from his/her Test Booklet, he/she will be presumed to have used unfair means and shall be liable for criminal action. 20). The candidates must sign twice on the Attendance Sheet at the appropriate place. Firstly, immediately after commencement of the Examination and for the second time while handing over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. The candidates are also required to put their left hand thumb impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet.

B. Instructions for use of Test Booklet and Answer Sheet

1). The candidates will find the Answer Sheet placed inside the sealed Test Booklet. The seal will be broken/ opened by the candidates on the announcement by the invigilator and the Answer Sheet shall be taken out. Do not open/break the seal before the announcement. 2). Side-2 of each Answer Sheet will have a pre-printed Test Booklet Code like A, B, C or D. The candidates are required to check that the Test Booklet Code pre-printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on the Test Booklet. 3). The Answer Sheet used will be of special type which will be scanned on Optical Scanner. There will be two sides of the Answer Sheet.
    

Side 1	This side of the Answer Sheet contains the following columns which are to be filled in neatly and accurately by the candidate with Blue/Black ball point pen only. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. i) Roll Number ii) Name of the candidate iii)Father's Name iv) Centre Number v) Name of the Examination Centre vi) Signature of the candidate
Side 2	This side of the Answer Sheet contains the following columns which are also to be filled in by the candidate with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. i) Roll Number ii) Centre Number iii) Test Booklet Number

WRITING OF PARTICULARS AND RESPONSES ON SIDE – 2 WITH BLUE/BLACK BALL POINT PEN ONLY WILL BE FILLED UP AS FOLLOWS.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING THE RESPONSES

i). Out of four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct answer is to be darkened completely with blue/black Ball Point Pen. For example Question No. 008 in the Test Booklet reads as follows:
Qutub Minar is situated in
    (1) Delhi
    (2) Mumbai
    (3) Agra
    (4) Bangalore
    The correct response to this question is (1) Delhi. The candidate will locate Question No. 008 in the Answer Sheet and darken the circle (1) as shown below:
   
ii). Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen to completely darken the appropriate circle, i.e. one circle for each entry. iii). The answer once marked is not liable to be changed. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. If any candidate use the pencil for darkening the answer sheet, his/her answer sheet will be rejected. iv). A light or faintly darkened circle is a wrong method of marking and liable to be rejected by the Optical Scanner. v). If the candidate does not want to attempt any question he/she should not darken the circle given against that question. vi). Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it. 4). ROUGH WORK
The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet. All rough work is to be done in the Test Booklet itself. 5). CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED
The candidates must fully satisfy themselves about the accuracy of the answer before darkening the appropriate circle as no change in answer once marked is allowed. Use of eraser or white/correction fluid on the Answer Sheet is not permissible as the Answer Sheets are machine gradable and it may lead to wrong evaluation. 6). Prior to handing over the Answer Sheet soon after the examination is over, the candidate must sign the attendance sheet as a proof thereof. The examinee is permitted to carry the Text Booklet.

 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AT A GLANCE FOR CTET 2011

1	a. Sale of CTET Information Bulletin with Application Form at Designated branches of Syndicate Bank,Institutions against Cash Payment only		15.04.2011 to 10.05.2011
	b. Online submission of application and Fee through credit/ debit card on website www.cbse.nic.in		08.04.2011 to 10.05.2011
	c. Receipt of request for Information Bulletin and Application Form by Post at CTET Unit, CBSE, Shiksha Sadan, 17, Rouse Avenue, New Delhi-110002.		15.04.2011 to 30.04.2011
2	Issue of Admit Card		11.06.2011 to 17.06.2011
3	Issue of duplicate Admit Card		20.06.2011
4	Date of Examination	26th June, 2011	Paper-I 0930-1100 hrs* Paper-II 1230-1400 hrs*
5	Centre of Examination	As indicated on the Admit Card
6	Declaration of Results	By 26th July, 2011
7	Dispatch of CTET Certificates/Mark Sheet	By 26th August, 2011
8	Materials to be brought on the day of examination	Admit Card and Blue/ Black Ball Point Pen of good quality.
9	Rough work	All rough work is to be done in the Test Booklet only. The candidate should NOT do any rough work or put tray mark on the Answer Sheet.

