AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA 2010 EXAM QUESTION PAPER

1. In a row of children, Manoj is fifteenth from the left end of the row. If he is shifted towards the right end of the row by four places, he becomes eighth from the right end. How many children are there in the row?
(a) 27
(b) 26
(c) 28
(d) 24
2. How many such numerals are there in the number 2576489, which will remain at the same position when arranged in ascending order from left to right?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
3. In a class of 40 children, Manmeet’s rank is eighth from the top. Vishal is five ranks below Manmeet. What is Vishal’s rank from the bottom?
(a) 27
(b) 29
(c) 28
(d) 26
4. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way. Find the one that does not belong to this group?
(a) Coriander
(b) Mustard
(c) Cumin
(d) Clove
5. ‘Seed’ is related to ‘Fruit’ in the same way as ‘Fruit’ is related to:
(a) Tree
(b) Branch
(c) Flower
(d) Petal
6. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way. Find the one that does not belong to this group?
(a) Van
(b) Truck
(c) Cargo
(d) Trolley
7. If it is possible to make a three digit number, which is perfect square of a two digit number from the second, the fourth and the eighth digits of 31792056 using each digit only once, what is the two digit number? If the perfect square cannot be formed, your answer is ‘N’ and if more than one such numbers can be formed , your answer is ‘X’
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) N
(d) X
8. Pointing to a woman, Suresh said, she is the daughter of my grandfather’s only daughter. How is Suresh related to the woman?
(a) Brother
(b) Cousin
(c) Uncle
(d) Cannot be determined
9. ‘Visual’ is related to ‘Light’ in the same way as ‘Audio’ is related to:
(a) Voice
(b) Sound
(c) Drama
(d) Noise
10. ‘Jackal’ is related to ‘Carnivorous’ in the same way as ‘Goat’ is related to
(a) Omnivorous
(b) Carnivorous
(c) Herbivorous
(d) Multivorous
11. In a certain code ‘DESCRIBE’ is written as ‘FCJSDTFE’. How will ‘CONSIDER’ be written in that code?
(a) SPEJTOPD
(b) SEFJTOPD
(c) QFETJOPD
(d) QEFJTOPD
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to that group?
(a) Shampoo
(b) Talcum Powder
(c) Hair Oil
(d) Cosmetics
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to that group?
(a) 71
(b) 73
(c) 67
(d) 77
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to that group?
(a) Leaf
(b) Flower
(c) Branch
(d) Pollen
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to that group?
(a) Jasmine
(b) Rose
(c) Dahlia
(d) Lotus
16. ‘Radish’ is related to ‘Root’ in the same way as ‘Brinjal’ s related to
(a) Fruit
(b) Stem
(c) Flower
(d) Root
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to that group?
(a) Physiology
(b) cardiology
(c) Pathology
(d) Radiology
18. ‘Iron’ is related to ‘Metal’ in the same way as ‘Brass’ is related to
(a) Iron
(b) Alloy
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
19. In a certain code RAID is written as %#ê$, RIPE is written as %ê@©. How is DEAR written in that code?
(a) @©#%
(b) $@#%
(c) @$#%
(d) $©#%
20. If blue is called red, red is called green, green is called black and black is called white, what is the colour of grass?
(a) red
(b) black
(c) white
(d) green
Directions (21-25): In each of the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give the answer:
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
(b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) if both conclusions I and II follow.
21. Statements:
a. Some pins are forks.
b. All forks are keys.
c. No key is lock.
Conclusions:
I. Some forks are pins.
II. No lock is a pin.
22. Statements:
a. Some shirts are trousers.
b. Some trousers are jackets.
c. All jackets are shawls.
Conclusions:
I. Some shawls are shirts.
II. Some jackets are shirts.
23. Statements:
a. Some leaves are plants.
b. Some plants are trees.
c. Some trees are fruits.
Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are trees.
II. Some trees are plants.
24. Statements:
a. Some rats are dogs.
b. Some dogs are horses.
c. Some horses are camels.
Conclusions:
I. Some horses are rats.
II. Some camels are horses.
25. Statements:
a. Some books are dictionaries.
b. Some dictionaries are files.
c. Some files are papers.
Conclusions:
I. Some papers are files.
II. Some files are books.

Answers:

1. b, 2. d, 3. c, 4. b, 5. c
6. c, 7. d, 8. b, 9. b, 10. c
11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. d, 15. e
16. a, 17. d, 18. b, 19. d, 20. b
21. c, 22. d, 23. e, 24. b, 25. a

IDBI Assistant Manager Exam., 2010 Solved Paper

English Language

(Exam Held on 14-11-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

When people buy diamond jewellery, they often want to convey love or commitment to someone dear and special. But, this jewellery, if it contains diamonds from Sierra Leone and Angola diamond mines in West Africa, could have a bloody past signifying mistreatment and abuse. The movie, Blood Diamond, traces the path of a large pink diamond found in Sierra Leone in the 1990’s by a fisherman working as a slave in a rebel-controlled diamond mine. That diamond changed and ended many lives and the story of that stone carries a strong social message. The story design is an interesting fiction but it is based upon real life events. The movie sensitises the audience on how a mineral resource can fuel oppression and the slaughter of thousands of people. This is not a first time phenomenon. It has happened before in Africa with ivory and gold.

What Are ‘Conflict Diamonds’ ?

Blood Diamonds, also known as ‘Conflict Diamonds’ are stones that are produced in areas controlled by rebel forces namely the Revolutionary United Front (RUF) that are opposed to internationally recognized governments. The rebels sell these rough diamonds, and the money is used to purchase arms or to fund their military actions. Blood Diamonds are often produced through the forced labour of men, women and children. They are also stolen during shipment or seized by attacking the mining operations of legitimate producers. These attacks can be on the scale of a large military operation. The stones are then smuggled into the international diamond trade and sold as legitimate gems. These diamonds are often the main source of funds for the rebels. Enormous amounts of money are at stake and bribes, threats, torture and murder are modes of operation. The profits made from the sale of these diamonds are used to fund terrorism and civil war. This is why the term ‘blood diamonds’ is used.

In the aftermath of horrific abuses committed by West African rebel groups enriched by diamond wealth, an international body backed by the United Nations (the Kimberley Process Certification Scheme) was founded to ensure that traders and consumers could identify blood diamonds and prevent their trade. The flow of ‘Conflict Diamonds’ has originated mainly from Sierra Leone, Angola, Democratic Republic of Congo, Liberia and Ivory Coast. The United Nations and other groups such as Global Witness and Partnership Africa Canada are working to block the entry of conflict diamonds into the worldwide diamond trade.

Their approach has been to develop a government certification procedure known as the ‘Kimberley Process’. This procedure requires each nation to certify that all rough diamond exports are produced through legitimate mining and sales activity. Diamonds exported from these nations are to be accompanied by certificates. These certificates state that the diamonds were produced, sold and exported through legitimate channels. The certification process accounts for all rough diamonds, through every step of their movement, from mine to retail sale. Most consumers do not realize that they may be purchasing blood diamonds–even in 2010. The Amnesty International survey found that 83 per cent of U.S. Jewellers say their customers “rarely or never” inquire about the source of diamonds. Retail customers buying a cut diamond are encouraged to insist upon a sales receipt document stating that their diamond originated from a conflict free source.

Nations who agree to participate in the Kimberley Process are not permitted to trade with non-member Nations. The Kimberley Process is believed to have significantly reduced the number of ‘Conflict Diamonds’ that are reaching the international gem markets. Today 71 governments and several non-government organizations abide by the Kimberley Process. The World Diamond Council estimates that 99% of all diamonds are now conflict free.

However, despite implementation of the Kimberley Process, blood diamonds still exist and are entering the legitimate trade. Although the scheme makes it more difficult for diamonds from rebel-held areas to reach international markets, there are still significant weaknesses in the scheme that undermine its effectiveness. A United Nations Group of Experts has recently found that poor controls are allowing significant volumes of blood diamonds to enter the legitimate trade through Ghana, where they are being certified as conflict free. International trading centres need to introduce better systems for identifying suspicious shipments of rough diamonds. Many other diamond-producing countries have weak government controls that cannot guarantee that the diamonds they export are conflict-free.

