Oriental Insurance Company A.A.O. Exam., 2010

Reasoning Ability

(Held on 9-5-2010)  

(Part-I) 

1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)

2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.

3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)

4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E ?
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)

5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)


6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.

7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)

8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)

9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)

10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)

11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books.
(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)

13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)

14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)

15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)

16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6
(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.

17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)

18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)

19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)

20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year ?
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)

21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)

23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)

24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)

25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper, visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)

26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.
Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.
II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.
III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Both II and III are implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark your answers as under—
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If both I and II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.

27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.
2. All machines are wheels.
Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.
II. All hands are wheels.
Ans : (B)

28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.
2. Some leaves are red.
Conclusions :
I. Some buds are red.
II. Some leaves are not buds.
Ans : (B)

29. Statements :
1. Some stones are shells.
2. All shells are pearls.
Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.
II. All pearls are shells.
Ans : (A)

30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.
2. Green is pink and yellow is red.
Conclusions :
I. Yellow is brown.
II. Pink is blue.
Ans : (C)

31. Statements :
1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.
2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.
Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.
II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.
Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689
Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689
Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689
Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689
Step IV is the last step of input.

32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I
Ans : (B)

33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input ?
Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)

34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?
Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358
(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358
(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358
(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358
(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358
Ans : (C)

35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth step ?
Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977
(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977
(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977
(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977
(D) Can’t be determined
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?
Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549
(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549
(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549
(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549
(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it—
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(3) The Manager D is married to A.
(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family.
(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.

37. What is the profession of E ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Manager
(D) Psychologist
Ans : (B)

38. How is A related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Grandfather
Ans : (D)

39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Two
Ans : (B)

40. What is the profession of A ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager
Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?
(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) AE
Ans : (C)

42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Watermelon
Ans : (C)

43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ?
(A) SPEAK : PZVKH
(B) HUSKY : BPGFS
(C) BRAIN : MRZIY
(D) BREAK : PZVIY
Ans : (B)

44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out which one is different ?
(A) DJWR
(B) EKXR
(C) KQDX
(D) AGTN
Ans : (A)

45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) SFXPMG
(D) JOEHNP
Ans : (C)

46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.
(A) Watt : Power
(B) Ampere : Current
(C) Pascal : Pressure
(D) Radian : Degree
Ans : (D)

47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) ONLKI
(B) OMKIG
(C) OMJFA
(D) OIGDC
Ans : (C)

48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?
(A) E
(B) O
(C) T
(D) I
Ans : (D)

49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
(1) Dissipate
(2) Dissuade
(3) Disseminate
(4) Distract
(5) Dissociate
(6) Dissect
(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
Ans : (A)

51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) SUXADF
(B) RVZDFG
(C) HKNGSW
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—
Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)
NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)
UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)
PIN (5) (10) (5)
PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)
OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)
ONE (0) (5) (0)
CUT (5) (10) (5)
SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)
DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)

52. VINA
(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)
Ans : (B)

53. AGE
(A) (0) (15) (0)
(B) (15) (15) (15)
(C) (0) (10) (10)
(D) (0) (5) (0)
Ans : (D)

54. PEAR
(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)
(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)
Ans : (A)

55. TIN
(A) (0) (5) (0)
(B) (5) (0) (5)
(C) (0) (10) (0)
(D) (5) (10) (5)
Ans : (D)

56. UNIT
(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)
(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)
(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)
Ans : (C)

57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5 are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (C)

58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R. The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2. What number is assigned to K ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 11
Ans : (B)

59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the 3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?
8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans : (D)

60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?
645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (A)

Oriental Insurance Company A.A.O. Exam., 2010

                                                      General Awareness 

(Held on 9-5-2010)

(Part–II)  

1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star
(B) Sirius A
(C) Alpha Centauri A
(D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)

2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(A) 5•8%
(B) 4•5%
(C) 2•59%
(D) 1•2%
Ans : (C)

3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Bridge
Ans : (A)

4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)

5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports
(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists
(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)


6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days
(B) Six million miles
(C) Six billion miles
(D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)

7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia
(B) Scandinavia
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australasia
Ans : (B)

8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Laser
(D) Maser
Ans : (A)

9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 390
Ans : (C)

10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn
(B) Deluxe
(C) Demor
(D) Dewey
Ans : (D)

11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen
(B) T. A. Edison
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Berliner
Ans : (B)

12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love
(B) Peace
(C) Prophecy
(D) Medicine
Ans : (C)

13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise
(B) Rise
(C) Barack
(D) Telle
Ans : (A)

14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy
(B) Poland
(C) Spain
(D) Sudan
Ans : (C)

15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills
(B) Sparsh Ganga
(C) Heaven
(D) Amrit
Ans : (B)

16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Punam Suri
(D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)

17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28
(B) February 21
(C) February 11
(D) February 4
Ans : (D)

18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called—
(A) Bali
(B) Vidatha
(C) Varman
(D) Kara
Ans : (B)

19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Platelets
Ans : (C)

20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol
(B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol
(D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)

U.P. PCS Lower Subordinate Services (Pre.) Exam. 2008

General Studies
(Exam Held on 26-9-2010)

1. The Thermometer suitable to measure 2000°C temperature is—
(A) total radiation thermometer
(B) gas thermometer
(C) mercury thermometer
(D) vapour pressure thermometer
Ans : (A)

2. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is—
(A) ethane
(B) ethylene
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) oxytocin
Ans : (B)

3. In which of the following districts India's largest mica belt is found ?
(A) Balaghat and Chhindwara
(B) Udaipur, Ajmer and Alwar
(C) Hazaribagh, Gaya and Monghyr
(D) Salem and Dharmapuri
Ans : (C)

4. Silent valley is situated in—
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Kerala
(C) Arunachal
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (B)

5. The fastest computer of the world is—
(A) Param-10000
(B) J-8
(C) Yenha-3
(D) T-3A
Ans : (A)


6. Which one of the following organizations is not related to science and technology ?
(A) DST
(B) CSIR
(C) ICSSR
(D) DAE
Ans : (C)

7. The name of the ICBM developed by India with a strike range of more than 2000 km is—
(A) Prithvi
(B) Trishul
(C) Akash
(D) Agni-II
Ans : (D)

8. Geneco technology is—
(A) A defence system for prevention from AIDS
(B) A method for the development of species for food crops
(C) A techniques for pre-information regarding genetic diseases
(D) A technique for prevention of cataract
Ans : (C)

9. 2, 4-D is—
(A) an insecticide
(B) an explosive
(C) a fungicide
(D) a herbicide
Ans : (D)

10. The percentage of nuclear enery in India's total energy generation is—
(A) 60%
(B) 27%
(C) 10%
(D) 2%
Ans : (D)

11. ‘Satish Dhawan Space Centre’ is located at—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Goa
(C) Shri Hari Kota
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

12. Which one of the following scientists has carried out researches both in the field of biology and physics ?
(A) Jagdish Chandra Bose
(B) Har Govind Khorana
(C) C. V. Raman
(D) Homi J. Bhabha
Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is a bacterial disease ?
(A) Herpes
(B) Polio
(C) Pox
(D) Tetanus
Ans : (D)

14. An Offshore Patrol Vessel was inducted into Coast Guard in March 2010. It is named—
(A) Eagle
(B) Vishwast
(C) Jatayu
(D) Aashwast
Ans : (B)