*TIME SCHEDULE

	Paper I	Paper II
DATE OF EXAMINATION	26.06.2011	26.06.2011
a) Entry in the Examination Hall	09.00 hrs.	12.00 hrs.
b) Distribution of Test Booklet	09.20 hrs.	12.20 hrs.
c) Seal of the Test Booklet to be broken/opened to take out the Answer Sheet	09.25 hrs.	12.25 hrs.
d) Last entry in the Examination Hall	09.30 hrs.	12.30 hrs.
e) Test commences	09.30 hrs.	12.30 hrs.
f) Test concludes	11.00 hrs.	14.00 hrs.

Examination Fees/Cost of Information Bulletin.

The cost of Information Bulletin inclusive of examination for Teachers Eligibility Test :

General/OBC Category	Rs 500/- (Five hundred)
SC/ST/ Differently Abled Category	Rs 250/- (Two hundred fifty)

Information Bulletin containing Application Form can be obtained by post from the Designated Branches of Syndicate Bank/other Banks/Designated Institutions (List of Syndicate Bank Branches ) or can also be obtained from the Assistant Secretary (CTET), Central Board of Secondary Education, Shiksha Sadan, 17, Institutional Area, Rouse Avenue, Delhi-110002. The Syndicate Bank/other Banks, the designated institutions will not send the Information Bulletin by Post. Hence, no request should be made to them for sending the Bulletin by Post.
The designated branches of Syndicate Banks/Other Banks/designated Institutions are not responsible for any consequences, that may arise due to non-availability of forms in case the copies of application forms are sold out before the last date. In case of such an eventuality the candidate may apply on-line.
Instructions for completing and sending the Application Form by post are given here. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully before filling up the application form.
i). Request for change/correction in any particulars in the Application Form shall not be entertained under any circumstances. The Board will not be responsible for any consequences arising out of non-acceptance of any correction/addition/deletion in any particular once filled in the application form whatsoever the reasons may be.
ii). Incomplete Application Forms, or the forms having over-writing, will be summarily rejected.
Fee once remitted shall not be refunded under any circumstances.

ADMIT CARD

The Admit Card will be sent by post "Under Certificate of Posting(UCP)" to the candidate by 17.06.2011, however, the Board will not be responsible for any consequences that may arise due to loss of admit card in transit. It will be the responsibility of the candidate to contact to the Board in case he/she is not in receipt of the Admit Cards by 20.06.2011.
In case the Admit Card is not received by 20.06.2011, the candidate should contact the Assistant Secretary (CTET), Central Board of Secondary Education, Shiksha Sadan, 17, Institutional Area, Rouse Avenue, Delhi-110002 between 10.00 AM to 5.00 PM giving details of the Post Office, date of dispatch, original receipt of postal dispatch, Photostat copy of the Application Form/Confirmation Page, one photograph (as pasted on the Application Form). Request for issue of admit card after the examination will not be entertained. In no case the duplicate Admit Card would be issued at the Examination Centres.

IMPORTANT NOTES:

1. Candidates can apply for CTET 2011 either on the prescribed Application Form or make application 'ON-LINE'
2. (a) For submission of application on prescribed Application Form :
   • Information Bulletin containing Application Form can be had personally from the Designated Branches of Syndicate Bank, Institutions specified in Appendix-IV against cash payment (Not by post).
   • Information Bulletin containing Application Form can also be had by post by sending Demand Draft of required fee from the Central Board of Secondary Education, Shiksha Sadan, 17 Rouse Avenue, New Delhi-110002.
   • Candidates must follow instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin. Candidates not complying with the instructions, their candidature shall be summarily disqualified. (b)For ON-LINE submission of application at Board's website www.cbse.nic.in
     Application can also be made 'ON-LINE' by accessing the Boarda's website www.cbse.nic.in.The candidate should supply all details while filling up the Online Form. Candidates are required to take a print out of the computer generated Confirmation page after successful submission of data. Candidates should pay the following fee:
     • General/ OBC Category                                  Rs 500/- (Five hundred)
     • SC/ST/ Differently Abled Category                Rs 250/- (Two hundred fifty)
     The fee can be remitted in the following ways:
     • By Demand Draft in favour of the Secretary, Central Board of Secondary Education, Delhi drawn in any Nationalized Bank payable at Delhi. Write your name, address and registration number on the back of the Demand Draft.
3. Please ensure before mailing the Application Form/ Confirmation Page that:-
   • the candidate has signed the Form at specified place;
   • the candidate has put left hand thumb impression at the specified place;
   • the candidate has pasted the recent passport size photograph in the space earmarked for it;
   • the candidate has written name and complete mailing address in CAPITAL letters including PIN
   CODE
   • the candidate has attached Demand Draft of required fee those who have submitted the application 'ON-LINE';
   • the candidate has kept a photocopy of the Application Form/ Confirmation Page for use as reference for future correspondence.
4. The Application Form/ Confirmation Page complete in all respect should be sent by Registered/Speed Post so as to reach positively by 15.05.2011 in the CBSE office.                                                                                                                                                                                     Note : 7 days grace time i.e. up to 22.05.2011 for receipt of Application Form will be allowed to the candidates belonging to remote areas viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Lahaul and Spiti District and Pangi sub division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman & Nicobar Island and Lakshadweep.                                                                                                                                               The Application Form is to be dispatched in the enclosed CBSE envelope only. Those applying -On-line', Confirmation Page must be dispatched in an envelope of size 12"x10" only and superscribing "APPLICATION FOR CTET-2011".
   