1. What action have the U.N. and other international groups taken to block the entry of ‘Conflict Diamonds’ into the diamond trade ?
(a) They have introduced a certification procedure known as the ‘Kimberley Process’.
(b) They are fighting against the rebel groups to obtain autonomy of the diamond mines.
(c) They have stopped importing diamonds from West Africa.
(A) Only (a) and (c)
(B) Only (b) and (c)
(C) Only (a)
(D) Only (b)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)

2. What should be the role of the consumer in avoiding the purchase of ‘Conflict Diamonds’ ?
(A) Consumers should not buy diamonds from Africa
(B) Consumers should refrain from wearing all diamond jewellery
(C) Consumers should switch to other precious gems
(D) Consumers need not worry as 99% of the diamonds sold are conflict free
(E) Consumers should always insist on the source of the diamonds
Ans : (E)

3. Which of the following is not true of the ‘Kimberley Process’ as given in the passage ?
(A) Certification of all rough diamond exports by legitimate mining and sales activity
(B) To help consumers identify blood diamonds and prevent their trade
(C) To campaign for the sale of ‘Conflict Diamonds’
(D) To trade diamonds only with participant member nations
(E) To increase the number of conflict free diamonds entering the world of diamond trade
Ans : (C)


4. The movie ‘Blood Diamond’ is a reflection of ……….
(A) The lives of fishermen in Sierra Leone
(B) Diamonds that originated from mines under the control of rebel groups
(C) A happy story of how diamonds have changed the lives of the poor
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) Only (A) and (C)
Ans : (B)

5. What are some of the weaknesses of the Kimberley certification process as underlined by the author ?
(A) Weak government controls and suspicious shipment of rough diamonds
(B) Lengthy procedures to be followed in order to acquire the certification
(C) Ability to trade only with non-member nations
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) Only (A) and (C)
Ans : (A)

6. Why are the diamonds that are mined in Sierra Leone called ‘Blood Diamonds’ ?
(A) The diamond stones are smuggled into the international diamond trade
(B) It is sold to finance terrorism and other violent acts including civil war
(C) The rough diamonds are red in colour
(D) The diamonds obtained from Sierra Leone signify freedom
(E) Only (B) and (D)
Ans : (B)

7. How does the diamond trade help the Revolutionary United Front (RUF) rebel group ?
(A) The RUF use the profits made from mined diamonds to fund and buy weapons for their army
(B) The diamond trade helps the families of the rebel groups
(C) The profit made by the diamond trade is used to finance their education
(D) The diamond trade is the only source of finance for the RUF rebels
(E) The RUF rebel group has complete monopoly over the diamond trade in Sierra Leone
Ans : (A)

8. The flow of conflict diamonds has originated from ……….
(A) Russia
(B) Africa
(C) America
(D) South Asia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. What are the benefits of the introduction of the ‘Kimberley Process’ ?
(a) Helps reduce the number of conflict diamonds reaching the International gem markets.
(b) Provides an international certification scheme to ensure that the diamonds are conflict free.
(c) Involved in legitimising the process of the diamond trade.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (c)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Abide by
(A) Comprehend
(B) Tolerate
(C) Agree to
(D) Bid on
(E) Swear by
Ans : (E)

11. Phenomenon
(A) Occasion
(B) Event
(C) Undertaking
(D) Disaster
(E) Trend
Ans : (A)

12. Fuel(A) Increase
(B) Substitute
(C) Energise
(D) Contribute
(E) Involve
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. Legitimate
(A) Safe
(B) Risky
(C) Unlawful
(D) Reasonable
(E) Warranted
Ans : (C)

14. Fiction
(A) Imagination
(B) Fact
(C) Narration
(D) Fantasy
(E) Plot
Ans : (B)

15. Opposed
(A) Supported
(B) Repelled
(C) Contradicted
(D) Disparate
(E) Distinct
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. “No error”. (Ignore error of punctuation, if any.)

16. The youth (A) / did not dare (B) / to venture with the sea (C) / as it was high tide. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. A young sales manager (A) / who is about to resign his job (B) / despite his success (C) / in the organization. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

18. The difference between successful person (A) / and others is not (B) / lack of knowledge (C) / but a lack of will. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. After my interview (A) / by the selection panel (B) / I was waiting for a response (C) / but they did not revert back. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

20. The teacher uses anecdotes (A) / to help her students (B) / relate better (C) / to the subjects taught in class. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

21. The industrialisation process underwent a sea change during the 19th century.
(A) A sea of change
(B) A sea changes
(C) A sea changed
(D) At sea change
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

22. The solution to my problem is a long-term one which can only be tackle by official agencies.
(A) Only is tackle
(B) Only be tackled
(C) Only tackle
(D) Tackle
(E) No correction is required
Ans : (B)

23. The employer wanted to strike balance between withholding his position and getting into a rapid exchange of opinions.
(A) Strike a balance
(B) Striking balance
(C) Have stroked a balance
(D) Have strike a balance
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

24. The students of the football team engaged in playing fairly.
(A) Playing fair
(B) Fair play
(C) Fairness play
(D) Fairness
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

25. As good luck will have it, it did not rain on the day of the wedding.
(A) Good luck has it
(B) Good luck having
(C) Good luck have it
(D) Good luck would have it
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. The manager complamented (A) her team for meeting (B) targets and performing (C) with excellence. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

27. The ongoing conflict bought (A) up information and insights (B) that would have to be digested (C) by both parties (D) at a later time. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

28. There are a number of factors (A) which render (B) a country suitable or insuitable (C) for the rapid development of commercial (D) aviation. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

29. The woman gave the begger (A) a big sum (B) of money to show him her caring (C) and concern. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

30. The best way of a attracting (A) someone’s rapt attention (B) is to give them the rare experience (C) of being fully herd. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Pick out most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete in the context of the sentence.

31. A mixed economy implies the ……… of a state enterprise and free enterprise, and cannot mean a wholly state-dominated economy.
(A) juxtaposition
(B) existence
(C) collation
(D) harmony
(E) co-existence
Ans : (E)

32. Government spokesmen always assure us that ideology plays no part in their economic policies, but the evidence to the contrary is ……….
(A) negligible
(B) understandable
(C) reasonable
(D) commendable
(E) overwhelming
Ans : (E)

33. The interests of the nation as a ……… must prevail over the interests of the few.
(A) section
(B) whole
(C) part
(D) society
(E) unit
Ans : (B)

34. The murderer appeared to be tongue-tied and ……… when it was his turn to speak.
(A) detailed
(B) shy
(C) talkative
(D) exhaustive
(E) inarticulate
Ans : (E)

35. It helps to do some ……… work before giving a competitive examination.
(A) sorting
(B) organised
(C) preparatory
(D) relaxed
(E) strenuous
Ans : (C)

Directions— (Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following five sentences I, II, III, IV and V in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
I. With this continuous intervention, it is expected that BBS programmes will not only improve safety performance but will also have a positive effect on fuel consumption and other related costs.
II. This influence is not intended to be a one-off exercise, but it and BBS should rather become a continuous effort by every transport company.
III. Finally, in the long run it will improve the total cost-effectiveness of the transport companies.
IV. Behaviour Based Safety (BBS) is a programme that aims at increasing safety during road freight transport by positively influencing the behaviour of drivers.
V. This is based on the assumption that, the behaviour of drivers can be influenced through observation, coaching and communication.

36. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) V
(B) IV
(C) III
(D) II
(E) I
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
(E) V
Ans : (E)

38. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
(E) V
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) V
(B) IV
(C) II
(D) III
(E) I
Ans : (E)

40. Which of the following will be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
(E) V
Ans : (C)

Directions— (Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the most appropriate word in each case.