15. To insulate the country from disruptions in supply of crude oil, India has eastablished ‘India Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd.’ It will construct underground storages at three places. Identify the place which has not been selected for the purpose.
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Manglore
(C) Padur
(D) Ankaleshwar
Ans : (D)

16. Presidents of USA and Russia recently signed a historic treaty committing their respective country to drastically reduce arms. It was signed on—
(A) 15 January, 2010
(B) 18 May, 2009
(C) 08 April, 2010
(D) 12 February, 2010
Ans : (C)

17. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear Reactor at Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) 02
(B) 04
(C) 05
(D) 06
Ans : (A)

18. Who of the following has been appointed as Chairman of Mumbai Stock Exchange in March, 2010 ?
(A) Prof. Rakesh Mohan
(B) Prof. Bhagawati
(C) S. Ram Dorai
(D) Prof. Manoranjan Misra
Ans : (C)

19. Who of the following is the fourth woman Judge appointed in the Supreme Court in India in April, 2010 ?
(A) Justice Fatima Beevi
(B) Justice Sujata Manohar
(C) Justice Gyan Sudha Misra
(D) Justice Ruma Pal
Ans : (C)

20. A World Expo 2010 as a grand event to showcase the best achievements of human civilisation has been opened on May 1, 2010. Where was this expo opened ?
(A) In Shanghai
(B) In Kuala Lumpur
(C) In Tokyo
(D) In Moscow
Ans : (A)

21. Air Force Exercise Garuda-2010 was held by India jointly with which of the following countries ?
(A) France and Singapore
(B) Australia and France
(C) Singapore and Australia
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Which one of the following states bagged the ‘National Rural Health Mission Award’ of the Government of India in April, 2010 ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

23. Who of the following has been included in the ‘Hall of Fame’ by I.C.C. in March, 2010 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Anil Kumble
Ans : (C)

24. Who said, ‘Imperialism’ is dead as ‘dodo’ ?
(A) Ramje Macdonald
(B) Winston Churchill
(C) Clement Attlee
(D) Lord Wavell
Ans : (B)

25. The annual session of Muslim League in the year 1970 was held at—
(A) Dacca
(B) Karachi
(C) Aligarh
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (B)

26. The Indian National Congress had launched the Non Co-operation Movement in the year—
(A) 1918 A.D.
(B) 1919 A.D.
(C) 1920 A.D.
(D) 1921 A.D.
Ans : (C)

27. Who amongst the following made regular broadcast on Congress Radio operated during Quit India Movement ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(B) Subhas Chandra Bose
(C) Ram Manohar Lohia
(D) Sucheta Kriplani
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following newspapers advocated revolutionary terrorism during the period of Indian freedom struggle ?
1. Sandhya
2. Yugantar
3. Kaal
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 3
(C) 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans : (D)

29. The movement in India which became popular during the first World War was the—
(A) Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
(B) Home Rule Movement
(C) Separatist Movement
(D) Swarajist Party Movement
Ans : (B)

30. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer using the code given below :
1. Jallianwalabagh Massacre
2. Chaurichaura Episode
3. Champaran Movement
4. Moplah Rebellion
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
Ans : (C)

31. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists :
List-I(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Pherozeshah Mehta
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
List-II1. Bombay Chronicle
2. Al-Hilal
3. Young India
4. New India
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)

32. Who of the following was the President of Indian National Congress for consecutive six years ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans : (C)

33. Who of the following had started the Khilafat Movement ? Choose the answer from the code given below :
1. Shaukat Ali
2. Mohammad Ali
3. Shariatullah
4. Abul Kalam Azad
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (A)

34. Kakori Conspiracy Case took place in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1925
(C) 1930
(D) 1935
Ans : (B)

35. In the Interim Government (1946) who held the Railways Portfolio ?
(A) Baldev Singh
(B) T. T. Chudrigar
(C) Asaf Ali
(D) Abdul Rab Nishtar
Ans : (C)

36. The Province where Indian National Congress did not form ministry after the General election of 1937 was—
(A) Orissa
(B) Bihar
(C) Madras
(D) Bengal
Ans : (D)

37. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)

38. Who was the leader of the Swadeshi Movement in Madras ?
(A) Srinivas Sastri
(B) Rajagopalachari
(C) Chidambaram Pillai
(D) Chintamani
Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(A) He wrote a book ‘Poverty and Un-British rule in India’
(B) He worked as a professor of Gujarati in the University College, London
(C) He laid the foundation of woman's education in Bombay
(D) He was elected as a member of British Parliament on the ticket of the Conservative Party
Ans : (D)

40. Which one of the following was directly related to the Poona Pact of 1932 ?
(A) Indian women
(B) Indian labour class
(C) Indian farmers
(D) Indian depressed class
Ans : (D)

41. Subhas Chandra Bose had founded ‘Forward Bloc’ in the year—
(A) 1936 A.D.
(B) 1937 A.D.
(C) 1938 A.D.
(D) 1939 A.D.
Ans : (D)

42. The Gujarra minor rock edict, in which the name of Ashoka is mentioned, is located in—
(A) Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh
(B) Datia district of Madhya Pradesh
(C) Jaipur district of Rajasthan
(D) Champaran district of Bihar
Ans : (B)

43. Choose the correct pair from the following—
(A) Khajuraho —Chandellas
(B) Ellora caves —Saka
(C) Mahabalipuram—Rashtrakutas
(D) Meenakshi Temple—Pallavas
Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following sites has yielded skeleton of dog along with human skeleton in burial ?
(A) Brahmagiri
(B) Burzahom
(C) Chirand
(D) Maski
Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following Ashokan inscriptions is devoted to the principle of religious tolerance completely ?
(A) Rock edict XIII
(B) Rock edict XII
(C) Pillar inscription VII
(D) Bhabru minor rock edict
Ans : (C)

46. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent comes from—
(A) Koldihwa
(B) Lahuradeva
(C) Mehargarh
(D) Tokwa
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following mentions about the meeting of Sandrokottas (Chandragupta Maurya) with Alexander, the Great ?
(A) Pliny
(B) Justin
(C) Strabo
(D) Megasthenese
Ans : (D)

48. Which Sultan of Delhi assumed the title of Alexander the Great ?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Mahammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)

49. Who among the following was given the title of ‘Shaikh-ul-Hind’ ?
(A) Baba Fariduddin
(B) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
(C) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(D) Shaikh Salim Chishti
Ans : (C)

50. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) Kakatiya : Devagiri
(B) Hoyasala : Dwarsamudra
(C) Yadav : Warangal
(D) Pandya : Madura
Ans : (B)

51. Who of the following introduced silver coin called ‘tanka’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(C) Iltutmish
(D) Balban
Ans : (C)

52. From the following names identify the one who was not the brother of Humayun.
(A) Kamran
(B) Usman
(C) Askari
(D) Hindal
Ans : (B)

53. ‘Permanent Settlement’ was introduced during the tenure of—
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Sir John Shore
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (B)

54. In whose reign was the ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed between Mughal and the Rana of Mewar ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (B)

55. Which medieval Indian ruler prior to Akbar has been referred to as the ‘Akbar of Kashmir’ ?
(A) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(B) Sultan Sikandar
(C) Zainul Abedin
(D) Mahmud Gawan
Ans : (C)

56. The Bengali leader who opposed socio-religious reforms and support orthodoxy was—
(A) Radhakant Deb
(B) Nemisadhan Bose
(C) Hemchandra Biswas
(D) Hemchandra De
Ans : (A)