   The Application Form sent by courier shall not be accepted and rather rejected. The Application Form will not be received personally in any case.
   
5. Information regarding receipt of applications in the CTET Unit of the CBSE will be put on the Board's website www.cbse.nic.in. The candidates can check the receipt of their Application on the website after 10.06.2011 Candidates whose particulars do not appear on the website may write to the Assistant Secretary, CTET Unit, and forward a photocopy of the Application Form/ Confirmation Page, mode of payment of fee those have submitted application 'ON-LINE' and one passport size photograph (as pasted on the Application Form).
6. In case the Admit Card is not received by 20.06.2011, the candidates should contact the CBSE between 10.00 AM to 5.00 PM giving details of the Post Office, date of dispatch, original receipt of postal dispatch, Photostat copy of the Application Form/ Confirmation Page, one photograph (as pasted on the Application Form)
7. Request for issue of duplicate Admit Card will not be entertained after the examination in any case.
8. For latest updates, please check at Board's website www.cbse.nic.in

Address for obtaining/sending complete Application Form/ Confirmation Page and clarification, if any:-
THE ASSISTANT SECRETARY (CTET),
CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION,
"SHIKSHA SADAN", 17, ROUSE AVENUE,
NEW DELHI-110002
CONTACT NO. 011-23238361 (TELEFAX), 23220153, 23217128 (FAX)

The candidate must retain a photocopy of his/her filled in Application Form for future correspondence, if required.

Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) 2011 Sample Question Paper

Read the following passage carefully and Answer the questions given below it. The awareness of equal corruption will be a better emotional basis for the so-called multi-racial commonwealth, of which much is made, than its professed principle-the pursuit of common aims in world politics, aims which are so rarefied that a large volume of artificial political oxygen is needed to keep that body-politic breathing. After all, it cannot be denied that even the United States and the Soviet Union are pursing common aims in world affairs, such as peace, disarmament, democracy, technological progress, as well as freedom as understood by each. But that is not preventing them from doing things which might lead to the destruction or near destruction of mankind. Thus, common aims would seem to be very undependable as guarantees for goodwill and co-operation among nations. On the contrary, a frank admission of being equal sinners would at least encourage charity and discourage moral arrogance. That would be a better foundation for integration for international and multi-racial co-operation.

Q1. The Commonwealth is characterised by
(a) the failure of the constituents to work for the same goals
(b) the racial nature of its membership
(c) uniform lack of moral standards
(d) constant redefining of objectives

Q2. The super powers may claim to have the same laudable objectives, but these
(a) do not work earnestly to achieve them
(b) undo each other’s efforts
(c) still act against the interest of mankind
(d) do not see them in the right perspective

Q3. Common goals are desirable, but these
(a) do not ensure international co-operation
(b) lead to unnecessary tensions
(c) encourage rivalry between super powers
(d) lead to destruction of mankind

Q4. International co-operation can come about if
(a) nations become aware of their own failings and discard pride
(b) charitable organizations are encouraged
(c) different races are treated on the basis of equality
(d) nations guilty of immoral actions are exposed

Q5. The thrust of the author’s argument is that
(a) the Commonwealth has outlived its utility
(b) membership of the Commonwealth be restricted to the super powers
(c) members are equally responsible for the present state of world politics
(d) international peace and co-operation are unattainable.

