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SSC Examination Schedule

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

TENTATIVE REVISED SCHEDULE FOR ALL INDIA 0PEN EXAMINATIONS – NOV.2010 – DEC. 2011.

Sl. No.	Name of Examination	Name of User Department	Date of Advertisement	Closing Date	Date of Examination
1.	Combined (Higher Secondary Level (10+2) (for Data Entry Operator, LDCs etc.) Examination – 2010	Ministries/Deptt. of Govt. of India	17.07.2010	20.08.2010	27.11.2010 (Saturday) & 28.11.2010 (Sunday)
2.	Junior Translator (CSOLS)/ Junior Hindi Translator Examination - 2010	Deptt. of Official Language for CSOLS and other Govt. Deptt	28.08.2010	27.09.2010	05.12.2010 (Sunday)
3.	Special Examination for recruitment of SIs & ASIs in CPOs, 2010	CPOs	09.10.2010	02.11.2010	12.12.2010 (Sunday)
4.	Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’ Exam - 2010 (Re-Examination)	Ministry/Deptt. of Govt. of India	09.06.2010	16.07.2010	09.01.2011 (Sunday)
5.	Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) staff Examination - 2010	Ministries/Deptts. Attached, Subordinate Offices of Govt. of India	13.11.2010	10.12.2010	20.02.2011 (Sunday)
6.	Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical) Exam - 2011	CPWD/MES/Deptt. of Posts / Others	01.01.2011	31.01.2011	20.03.2011 (Sunday)
7.	Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Examination - 2011	Ministries/Deptt. of Govt. of India	05.02.2011	04.03.2011	22.05.2011 (Sunday)
8.	Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination - 2011	Not Applicable			6th August (Saturday) (Paper-III) & 7th August-2011 (Sunday) (Paper-I & II)
9.	SI in CPOs Examination - 2011	CPOs	28.05.2011	27.06.2011	28.08.2011 (Sunday)
10.	Combined (Higher Secondary Level (10+2) (for Data Entry Operator, LDCs etc.) Examination - 2011.	Ministries/Deptt. of Govt. of india	16.07.2011	16.08.2011	22.10.2011(Saturday) & 23.10.2011 (Sunday)
11.	Constables and Head Constable in CPOs Examination - 2011	CPOs	20.08.2011	19.09.2011	12.02.2012(Sunday)
12.	Junior Translator (CSOLS)/ Junior Hindi Translator Exam - 2011	Deptt. of Official Language for CSOLS and other Govt. Deptt.	24.09.2011	21.10.2011	04.12.2011 (Sunday)
13.	Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’ Exam – 2011	Ministries/Deptt. of Govt. of India	23.10.2011	21.11.2011	22.01.2012

Combined Medical Services Exam 2011- General Ability 'Key'

91. In the Union Government, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
a) Prime Minister b) Lok Sabha
c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
d) Union Cabinet

92. If the annual Union Budget is not passed by Lok Sabha,
a) the President of India asks the Finance Minister to resign
b) the Prime Minister asks the Finance Minister to resign
c) the speaker of the Lok Sabha asks the Finance Minister to modify it and present it again
d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of his cabinet

93. The Judges of a High Court are appointed by
a) The President of India
b) The Governor of the State concerned
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) Union Ministry of Law

94. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India as to the dis tribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre-State fiscal relations?
a) Planning Commission
b) Finance Commission
c) National Development Council
d) Union Ministry of Finance

95. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I(Crops) List II (Producer)
A. Tea 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Jute 2. Kerala
C. Rubber 3. Orissa
D. Tobacco 4. Tamil Nadu
Code: A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 1 3 2 4
d) 1 2 3 4

96. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Lake) List II (State)
A. Chilika Lake 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Kolleru Lake 2. Kerala
C. Sambhar Lake 3. Orissa
D. Vembanad Lake 4. Rajasthan
Code: A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 3 4 1 2

97. Which of the following is the longest river of India?
a) Ganga b) Brahmaputra
c) Jamuna d) Sutlej

98. Among the following who was the personal physician of Gautam Buddha?
a) Sushruta b) Charak
c) Jeevaka d) Nagarjuna

99. The focus of the Bharat Nirman Programme launched in 2005-06 is principally to?
a) Bridge the gap between small towns and metro cities and impro- ve the quality of life of the poor
b) Bridge the gap between the slums and regular colonies in metro cities and improve the quality of life of the poor
c) Bridge the gap between the rural and urban areas and improve the quality of life of the poor
d) Bridge the gap between the poor and the rich in the rural areas and improve the quality of life of the poor