Some causes of delay in coming to economic decisions in our country seem to lie in the …(41)… realm. There is such a thing as the psychology of power which motivates people power of control and patronage, power to delay an application, power to hold up a file, power to keep people …(42)… in an anteroom, all of which are consciously or subconsciously treated as symbols of …(43)… and hallmarks of importance.

A further psychological cause of …(44)… is a combination of mistrust, of unwillingness to take responsibility, of a fear of being criticised and, of possibly being subjected to enforcement investigation. A large number of …(45)… which ought to be taken by civil servants, and were so taken in the old days, now go upto the top to await the …(46)… of the Minister. The Minister, in turn, is …(47)… to take the responsibility for fear of criticism from Parliament or from within his own party and seeks …(48)… in a Cabinet decision. The Cabinet, split on ideological grounds and under political and other pressures, is reluctant to reach a decision which is not …(49)…. Thus, the various layers of economic decision-making in government–civil servants, Ministers and Cabinet as a wholeÐall exercise the happy …(50)… of postponing a decision.

41. (A) scientific
(B) financial
(C) medical
(D) political
(E) psychological
Ans : (E)

42. (A) wandering
(B) resisting
(C) gossiping
(D) waiting
(E) lingering
Ans : (D)

43. (A) prestige
(B) control
(C) aggression
(D) affection
(E) proud
Ans : (A)

44. (A) power
(B) control
(C) insecurity
(D) politicians
(E) delay
Ans : (E)

45. (A) decisions
(B) assignments
(C) undertakings
(D) projects
(E) justifications
Ans : (B)

46. (A) meeting
(B) opinion
(C) stamp
(D) appreciation
(E) approval
Ans : (E)

47. (A) unfortunate
(B) uneasy
(C) proposed
(D) reluctant
(E) pushed
Ans : (D)

48. (A) assistance
(B) safety
(C) monopoly
(D) autonomy
(E) place
Ans : (B)

49. (A) comprehensive
(B) beneficial
(C) unanimous
(D) profitable
(E) successful
Ans : (C)

50. (A) facility
(B) situation
(C) trick
(D) sanction
(E) prerogative
Ans : (B)

U.P. Combined Lower Subordinate Service Special Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2008

General Studies

(Exam Held on 26-12-2010) 

1. The legend of Udayana and Vasavdatta is related to—
(A) Ujjain
(B) Mathura
(C) Mahishmati
(D) Kaushambi
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following laid the foundation of image worship in the country ?
(A) Jainism
(B) Buddhism
(C) Ajivikas
(D) Vedic religion
Ans : (D)

3. Which one of the following is not associated with the Court of Kanishka ?
(A) Ashvaghosha
(B) Charaka
(C) Nagarjuna
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (D)

4. A horned deity engraved on a terracotta cake has been recovered from—
(A) Banawali
(B) Kalibangan
(C) Lothal
(D) Surkotda
Ans : (C)

5. Kalsi is famous for—
(A) Buddhist Chaityas
(B) Persian Coins
(C) Rock-edicts of Ashoka
(D) Temples of Gupta period
Ans : (C)


6. Which dynasty of rulers is associated with the construction of famous Kailasha Temple of Ellora ?
(A) Chalukyas
(B) Cholas
(C) Pallavas
(D) Rashtrakutas
Ans : (D)

7. Who of the following was associated with the collection of revenue in Mauryan Mantriparishad ?
(A) Samaharta
(B) Vyabharika
(C) Annapala
(D) Pradeshta
Ans : (A)

8. Which river was the heartland of Pandya’s Kingdom ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Krishna
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Vengi
Ans : (D)

9. Who wrote Dashkumaracharita ?
(A) Bharavi
(B) Bilhana
(C) Dandin
(D) Somadeva
Ans : (C)

10. The Sultans of which dynasty ruled the country for the longest period ?
(A) Khalji dynasty
(B) Lodi dynasty
(C) Slave dynasty
(D) Tughlaq dynasty
Ans : (D)

11. Who of the following among the Nine Gems of Chandragupta was associated with Astrology ?
(A) Vararuchi
(B) Sanku
(C) Khapanaka
(D) Amarsingh
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following places was the capital of Satvahanas ?
(A) Pratisthan
(B) Nagarjuna Konda
(C) Shakal or Syalkot
(D) Patliputra
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following factories of Bengal was established by the Dutch ?
(A) Bandel
(B) Chinsura
(C) Hooghly
(D) Srirampur
Ans : (B)

14. A bomb was thrown on the occasion of his State entry into Delhi at—
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Mayo
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Hardinge
Ans : (D)

15. Aurobindo Ghosh wrote—
(A) Extremist movement
(B) Moderate movement
(C) Kesari
(D) The Divine Life
Ans : (D)

16. Sarnath Stambh was built by—
(A) Harshvardhan
(B) Ashok
(C) Gautam Buddha
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (B)

17. Navda-toli was excavated by—
(A) K. D. Bajpai
(B) V. S. Wakankar
(C) H. D. Sankalia
(D) Mortimer Wheeler
Ans : (C)

18. The division of Mauryan Society into seven classes is particularly mentioned in—
(A) Kautilya’s Arthasashtra
(B) Ashokan edicts
(C) The Puranas
(D) Megasthenes’ Indica
Ans : (D)

19. Which Urdu newspaper was started by Lajpat Rai from Lahore in 1920 ?
(A) Bande Mataram
(B) People
(C) Tribune
(D) Vir Arjun
Ans : (A)

20. Who called the Indian National Congress as a ‘Begging Institute’ ?
(A) B. C. Pal
(B) Tilak
(C) Aurobindo Ghosh
(D) None of them
Ans : (C)

21. Power of Magadha was extended over the Malwa region during the reign period of—
(A) Bimbisar
(B) Ajatshatru
(C) Udayabhadra
(D) Sisunaga
Ans : (D)

22. Who had established ‘India Independence League’ ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Ras Behari Ghosh
(C) Surendranath Bannerjee
(D) Ras Behari Bose
Ans : (D)

23. Nana Saheb’s Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Azimullah
(B) Birjis Qadir
(C) Tantia Tope
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

24. Which of the following pairs do not match ? Find your answer with the help of given code—
1. British India Society— London
2. East India Association— Kolkata
3. National India Association— London
4. Indian Association— Mumbai
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following Indian leaders did not support the Khilafat movement ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Madan Mohan Malviya
(C) Mohammad Ali
(D) Swami Shraddhanand
Ans : (B)

26. Match List-I with List-II—
List-I
(a) India League
(b) Indian Association
(c) Bhartiya Rashtriya Udar Sangh
(d) United India Patriotic Association
List-II
1. Shishirkumar Ghosh
2. Anand Mohan Bose
3. Saiyyed Ahmad Khan
4. Surendra Nath Bannerjee
Find your answer with the help of given codes—
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (D)

27. One Governor-General took part in one of the Congress Sessions. Identify the Governor General and place where the Session was held.
(A) Lord Irwin → Karachi – 1931
(B) Lord Wellington → Bombay – 1915
(C) Lord Dufferin → Bombay – 1885
(D) Lord Hardinge → Lucknow – 1916
Ans : (C)

28. Who amongst the following were responsible for the formation of the Independence for India League in 1928 ?
1. Jawahar Lal Nehru
2. Subhash Chandra Bose
3. Acharya Narendra Dev
4. Jaya Prakash Narayan
Choose your answer from given codes—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

29. Who was the Convenor of All India Congress Socialist Party at Patna in 1934 ?
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) Achyuta Patvardhan
(C) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(D) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia
Ans : (C)

30. Saddler Commission was associated with—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Revenue Administration
(C) Education
(D) Police Administration
Ans : (C)

31. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Hooghly
(B) Ganga
(C) Padma
(D) Swaranrekha
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following would you generally associate with Tornadoes ?
(A) Gulf of Mexico
(B) China Sea
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) U. S. A.
Ans : (D)