In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the Answer is (d) “No error”.
Q1 He charged me (a)/one hundred rupees for five dozens(b)/oranges of average quality (c). No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q2. Raju and his friend (a) /were going to see a picture(b) /when they met his common friend (c). No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q3. Until you come(a)/ to class regularly (b)/you will fail (c). No error (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q4. My father is (a)/ in bad mood (b)/ today(c). No error (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q5. If I was you (a)/ I would not have(b)/ committed this blunder(c). No error(d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Q1. Everyone was ________ by surprise when she announced her plan to marry that man.
(a) moved (b) shaken (c) taken (d) disturbed
Q2. She always insisted on the need to ____ between ends and means.
(a) analyse (b) define (c) distribute (d) distinguish
Q3. He_____ that he would come.
(a) requested (b) said (c) pleaded (d) urged
Q4. He had good ____ over the ancient languages, too.
(a) authority (b) knowledge (c) command (d) expertise

Q5. Around the head of the running man there was a _______ of bees.
(a) crowd (b) group (c) flock (d) swarm
In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q1. UNDULATE
(a) retard (b) decrease (c) wave (d) flood
Q2. MYOPIC
(a) blind (b) astigmatic (c) cross-eyed (d) short-sighted
Q3. ERUDITE
(a) strong (b) precious (c) learned (d) courteous

Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q1. RELINQUISH
(a) accept (b) retain (c) gain (d) revive
Q2. TURBULENT
(a) turbid (b) violent (c) steady (d) turgid
Q3. ERRATIC
(a) regular (b) right (c) free (d) rapid


General Awareness
Q.1 Name the first person who went in the space
(a) Yuri Gangarin (b) Neil Armstrong
(c) Rakesh Sharma (d) John Glann

Q2. The first Indian woman who won a medal in Olympic is-
(a) PT Usha (b) Shiny Abraham
(c) Dala Banerjee (d) Karram Malleswari

Q3. The cricketer who scored the first double century in one day cricket match is-
(a) Vivian Richards (b) Brain Lara
(c) Ricky Ponting (d) Sachin Tendulkar

Q4. Lionel Messy is associated with the game of—
(a) Rugby (b) Tennis (c) Football (d) Basketball

Q5. The instrument of measuring intensity of earthquakes is called-
(a) Ediograph (b) Pantagraph (c) Ergograph (d) Seismograph


Numerical Ability
Q1. When simplified (2.43 x 2.43 + 2.43 x7.57 x 2 + 7.57 x 7.57) is equal to-
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 101.89 (d) 200.59

Q2. The sum of ` 6.25 is made up of 80 coins which is either ten paise and five paise. The number of five paise coins are-
(a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 45

Q3. Three years ago the average age of A & B was 18 years. With C joining them now, the average age becomes 22 years. How old is she?
(a) 24 years (b) 27 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years

Q4. The average age of 8 men is increased by 2 years when two of them whose ages are 21 years and 23 years are replaced by two new men. The average age of the two new men is-
(a) 22 years (b) 24 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years

Q5. Amit sold an umbrella for ` 680, losing 15%. The cost price of the umbrella is-
(a) ` 782 (b) ` 800 (c) ` 578 (d) None of these


Reasoning and Aptitude Tests
This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question in the test there are four possible Answers: A, B, C, or D. There is only one correct Answer for each question. Read each question carefully and decide which one of the four Answers is the best one. Mark your Answer on the Answer sheet by blacking out the letter that corresponds to your choice. Now look at the example questions below:

Q1. MAN is to BOY as WOMAN is to
(A) BABY
(B) BRIDE
(C) CHILD
(D) GIRL
Answer - D

Q2. WATER is to THIRST as FOOD is to
(A) FAMINE
(B) GRIEF
(C) HUNGER
(D) INDIGETION

Answer - C
In these questions, choose the word from the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL letters.
Q1. REVULSION
(1) Apathy (2) Violence
(3) Disgust (4) Avenge
Answer - 3

Analogy
In the following questions there is a pair of capitalized words followed by four choices marked A, B, C, D. Choose the pair of words whose relationship is most similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair, and mark your choice on your Answer sheet.
Q1. COLD : HOT
A handsome : young B beautiful : ugly
C summer : spring D complete : total
Answer - B

Spatial Ability
This is a test of your ability to recognize a form from its pattern, or a pattern from its form. Now look at the example questions below. There is a problem you are to find the form that can be made by folding the cardboard pattern and fitting it together.