100. The objective of the National Rural Livelihood Mission is to eradicate poverty by?
a) 2012-13 b) 2013-14
c) 2014-15 d) 2015-16

101.Which one of the following taxes is levied by the State Government in India?
a) Service tax b) Sales tax
c) Excise duty
d) Securities transaction tax

102.Which one of the following languages was added to the list of scheduled languages of India as per the 92nd Amendment in 2003?
a) Manipuri b) Konkani
c) Santhali d) Kasmiri

103.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I National Park List II State
A. Silent Valley 1. Kerala
B. Kaziranga 2. Assam
C. Dudwa 3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Sariska 4. Rajasthan
5. Manipur
Code: A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 5 2 3
c) 1 5 4 3
d) 5 4 3 2

104.For India's next lunar mission, Chandrayan-2, the country has teamed up with which other country?
a) USA b) Japan c) China d) Russia

105. The Prime mission of the 'National Mission on Sustainable Habitat' is to?
a) Systematically change the land use pattern
b) Ensure afforestation of degraded forest lands and expand forest cover
c) Develop climate resistant crops and improve agricultural practices
d) Promote energy efficiency as a core component of urban planning

106."Carbon Credits" are issued in the terms of units of Certified Emission Reduction (CER). Each CER is equivalent to?
a) 1 kg of CO2 reduction
b) 10kg of CO2 reduction
c) 100 kg of CO2 reduction
d) 1 tonne of CO2 reduction

107.Tomatoes are rich in which one of the following antioxidants?
a) Allicin b) Curcumin
c) Lignans d) Lycopene

108.Consider the following:
1. Vulnerability to death at a relati-vely early age
2. Adult literacy rate
3. Percentage of the population not using an improved water source
4. Percentage of families having water-seal toilets
Which of the above dimensions are used for measuring the Human Poverty Index-1 (HPI-1) as per the UNDP?
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,2,3,4 d) 4

109. How is the Human Poverty Index-2 (HPI-2) different from the Human Poverty Index-1 (HPI-1) as described in the UNDP?
a) It also captures the Financial Inclusion
b) It also captures the Social Exclusion
c) It also captures the Geriatric Empowerment
d) It also captures the Occupational Health

110. Consider the following statements:
1. The per capita income of Kerala is much higher than the national average.
2. The female literacy rate of Kerala is much higher than the national average
3. The transport network in Kerala provides easy access to healthcare services
4. Effective land reform has permit- ted the poor people in Kerala to gain access to land resources.
Which of the above stand true for the state of Kerala and have helped the state to surpass the other states in achieving better health indices?
a) 1,2,3 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,2,3,4 d) 2

111.While managing a mass disaster, the term 'triage' applies to
a) It is the principle of 'first come, first treated
b) It is the classification of the in- jured on the basis of severity of in -juries with the concept of treating the most seriously injured first
c) It is the classification of the inju- red on the basis of severity of in- juries with the concept of treating the children and adolescent first.
d) It is the classification of the injured on the basis of severity of injuries with the concept of trea- ting those first who are likely to survive with medical intervention

112.The internationally accepted four-colour code system has been adopted by many countries to carry out traige in the situation of mass emergencies. Match the colour with its significance and pick the correct answer using the code given below.
List I List II
(Colour) (Significance)
A. Red 1.Moribund Patients
B. Yellow 2. Medium Priority
treatment
C. Green 3. High Priority
treatment
D. Black 4. Ambulatory patients
Code: A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 3 2 4 1
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 3 2 1 4

113.Consider the following statements.
1. The state emblem of India is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion
2. The Sarnath Lion originallycomes from the capital of Asoka the Emperor
3. The Government adopted the emblem on 15th August 1947
4. In the original Sarnath Capital, there are four lions
Which of the above statements stand true with regard to the state emblem of India?
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,2,4 c) 1,2,3,4 d) 1,3

114.The National flag is horizontal tri-colour. The deep saffron colour at the top represents?
a) Faith and chivalry
b) Peace and harmony
c) Truth and wisdom
d) Courage and sacrifice

115. In India, the farmers traditionally sow the "kharif" crop during which of the following months?
a) October/November b) June/July
c) September/October
d) December/January