33. The benefits of which one of the following river valley projects are shared by more than one State ?
(A) Chambal Valley Project
(B) Hirakud Project
(C) Mayurakshi Project
(D) Sharavati Project
Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following Latitudes (North or South) would you associate with ‘Horse Latitudes’ ?
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 23½°
Ans : (A)

35. Which of the following is an example of Residual Mountains ?
(A) Himalayas
(B) Kilimanjaro
(C) Etna
(D) Aravalli
Ans : (D)

36. Which one of the following would you associate with metamorphic rocks ?
(A) Copper
(B) Garnet
(C) Manganese
(D) Pyrite
Ans : (B)

37. Which one of the following currents is not a cold current ?
(A) California current
(B) Japanese current
(C) Labrador current
(D) Falkland current
Ans : (B)

38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Brajraj Nagar
(b) Kaimoor
(c) Haldia
(d) Phoolpur
List-II
1. Cement
2. Fertilizer
3. Petrochemical
4. Paper
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
List-II1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

40. The correct sequence in descending order of leading producers of petroleum, in the Middle East is—
(A) Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia
(B) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait
(C) Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iraq, Iran
(D) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Kuwait, Iraq
Ans : (D)

41. Which amongst the following States/UTs in India has the largest percentage of its geographical area under forest cover ?
(A) Tripura
(B) Andaman and Nicobar
(C) Nagaland
(D) Mizoram
Ans : (D)

42. Given below are four States; find out which amongst them had least sex ratio as per 2001 Census—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Manipur
Ans : (A)

43. Which one of the following is not a correct statement ?
(A) Cocoa cultivation is popular in Ghana
(B) Coffee is an important plantation crop of Brazil
(C) Sri Lanka is famous for the production of tea
(D) Sugarcane is the major plantation crop of Malaysia
Ans : (D)

44. More than half of the country’s production of rice comes from the four States of—
(A) West Bengal, Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Orissa
(B) West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Assam
(D) Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar and Orissa
Ans : (B)

45. Cardamom hills lie along the border of the States of—
(A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(D) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)

46. Sangam Yojna is associated with—
(A) Provision of clean drinking water
(B) Provision for cleaning of rivers
(C) Promoting communal harmony
(D) Helping the invalids
Ans : (D)

47. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan covers—
(A) All children in age group 3–10
(B) All children in age group 4–8
(C) All children in age group 5–15
(D) All children in age group 6–14
Ans : (D)

48. Identify the country with which India has decided to strengthen security ties (July 2010) and with which joint army exercises were held in June 2010, joint naval exercises held thereafter and joint airforce exercises were held in October 2010—
(A) USA
(B) Indonesia
(C) UK
(D) Australia
Ans : (C)

49. India’s largest shipbreaking yard is located in Gujarat at—
(A) Alang
(B) Kandla
(C) Okha
(D) Porbandar
Ans : (A)

50. Bramha Kamal is naturally found in—
(A) Kaziranga forests
(B) Nilgiri forests
(C) Silent valley
(D) Valley of flowers
Ans : (D)

51. With which of the following would you associate village Tembhli which was in the news in September 2010 ?
(A) Mass suicides of farmers
(B) Project JUGNU
(C) Project Aadhaar
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

52. ‘The Nuclear Power Corporation of India is now in a position to sell “Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors” (PHWRs) to other countries.’ The reactors in question would be of capacity—
(A) 200 MWe or 500 MWe
(B) 240 MWe or 540 MWe
(C) 220 MWe or 500 MWe
(D) 440 MWe or 700 MWe
Ans : (B)

53. Plachimada which has been in news for immense damage to its environment, lies in—
(A) Karnataka
(B) Konkan
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

54. By the development of Krishnapatnam Port, which of the following States would be most benefitted ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

55. As per new subsidised Central Loan Scheme finalised by HRD Ministry what limit has been fixed for parental annual income to be entitled to full interest subsidy during the period of moratorium ?
(A) Less than Rs. 5 lacs
(B) Less than Rs. 4 lacs
(C) Less than Rs. 4•5 lacs
(D) Less than Rs. 5•5 lacs
Ans : (C)

56. Recently according to a news item, mineral reserves worth $ 1 trillion have been found in Afghanistan. Identify the most important mineral which has been compared to oil-find in Iran.
(A) Gold
(B) Lithium
(C) Cobalt
(D) Iron
Ans : (B)

57. Tejaswini Sawant won gold medal of world championships with world record equaling score at Munich. Which sport did she take part ?
(A) Boxing
(B) Chess
(C) Shooting
(D) Weight lifting
Ans : (C)

58. How many members are there in the Collective Security Treaty Organisation, a defence bloc of former Soviet States ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Ans : (D)

59. As per Family Welfare Statistics for 2009 released recently by the Union Health Ministry, life expectancy at birth in India for 2006-2010 is—
(A) Males 75•2 and Females 78•6
(B) Males 72•4 and Females 76•3
(C) Males 69•8 and Females 72•3
(D) Males 65•8 and Females 68•1
Ans : (D)

60. A 999 km oil pipeline has been completed recently (Aug-Sept. 2010) between Russia and China. It will start from Angarsk in Russia and will go to which place in China ?
(A) Beijing
(B) Shanghai
(C) Chengchow
(D) Daqing
Ans : (D)

61. A Canadian student has developed a human-powered aircraft that can fly continuously by flopping its wings. It has been named as—
(A) Eagle
(B) Snowbird
(C) Air bird
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

62. Aircraft maker Boeing of USA have manufactured a special spy plane which is solar powered and will be able to fly non-stop for more than 5 years. It has been named—
(A) Solar Aircraft
(B) Solar Bird
(C) Solar Kite
(D) Solar Eagle
Ans : (D)

63. With Jaipur’s ‘Jantar Mantar’ being granted World Heritage site status by UNESCO, how many sites in India till August 2010 have been granted this status ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 27
(D) 26
Ans : (B)

64. What is the name of the US solar powered unmanned aerial vehicle which remained airborne continuously for two weeks in July 2010, breaking several aviation records ?
(A) Zircon
(B) Sapphire
(C) Emery
(D) Zephyr
Ans : (D)

65. Rohan Bopanna of India defeated Ricardo Mello in the final singles in Davis Cup in September 2010. Ricardo Mello belongs to which country ?
(A) Spain
(B) France
(C) Brazil
(D) Argentina
Ans : (C)

66. Sushil Kumar became the first Indian to win a Gold Medal in a World Wrestling Championship in September 2010. His opponent belonged to which country in the finals ?
(A) China
(B) Poland
(C) Mexico
(D) Russia
Ans : (D)

67. According to a report released in July 2010, in which country world’s biggest solar power station has been opened ?
(A) France
(B) USA
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
Ans : (D)

68. The first fully literate district, outside the State of Kerala, is—
(A) Chingelpattu, Tamil Nadu
(B) Merkata, Karnataka
(C) Nasik, Maharashtra
(D) Vardhaman, West Bengal
Ans : (D)

69. Mary Kom of India won her fifth successive world title at 2010 Women’s World Boxing Championship by defeating Steluta Duta who belonged to which country ?
(A) Italy
(B) Poland
(C) Romania
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)

70. In the context of space technology what is ‘BHUVAN’ recently in the news ?
(A) The name of the space vehicle proposed to be sent to the moon to probe possible human habitation there
(B) A satellite launched by ISRO promoting distant education India
(C) A space telescope developed by India
(D) A geo-portal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities
Ans : (D)

71. Muscle fatigue in humans occurs due to the accumulation of—
(A) Lactic acid
(B) Pyruvic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Uric acid
Ans : (A)

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I
(a) Cusec
(b) Byte
(c) Richter
(d) Bar
List-II
1. Pressure
2. Intensity of Earthquake
3. Rate of Flow
4. Computer
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)

73. Which one of the following is used as the coolant in the ‘Fast Breeder Test Reactor’ at Kalpakkam ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Heavy water
(C) Sea water
(D) Molten sodium
Ans : (D)