Answer - Last

Rotated Blocks
This subtest is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question, you will be shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block are five choices, each showing a different block. You are required to select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although turned in a different position. In order to arrive at the correct Answer, you may have to mentally turn blocks over, turn them around, or turn them both over and around.



The correct Answer is D.

Hidden Figures
This test is designed to measure your ability to see simple figures in complex drawings. Although these figures are fairly well camouflaged, proper visualization should enable you to discern them without too much difficulty.
At the top of each section of this subtest are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these on each page are several numbered drawings. You must determine which lettered figure is contained in each of the numbered drawings.



Problem Solving
Q1.What number should come next in the sequence?
3 6 12 24 48
Answer = 96 (progressions are doubling each time)

Q2. Empty is to full as wet is to?
a. damp b. soaked c. dry d. water e. rain
Answer = c. dry

SUCCESS MIRROR MAGAZINE DECEMBER 2010

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S.B.I. Associate Banks Clerk (First Shift) Exam., 2011

English Language

(Exam Held on 16-1-2011)

Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time there lived a queen in the city of Benaras. Her name was Khema and she was the wife of King Bahuputtaka. One night, the Queen had a dream of a beautiful golden goose that spoke with great wisdom, almost as if he was a sage. She told her husband that she desperately wanted to see a bird just like the one in her dream. So the King asked his ministers to find out all that they could about a bird such as this. He was told that such a bird did exist but was extremely rare and difficult to find. They advised him to build a beautiful lake on the outskirts of Benaras so that he may attract such rare and lovely creatures to reside there. In this way the queen might have her wish.

Towards the north, on Mount Cittakuta, there lived about ninety thousand wild geese headed by a beautiful golden goose called King Dhatarattha. He got to hear of this exquisite lake surrounded by water lilies and lotuses floating on the surface. The King had invited all the birds to come and live on it, promising that none of them would ever be harmed. Corn was scattered on a daily basis in order to attract the birds. So a couple of geese went up to their King, the golden goose and told him that they were quite tired of living up on the mountains and would like to see this wonderful lake where they had been promised food and protection. The king agreed to their request and took the flock down south towards Benaras. Meanwhile, at the lake King Bahuputtaka had placed hunters all around in order to capture any golden goose that happened to pass by. So the next morning when the headhunter saw this flock of geese approaching he was very excited to see their golden leader. He immediately went about setting up a snare amongst the water lilies and lotuses, as he knew that the leader would definitely be the first to alight.

The whole flock came flying down in one mighty swoop and as expected it was the King's foot that touched the water first. He was ensnared and could not escape. Seeing this, the other geese flew into a panic. But none had the courage to try to free their king and so flew back to Mount Cittacuta for safety. All except one. He was the chief captain, Sumukha. King Dhatarattha entreated him to fly to safety too, as he would surely be captured if he stayed by his side. But Sumukha replied that he would never desert his master in the face of danger and would either try to save him or die by his side.

At this point the hunter approached and as Sumukha saw him he decided to appeal to his compassion. The hunter asked the golden goose how come he had not noticed the trap that was set. The golden goose replied that when one's time was up it was no use to struggle against what was fated and one must just accept it. The huntsman was very impressed with his grace and wisdom. He then turned to Sumukha and asked why he had not fled with the other birds even though he was free to do so. Sumukha answered that the golden goose was his King, best friend and master and that he could never desert him even at the cost of his own life. Hearing this, the hunter realised that these were a couple of rare birds of great nobility. He did not much care for his own King's reward and decided to do the right thing and set them free. He told Sumukha that as he was ready to die for his King he would set them both free to fly wherever they wish.