57. Varindra Ghosh was associated with—
(A) Anushilan Samiti
(B) Sadhava Samaj
(C) Abhinava Bharat
(D) Swadesh Bandhav Samiti
Ans : (A)

58. Who was the first Sultan of Delhi to have levied ‘Haqq-i-Sharab’ or irrigation tax ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(D) Firoz Tughlaq
Ans : (D)

59. Which Sultan of Delhi had established a separate agriculture department and had planned the ‘rotation of crops’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
Ans : (D)

60. As per world statistics 2008, what approximate percentage of world population lives in Asia ?
(A) 61%
(B) 63%
(C) 65%
(D) 66%
Ans : (A)

61. The State having highest scheduled caste population in India is—
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

62. Ujjain is situated at the bank of—
(A) Chambal river
(B) Kschipra river
(C) Godavari river
(D) Narmada river
Ans : (B)

63. Bagalihar Project lies on the—
(A) Jhelum river
(B) Ravi river
(C) Chenab river
(D) Indus river
Ans : (C)

64. Drakensberg is a mountain of—
(A) Botswana
(B) Namibia
(C) South Africa
(D) Zambia
Ans : (C)

65. Which one of the following is a cold current of the South Atlantic Ocean ?
(A) Canary Current
(B) Benguela Current
(C) Agulhas Current
(D) Brazil Current
Ans : (B)

66. Which region of the world, would you associate with ‘Bushmen’ ?
(A) East Africa
(B) Sahara Desert
(C) New Zealand
(D) Kalahari
Ans : (D)

67. Identify the only tributary of River Ganges which rises in the plains—
(A) Son
(B) Sharda or Saryu
(C) Gomti
(D) Ram Ganga
Ans : (C)

68. Uttar Pradesh holds the first place in India in the production of—
(A) Rice and wheat
(B) Wheat and sugarcane
(C) Rice and Sugarcane
(D) Wheat and pulses
Ans : (B)

69. Which one of the following is the tertiary activity ?
(A) Forestry
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Farming
(D) Marketing
Ans : (D)

70. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

71. The distance of Moon from the Earth is—
(A) 364 thousand kms
(B) 300 thousand kms
(C) 446 thousand kms
(D) 384 thousand kms
Ans : (D)

72. Japan is one of the leading industrial countries of the world because—
(A) It has ample mineral resources
(B) It has ample bio-energy resources
(C) Industrial revolution was initiated here
(D) It has high technological capacity
Ans : (D)

73. The planet which is called twin sister of earth is—
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Pluto
Ans : (B)

74. The deepest lake of the World is—
(A) Pushkar lake in Rajasthan
(B) Lake superior in America
(C) Victoria lake in Africa
(D) Baikal lake in Russia
Ans : (D)

75. The deepest trenches of the ocean are found in—
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Arctic Ocean
(D) Atlantic Ocean
Ans : (B)

76. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen do not include duty—
(A) to protect and improve the natural environment
(B) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
(C) to strive towards abolition of untouchability
(D) to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform
Ans : (C)

77. Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent list by the—
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 25th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Ans : (C)

78. The Constitution is silent in the Directive Principles of State Policy about—
(A) adult education
(B) living wages for workers
(C) free legal aid to the poor
(D) Primary education to children till they complete the age of 6 years
Ans : (A)

79. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly under Dr. B. R. Ambedkar had how many other members ?
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

80. The distribution of legislative power between the centre and the states in the Constitution is given in—
(A) Sixth schedule
(B) Seventh schedule
(C) Eighth schedule
(D) Ninth schedule
Ans : (B)

81. The number of High Court of Judicature in India is—
(A) Twenty
(B) Twenty one
(C) Twenty two
(D) Twenty three
Ans : (B)

82. Which one of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (B)

83. The cardinal features of political system in India are—
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a Parliamentary form of government.
3. The supreme power vests in people of India.
4. It provide for a unified authority
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
Ans : (D)

84. The basis of determining dearness allowances to employees of India is—
(A) National Income
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Standard of Living
(D) Per Capita Income
Ans : (B)

85. Narsinham Committee related to—
(A) Higher education reforms
(B) Tax structure reforms
(C) Banking structure reforms
(D) Planning implementation reforms
Ans : (C)

86. Note issuing department of Reserve Bank of India should always possess the minimum gold stock worth—
(A) Rs. 85 crore
(B) Rs. 115 crore
(C) Rs, 200 crore
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

87. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—
(A) Internet Banking
(B) Credit Card
(C) Saving Account in the Bank
(D) Current Account in the Bank
Ans : (B)

88. The aim of differentiated Interest scheme was to provide concessional loans to—
(A) Weaker Section of Society
(B) Public Sector Industries
(C) Public Limited Companies
(D) Big Exporters
Ans : (A)

89. The first Industry to develop in India was the—
(A) Cottage industry
(B) Cement industry
(C) Iron and steel industry
(D) Engineering industry
Ans : (A)

90. Which one of the following states was having the highest Human Development Index in the year 2001 ?
(A) Assam
(B) Kerala
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (B)

91. In which one of the following Countries High Yield variety seed were developed for the first time ?
(A) Argentina
(B) China
(C) Mexico
(D) India
Ans : (C)

92. Which one of the following per capita daily calorie intake has been recommended for determining the poverty line in rural areas in India ?
(A) 2200
(B) 2400
(C) 2500
(D) 2600
Ans : (B)

93. In India which agency is entrusted with the collection of data of capital formation ?
(A) RBI and Central Statistical Organisation
(B) RBI and SBI
(C) RBI and all other Commercial Banks
(D) Central Statistical Organisation and National Sample Survey
Ans : (D)

94. Which one of the following duration is related to XI Five Year Plan in India ?
(A) 2005-10
(B) 2006-11
(C) 2007-12
(D) 2008-13
Ans : (C)

95. Open market operations of RBI refer to—
(A) buying and selling of shares
(B) auctioning of foreign exchange
(C) trading in securities
(D) transactions in gold
Ans : (A)

96. Which of the following is the smallest bone in the human body ?
(A) Vomer
(B) Stapes
(C) Malleus
(D) Incus
Ans : (B)
t
97. Which of the following is fish ?
(A) Sea cucumber
(B) Sea cow
(C) Sea horse
(D) Sea lion
Ans : (C)

98. The yellow colour of human urine is due to a pigment called—
(A) Cytochrome
(B) Urochrome
(C) Haemochrome
(D) Phenolichrome
Ans : (B)

99. The branch of study dealing with old age and aging is called—
(A) Oncology
(B) Gerentology
(C) Teratology
(D) Ornithology
Ans : (B)

100. Emphysaema is a disease caused by environmental pollution in which the affected organ of the body is—
(A) liver
(B) kidney
(C) lungs
(D) brain
Ans : (C)

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Uttar Pradesh G.I.C. for Lecturer Screening Exam., 2009

General Studies

(PART-II)

1. The Darghah of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya lies in—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur-Sikri
Ans : (C)

2. ‘Purna Swarajya’ was announced in the Indian National Congress Session of—
(A) Karachi
(B) Lahore
(C) Calcutta
(D) Nagpur
Ans : (B)

3. Arrange the following events in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Non-cooperation movement.
2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
3. Gandhi’s Champaran Satyagrah.
4. Civil Disobedience Movement.
Codes :
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (C)

4. “Indian Nationalism was the child of the British Raj.” Who made this statement ?
(A) Bipin Chandra
(B) R. Coupland
(C) R. C. Majumdar
(D) P. E. Roberts
Ans : (B)