116. All of the following Indian rivers are snow-fed except?
a) Sone b) Jhelum
c) Chenab d) Sutlej

117.All of the following rivers join the Ganga except:?
a) Gumti b) Mahanadi
c) Alaknanda d) Sone

118.Which one of the following is not an ionising radiation?
a) Infrared radiation b) X-rays
c) Gamma rays d) Cosmic rays

119.Human beings can tolerate a daily exposure of up to what level of noise without suffering a substantial damage to hearing?
a) 25 dB b) 45 dB c) 65 dB d) 85 dB

120. Which of the following is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
a) Salt Water Crocodile b) Sea Turtle
c) Dugong d) Dolphin

KEY: 

91) b, 92) d, 93) a, 94) b, 95) a,
96) b, 97) a, 98) c, 99) c, 100) d, 101) b,
102) c, 103) a, 104) d, 105) d, 106) d,
107) d, 108) a, 109) b, 110) d, 111) d,
112) b, 113) b, 114) d, 115) b, 116) a,
117) b, 118) a, 119) c, 120) d,

IGNOU B.Ed. Exam Question paper

Part-A
Section–I
General English
Comprehension

Directions—Read the following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.
A duty is an obligation. It is something we owe to others as social beings when we live together. We must let others live with us. My right of living implies my duty to my fellow beings to allow them the same conditions of life. In fact, rights and duties are correlated. What is a right in regard to one may be a duty in regard to others. Rights and duties are two sides of the same coin. We should always observe from the standpoint of others. Moral duty is more effective than legal rights. A moral duty is that which is binding upon the people on moral grounds. It is my moral duty to help the poor because of being a member of the society.
I must try to create conditions that contribute to the welfare of humanity. Similarly, I owe a duty to my parents—to be obedient and respectful to them. This duty originates from the sense of responsibility which is directly related to our conscience. So this is concerned with a moral duty which any person owes without a legal bondage.
A sense of duty is paramount for the proper development of civilization. Hypocrisy is quite reverse to the sense of duty. It involves wickedness, while duty involves sincerity and faithfulness.
1. According to the passage, rights and duties are—
(A) Two sides of the same coin
(B) Correlated
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
2. According to the passage legal duty is—
(A) More important than moral duty
(B) Less important than moral duty
(C) More effective than moral duty
(D) Less effective than moral duty
3. Duty comes from—
(A) Responsibility
(B) Legal bondage
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) None of the above
4. Which of the following statements is not correct according to the passage ?
(A) Hypocrisy involves wickedness
(B) Hypocrisy is opposed to duty
(C) Duty involves sincerity
(D) Sense of duty is not important for the development of civilization
5. Which of the following moral duties has not been mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Moral duty towards our motherland
(B) Moral duty towards our parents
(C) Moral duty towards the poor
(D) Moral duty to contribute to the welfare of humanity
6. Which of the following is not related to moral duty ?
(A) Sense of responsibility
(B) Conscience
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) Sincerity
7. Why is it a duty to help the poor ?
(A) Because I am poor
(B) Because I am rich
(C) Because I belong to the society
(D) Because God wants this
8. Why should I be obedient and respectful to my parents ?
(A) Because of my sense of responsibility
(B) Because of legal bonding
(C) Because of civilization
(D) Because of hypocrisy
9. “We should always observe from the standpoint of others.” This is a—
(A) Simple sentence
(B) Complex sentence
(C) Compound sentence
(D) Phrase
10. The word ‘always’ in “We should always observe from the standpoint of others” is a/an
(A) Adverb
(B) Adjective
(C) Noun
(D) Verb
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)

Part-A
Section–II
Logical & Analytical
Reasoning

Directions—(Q. 11–14) In each of the following questions an incomplete series of numbers, with one blank is given. Identify the missing member from the given alternatives.
11. 1, 27, 125, …?…, 729
(A) 242
(B) 314
(C) 307
(D) 343
12. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, …?…
(A) 25000
(B) 560
(C) 550
(D) 540
13. 3, 14, 47, …?…, 443, 1334
(A) 61
(B) 89
(C) 146
(D) 445
14. 2, 9, 30, 93, 282, …?…
(A) 849
(B) 846
(C) 649
(D) 746
Directions—(Q. 15–18) In each of the following questions there are five groups of letters. First is the primary one, followed by four; out of which one is different from the rest. Identify this odd member.
15. IIJL
(A) QQSV
(B) EEFH
(C) AABD
(D) MMNP
16. ABAC
(A) BCBD
(B) PRPQ
(C) CDCE
(D) STSU
17. BXTP
(A) OKGC
(B) DZVR
(C) XTOK
(D) EAWS
18. DINS
(A) HMSX
(B) FKPU
(C) JOTY
(D) NSXC
19. Which pair is different in some way from others in the following pairs ?
(A) Bottle and ink
(B) Can and oil
(C) Bag and clothes
(D) Boat and ship
Directions—(Q. 20–24) In each of the following questions there are five figures. First is a reference figure. Among the answer figures one figure does not belong to the class to which the first figure belongs. Identify this odd figure.