74. Artificial light can—
(A) Destroy chlorophyll
(B) Synthesise chlorophyll
(C) Bring about photosynthesis
(D) Not bring about photosynthesis
Ans : (C)

75. An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in its—
(A) Diameter
(B) Surface area
(C) Volume
(D) Density
Ans : (C)

76. If a magnet is cut into two pieces of equal length—
(A) Both pieces will lose their magnetism
(B) One piece will act as a North pole and the other as a South pole
(C) One of the pieces will lose its magnetism
(D) Both the pieces will behave as complete magnets
Ans : (D)

77. Which of the following alloys has maximum percentage of copper ?
(A) Brass
(B) Bronze
(C) German Silver
(D) Gun metal
Ans : (D)

78. Sound travels fastest in—
(A) Air
(B) Liquid
(C) Metal
(D) Vacuum
Ans : (C)

79. The bones are held together by elastic tissues are called—
(A) Ligaments
(B) Fibrous tissues
(C) Fibrin
(D) Muscular tissues
Ans : (A)

80. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. In this context which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The bright bulb has larger resistance
(B) The dim bulb has larger resistance
(C) Both the bulbs have same resistance
(D) The brightness does not depend on the resistance
Ans : (B)

81. As per World Development Report 2008 of the World Bank, arrange the following countries according to the size of their economy in descending order and state which one of the following is the correct order ?
(A) China > USA > UK > India
(B) UK > China > USA > India
(C) China > UK > USA > India
(D) USA > China > UK > India
Ans : (A)

82. Consider the following statements about Sugar Industry—
1. In world, India’s share in sugar production is over 15 per cent.
2. Sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry in India.
3. India is the largest consumer of sugar.
4. India is the largest producer of sugar.
Of these statements—
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans : (C)

83. Poverty in India has been defined in terms of—
(A) Standard of living of the people
(B) Income of the family
(C) Calorie intake
(D) Number of members in a family
Ans : (C)

84. All of the following diseases are caused by virus except—
(A) Jaundice
(B) Influenza
(C) Mumps
(D) Typhoid
Ans : (D)

85. Aam Admi Bima Yojna provides social security to—
(A) All labourers in rural areas
(B) All landless labourers living below the poverty line in rural areas
(C) All labourers in urban areas
(D) All labourers in both rural and urban areas
Ans : (B)

86. According to a policy decision taken by Central Government, the Centre will bear what percentage of expenditure effectively under the “Right of children to Free Education” ?
(A) 64%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%
Ans : (B)

87. ‘National Social Assistant programme’ is aimed at—
(A) Insurance for poor
(B) Old age pension to very poor
(C) Financial support to Scheduled Castes and Tribes
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

88. According to International Energy Agency, which country has emergend as the world’s largest energy consumer in 2009?
(A) Brazil
(B) USA
(C) China with Hong Kong
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)

89. Which one of the following is not correct about the ‘National Rural Health Mission’ ?
(A) The programme was launched during the Eleventh Plan
(B) Focus of the programme is a functional health system at all levels from village to district
(C) Drinking water and sanitation are main components of the programme
(D) Departments of Health and Family Welfare in the States have been merged with the programme
Ans : (A)

90. The objectives of ‘Jawahar Rojgar Yojna’ is to—
(A) Provide employment to youth in rural areas
(B) Create employment opportunities for unemployed persons
(C) Strengthen the rural economic and social structure
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

91. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended ?
(A) Fifth Schedule
(B) Third Schedule
(C) Second Schedule
(D) First Schedule
Ans : (D)

92. What was the exact Constitutional Status of the Indian Republic on 26.1.1950 when the Constitution came in force ?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans : (B)

93. Vote on account in the Parliament is necessary—
(A) When Government expenditure is more than Government revenue
(B) For financing big projects in which huge amount of money is required
(C) When regular budget is not expected to be passed in time
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

94. In any State of India, Legislative Council can be created or can be abolished by—
(A) The President on the recommendation of the Governor of the State
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Parliament as per Resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of the State
(D) The Governor on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers
Ans : (C)

95. Centre-State financial relations in India are governed on the recommendation of the—
(A) Constitution of India
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) National Development Council
Ans : (C)

96. ‘Marriage’, ‘Divorce’ and ‘Adoption’ are an entry in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution under the following—
(A) List I – Union List
(B) List II – State List
(C) List III – Concurrent List
(D) None of these three lists
Ans : (C)

97. Who was the founder of ‘Bahujan Samaj’ ?
(A) Shri Narayana Guru
(B) Mukundrao Patil
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) V. R. Shinde
Ans : (D)

98. Which one of the following constitutes the Quorum of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha ?
(A) 1/10 of the total members
(B) 1/8 of the total members
(C) 1/6 of the total members
(D) 1/5 of the total members
Ans : (A)

99. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State policy ?
The State shall seek to secure—
(A) Equal pay for equal work for men and women
(B) Equal right to an adequate means of livelihood
(C) Abolition of untouchability
(D) Just and human conditions of work
Ans : (C)

100. Protection of which one of the following is a Fundamental Duty of an Indian citizen ?
(A) Village Panchayat
(B) National Flag
(C) Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes
(D) Wild Life
Ans : (B)

Uttar Pradesh Lecturer Recruitment Exam., 2009

English

1. Which poem of Keats has the following lines ?
Heard Melodies are sweet, but those unheard Are sweeter : therefore, ye soft pipes, play on.
(A) Ode on a Grecian Urn
(B) Ode to a Nightingale
(C) Ode on Melancholy
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. When was Lamb born ?
(A) 1775
(B) 1834
(C) 1744
(D) 1829
Ans : (A)

3. Which pseudonym was adopted by Lamb for his essays ?
(A) Elia
(B) Charles
(C) Lamb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is not a work by Lamb ?
(A) John Woodvil
(B) The Old Familiar Faces
(C) Hester
(D) Lalla Rookh
Ans : (D)

5. How many acts are there in Shelley’s lyrical drama Prometheus Unbound ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
Ans : (C)


6. Who was the father of Matthew Arnold ?
(A) Edwin Arnold
(B) Thomas Arnold
(C) A. H. Clough
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

7. Whose death was commemorated by Arnold in Thyrsis ?
(A) Arthur Hugh Clough
(B) Tennyson
(C) Edwin Arnold
(D) None of them
Ans : (A)

8. Arnold’s celebrated poem ‘The Scholar Gipsy’ is based on an old legend, narrated by Glanvil in—
(A) The Schoolmaster
(B) Palmerin of England
(C) The Vanity of Dogmatizing
(D) The Shepherd of Salisbury Plain
Ans : (C)

9. In whose memory was ‘In Memoriam’ written ?
(A) Arthur H. Hallam
(B) Alexander Pope
(C) Robert Browning
(D) None of them
Ans : (A)

10. Which poem of Tennyson contains the following lines ?
Yet all experience is an arch wherethro’
Gleams that untravelled world, whose margin fades
For ever and for ever when I move.
(A) Crossing the Bar
(B) Ulysses
(C) Tears, Idle Tears
(D) The Lotos-Eaters
Ans : (B)

11. Which is the first section of Eliot’s The Waste Land ?
(A) The Burial of the Dead
(B) A Game of Chess
(C) The Fire Sermon
(D) Death By Water
Ans : (A)

12. In which critical essay did Eliot make the following statement ?
“The historical sense compels a man to write not merely with his own generation in his bones, but with a feeling that the whole of the literature of Europe from Homer has a simultaneous existence and composes a simultaneous order.”
(A) Tradition and the Individual Talent
(B) The Metaphysical Poets
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. What is the title of Kamala Das’ autobiography ?
(A) Summer in Calcutta
(B) The Descendants
(C) My Story
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Which poem of Kamala Das has the following expression ?
“Why not leave Me alone, critics, friends, visiting cousins,
Every one of you ? Why not let me speak in Any Language I like ?”
(A) The Maggots
(B) The Doubt
(C) An Introduction
(D) Luminol
Ans : (C)