1. Why were the geese keen on visiting the lake in Benaras ?
(A) They were invited personally by king Bahuputtaka
(B) They were tired of their old lake
(C) They were amused by the water lilies and lotuses
(D) The lake was not very far from the mountains
(E) To lake was to be source of good food and protection
Ans : (C)

2. Why did the king approach the ministers ?
(A) In order to find out the best location for the lake
(B) In order to find out if a golden goose existed
(C) To enquire about his wife's dreams
(D) To devise a plan to capture all rare bird species
(E) To enquire about the best hunter in the locality
Ans : (B)

3. What advice did the ministers give to the king ?
(A) That no such golden goose existed and he was only wasting his time searching for one
(B) To create an artificial golden goose for the queen
(C) To build a lake in order to attract the golden goose
(D) To open a sanctuary of rare birds for the queen
(E) To have a beautiful garden surrounded by flowers and trees
Ans : (C)


4. Which of the following statements would best describe the qualities of Sumukha ?
(1) Betrayer of the flock
(2) The Selfless Goose
(3) Loyal towards the king
(4) The naive and ignorant goose
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (4)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

5. What was the king's intention behind building a lake ?
(A) To attract all rare species of living animals and birds
(B) To beautify the city of Benaras
(C) He did not want to go against the wishes of his wife
(D) He wanted to capture the golden goose
(E) He enjoyed bird watching and wanted to create a natural habitat for them
Ans : (D)

6. Why did the head hunter release the king, the golden goose ?
(A) He was impressed by his wisdom and nobility
(B) The geese were a rare species of birds
(C) The golden goose, King Dhatarattha promised him a handsome reward
(D) The hunter sympathised with the golden goose
(E) The hunter did not want the chief captain to lose a friend
Ans : (A)

7. Why did the flock of geese panic and retreat to Mount Cittacuta ?
(A) Their king took the wrong route to the lake and they lost their way
(B) Their king, the golden goose was captured
(C) Their chief captain, Sumukha betrayed the king
(D) They spotted many hunters by the lake
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 8 to 10) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

8. Desert
(A) Displease
(B) Encourage
(C) Instigate
(D) Escort
(E) Abandon
Ans : (E)

9. Exquisite
(A) Expensive
(B) Delicate
(C) Elaborate
(D) Wonderful
(E) Efficient
Ans : (D)

10. Snare
(A) Trap
(B) Alarm
(C) Plan
(D) Arrangement
(E) Protection
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In each of the following sentences, and idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.

11. The team put their plan into execution the very next day—
(A) proposed a plan
(B) discussed their plan
(C) started thinking about a plan
(D) started carrying out their plan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. Mrs. Nayak opened the discussion on the “alarming rate of poverty in India”—
(A) started the discussion
(B) gave her opinion in the discussion
(C) did not agree on the discussion
(D) welcomed the people to the discussion
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. The course of events made it necessary for Joseph to start working—
(A) events that were planned
(B) long list of future events
(C) A succession of unexpected events
(D) nature of events that followed after Joseph joined work
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. The new law on “Right to Food Safety” will come into force next month—
(A) be forced upon the people
(B) be associated from next month onwards
(C) be implemented next month
(D) be withdrawn next month
(E) be widely rejected next month
Ans : (C)

15. When the girl wanted to stay out past midnight, her father put his foot down ?
(A) gave in to her request
(B) walked away disapprovingly
(C) obstructed her from leaving the house
(D) requested her to be home on time
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. Nuclear waste will still being (A) / radioactive even after twenty thousand years, (B) / so it must be disposed (C) / of very carefully. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

17. My friend lived at the top (A) / of an old house (B) / which attic had been (C) / converted into a flat. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (E)

18. A public safety advertising (A) / campaign in Russia (B) / hope to draw attention (C) / of pedestrians crossing the road. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. A cash prize was (A) / award to the most (B) / successful salesman of the year (C) / by the President of the company. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

20. The Renaissance was (A) / a time to ‘re-awakening’ (B) / in both the arts (C) / and the sciences. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicates that something has been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. Many leading members of the opposition party … to justify the party's decision.
(A) having tried
(B) has tried
(C) have been trying
(D) tries
(E) is trying
Ans : (C)

22. The state-of-the art school is … with a medical clinic and fitness centre.
(A) establish
(B) illustrative
(C) having
(D) equipped
(E) compromising
Ans : (D)

23. The Bhagavad Gita is a part of the Mahabharata, but it stands … and is … in itself.
(A) dependent, incomplete
(B) together, justified
(C) separate, dignified
(D) apart, complete
(E) united, connected
Ans : (D)