Directions—(Q. 25–28) In each of the following questions two statements are followed by two conclusions. Assuming that the two given statements are true (however absurd they may be) decide which of the two conclusions follows strictly from the given statements. Select the most appropriate alternative.
25. All men are chairs.
All animals are chairs
Conclusions :
I. All men are animals.
II. No animal is a man.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
26. Buckets are means of transport.
Stairs are means of transport.
Conclusions :
I. Buckets are stairs.
II. Some stairs are buckets.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
27. No bird has wings.
All birds are rational.
Conclusions :
I. Some rationals have wings.
II. Wingless are birds.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
28. All philosophers are rational people.
Some rational people are happy.
Conclusions :
I. Some happy people are philosophers.
II. Some happy people are rational.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
29. Which is the fourth letter to the left of the letter that is mid-way between ‘O’ and ‘P’ in ‘CARDIOGRAPH’ ?
(A) D
(B) I
(C) O
(D) R
30. Which is the odd term in the following list ?
(A) January
(B) May
(C) April
(D) August
Answers with Explanation :
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A)
19. (D) In all the rest the first is used to fill the second.
20. (A) All the rest are consonants alike ‘J’ while ‘A’ is vowel.
21. (B) All the rest are perfect squares.
22. (B) In all the rest the lower designs are the mirror image of the upper designs.
23. (D) In all the rest, the st. lines are both sides of the middle design.
24. (B) In all the rest both the leaves are not joined at one place.
25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (C) All the rest have thirty days each.

Part-A
Section–III
Educational and General Awareness

31. Ganpati festival was started by—
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
32. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade
33. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium
34. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee
35. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
36. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission
37. Who said—”Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
38. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh
39. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans
40. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light
41. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
42. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk
43. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma
44. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba
45. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa
46. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
47. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu
48. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara
49. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act
50. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components
51. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen
52. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report
53. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education
54. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)
55. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answers :
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C)