5. The first President of the Sovereign Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sachidananda Sinha
Ans : (D)


6. The Pakistan resolution was adopted by the Muslim League in—
(A) February 1922
(B) December 1928
(C) March 1940
(D) September 1944
Ans : (C)

7. Which one of the following rights was described by B. R. Ambedkar as “The Heart and Soul of the Constitution” ?
(A) Right of freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to constitutional remedies
Ans : (D)

8. Whcih Article of the Constitution of India lays down the procedure for the amendment in the Constitution ?
(A) 348
(B) 358
(C) 368
(D) 378
Ans : (C)

9. Under which Article of the Constitution of India Supreme Court safeguards the fundamental rights of the Indian citizens ?
(A) 74
(B) 56
(C) 16
(D) 32
Ans : (D)

10. The President of India may declare National Emergency if there is threat of—
1. External aggression
2. Internal disturbances
3. Armed rebellion
4. Communal clashes
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Ans : (A)

11. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of the State Policy ?
(A) Uniform civil code
(B) Freedom of the press
(C) Freedom of the religion
(D) Equality before law
Ans : (A)

12. Which city of Turkey is the ‘Gateway to the West’ ?
(A) Ankara
(B) Adana
(C) Izmir
(D) Istanbul
Ans : (D)

13. Falkland current flows along the—
(A) Eastern coast of Australia
(B) Western coast of South Africa
(C) Eastern coast of Argentina
(D) Eastern coast of Japan
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Cyprus – Baghdad
(B) Lebanon – Beirut
(C) Turkey – Ashgabat
(D) Ukraine – Akmola
Ans : (B)

15. Bosporus strait connects—
(A) Black Sea and Aegean Sea
(B) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(C) Adriatic Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
Ans : (D)

16. The largest producer of petroleum in the world is—
(A) Kuwait
(B) Iran
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)

17. India played its 100th Cricket Test Match with—
(A) Australia
(B) South Africa
(C) West Indies
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (D)

18. Dada Sahab Phalke Award 2007 was given to—
(A) Lata Mangeshkar
(B) Kishore Kumar
(C) Manna Dey
(D) Mohammad Rafi
Ans : (C)

19. Tsunami killed hundreds of people in September 2009 in—
(A) Hawaii Islands
(B) Marshall Islands
(C) Samoa Islands
(D) Norfolk Islands
Ans : (C)

20. The winner of the Durand Cup 2009 is—
(A) Churchill Brothers
(B) East-Bengal Club
(C) Mahindra United
(D) Mohun Bagan
Ans : (D)

21. The name of the new research station being set-up in Antarctica by India is—
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Bharti
(C) Dakshinayan
(D) Maitri
Ans : (D)

22. The working of a jet engine is based upon the conservation of—
(A) Mass
(B) Energy
(C) Linear momentum
(D) Angular momentum
Ans : (C)

23. The law of planetary motion were enunciated by—
(A) Newton
(B) Keplar
(C) Galileo
(D) Copernicus
Ans : (B)

24. Leprosy is caused by—
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa
Ans : (A)

25. The gaseous pollutant responsible for acid rain is—
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Ammonia
(D) Sulphur dioxide
Ans : (D)

26. The unit of heredity in our body is called—
(A) Chromosome
(B) DNA
(C) Gene
(D) Nucleus
Ans : (C)

27. Who among the following Pakistani national was awarded ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian Government ?
(A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(B) Liaqat Ali Khan
(C) M. A. Jinnah
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
Ans : (A)

28. ‘Ashtadhyayi’ was written by—
(A) Vedavyas
(B) Panini
(C) Shukadeva
(D) Valmiki
Ans : (B)

29. The number of Puranas is—
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 19
(D) 21
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following Mughal Emperors granted duty-free trading facilities to the English in Bengal ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Bahadur Shah
(D) Farrukhsiyar
Ans : (B)

Uttar Pradesh G.I.C. for Lecturer Screening Exam., 2009

Civics (Political Science)

(PART-I )

1. The theory of Natural Rights holds that—
(A) Rights are a divine creation
(B) Rights came from pre-civil society
(C) Rights were granted by the king
(D) Rights are granted by the Constitution
Ans : (B)

2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Marxist view of freedom is different from liberal individualist view of freedom.
Reason (R) : According to Marxist view, freedom is not something that an individual can enjoy in isolation.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

3. Who among the following supports the principle of natural inequality ?
(A) Polybius
(B) Cicero
(C) Rousseau
(D) Plato
Ans : (D)

4. The ideal of ‘positive liberty’ was first conceived by—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegel
(C) Green
(D) Laski
Ans : (C)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Justice is the interest of stronger.
(b) Justice is doing one’s own work which is in consonance with one’s own nature.
(c) Public utility is the sole origin of Justice.
(d) Justice means judicious distribution of primary goods.
List-II
1. Rawls
2. Thrasymachus
3. Plato
4. Hume
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (D)


6. The best adjustment of liberty and equality can be achieved in a regime of—
(A) Liberalism
(B) Socialism
(C) Democratic Socialism
(D) Idealism
Ans : (C)

7. “Political liberty without economic liberty is a myth.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Aristotle
(B) T. H. Green
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. J. Laski
Ans : (D)

8. “The passion for equality made vain the hope for liberty.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Jeremy Bentham
(C) V. I. Lenin
(D) Lord Acton
Ans : (D)

9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Justice is highest good of political life.
Reason (R) : Justice provides man his due and sets right wrongs either by compensation or by punishment.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

10. The liberal thinker who had put forward the theory of “Social Engineering” is—
(A) C. B. Macpherson
(B) Karl J. Popper
(C) John Rawls
(D) L. T. Hobhouse
Ans : (B)

11. By the materialistic interpretation of history Marx explains—
(A) The course of history remains unchanged
(B) The course of history is determined by the leaders of society
(C) The course of history is determined by the consciousness of men
(D) The course of history is determined by the mode of production
Ans : (D)

12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Marx is the only writer whose works can be termed scientific.
Reason (R) : Where Marxism ends, Anarchism begins.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

13. Who is the author of the famous book ‘History of Early Institutions’ ?
(A) Proudhan
(B) Maxey
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Sir Henry Maine
Ans : (D)

14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Gandhi was against using the impure means.
Reason (R) : According to him, impure means do not help in achieving the ends.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

15. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, then whose decision is final ?
(A) President’s decision
(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court’s decision
(C) Auditor and Comptroller General of India’s decision
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha’s decision
Ans : (D)

16. Which of the following attributes of Gandhian theory of Non- Violence are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. It is not passivity.
2. Its basic principle is truth.
3. It is the weapon of the weak.
4. It is a means of mass participation.
Codes :(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following was not on the agenda of Non-cooperation Movement ?
(A) To boycott foreign goods
(B) To boycott law courts
(C) To defy the laws of the land
(D) To boycott elections under the Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)

18. The alternative to socialism in Gandhian Philosophy is—
(A) Non-violence
(B) Trusteeship
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Truth
Ans : (B)

19. Which of the following books has not been written by Marx ?
(A) The Communist Manifesto
(B) Das Capital
(C) Wealth of the Nations
(D) The Critique of Political Economy
Ans : (C)

20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : There is no stable party system in India.
Reason (R) : Indian political parties reflect the complexity of Indian society.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