24. The artist's work of art is worthy … praise.
(A) for
(B) of
(C) to
(D) about
(E) to be
Ans : (C)

25. The charity … most of its money through private donations.
(A) receives
(B) borrows
(C) uses
(D) proposes
(E) invests
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

26. The ship (A) was at sea for many days and finally (B) anchored (C) near the costline. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

27. Employees must familiarise (A) themselves with the health (B) and safety (C) mannual (D) of the organization. All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

28. The political (A) environment (B) is not condusive (C) to economic reforms. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (C)

29. The report (A) found that the safety (B) equipment had been very poorly (C) maintained. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

30. Some of our regular listeners (A) have complained (B) about the new programme (C) schedule. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Rearrange the following six sentences / group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) The merchant greedily counted his gold and said, “The purse I dropped had 200 pieces of gold in it. You've already stolen more than the reward ! I Go away or I will tell the police.”

(2) The judge, looking towards the merchant said, “you stated that the purse you lost contained 200 pieces of gold. Well, that's a considerable cost. But, the purse this beggar found had only 100 pieces of gold”.

(3) Being an honest man, the beggar came forward and handed the purse to the merchant saying, “Here is your purse. May I have my reward now ?”

(4) “This purse therefore cannot be the one you lost.” And, with that, the judge gave the purse and all the gold to the beggar.

(5) A beggar found a leather purse that someone had dropped in the marketplace. On opening it, he discovered that it contained 100 pieces of gold. Then he heard a merchant shout, “A reward! A reward to the one who finds my leather purse”.

(6) “I am an honest man,” said the beggar defiantly. “Let us take this matter to the court. The judge patiently listened to both sides of the story.

31. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

34. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearragement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 3
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata. It is the only philosophical song existing in all languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It …36… light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in the …37… of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battlefield. Arjuna's mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjuna is the …38… of the tortured spirit of man torn by conflicting obligations and

moralities.

The dialogue proceeds and takes us to the higher level of individual duty and social behaviour, application of ethics to practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is …39… to reconcile the three paths of human advancement– the path of knowlede, the path of action and the path of faith. But more …40… is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life, keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.

36. (A) provides
(B) shines
(C) enforces
(D) secures
(E) seeks
Ans : (A)

37. (A) programme
(B) constitution
(C) part
(D) formation
(E) form
Ans : (E)

38. (A) conceived
(B) dream
(C) source
(D) figures
(E) symbol
Ans : (E)

39. (A) generated
(B) made
(C) established
(D) coined
(E) given
Ans : (B)

40. (A) important
(B) significant
(C) declaration
(D) emphasis
(E) blessings
Ans : (D)

Dhoni leads India to World Cup glory

Twenty-eight years on from the match that transformed the history of world cricket, India recaptured the crown that Kapil Dev and his men first lifted at Lord's in 1983, and this time they did it in their very own back yard. An iron-willed 97 from Gautam Gambhir was matched for intensity by the finest captain's innings since Ricky Ponting at Johannesburg eight years ago, as Mahendra Singh Dhoni trumped a poetic century from Mahela Jayawardene to pull off the highest run-chase ever achieved in a World Cup final.

Against a triumphant backdrop at the Wankhede Stadium, victory was sealed by six wickets with 10 balls to spare, as Dhoni - who had promoted himself to No. 5 to heap extra lashings of responsibility onto his own shoulders - rushed through the gears as the victory target drew nearer. With 15 required from 17 balls, he flicked Sri Lanka's only true threat, Lasith Malinga, through midwicket for consecutive boundaries, before smoking Nuwan Kulasekara over long-on to spark the most delirious scenes of celebration ever seen on the subcontinent.

However, the final margin did little justice to the tussle that had preceded it. Even the toss ended up being disputed, as Kumar Sangakkara's initial call was drowned out by the crowd, but it was the ebb and flow of Zaheer Khan's day that epitomised the fluctuations of a compelling contest. Zaheer opened his account with three consecutive maidens and the scalp of Upul Tharanga in a peerless spell of 5-3-6-1, only to be clobbered for 17 and 18 runs in his ninth and tenth overs respectively, as Sri Lanka monstered 63 runs in the batting Powerplay to post an imposing 274 for 6.