Part-A
Section–IV
Teaching-Learning and The School

56. What would be your approach if a student interrupts in your class ?
(A) You will ask him to leave the class
(B) You will ask him to behave properly
(C) You will assess his reasons to do the same
(D) You will give him extra home-work
57. How would you prefer to address a student who has not completed his home-work ?
(A) When are you going to complete it ?
(B) You did not do it. Try it
(C) Why did you not complete it ?
(D) You better ignore it now
58. Schools should be concerned with the development of child, which should include—
(A) Acquisition of knowledge by the child
(B) Acquisition of life-skills by the child
(C) Acquisition of skills required by the nation
(D) Acquisition of skills required by a healthy person
59. The main reason for non-achievement of full literacy in India is—
(A) Lack of funds
(B) Incapability of utilization of funds
(C) Lack of suitable facilities
(D) Lack of will to achieve the goal
60. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher-Association (PTA)’ in any school is to—
(A) Keep students in check/control
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning
61. Student gives a partially correct response to your question. Then you will—
(A) Seek further information
(B) Provide reinforcement
(C) Reframe your question
(D) Tell the correct information
62. School can be called a social agent if—
(A) It transmits knowledge
(B) It educates about rights and duties
(C) It imparts knowledge about traditions and values
(D) It organises various activities
63. One basic differenc between traditional schools and open learning schools is that—
(A) The former are systematic
(B) The latter do not cultivate cultural values
(C) The latter use modern gadgets
(D) The former carry personal touch
64. School can be considered a …… group as far as socialising agency is concerned.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Supplementary
(D) Tertiary
65. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of maturation
(B) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of social process
(C) ‘Life-skills’ are directly moulded
(D) ‘Life-skills’ are learnt
66. A student wants to share his problem with his teacher and visits the teacher for the same at his home. In such a situation, the teacher should—
(A) Suggest to him to escape from his home
(B) Contact the student’s parents and provide help
(C) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
(D) Warn him to never visit his home
67. If a student alleges against you for showing favouritism in evaluation of scripts, how would you deal with him ?
(A) Reject his allegations
(B) Adopt punitive measure
(C) Make efforts to reveal his position
(D) Show his answer book and few more
68. The major responsibility with which school personnel have been entrusted is that of—
(A) Adjusting social demands to the needs of the child
(B) Adjusting the child to conform to the demands of society
(C) Changing human nature to conform to social expectations
(D) Preparing the child to change the society
69. In order to develop a good rapport with students, a teacher should (select the most important activity)—
(A) Love his students
(B) Be friendly with all
(C) Pay individual attention
(D) Communicate well
70. The best reason because of which a teacher can command respect from his students is if—
(A) He follows innovative practices in the class
(B) He dictates notes to the class
(C) He reads and explains the text-book
(D) He does not give home assignment
71. Development of moral values among students is very important. What would you do to develop the same ?
(A) Encourage moral value related works
(B) Organise lectures
(C) Display stories based on moral values
(D) Present yourself as a role model
72. Teaching aids are useful because they—
(A) Help teacher’s work
(B) Activate all senses
(C) Help students to be attentive
(D) Make learning more meaningful
73. Teacher’s class-room behaviour should be good because—
(A) It will set an example
(B) Students will be more attentive
(C) Environment would be conducive to learning
(D) Students will appreciate it
74. You have a class which is very heterogeneous in height. You should allow a seating arrangement—
(A) Which is random
(B) Where smaller students are allowed to sit in such a way that they can see and participate easily in class activities
(C) Which is purely based on height
(D) That has taller students on one side of the class
75. Which one of the following may not be the best reason for cheating in the class-room examination ?
(A) Too lazy to study
(B) Parental pressure for good marks
(C) Fear of failure
(D) Self-prestige
76. In this age of academic excellence demand, inclusion of games and sports in schools is—
(A) A wastage of time
(B) Taking away a lot of time from academic work
(C) Giving time for leisure or relaxation
(D) Necessary for the co-ordinated development of the individual
77. Which one of the following pairs is odd (or not properly associated) ?
(A) Froebel — Playway
(B) Maria Montessori — Divergent thinking
(C) Keller — Co-operative learning
(D) Gandhiji — Soiled hands
78. While teaching the concept of a ‘circle’, which one of the following would be the best way to do it ?
(A) Present a picture of a circle
(B) Present pictures of circles of various sizes
(C) Present pictures of circles and ellipses
(D) Present pictures of circles and polygons
79. Teaching would be more effective if the teacher—
(A) Makes his intent purposeful
(B) Is master of the subject
(C) Uses various instructional aids
(D) Declares his objectives in the beginning
80. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on—
(A) Development of traits to face hurdles of daily life
(B) Inculcation of values cherised by the community
(C) Preparation for academic excellence
(D) Development of traits of good citizenship
Answers :
56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (A)
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (D)