21. Which one of the following is not a demerit of party system ?
(A) Parties fight for their own interest
(B) Party system destroys the individuality of man
(C) Parties produce unnatural divisions
(D) Parties harmonise the organs of Government
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following statements are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Pressure groups are different from Political parties.
2. Political parties and Pressure groups do not differ.
3. Pressure groups do not contest elections.
4. Pressure groups do not try to capture political power directly.
Codes :(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
List-I(a) Charles Mariam
(b) M. P. Follet
(c) Arthur Bentley
(d) A. Appadorai
List-II
1. The Process of Government
2. The Substance of Politics
3. The New State
4. New Aspect of Politics
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)

24. “Never has any one ruled on earth by basing his rule essentially other than the public opinion.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Jose Ortegag Gassel
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Lord Bryce
(D) Morris Ginsberg
Ans : (A)

25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Political parties are the lifeline of Modern Politics.
Reason (R) : Political Parties came into existence with the growth and development of representative institutions and expansion of suffrage.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

26. Who among the following tried to establish co-relation between party system and electoral system ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) M. Duverger
(C) H. M. Finer
(D) Lord Bryce
Ans : (B)

27. Who describes the pressure groups as the Third House of the Legislature ?
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) H. M. Finer
(C) G. D. H. Cole
(D) Dicey
Ans : (B)

28. “The State in which all authority and powers are vested in a single centre, whose will and agents are legally omnipotent over the whole area” is known as—
(A) Unitary Government
(B) Federal Government
(C) Parliamentary Government
(D) Presidential Government
Ans : (A)

29. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : A federal system invariably provides for an independent judiciary.
Reason (R) : It settles the disputes between the centre and the constituent units.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The growing strength of Central Government in a federal set-up is natural.
Reason (R) : Five factors contribute to the growth of a powerful centre in the federation, namely, war politics, depression politics, Techno-politics, Grantsin-Aid politics and party politics.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

31. In Presidential Government, the President is—
(A) Independent of the Legislature
(B) Dependent on the Legislature
(C) Dependent on the Judiciary
(D) Bound by the advice of Council of Ministers
Ans : (A)

32. A Parliamentary Government cannot function without—
(A) Written Constitution
(B) Rigid Constitution
(C) Political Parties
(D) Independent Judiciary
Ans : (C)

33. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government—
(A) Are drawn both the Houses of Legislature
(B) Are taken from the popular House
(C) Are not members of either House of Legislature
(D) Become members of Legislature after their appointment as Ministers
Ans : (C)

34. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of—
(A) Relations between the Centre and the States
(B) Relations between the Legislature and the Executive
(C) Relations between the Executive and the Judiciary
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

35. Who has opined that, “The Constitution limits the arbitrary actions of the Government” ?
(A) Dicey
(B) Rousseau
(C) Garner
(D) Strong
Ans : (A)

36. “A State without a Constitution would not be a State, but a regime of anarchy.” This is stated by—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Bryce
(C) Jellineck
(D) Dicey
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following is not a feature of Unitary System of the Government ?
(A) Administrative unity
(B) Administrative empowerment
(C) National unity
(D) A coordination between national unity and Local self administration
Ans : (B)

38. Who raised the demand for ‘Swarajya’ for the first time through his writings ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Ram Krishna Param Hans
(C) Swami Vivekanand
(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Ans : (D)

39. During Civil Disobedience Movement, soldiers of Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on demonstrators at—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (D)

40. Commenting on the sudden suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922, who among the following remarked—
“To sound the order of retreat just when public enthusiasm was reaching the boiling point was nothing short of a national calamity” ?
(A) Motilal Nehru
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) C. R. Das
(D) Mohammad Ali
Ans : (B)

41. Who wrote the book, ‘India Divided’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) M. A. Jinnah
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Shyama Prasad Mukherji
Ans : (A)

42. Whose time has been described as the ‘Seedling time of Indian Nationalism’ ?
(A) Lord William Bentinck
(B) Lord Rippon
(C) Lord Lytton
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (C)

43. By whom was the ‘Objectives Resolution’ presented in the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) G. B. Pant
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (D)

44. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience with mass movement in India was at—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Chauri-chaura
(D) Dandi
Ans : (A)

45. The Swadeshi Movement was launched—
(A) As a protest against the partition of Bengal in 1905
(B) Following division of Congress in 1907
(C) Following the Lucknow Session
(D) To mark the entry of Mahatma Gandhi in National Movement
Ans : (A)

46. Who among the following moderate leaders had been called, ‘a silver tongued orator’ ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(D) M. G. Ranade
Ans : (B)

47. Which one of the following proposed a three-tier polity for India ?
(A) Nehru Report
(B) Simon Commission Report
(C) Cripps Proposal
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan
Ans : (D)

48. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Annie Besant
(C) Smt. Kamla Nehru
(D) Smt. Indira Gandhi
Ans : (B)

49. When was Mahatma Gandhi President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) 1923
(B) 1924
(C) 1925
(D) 1926
Ans : (B)

50. Who described for the first time, the revolt of 1857 as “The First War of Indian Independence” ?
(A) V. D. Savarkar
(B) R. C. Majumdar
(C) Bipin Chandra
(D) Sir John Lawrence
Ans : (A)

51. What was the real objective behind the ‘Partition of Bengal’ ?
(A) Create a division among the ranks of Indian Nationalists
(B) Stop the tide of Nationalism in Bengal
(C) Build up separate Administrative units for better efficiency of administration
(D) Appease the large majority of Muslims
Ans : (C)

52. The place where Navy openly revolted in 1946 against British rule in India is—
(A) Bombay (Mumbai)
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Cochin
Ans : (A)

53. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the British rule in India.
Reason (R) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 laid down a new constitution for India providing for every detail.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

54. Who among the following is called, “The Prophet of Indian Nationalism and Father of modern India.” ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Swami Vivekanand
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (A)

55. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. He is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. He must be member of the Rajya Sabha for his election as Vice-President.
3. He is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
4. If the President resigns or dies, the Vice President officiates as President for not more than six months.
Codes :(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

56. Who of the following linked the Directive Principles with a cheque payable at the convenience of the Bank ?
(A) A. K. Aiyar
(B) H. Kunzru
(C) H. V. Kamath
(D) K. T. Shah
Ans : (D)

57. Who among the following was elected President of India with second preference votes ?
(A) Gyani Zail Singh
(B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) V. V. Giri
Ans : (D)

58. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution put limi tation on Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures ?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 245
(C) Article 246
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

59. Which prominent leader had opposed the Champaran Satyagrah of 1917 because it was led by Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) N. G. Ranga
(B) T. K. Madhavan
(C) Champak Raman Pillai
(D) E. M. S. Namboodiripad
Ans : (A)

60. Who among the following has the right to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament without being a member of the Parliament ?
(A) Solicitor-General of India
(B) Attorney-General of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Chief Justice of India
Ans : (B)

61. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in—
(A) The President
(B) The Cabinet
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (D)

62. “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘Union’ is derived from the Constitution of—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Switzerland
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Ans : (A)

63. The President of India can be removed from his office by—
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (B)

64. A Federal Court was established in India under the Act of—
(A) 1892
(B) 1909
(C) 1919
(D) 1935
Ans : (D)

65. The Article of the Indian Constitution which empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship is—
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
Ans : (D)

66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Ad-hoc Judges in the Supreme Court ?
(A) 124
(B) 125
(C) 126
(D) 127
Ans : (D)

67. Which of the following decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India ?
(A) The Rajya Sabha
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (C)

68. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment ?
(A) Republic, Sovereign
(B) Secular, Democratic
(C) Secular, Socialist
(D) Democratic, Sovereign
Ans : (C)

69. While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration—
1. The Speaker shall have right to speak.
2. He shall not preside.
3. He shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance.
4. He shall not be present in the House.
Select your answer from the codes—
(A) 2 and 4 are correct
(B) 1, 2, 3 are correct
(C) Only 1 is correct
(D) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : (B)

70. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related with—
(A) Anti-Defection Provisions
(B) Indian Languages
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Ans : (C)

71. In Indian Federation the division of power in three lists has been derived from—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (C)

72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Prime Minister in the Indian Political system is very powerful.
Reason (R) : There is Parliamentary system of Government in India.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I(a) Poona Pact
(b) August Proposal
(c) Wardha Proposal
(d) Wavell Plan
List-II
1. 8 August 1940
2. 14 July 1942
3. 4 June 1945
4. 26 September 1932
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)

74. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) 71st
(B) 72nd
(C) 73rd
(D) 74th
Ans : (C)

75. Who among the following Congress members rejected the Mountbatten Plan ?
(A) J. B. Kripalani
(B) G. B. Pant
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (C)

76. In Which part of the Indian Constitution relations between the Union and the States have been mentioned ?
(A) Part X
(B) Part XI
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part XV
Ans : (B)

77. What is true about the Governor of a State ?
(A) He has no discretionary power
(B) Validity of his discretion can be questioned
(C) For his discretionary functions he is not responsible to the President
(D) High Court may inquire into the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following States was the first to establish the Panchayat Raj Institutions ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) U. P.
Ans : (A)

79. The Constitutional Government means—
(A) Government according to the terms of the Constitution
(B) Government based on the rule of the law
(C) A Democratic Government
(D) All these
Ans : (D)

80. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the State list ?
(A) Article 229
(B) Article 230
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249
Ans : (D)

81. A constitutional reason to make the centre strong in India is—
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Centralised Planning
(C) Zonal Councils
(D) Union List
Ans : (D)

82. One common point of agreement between Indian and U.S. Federalism is that—
(A) Residuary powers belong to the Centre
(B) Residuary powers belong to the States
(C) There is provision for concurrent jurisdiction in certain matters
(D) The Supreme Court is the arbiter in the event of conflict between the Centre and the States
Ans : (D)

83. Which one of the following qualifications is common to Presidential candidates in both India and the U. S. A. ?
(A) Citizenship
(B) Minimum age
(C) Residential requirement
(D) Eligibility to become member of the popular house of the legislature
Ans : (B)

84. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India may be made by the President—
(A) According to his own judgement
(B) On the request of the Lok Sabha
(C) On the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(D) On the written advice of the Council of Ministers
Ans : (D)

85. The system of Judicial review is found in—
(A) Only in India
(B) Only in Britain
(C) Only in U.S.A.
(D) In both India and U.S.A.
Ans : (D)

86. Who has referred Indian Federation as ‘Paramount Federation’ ?
(A) C. H. Alexandrowicz
(B) M. P. Sharma
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) A. C. Banerjee
Ans : (C)

87. Dadabhai Naoroji has described his theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the book—
(A) Poverty and unBritish rule in India
(B) Exploitative nature of British Rule in India
(C) British Rule and its consequences
(D) Nature of British Colonial Rule
Ans : (A)

88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) State is abstract but the government is concrete
(B) Society is wider than the State
(C) Government is the agent of the State
(D) Membership of the State is optional
Ans : (D)

89. “It is true that there is no State where there is no over-ruling force. But the exercise of force does not make a State otherwise a pirate ship or the mutinous army would be a State.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Fredrick Angels
(B) Robert MacIver
(C) H. J. Laski
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (D)

90. Which of the following thinkers does not regard territory as an essential element of the State ?
(A) Plato
(B) Locke
(C) Maotse Tung
(D) Seeley
Ans : (D)

91. Who among the following opines that ‘public service’ and not sovereignty is the essential characteristic of the State ?
(A) Otto Von Gierke
(B) Leon Duguit
(C) Ernest Barker
(D) A. D. Lindsay
Ans : (B)

92. “The State is the product and manifestation of the irreconcilability of class antagonism.” Who holds the above view ?
(A) Marx
(B) Lenin
(C) Bakunin
(D) Stalin
Ans : (A)

93. The word ‘Polis’ relates to—
(A) Police
(B) Civil Administration
(C) City State
(D) Public opinion
Ans : (C)

94. “Liberty is increased when sovereignty is put into the right hands.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Friedman
(B) Hayek
(C) I. Berlin
(D) L. Strauss
Ans : (C)

95. Who among the following is, associated with ‘Civic-Sovereignty’ Theory ?
(A) John Devey
(B) John Strachy
(C) R. H. Tawney
(D) S. G. Hobson
Ans : (C)

96. Which one of the following ideologies considers political party as ‘a vanguard of the social class’ ?
(A) Idealism
(B) Individualism
(C) Fabianism
(D) Marxism
Ans : (D)

97. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The concept of sovereignty could not be developed during Middle Ages.
Reason (R) : The social system during the Middle Ages was decentralized and permeated by Christianity.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

98. Who among the following makes a distinction between society and state ?
(A) Pareto
(B) MacIver
(C) Bryce
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (B)

99. Which pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) George Sorel—Syndicalism
(B) Hegel—Individualism
(C) G.D.H. Cole—Guild socialism
(D) Laski—Pluralism
Ans : (B)

100. Who among the following was the first to propound the Pluralistic Theory of Sovereignty ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) Jean Bodin
(C) MacIver
(D) Otto Von Gierke
Ans : (D)

101. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following political philosophers.
(A) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and Montesquieu
(B) Hobbes, Rousseau, Montesquieu and Locke
(C) Locke, Hobbes, Montesquieu and Rousseau
(D) Hobbes, Locke, Montesquieu and Rousseau
Ans : (D)

102. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : According to Monists, the sovereignty is supreme, absolute and unlimited.
Reason (R) : In every full-fledged or independent state, there is an ultimate authority, an authority from which there is no appeal.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

103. Who defined sovereignty as the supreme authority which is independent of any other earthly authority ?
(A) Kelsen
(B) Willoughby
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Bentham
Ans : (C)

104. The form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union in India is enshrined in—
(A) First Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(B) Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(C) Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(D) Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Ans : (C)

105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
List-I (Author)(a) Robert Nozick
(b) D. L. Hobman
(c) Titmuss
(d) Alexander Entreaves
List-II (Book)
1. Essay on Welfare State
2. The Welfare State
3. Anarchy, State and Utopia
4. The Notion of the State
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (B)

106. Who among the following thinkers made the statement that, “Covenant without sword are but words and of no strength to secure men at all.” ?
(A) Pufendorf
(B) Hobbes
(C) Locke
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (B)

107. Which theory advocates only ‘night watchman role’ of the State ?
(A) Welfare State Theory
(B) Liberal Theory
(C) Socialist Theory
(D) Idealist Theory
Ans : (B)

108. Who has said that a welfare state is “a state that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services” ?
(A) G.D.H. Cole
(B) H. J. Laski
(C) Abraham
(D) T. W. Kent
Ans : (D)

109. Who among the following has maintained that the modern liberal democratic state has become an industrial state ?
(A) Galbraith
(B) MacPherson
(C) Keynes
(D) Roosevelt
Ans : (B)