15. When was Robert Frost born ?
(A) 1874
(B) 1963
(C) 1706
(D) 1790
Ans : (A)

16. Which one of the following is not a pastoral elegy ?
(A) Milton’s Lycidas
(B) Shelley’s Adonais
(C) Arnold’s Thyrsis
(D) Pope’s the Rape of the Lock
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) Hyperbole—A figure of speech in which emphasis is achieved by deliberate exaggeration.
(B) Oxymoron—A figure of speech consisting generally of two apparently contradictory terms that express a startling paradox
(C) Metaphor—A figure of speech in which two unlike objects are compared by identification or by the substitution of one for the other.
(D) All of three options are matched correctly
Ans : (D)

18. When was Shakespeare born ?
(A) 1564
(B) 1616
(C) 1671
(D) 1713
Ans : (A)

19. Who has spoken the following words in Shakespeare’s Macbeth ?
The sleeping and the dead Are but as pictures; tis the eye of childhood That fears a painted devil.
(A) First witch
(B) Second witch
(C) Third witch
(D) None of them
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is a poem by Wordsworth ?
(A) Daffodils
(B) On first looking into Chapman’s Homer
(C) The Forsaken Merman
(D) The Last Ride Together
Ans : (A)

21. Keats dropped the first stanza of one of his ‘Odes’. It was from—
(A) Ode to Psyche
(B) Ode to Melancholy
(C) Ode to Apollo
(D) Ode on Indolence
Ans : (C)

22. ‘The Old Playhouse’ by Kamala Das is a poem of—
(A) Surrender to male domination
(B) Protest against male domination
(C) Harmony between husband and wife
(D) Jealousy
Ans : (B)

23. Who among the Indian politicians was inspired by the following lines ?
The woods are lovely, dark and deep,
But I have promises to keep,
And miles to go before I sleep.
And miles to go before I sleep.
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Ans : (A)

24. Point out the figure of speech in the following line—
Like a patient etherised upon a table.
(A) Metaphor
(B) Climax
(C) Simile
(D) Personification
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following novel is not by Mulk Raj Anand ?
(A) Untouchable
(B) Coolie
(C) Two Leaves and a Bud
(D) The Second Wife
Ans : (D)

26. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Farenheit
(B) Ferenheit
(C) Fahrenheit
(D) Fahrenheight
Ans : (C)

27. ‘Archaic’ means—
(A) Decent
(B) Clumsy
(C) Modern
(D) Primitive
Ans : (D)

28. The antonym of BELLIGERENT is—
(A) Cooperative
(B) Peaceful
(C) Revolutionary
(D) Uninterested
Ans : (B)

29. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
A good judge never jumps …… the conclusion.
(A) to
(B) into
(C) on
(D) for
Ans : (A)

30. Mark the part which contains an error in the following sentence. If there is no error in it, mark (D) as your choice—
Although (A) there are some similarities in the qualifications of the two candidates, (B) the differences among (C) them are quite pronounced. No error (D)
Ans : (C)

31. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
The patient was disappointed ……… not finding the doctor in his seat.
(A) at
(B) on
(C) from
(D) in
Ans : (B)

32. The synonym of VANGUARD is—
(A) Watchmen
(B) Protectors
(C) Security men
(D) Forefront
Ans : (D)

33. The antonym of UNIMPEACHABLE is—
(A) Corruptible
(B) Blameworthy
(C) Calculating
(D) Mysterious
Ans : (B)

34. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
Your conduct smacks ……… recklessness.
(A) in
(B) from
(C) with
(D) of
Ans : (D)

35. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Souvenir
(B) Suvenire
(C) Suvenir
(D) Souvenire
Ans : (A)

36. ‘Abysmal’ means—
(A) Vigour
(B) Explosion
(C) Horrifying
(D) Mixed
Ans : (C)

37. ‘Harangue’ implies—
(A) Lecture
(B) Quarrel
(C) Beautify
(D) Run
Ans : (B)

38. ‘Goulash’ stands for—
(A) Top
(B) Stew
(C) Shoe
(D) Play
Ans : (B)

39. ‘Impromptu’ means—
(A) Unimportant
(B) Unreal
(C) Offhand
(D) Effective
Ans : (C)

40. The synonym of PONTIFICAL is—
(A) Boastful
(B) Wordy
(C) Splendid
(D) Advisory
Ans : (C)

41. A teetotaller is—
(A) One who totally abstains from wine
(B) One who does not take any intoxicating drinks
(C) One who is very fond of sensuous enjoyments
(D) One who has irresistible desire for alcohol
Ans : (B)

42. Replace the italicized portion in the following sentence with one phrase—
In the present times, the real sufferers are the people belonging to the middle classes of society.
(A) Bourgeoisie
(B) Elite
(C) Inter alia
(D) Proletarian
Ans : (A)

43. What is the correct meaning of the idiom “To meet one’s Waterloo” ?
(A) To meet a new person
(B) To visit a new place
(C) To meet one’s final defeat
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

44. What do you mean by the idiom “Yeoman’s Service” ?
(A) Private work
(B) Govt. work
(C) Meanest work
(D) Excellent work
Ans : (D)

45. Fill in the blank with correct article—
Ganga is ……… sacred river.
(A) the
(B) a
(C) an
(D) none
Ans : (B)

46. Fill in the blank with most appropriate choice—
The sun ………, the fog disappeared.
(A) is rising
(B) have risen
(C) having risen
(D) rises
Ans : (C)

47. Which kind of sentence is the following ?
He confessed that he had committed the crime.
(A) Complex
(B) Compound
(C) Simple
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. What is the meaning of the word ‘Demagogue’ ?
(A) An unprincipled popular leader
(B) A leader who changes political parties
(C) A leader who is committed to the nation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Menagerie’ is the place for—
(A) Fish and water plants
(B) Wild animals and birds
(C) Ammunition and weapons
(D) Invalids to enjoy good health
Ans : (B)

50. Choose the correct antonym of the word ‘Prodigality’—
(A) Parsimony
(B) Frugal
(C) Economical
(D) Spendthrift
Ans : (C)

51. Who was ‘Machiavelli’ ?
(A) A Florentine Statesman
(B) An American Statesman
(C) An Italian Statesman
(D) A French Statesman
Ans : (C)

52. For whom Keats used the term ‘Egotistical Sublime’ ?
(A) Coleridge
(B) Shelley
(C) Byron
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (D)

53. Who was the father of ‘Eassais’ ?
(A) Montaigne
(B) Rousseau
(C) Wyatt
(D) Dowden
Ans : (A)

54. The essay ‘South Sea House’ has been written by—
(A) Bacon
(B) Lamb
(C) Stevenson
(D) Addison
Ans : (B)

55. Who used the epithet ‘gentle hearted Charles’, for Charles Lamb ?
(A) Wordsworth
(B) Keats
(C) Browning
(D) Coleridge
Ans : (D)

56. In which poem do the following lines occurs ?
“They flash upon that inward eye Which is the bliss of solitude.”
(A) The Education of Nature
(B) Daffodils
(C) The World is Too Much with Us
(D) Tintern Abbey
Ans : (B)

57. ‘Sir Bedivere’ figures in the poem—
(A) Morte D’Arthur
(B) The Princess
(C) Locksley Hall
(D) Jean, Idle Jean
Ans : (A)

58. Who is the author of the poem ‘Shakespeare’ ?
(A) Tennyson
(B) Browning
(C) Matthew Arnold
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (C)

59. Who has been regarded as a representative Victorian novelist ?
(A) Charles Dickens
(B) Charles Reade
(C) Charles Kinsley
(D) Thackeray
Ans : (A)

60. ‘Under the Greenwood Tree’ is a novel by—
(A) Thomas Hardy
(B) Charles Dickens
(C) Thackeray
(D) George Eliot
Ans : (A)

61. Ernest Hemingway was awarded the Nobel prize for the novel—
(A) For Whom the Bell Tolls
(B) The Old Man and the Sea
(C) A Farewell to Arms
(D) The Sun also Rises
Ans : (B)