Part-B
Section–V
Subject Competence
(i) Science

following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.81. Clothes do not dry quickly on a rainy day because on a rainy day—
(A) Humidity is high
(B) Humidity is low
(C) Temperature becomes high
(D) Atmospheric pressure rises
82. Joule is the unit of—
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Energy
(D) Pressure
83. The audible range of hearing for average human beings is—
(A) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
(B) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(C) 2 Hz to 20 KHz
(D) 2 KHz to 20 KHz
84. Tritium is an—
(A) Isobar of Hydrogen
(B) Isotope of Hydrogen
(C) Isobar of helium
(D) Isotope of helium
85. Which of the following ions helps in the
opening and closing of stomata ?
(A) Na⁺
(B) K⁺
(C) Ca⁺⁺
(D) None of the above
86. Which of the following does not have plus (+) or minus (–) signs marked on it ?
(A) Resistor
(B) Ammeter
(C) Voltmeter
(D) Battery
87. Photosynthesis is a—
(A) Catabolic process
(B) Anabolic process
(C) Amphibolic process
(D) All of these
88. If a mirror forms an erect but diminished image of an object placed anywhere infront of it, is a—
(A) Concave Mirror
(B) Plane Mirror
(C) Convex Mirror
(D) Concave and convex Mirror (both)
89. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is called—
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Thermopile
(C) Barometer
(D) Manometer
90. Orange colour of the setting sun is due to—
(A) Reflection of light
(B) Diffusion of light
(C) Scattering of light
(D) Polarisation of light
91. What is the final colour of blue litmus when a dilute solution of NaOH is added to it ?
(A) Red
(B) Pink
(C) Orange
(D) Blue
92. Pick the odd one out—
(A) Fermentation
(B) Aerobic Respiration
(C) Anaerobic Respiration
(D) Breathing
93. Hypotonic solution as compared to Hypertonic solution has—
(A) More solute
(B) Less solute
(C) Same solute
(D) Nothing can be said about the amount of solute
94. Volt is the unit of—
(A) Charge
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Potential difference
95. Two resistors having resistances of 1 ohm and 2 ohms respectively are connected is series with a battery. The current through the 2 ohms resistor is 2 amperes. The current through the 1 ohm resistor will be—
(A) 0·5 amp
(B) 1 amp
(C) 2 amp
(D) 4 amp
96. The addition of which one of the following will decrease the pH value of water ?
(A) Caustic Soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Salt
(D) Hydrochloric acid
97. The branch of science that deals with tumours is—
(A) Osteology
(B) Anatomy
(C) Oncology
(D) Urology
98. Pneumonia is a disease associated with—
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Gums
(D) Kidney
99. ‘Decibel’ is a measure of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Intensity of sound
(D) Energy
100. Which of the following have the highest frequency ?
(A) Heat waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays
Answers with Explanation :
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (D)
92. (A) Fermentation is an enzymatic transformation of organic substracts. Rest three do not need enzymatic transformation.
93. (B) 94. (D)
95. (C) In series connection same current flows through all the resistances.
96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (D)

Part-B
Section–V
(ii) Mathematics

101.
The value of
102. In a mixture of 35 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 2. Another 5 litres of milk is added to the mixture. The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture is—
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
103. Walking at 4 km an hour, a peon reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. The distance of his office from the residence is—
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 2 km
104. If 5^x–2·3^2x–3 = 135, then the value of x is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
105. The simple interest on a certain amount at 4% p.a. for 4 years is Rs. 80 more than the interest on the same sum for 3 years at 5% p.a. The sum is—
(A) Rs. 6000
(B) Rs. 7200
(C) Rs. 7500
(D) Rs. 8000
106. A trader marks an article at 30% more than the cost price. He gives 10% discount to his customers and gains Rs. 25·50 per article. The cost price of the article is—
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 175
(D) Rs. 250
107. The price of sugar is increased by 25%. How much per cent should a man decrease his consumption so that there is no increase in his expenditure ?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 5%
(D) 15%
108. Rs. 6500 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 15 more persons each would have got Rs. 30 less. The original number of persons was—
(A) 65
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 40
109. 2 men and 6 boys can do in 4 days a piece of work which would be done again in 4 days by 4 men and 3 boys. One man will do it in—
(A) 36 days
(B) 24 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 12 days
110. If sin A = 24/25, the value of tan A + sec A, where 0° < A < 90° is—
(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 24
(D) 7
111. If tan A = n sin B and sin A = m sin B, then the value of cos² A is—
(A) m²/n²
(B) m² × n²
(C) m² – n²
(D) m² + n²
112. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the hill is 30°. If the tower is 50 m high, the height of the hill is—
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 200 m
113. A steel wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 sq. cm. If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area of the circle is—
(A) 88 sq. cm
(B) 142 sq. cm
(C) 154 sq. cm
(D) 212 sq. cm
114. The number of spherical bullets that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm, if the diameter of each bullet be 4 cm, is—
(A) 2541
(B) 847
(C) 1270
(D) 363
115. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of a cylinder is 2 : 3. If its volume is 1617 cm³, the total surface area of the cylinder is—
(A) 575 cm2
(B) 770 cm2
(C) 1205 cm2
(D) 1500 cm2
116. The median of the following data is—
25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 26, 20, 32
(A) 25·5
(B) 26
(C) 26·5
(D) 25
117. The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is 80 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is—
(A) 70 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 50 kg
(D) 73 kg
118. The value of k so that the points A(k, 1), B(2, 1) and C(5,–1) are collinear is—
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
119. The common difference of the A.P. a, a + d, a + 2d,… for which the 20th term is 10 more than the 18th term, is—
(A) 4
(B) – 4
(C) – 5
(D) 5
120. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 10
is—
(A) 5/12
(B) 1/6
(C) 5/6
(D) 1/12
Answers :
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (D) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (D)