110. Which one of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualisation of Politics ?
(A) Marxism
(B) Socialism
(C) Sarvodaya
(D) Pluralism
Ans : (C)

111. The term ‘Socialism’ was first used by—
(A) Robert Owen
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Bernstein
Ans : (A)

112. Which of the following thinkers is associated with Evolutionary Socialism ?
(A) Lenin
(B) Gramsci
(C) Bernstien
(D) Engels
Ans : (C)

113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The ‘positive libralism’ assigns certain functions to the state to perform.
Reason (R) : It assigns state to promote the ‘social welfare’ of the society as a whole.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

114. The best exposition of Liberal concept of nature and functions of the state is found in the writings of—
(A) John Locke
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Bernard Bosanquet
(D) Norman Angel
Ans : (A)

115. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(A) A welfare state has to be a socialist state
(B) A capitalist state can also be a welfare state
(C) A socialist state can be a liberal state
(D) A liberal state must control means of production
Ans : (B)

116. Regarding the functions of the state, who among the following has used the phrase, “to hinder the hindrances” ?
(A) Mill
(B) Green
(C) Hobbes
(D) Hegel
Ans : (B)

117. Which theory holds that, “the right of the personality is the most important right of the man” ?
(A) The Theory of Natural Rights
(B) The Legal Theory of Rights
(C) The Historical Theory of Rights
(D) The Idealistic Theory of Rights
Ans : (D)

118. Hobbes gives individual the right to disobey the sovereign for—
(A) Self preservation
(B) Protection of Freedom
(C) Removing oppression
(D) Removing injustice
Ans : (A)

119. The credit for advocating the legal theory of right goes to—
(A) Austin
(B) Locke
(C) Barker
(D) Laski
Ans : (A)

120. Who has remarked that, “All restraint qua restraints is an evil … leaving people to themselves is always better than controlling them” ?
(A) Green
(B) Mill
(C) Barker
(D) Popper
Ans : (B)

HAL ELECTRICAL BRANCH QUESTION PAPER

HAL EXAM HELD AT HYDERABAD
Exam Held ON: 26-11-2006 

ELECTRICAL BRANCH

1) What is the distance between the EHV lines?
a)8m b)11m c)4m d)14m
2) At present how many HVDC lines are there in india?
a)none b)one c)two d)more than two
3) Where is the nuclear located in following places?
ans: i dont remember the answers, but one of them is thalcher(orissa)
4) What is the approximate peak overshoot for a unity feedback system with damping
factor 0.6?
a)10% b)5% c)15% d)20%
5) What is the distance between the EHV lines and earth?
a)8m b)11m c)18m d)15m
6) On no load in EHV lines what is the relation between receinving and sending end
voltage?
ans: receiving end voltage > sending end voltage
7) What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line?
ans: 4002/400ohms =400watts
8) similar question with surge impedance given as 160 ohms
ans: 1000watts
9) If both the juctions of transistor are forward biased, in wat region transistor works
ans: saturation region
10) Where is the hydel power plant located in following places?
ans: I dont remember the places
11) self GMD is used in the calculation of_______
a) inductance only
b) inductance and capacitance
c) capacitance only
d) none
12) What is the GMD if the distance between the lines are 6m,6m,12m?
ans: 7.058m( approx)
13) Zero sequence currents doesn't exist in the following fault
a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) L-L-L-G
Ans: d
14) To avoid arcing connect sutable value of ________ in earthing.
a) capacitance
b) indunctance
c) resistance
d) susceptance
15)There are two to three questions based on Laplace and Inverse Laplace transforms
16)In the following type of conductors the corona is minimum
a) circular
b) stranded
c) helical
d) rectamgular
ans: c
17)When do two wattmeters show same value of opposite readings in two wattmeter
method
a) 300 lag
b) 600 lag
c) between 600 and 900 lag
d) zpf lag
ans: d
18) Schering bridge is used to measure
a) frequency
b) inductance
c) capacitance
d) mutual inductance
and: c
19) What is the value of resistance when both length and diameter of the wire are
doubled?
ans: halved
20) There is one questions asked on euler's formula..
21) What is the Laplace transform of unit ramp signal?
ans:1/s2
22) What happens to the value of inductance when self GMD is doubled?
23) At what frequency corona loss is more?
a) 50Hz
b) 60Hz
c)
d)
24) What is the largest rating of alternator manufactured in india?
a) 1000MW
b) 500MW
c) 1200MW
d) 250MW
ans:b
25) The response of an RLC circuit for impuse input?
a) exponentially raising
b) sinusoidal
c) exponential falling
d) parabolic
ans: c
26) What is the easier method for finding no. of poles in the right half of s-plane?
a) Niquist plot
b) R-H criterion
c) Root-Locus method
d) Polor plot
ans: b
27) How many no of poles located in the right half of s-plane for the characteristic
equation...
28) Burden of current transformers is measured in..
a) Watts
b) Volt Amperes
c) Ampere Hours
d) Joules
29)What is the gate used to get high output when all the inputs are low?
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) Ex-OR
d) Ex-NOR
ans: b
30) Large no of thyristors are used in HVDC transmission to improve______
a) current rating
b) voltage rating
c) Thyristers are available at high ratings
d)
31) What is the line current of a circuit when the current transformer of 1000:5 rating
measures 4Amperes?
ans: 800A
32) If the time delay of relay with TMS setting 0.1 is 10 sec, then what is the time delaty
when the TMS setting is changed to 0.5
33) How many no of flip-flops are required to get 16 bit counter?
34) _________is connected to reduce frequency errors in ammeter.
a) shunt capacitor
b) series inductance
c) shunt inductance
d)
35)What is the value of ripple factor in Half Wave Rectifier?
a) 1.11
b) 0.8
c) 1.21
d)
36)The principle used in megger?
a) electrostatic effect
b) magnetic effect
c) Induction effect
d)
37)In electrodynamometer type wattmeter the error is due to..
a) pressure coil inductance
b) pressure coil resistance
38) In the following locations where is hydal power plant is not located?
ans: i dont remember the places
39) In distribution lines_____
a) X/R<0.1
b) X/R>10
c) X/R>1
d) X/R<0.01
40) In EHV lines _____
a) X/R=10
b) X/R=100
c)
d)
41) What is the speed of 2 pole alternator at 50Hz frequency?
ans: 3000rpm
42) What is the equivalent decimal no of (624)8
43) What is the binary equivalent of 6.25
44) What is the value of A+AB+B¯ ( B bar)
ans: 1
45) What are the avg and rms values of full wave rectifier
ans: 2Vm/pie, Vm/21/2
46) There is one question based on rank of matrix
47) What is the equivalent of cos(wt+18.750)
a) sin(wt+71.250)
b) sin(wt-71.250)
c) sin(wt+18.250)
d) sin(wt-18.250)
48) The three harmonics will be in phace with each other?_____
a) 3,5,15
b) 2,4,6
c)
d)
ans: a
49) The line current will be equal to phase current in______
ans: delta connection
50) In windmills the frequent problems occur in______
a) mechanical system
b) blades
c) electrodynamic system
d) electric system
51) The machine used in windmills is______
a) alternator
b) induction generator
c)
d)
ans: b
52) Insulators in EHV lines are designed based on_____
a) switching voltages
b) peak voltages
c) corona
d) lightning voltages
ans: a
53) The value of restriking voltage depends on______
a) inductance of line
b) capacitance of line
c) both
d) none

L.I.C. (ADO) Exam English Solved Paper 2009

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in boldto help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.
Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.
However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ‘quick impact’ initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.