62. The character ‘Robert Jordan’ figures in—
(A) For Whom the Bell Tolls
(B) The Old Man and the Sea
(C) In Our Times
(D) A Farewell to Arms
Ans : (D)

63. From which poem of Whitman are the following lines taken ?
O powerful western fallen star !
O shades of night-O moody, tearful night !
(A) O Captain ! My Captain !
(B) When Lilacs Last in the Dooryard Bloomed
(C) Crossing Brooklyn Ferry
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

64. From which poem of Robert Frost are the following lines taken ?
“They click upon themselves As the breeze rises, and turn many coloured ….”
(A) Birches
(B) After Apple Picking
(C) Mending Wall
(D) The Road Not Taken
Ans : (B)

65. Which play of Shakespeare opens with the line
“If music be the food of love, play on :” ?
(A) The Tempest
(B) Twelfth Night
(C) Macbeth
(D) Romeo and Juliet
Ans : (B)

66. When did the first edition of Lyrical Ballads appear ?
(A) 1698
(B) 1798
(C) 1898
(D) 1794
Ans : (B)

67. To whom is Wordsworth’s autobiographical poem The Prelude addressed ?
(A) Jane Austen
(B) Coleridge
(C) Pope
(D) Dr. Johnson
Ans : (B)

68. In ‘Three Years She Grew’, the litle girl will be sportive as—
(A) The Lawn
(B) The Fawn
(C) Stars
(D) Rivulets
Ans : (B)

69. Which work was described by Keats as ‘a feverish attempt rather than a deed accomplished’ ?
(A) Endymion
(B) Hyperion
(C) The Eve of St. Agnes
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

70. When did Keats die ?
(A) 1795
(B) 1789
(C) 1821
(D) 1777
Ans : (C)

71. Shelley’s ‘Alastor’ is also called—
(A) The Spirit of Solitude
(B) Queen Mab
(C) Stanzas Written in Dejection Near Naples
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

72. Whose death is mourned by Shelley in Adonais ?
(A) Keats
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Coleridge
(D) None of them
Ans : (A)

73. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) When the lips have spoken, Loved accents are soon forgot — When the Lamp is Shattered
(B) Nothing beside remains Round the decay Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare, The lone and level sands stretch far away — Ozymandias
(C) Oh, lift me as a wave, a leaf, a cloud ! I fall upon the thorns of life ! I bleed ! — Ode to the West Wind
(D) A heavy weight of hours has chained and bowed One too like thee : tameless, and swift, and proud —Adonais
Ans : (D)

74. Which of the following is not by Dickens ?
(A) The Cricket on the Hearth
(B) The Old Curiosity Shop
(C) Barnaby Rudge
(D) Old Fortunatus
Ans : (A)

75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Thomas Gradgrind—Hard Times
(B) Richard Carstone—Bleak House
(C) Ada Clare—Bleak House
(D) Abel Magwitch—Oliver Twist
Ans : (D)

76. Which is / are the novel / novels by Hardy ?
(A) The Trumpet Major
(B) Desperate Remedies
(C) Jude the Obscure
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

77. What is the title of Hardy’s epic drama ?
(A) The Dynasts
(B) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(C) Far from the Madding Crowd
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

78. Which one of the following is not a drama by Eliot ?
(A) Ash Wednesday
(B) Murder in the Cathedral
(C) The Family Reunion
(D) The Cocktail Party
Ans : (A)

79. Who has written the book The Art of T. S. Eliot ?
(A) Elizabeth Drew
(B) Helen Gardner
(C) T. S. Eliot
(D) Grover Smith
Ans : (B)

80. When was T. S. Eliot born ?
(A) 1888
(B) 1905
(C) 1906
(D) 1907
Ans : (A)

81. One of the characters of Shakespeare has been called the fourth witch. She is—
(A) Ophelia
(B) Lady Macbeth
(C) Emilia
(D) Juliet
Ans : (B)

82. Point out the figure of speech in the following line—
O World ! O Life ! O Time !
(A) Apostrophe
(B) Climax
(C) Pun
(D) Personification
Ans : (A)

83. Who is the author of ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Matthew Arnold
(B) John Keats
(C) William Wordsworth
(D) Coleridge
Ans : (C)

84. Michael Henchard began his life as a—
(A) Driver
(B) Carpenter
(C) Weaver
(D) Hay-trusser
Ans : (D)

85. Who has composed the following line ?
To me that cup has been dealt in another measure.
(A) John Keats
(B) Shakespeare
(C) Robert Southey
(D) P. B. Shelley
Ans : (D)

86. Hemingway, the novelist was—
(A) An American
(B) A British
(C) A Canadian
(D) A South African
Ans : (A)

87. T. S. Eliot’s ‘The Waste Land’ was published in—
(A) 1910
(B) 1918
(C) 1930
(D) 1922
Ans : (D)

88. Point out the figure of speech in the following line—
Where Beauty cannot keep her lustrous eyes.
(A) Pun
(B) Personification
(C) Simile
(D) Oxymoron
Ans : (B)

89. Who has penned the following lines ?
I am sinner,
I am saint. I am the beloved and the Betrayed.
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Nissim Ezekiel
(C) Kamala Das
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (C)

90. The idiom ‘hush money’ means—
(A) The money spent at midnight
(B) The bribe paid to keep some matter secret
(C) The money received in a dark room
(D) The money received in paper currency
Ans : (B)

91. Mark the part which contains an error in the following sentence. If there is no error in it, mark (D) as your choice—
One should (A) take advantage of opportunities to talk with native orators if one wants (B) to improve his (C) English. No error (D)
Ans : (C)

92. Mark the part which contains an error in the following sentence. If there is no error in it, mark (D) as your choice—
The great poet and dramatist, the Kalidas, is regarded (A) as the (B) Shakespeare (C) of India. No error (D)
Ans : (A)

93. The antonym of ALACRITY is—
(A) Inaptitude
(B) Hesitation
(C) Uncertainty
(D) Inability
Ans : (B)

94. The synonym of AVIARY is—
(A) Prison
(B) Reformatory
(C) Large cage for birds
(D) Zoo officer
Ans : (C)

95. What is the meaning of the idiom ‘a flying visit’ ?
(A) A very short visit
(B) A visit to the space
(C) A visit by an aeroplane
(D) A visit on a gas-filled balloon
Ans : (A)

96. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
The Indian magpie indulges …… a long flight.
(A) with
(B) in
(C) at
(D) on
Ans : (B)

97. ‘Seethe’ suggests—
(A) spill
(B) catch
(C) dry
(D) boil
Ans : (D)

98. The synonym of SARDONIC is—
(A) Miserable
(B) Cruel
(C) Scornful
(D) Noisy
Ans : (C)

99. The antonym of ESOTERIC is—
(A) Clear
(B) Transparent
(C) Simple
(D) Apparent
Ans : (C)

100. The meaning of the idiom “a brain wave” is—
(A) A wave passing through one’s brain
(B) Sudden inspiration
(C) A big fuss
(D) An invention
Ans : (B)

101. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
The doctor advised him to abstain……all alcoholic drinks.
(A) at
(B) from
(C) by
(D) in
Ans : (B)

102. A person who hates the institution of marriage is called—
(A) Misogamist
(B) Pacifist
(C) Philogynist
(D) Pessimist
Ans : (A)

103. A speech which is delivered without any previous preparation is called—
(A) Maiden
(B) Extempore
(C) Meticulous
(D) Matin
Ans : (B)

104. One who eats everything is called—
(A) Herbivorous
(B) Gregarious
(C) Credulous
(D) Omnivorous
Ans : (D)

105. An imaginary name assumed by an author for disguise is called—
(A) Pseudonym
(B) Neologism
(C) Loquacious
(D) Veteran
Ans : (A)

106. Fill in the blank with suitable conjunction—
Though he is suffering much pain, ……… he does not complain.
(A) yet
(B) but
(C) else
(D) as
Ans : (A)