Part-B
(iii) Social Science

121. The Treaty of Sreerangapattanam was between Tipu Sultan and—
(A) Cornwallis
(B) Clive
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Wellesley
122. The famous Besnagar Pillar Inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult of—
(A) Panchika and Hariti
(B) Pashupatis
(C) Krishna-Vasudeva
(D) Shakti
123. What is a water hyacinth ?
(A) A weed
(B) A medicinal plant
(C) A decorative plant
(D) A highly sought after plant
124. To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for recommendations ?
(A) Ordinary bills
(B) Finance bills
(C) Bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
(D) Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution
125. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of—
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Switzerland
(D) South Africa
126. Indian Railways tied up with which of the following to launch a co-branded card and
traveller loyalty card to tap the huge railway passengers market ?
(A) BoB card
(B) Citibank card
(C) SBI card
(D) None of these
127. Which bank advertises itself as the world’s local bank ?
(A) Citibank
(B) HSBC
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) ABN Amro
128. In which state is Silent Valley located ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
129. Which of the following is not a promotional and motivational measure suggested in the National Population Policy 2000 ?
(A) Reward Panchayat and Zila Parishad for promoting small family norm
(B) Incentive to adopt two child norm
(C) Couples below poverty line will be given health insurance plans
(D) Banning abortion facilities (looking at female infanticides)
130. Who said, “HANOZ DELHI DOOR AST” ?
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Farid
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) None of these
131. In which of the following constitutional documents did the British Government for the first time, officially lay down as the goal of constitutional development in India, not only dominion status, but also responsible Government ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Indian Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
132. In which state is chromite abundantly found ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
133. For what is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam known ?
(A) Bear
(B) Tiger
(C) Wild ass
(D) Birds
134. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in—
(A) Censuring a Central Minister
(B) Creating a new All India Service
(C) Considering Money Bills
(D) Appointing judges
135. Which of the following provides the largest part of the demand for loanable funds in
India ?
(A) Hire purchase borrowers
(B) Private house purchasers
(C) Corporate businesses
(D) Farmers
136. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India ?
(A) Wellesley
(B) Cavendish Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings
137. The National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI) was inaugurated in—
(A) July 1992
(B) July 1993
(C) July 1994
(D) July 1995
138. One of the major towns of the Godavari region in the Satavahana kingdom was—
(A) Pratishthana
(B) Arikamedu
(C) Kokkhai
(D) Maski
139. In the Islamic (Mughal) buildings that came up in India, the elements of decoration did not include—
(A) Calligraphy
(B) Depiction of living beings
(C) Geometry
(D) Foliage
140. Jaya is the name of a high yielding variety of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Bajra
(D) Cotton
Answers :
121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (D) 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (A)
131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D)
137. (A) November 1992 (Incorporation)
April 1993 (Recognition as a stock exchange)
June 1994 (Commenced operation in the
wholesale Debt Market segment in June 1994.138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (B)

Part-B
(iv) English

141. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Dormant’—
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active
142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow
143. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial
144. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest
145. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist
146. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic
147. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial
148. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive
149. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of
150. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive
151. Choose the passive voice of—’Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?
152. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’—
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard
153. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over
154. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On
155. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron
156. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte
157. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare
158. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles
159. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period
160. Which of the following is not a language skill?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking
Answers :
141. (D) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (D)
148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (D) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (C) 156. (B) 157. (D)158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)

MPSC Assistant Chemical Analyser Gr-B Screening Test Paper 14-11-2010

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MPSC Government Labour Officer Screening Test Paper - 2009 QUESTION PAPER

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MPSC Inspector Certified School & Institution G.S.S. GR-B.- 31-06-2010 QUESTION PAPER

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FCI MANAGEMENT TRAINEE SELECTION PROCESS

The selection process will be separately conducted by different Zones consisting of written test, group discussion (GD) and interview. The written test will comprise of 90 multiple choice question of general aptitude consisting of Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness, Management and Current Affairs for the post of Management Trainees (Genl./Depot/Movt.) and of 90 multiple choice questions on General Accounting and Finance for candidates applying for MT (Accounts). The test for MT (Genl./Depot/Movt.) will be followed by the test for MT (Accounts). The examination dates are as follows:
10.04.2011 - North East Zone
24.04.2011 - East Zone
08.05.2011 - South Zone
15.05.2011 - North Zone
22.05.2011 - West Zone