And India's day got much worse before the team's fortunes began to inch upwards. Virender Sehwag had hit a boundary from the first ball of six of India's previous eight innings in the tournament, but this time Malinga's slingers dealt him a second-ball duck, as he skidded a full delivery into his back pad. And then Sachin Tendulkar, for whom the script had seemingly been written, was drawn into a loose drive by a fast Malinga outswinger, having set the stadium on standby for instant history with 18 sumptuously accumulated runs from his first 12 deliveries.

At 31 for 2 in the seventh over, India were struggling to keep their toehold in the contest, and it was all too much for a faithless few in the crowd who turned their backs and set off for home. But Gambhir and Virat Kohli epitomise a generation that does not easily accept defeat, and their third-wicket stand of 83 laid the foundations for an epic turnaround. The prospect of a seam-friendly surface, allied to the grievous loss of Angelo Mathews to a thigh strain, had tempted Sri Lanka into four key changes to the team that had triumphed over New Zealand in Colombo, and with Muttiah Muralitharan lacking bite in the final wicketless appearance of his 19-year career, Malinga alone could not carry the day.

The hard-hitting of Nuwan Kulasekara and Thisara Perera had been instrumental in hoisting Sri Lanka's total to such heights, but in their primary role as front-line seamers they lacked menace and were all too easy to squeeze as 119 runs came from their combined allocation of 17.2 overs. The newcomer to the squad, Suraj Randiv, caused a moment of alarm with his high-kicking offspin when Gambhir, on 30, was dropped by a diving Kulasekara at long-off, but as the innings progressed, his lack of guile proved costly. The decision to omit both Ajantha Mendis and Rangana Herath, whose combined efforts had been so effective against England and New Zealand, is one that will haunt Sri Lanka for years to come.

But this was a victory that still had to be grasped, and India found the men who were willing to do so. The 22-year-old Kohli, who was greeted with a stern word of encouragement as he replaced the outgoing Tendulkar, showed all the mettle for the big occasion as he eased along to 35 from 49 balls before falling to an outstanding return catch by Tillakaratne Dilshan, who dived full-length across the crease to intercept a lofted drive. But it was Gambhir and Dhoni to whom the ultimate duty fell. Their 109-run stand was the highest by an Indian pairing in three World Cup final appearances, and even when Gambhir gave away the chance for an unforgettable century with a tired charge and slash at Perera, the result was no longer in doubt.

Gambhir struck nine fours in a 122-ball statement of indomitability, and both he and Dhoni required treatment for stiff backs as the sapping Mumbai heat took its toll. Dhoni at one stage looked so immobile that a precautionary retirement seemed the only logical response, but after some harsh work from the physio he resumed his stance and responded with another trademark filleting of the extra cover boundary, an area in which he scored six of his eight fours - three of which helped to blunt Murali's attacking instincts.

Four years ago at Sabina Park, Jayawardene produced a supreme century against New Zealand to carry his side to their second World Cup final, but this was an innings of even more exquisite application. He came to the crease with his side under the cosh at 60 for 2 in the 17th over, having been throttled by Zaheer's supreme new-ball spell. But he responded with a tempo that scarcely wavered from a run a ball, until with Kulasekera for company, he opened his shoulders to power through to his hundred from 83 balls.

For an occasion of this magnitude, cool heads were the order of the day, and though his final figures did not show it, no-one was cooler in the opening exchanges than Zaheer. On his watch, Sri Lanka were limited to 31 for 1 in their mandatory Powerplay, their lowest ten-over score of the tournament, and the hapless Upul Tharanga was restricted to two runs from 20 balls before snicking to Sehwag at slip. Then, when he returned in the 37th over, Zaheer deceived Chamara Kapugedera with a beautiful slower ball that was driven to short cover, on route to equalling Shahid Afridi as the tournament's leading wicket-taker.

And yet, the speed with which his figures were vandalised was astounding. Though each of Jayawardene's 13 fours was a classy stroke in its own right, none was better than the last of them, an inside-out cover-drive to one of Zaheer's trademark outswingers, as he premeditated the late movement and filleted the ring of fielders on the off-side. The outright acceleration came from the other end, where Kulasekera made 32 from 30 balls before his sacrificial run-out led to a pat of gratitude from Jayawardene as they parted. And then, by the time Perera had sealed his onslaught with a dismissive thump for six over midwicket, the decibel levels in the Wankhede had plummeted.