1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries
(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these
2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel
3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid
5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country
6. What is the benefit of ‘quick impact’ aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. exist
(A) live (B) fit
(C) create (D) occur
(E) survive
8. squander
(A) lavish (B) spend
(C) displace (D) lose
(E) misuse
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. fragile
(A) weak (B) lasting
(C) long (D) strong
(E) unstable
10. deficient
(A) surplus (B) valued
(C) short (D) secure
(E) repaired
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it—
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.
11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
(E) F
12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
(E) F
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.
16. She did not like to…………her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge (B) prompt
(C) enforce (D) deploy
(E) make
17. People unfortunately………that money brings happiness.
(A) assume (B) deny
(C) object (D) rely
(E) conscious
18. The public have………a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched
19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her……… to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication
(E) command
20. Poverty has to be………and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed (B) eliminated
(C) finished (D) magnified
(E) considered
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some way i.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.
21.  1. moderate  2. easy 3. significant  4. strenuous
(A) 2–4 (B) 1–2
(C) 1–3 (D) 2–3
(E) 3–4
22. 1. focus  2. trivial  3. vital  4. site
(A) 1–2 (B) 2–4
(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4
(E) 2–3
23. 1. defer 2. dispute  3. prefer 4. challenge
(A) 2–3 (B) 1–3
(C) 2–1 (D) 2–4
(E) 3–4
24. 1. consequence 2. potential 3. influence 4. ability
(A) 4–3 (B) 2–4
(C) 2–3 (D) 1–3
(E) 4–1
25. 1. rebuke 2. oppose 3. praise 4. distrust
(A) 1–2 (B) 2–3
(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4
(E) 2–4
Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbersare printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the …(26)… features of our education …(27)…. There has been a …(28)… fall in …(29)… in the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a …(30)… of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have …(31)… their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been …(32)… rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some …(33)… jobs …(34)… in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising …(35)…. It has created a very serious problem.
26. (A) minor
(B) trivial
(C) unachievable
(D) irrelevant
(E) salient
27. (A) process
(B) policy
(C) development
(D) guideline
(E) procedures
28. (A) expected (B) sheer
(C) rough (D) steep
(E) gentle
29. (A) assessment
(B) evaluation
(C) competence
(D) fees
(E) value
30. (A) flood (B) class
(C) party (D) mob
(E) rabble
31. (A) mislaid (B) lost
(C) increase (D) found
(E) establish
32. (A) slowly (B) hastily
(C) deeply (D) waiting
(E) out
33. (A) suitable (B) remain
(C) study (D) live
(E) place
34. (A) frequency
(B) occurrence
(C) event
(D) chance
(E) blocking
35. (A) fever (B) outshine
(C) lean (D) dwarfed
(E) horribly

Answers With Explanations : 

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (D)
6. (E) 07. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (E)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (E) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C)
26. (E) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (E)

LIC AAO English Solved Paper 2009

Directions(1-5): Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set pf words that best com¬pletes the sentence meaningfully.
1. He went to the library to……find that it was closed.
(1) seldom
(2) never
(3) only
(4) solely
2. The ties that bind us together in common activity are so….that they can disappear at any moment.
(1) tentative (2) tenuous (3) consistent (4) restrictive
3. Her reaction to his proposal was….. She rejected it…..
(1) inevitable – vehemently’
(2) subtle – Violently
(3) clever – abruptly
(4) sympathetic – angrily

4. His…. direction~ misled us we did not know which of the two roads to take.
(1) complicated
(2) ambiguous
(3) narrow
(4) fantastic
5. It would be difficult for one so ………. to believe that all men are equal irrespective of caste. race and religion,
(1) emotional
(2) democratic
(3) tntolerant
(4) liberal
Directions (116- 120) : In each of the follwing sentences four words or phrases have been bold. Only one bold part in each sentence is not accepted in standard English. Ident that part and mark its number 1. 2. 3 or 4 as your answer.
6. Gaze for a thing /(1) that are not/ (2) available easily /(3) in the county is a universal phenomenon/ (4).
7. It is foolish to be expecting/Ill one person to be like another / . (2) person for/(3) each individual is born/(4) WIth his characteristics traits.
8. The tendency to believe/(l) that/(2) man is inherently dishonest is something that/(3) will decried/(4).
9. I have not come across/(1) very few people/(2) who/(3) think of thing beyond/(4) their daily work.
10. He managed to board/(l) the run¬ning train/(2) but all his luggages/(3) was/(4) left on the station.
Directions (121-125): Select the pair of words which are related in the same way as the capitalised words are related to each other.
11. SCALES: JUSTICE: :
(1) weights: measures
(2) laws: courts
(3) torch : liberty
(4) launch: peace
12. HOBBLE: WALK: :
(1) gallop: run
(2) stammer: speak
(3) stumble: fall
(4) sniff: smell
13. FRAYED: FABRIC: :
(1) watered: lawn
(2) renovated: building
(3) thawed: ice
(4) worn : nerves
14. YOLK: EGG: :
(1) rind.: melon
(2) nucleus: cell
(3) stalk: com
(4) web : spider
15. BAMBOO: SHOOT: :
(1) bean: sprout
(2) pepper : com
(3) oak: tree
(4) holly: sprig
Directions (l26- 130) : For each of the following capitalized words. four words or phrases are given of which only one is synonymou with the given word. Select the synonym.
16. DEFER
(1) respect
(2). dislike
(3) postpone
(4). disrespect
17. DUBIOUS
(1) clear
(2). undoubtedly
(3) hesitant
(4). pmproper
18. COARSE
(1 Impolite
(2). rough
(3) polished
(4). improper
19. PROXIMI1Y
(1) nearness
(2) aloofness
(3) completely’
(4) nearly
20. ABSTAIN
(1) stay
(2) tempt
(3) refrain
(4) pardon
Directions (131- 135) : Fill in the blanks by selecting appropriate alternative.
21.1 met him only a week…..
(1) back
(2) past
(3) ago
(4) previous
22. Lovely asked me .
(1) why are you angry?
(2) why I am angry?
(3) why I was angry.
(4) why was ‘I angry?
23. Even after repeated warnings. he, …….. to office on time.
(1) never come
(2) never comes
(3) is never coming
(4) have never come
24. He lold his wife that….from Gennany.
(1) he will like to visit France
(2) he was liking to visit France
(3) he would like to visil France
(4) he is liking to Visit France
25. Some people can…..even wilh murder.
(1) get on
(2) get out
(3) get off
(4) get away
Directions (136- 140) : Choose the correct antonym from the choic¬es for each of the following capit¬alised words:
26. INDIFFERENT
(1) curious
(3) alike
(2) varied
(4) uniform
27. DISCREET
(1) wise
(3) prudent
(2) diplomatic
(4) careless
28. OBSOLETE
(1) free
(3) current
(2) . ancient
(4) cultured
29. RATIONAL
(1) sound
(3) judicious
(2) insane
(4) sensible
30. SCEPTICAL
(1) doubtful
(2) convinced
(3) questioning
(4) cynic

Answers:
1. 3
2.2
3.3
4.2
5.3
6.2
7.1
8.4
9.2
10.3
11. 1
12. 2
13. 3
14. 2
15. 4
16. 3
17. 4
18. 2
19. 1
20. 3
21. 1
22. 3
23. 2
24. 3
25. 4
26. 1
27. 4
28. 3
29. 2
30. 2