EXAMS SCHEDULE

January
● Punjab and Sind Bank Probationary Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 16)
● Clerical Recruitment Exam. in State Bank of India’s Associate Banks (January 16)
● Corporation Bank Officers Cadre Examination (January 16)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Director/District Statistical Officer Exam., 2009 (January 16)
● M.P. Police Telecommunication Organisation, Bhopal Constables (Radio) Operator Exam. (January 17)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 23)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Specialist Officers Exam. (January 23)
● I.D.B.I. Bank Executives Exam. (January 23)
● UCO Bank Probationary Officer in JMGS-I Exam. (January 30)
● GATE 2011 Online Exam. (January 30) (Papers : GG and TF, AE and MN)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (January 30)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (January 30)
● U.P. PCS Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer etc. General Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (January 30)
● National Insurance Company Ltd. Administrative Officer (Scale-I) Examination. (January 30)
● M.P. School Education Department, Principal Higher Secondary School Recruitment Exam. (January 30)
● M.P. Police Constable Recruitment Exam. (January 30) 
February
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (February 6) (For Class VI)
● Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. (February 6)
● Union Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (February 6)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher Preliminary Exam. (February 11)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Pre.) Exam. (February 12)
● U.P. Trained Graduate Teacher Recruitment Exam. (Feb 13 & 20)
● Central Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. (February 13)
● Assam Gramin Vikas Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 13)
● UPSC Combined Defence Service Exam. (I), 2011 (February 13)
● GATE 2011 Offline Exam. (February 13) (Papers : AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, ME, PH and PI, AG, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, MT, XE and XL)
● Assam Gramin Vikas Bank Officer Junior Management Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Madhya Pradesh State Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (February 20)
● Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I and Scale-II Examination (February 20)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Indian Air Force Airman Recruitment Test (February) (Group ‘X’ Technical Trade)
● S.S.C. Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Recruitment Exam. (February 27)
● Dena Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (February 27)
● LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (Generalists/Chartered Accountants/Company Secretary/Legal) Exam. (February 27)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam.(February 27)
● Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistants Recruitment Exam. (February 27)
March
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Recruitment Exam. (March 6)
● Dena Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (March 6)
● Bank of India General Banking Officer Scale-I and II Examination for North Eastern States (March 6)
● Baroda U.P. Gramin Bank Officers (Scale-I) Exam. (March 6)
● Bank of India Clerk Examination for North Eastern States (March 13)
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (March 13)
● Andhra Pradesh Gramin Vikas Bank Office Assistants Exam., 2010 (March 13)
● Baroda U.P. Gramin Bank Office Assistant Clerical Cadre Exam. (March 13)
● Indian Navy Senior Secondary Recruitment Exam. (March-April)
April
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 3)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)
● I.I.T. Joint Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 10)
● Rajasthan Sub-Inspector Police Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (April/May)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( North - East  Zone) ( April 10)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( East Zone) ( April 24)
May
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Mains) Exam., 2011 (May 15)
● I.E.R.T. Entrance Exam., 2011 (Allahabad) (Engg./Technology Diploma Course) (May 24)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( South Zone) ( May 08)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( North Zone) ( May 15)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( West  Zone) ( May 22)

HEAVY WATER BOARD CATEGORY I AND CATEGORY – II TRAINEES (TECHNICAL) SELECTION PROCEDURE:

An objective type written test of two hour duration with negative marking shall be conducted for both Category-I and Category-II applicants. Each correct answer will carry 1 (one) mark and each wrong answer will carry negative half (1/2) mark.
The written examination shall include questions pertaining to aptitude/ general awareness and day to day science in addition to the test of their professional knowledge (for CAT-I: Questions pertaining to the discipline of the candidates, for CAT-II (10+2): Questions pertaining to Physics, Chemistry & Maths of 12th standard and for CAT-II (10+ITI) : Questions pertaining to Science & Maths of 10th standard + ITI).
Trade test is applicable to Category-II candidates with educational qualification of (10 + ITI).
Those candidates qualifying in the Written Examination shall be short-listed for Interview.
(Candidates applying for the above post will be given an option to answer in Hindi / English at the time of Written Exam / Interview).