107. Which of the following sentences is correct ?
(A) He entered into the room
(B) He entered the room
(C) He entered in the room
(D) He entered to the room
Ans : (B)

108. Which of the following sentences is correct ?
(A) The meeting was adjourned owing to the want of quorum
(B) The meeting was adjourned due to want of quorum
(C) The meeting was adjourned for want of quorum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

109. Fill in the blank with correct pronoun—
Our soldiers are better than ……… of the enemies.
(A) those
(B) these
(C) that
(D) themselves
Ans : (A)

110. Fill in the blank with suitable adjective—
The book contains many ……… quotations.
(A) Martial
(B) Ambitious
(C) Biblical
(D) Ulterior
Ans : (C)

111. Choose the correct figure of speech in the following sentence—
“The camel is the ship of desert.”
(A) Metaphor
(B) Simile
(C) Hyperbole
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

112. Choose the correct figure of speech in the following sentence—
“The quality of mercy is not strained.
It droppeth as the gentle rain from heaven.”
(A) Metaphor
(B) Hyperbole
(C) Synecdoche
(D) Simile
Ans : (D)

113. Change the following into an indirect statement and indicate the correct one—
He said to me, “What are you doing ?”
(A) He said to me that what he was doing
(B) He said to me that what I was doing
(C) He asked me what I was doing
(D) He asked me what he was doing
Ans : (C)

114. Which one of the following is the correct spelling ?
(A) Haemorrhage
(B) Haemorhage
(C) Heamorrhage
(D) Heamorhage
Ans : (A)

115. Which one of the following is the correct spelling ?
(A) Ceasarean
(B) Caesaraen
(C) Caesarean
(D) Ceasaraen
Ans : (C)

116. In which Magazine were published the first series of ‘The Essays of Elia’ ?
(A) British Magazine
(B) Swiss Magazine
(C) American Magazine
(D) London Magazine
Ans : (D)

117. French revolution broke out in the year—
(A) 1789
(B) 1798
(C) 1880
(D) 1785
Ans : (A)

118. In which poem of Shelley do the following lines occur ?
“Alas ! I have no hope nor health Nor peace within nor calm around ……….”
(A) Ode to West Wind
(B) Stanzas Written in Dejection
(C) To a Skylark
(D) Adonais
Ans : (B)

119. By whom Shelley has been called as ‘perfect singing God’ ?
(A) Rossettee
(B) Arnold
(C) Swinburne
(D) Morris
Ans : (B)

120. Who wrote the following line for Shelley ?
“… he is a beautiful and ineffectual angel, beating in the void his luminous wings in vain.”
(A) Compton Rickett
(B) Walter Pater
(C) Dr. Johnson
(D) Matthew Arnold
Ans : (D)

121. What is the real name of the poetess Kamla Das ?
(A) Madhavi Kutty
(B) Ratnavalli
(C) Kalluri Devi
(D) None of them
Ans : (D)

122. Nissim Ezekiel is a born—
(A) British
(B) American
(C) Swiss
(D) Jew
Ans : (B)

123. Who is the author of the poem ‘Enterprise’?
(A) Kamla Das
(B) Ezekiel
(C) Ramanujan
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

124. The theme of alienation is central to the poetry of—
(A) Nissim Ezekiel
(B) Kamla Das
(C) Robert Frost
(D) Walt Whitman
Ans : (A)

125. Whitman’s poem ‘Crossing Brooklyn Ferry’ contains—
(A) Nine sections
(B) Eleven sections
(C) Thirteen sections
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

FORTHCOMING EXAM DATES

March
● Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical) Exam., 2011 (March 27)
● United India Insurance Company Ltd. Administrative Officer (Scale-I) Exam., 2011 (March 27)
● Indian Navy Senior Secondary Recruitment Exam. (March-April)
April
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 3)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)
● I.I.T. Joint Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 10)
● Ballia-Etawah Kshetriya Gramin Bank Officers Recruitment Exam. (April 10)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (April 10)
● M.P. Pre-Polytecnic Test, 2011 (April 10) (Online Closing Date : 22 March, 2011)
● Bank of Baroda Clerical Cadre Exam. (April 17)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Officer Cadre Exam. (April 17)
● Ballia-Etawah Kshetriya Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (April 17)
● Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Recruitment Exam. (April 17)
● Prathama Bank Office Assistant Exam. (April 24)
● Wainganga Krishna Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (April 24)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (Class VI) (April)
● Rajasthan Sub-Inspector Police Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (April/May)
May
● C.B.S.E. All India Engineering Entrance Exam. (AIEEE) (May 1)
● S.S.C. Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force (ITBPF) Constables (G.D.) Recruitment Exam. (May 1)
● S.S.C. Assam Rifles Rifleman (General Duty) Recruitment Exam. (May 1)
● U.P. Polytechnic Joint Entrance Exam., 2011 (May 8-10)
● Prathama Bank Officer Junior Management Scale-I Exam. (May 8)
● Andhra Bank Probationary Officers Recruitment Exam. (May 8)
● Wainganga Krishna Gramin Bank Officer (Scale-I) Exam. (May 8)
● Allahabad Bank Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam., 2011-12 (May 8) (Online Closing Date : 15 March, 2011)
● Himachal Pradesh Judicial Service Competitive (Pre.) Exam., 2011 (May 8)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (Class IX) (May 9)
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Mains) Exam., 2011 (May 15)
● Gurgaon Gramin Bank Office Assistant Group ‘B’ Exam. (May 15)
● Andhra Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (May 15)
● Syndicate Bank Asstt. Manager Rural Development (AMRD) in JMGS-I Exam., 2011-12 (May 15)
● Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), 2011 (May 15) (Closing Date : 2 April, 2011)
● Gurgaon Gramin Bank Officer JMG Scale-I Group ‘A’ Exam. (May 18)
● Haryana Gramin Bank Office Assistant Examination (May 22)
● Jhabua-Dhar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier (Office Assistant) Exam. (May 22)
● Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officers Recruitment Exam. (May 22)
● I.E.R.T. Entrance Exam., 2011 (Allahabad) (Engg./ Technology Diploma Course) (May 24) (Closing Date : 19 April, 2011)
● Jhabua-Dhar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Officer (Scale-I) Exam. (May 29)
● Haryana Gramin Bank Officer Junior Management (Scale-I) Examination (May 29)
● Indian Overseas Bank Clerk Exam. (May 29) (Online Closing Date : 25 March, 2011)
June
● S.S.C. Central Police Organisation Constable Recruitment Exam. (B.S.F., C.I.S.F., C.R.P.F. & S.S.B.) 

(June 5)
● U.P.S.C. Civil Services Preliminary Exam, 2011 (June 12) (Closing Date : 21 March, 2011)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAIN EXAMINATION 2010 RESULTS

FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAIN EXAMINATION 2010 RESULTS CLICK HERE

THE NEW INDIA ASSURANCE COMPANY LIMITED ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICERS SELECTION PROCEDURE

Selection Procedure:

i)   Objective Type tests of:

(i)                 Reasoning

(ii)               English Language

(iii)             General Awareness

(iv)             Numerical Ability/Data Interpretation Test

(v)               Professional Knowledge (for post in group A-1 to A-3 )

     Questions in Objective Tests (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) shall be bilingual i.e. both in English and Hindi.  The first four tests i.e. Test of Reasoning, English Language, Numerical Ability and General Awareness will be common for all candidates.  The Test of Professional Knowledge will be specific to Group A-1 to A-3.

             and

Descriptive Test  in English consisting of Precis Writing, Comprehension and Essay.

Candidates shall appear for the written exam at their own expense.  On the basis of performance in written examination, candidates will be called for  Personal Interview (PI) and final selection will be made on overall performance in written examination and PI. Outstation  SC / ST candidates called for PI will be reimbursed to and fro II Class sleeper class fare/bus fare by the shortest route from the station of residence to the station of interview on production of evidence of having undertaken journey for PI purpose.