Pages

Thursday, March 31, 2011

Country’s Population Reaches 1210 Million as Per Census 2011

The population of the country as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 is 1210.19 million of which 63.72 million (51.54%) are males and 586.46 million (48.46%) are females. The provisional figures of Census 2011 were released in New Delhi today by Union Home Secretary Shri G.K.Pillai and RGI Shri C. Chandramouli.

The major highlights of the Census 2011 (Provisional figures) are as under ;-

  • The population of India has increased by more than 181 million during the decade 2001-2011.

  • Percentage growth in 2001-2011 is 17.64; males 17.19 and females 18.12.

  • 2001-2011 is the first decade (with the exception of 1911-1921) which has actually added lesser population compared to the previous decade.

  • Uttar Pradesh (199.5 million) is the most populous State in the country  followed by Maharashtra with 112 million.

  • The percentage decadal growth rates of the six most populous States have declined during 2001-2011 compared to 1991-2001:

-                      Uttar Pradesh (25.85% to 20.09%)
-                      Maharashtra (22.73% to 15.99%)
-                      Bihar (28.62% to 25.07%)
-                      West Bengal (17.77 % to 13.93%)
-                      Andhra Pradesh (14.59% to 11.10%)
-                      Madhya Pradesh (24.26% to 20.30%)

·         During 2001-2011, as many as 25 States/UTs with a share of  about 85%  of the country’s population registered an annual growth rate of less than 2% as compared to, 15 States/UTs with a share of about 42% during the period 1991-2001.

  • 15 States/UTs have grown by less than 1.5 per cent per annum during 2001-2011, while the number of such States/UTs was only 4 during the previous decade.

  • The total number of children in the age-group 0-6 is 158.8 million (-5 million since 2001)

  • Twenty States and Union Territories now have over one million children in the age group 0-6 years. On the other extreme, there are five States and Union Territories in the country that are yet to reach the one hundred thousand mark.

  • Uttar Pradesh (29.7 million), Bihar (18.6 million), Maharashtra (12.8 million), Madhya Pradesh (10.5 million) and Rajasthan (10.5 million) constitute 52% children in the age group of 0-6 years.

  • Population (0-6 years) 2001-2011 registered  minus (-)3.08 percent growth with  minus (-)2.42 for males and –3.80 for females.

  • The proportion of Child Population in the age group of 0-6 years to total population is 13.1 percent while the corresponding figure in 2001 was 15.9 percent. The decline has been to the extent of 2.8 points.

  • Overall sex ratio at the national level has increased by 7 points to reach 940 at Census 2011 as against 933 in Census 2001. This is the highest sex ratio recorded since Census 1971 and a shade lower than 1961. Increase in sex ratio is observed in 29 States/UTs.

  • Three major States (J&K, Bihar & Gujarat) have shown decline in sex ratio as compared to Census 2001.

  • Kerala with 1084 has the highest sex ratio followed by Puducherry with 1038, Daman & Diu has the lowest sex ratio of 618.

  • Child sex ratio (0-6 years) is 914. Increasing trend in the child sex ratio (0-6) seen in Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram and A&N Islands. In all remaining 27 States/UTs, the child sex ratio show decline over Census 2001.

  • Mizoram has the highest child sex ratio (0-6 years) of 971 followed by Meghalaya with 970. Haryana is at the bottom with ratio of 830 followed by Punjab with 846.

  • Literacy rate has gone up from 64.83 per cent in 2001 to 74.04 per cent in 2011 showing an increase of 9.21 percentage points.

  • Percentage growth in literacy during 2001-2011 is 38.82; males : 31.98% & females : 49.10%.

  • Literates constitute 74 per cent of the total population aged seven and above and illiterates form 26 per cent.

Wednesday, March 30, 2011

UPPSC (Pre) 2010 GENERAL STUDIES EXAM SOLVED PAPER

1. Dhuria is folkd dance of
(a) Avadh
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Purvanchal
(d) Rohelkhand
Ans. b
Explanation: Dhuria is the dance form of tribal. This dance form is very famous in Bundelkhand region

2. In which one of the following States is Suil river project located?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. d
Explanation:
Suil river project is located in Himachal Pradesh.

3. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : River Damodar was known as "River of Sorrow" in west Bengal prior to the development of the Damodar Valley Corporation.
Reason (R) : Damodar in its upper reaches flows rapidly and in its lower reaches it runs too sluggishly.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. a
Explanation:
Damodar River originates near Chandwa village, Palamau district, on the Chota Nagpur Plateau in the Jharkhand. The Chota Nagpur Plateau receives an average annual rainfall of around 1400 mm, almost all of it in the monsoon months between June and August. The huge volume of water that flows down the Damodar and its tributaries during the monsoons used to be a fury in the upper reaches of the valley but in the lower valley it used to overflow its banks and flood large areas.

4. Which State has decided to establish a University for the disabled during 2009-10?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. d
Explanation: The U.P. Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Handicapped University was established to provide higher & professional education to persons with disabilities.

5. Which one of the following is not included in the "National Food Security Missions"?
(a) Oil seeds
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Pulses
Ans. a
Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC)in its 53rd meeting held on 29th May, 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat and pulses to increase the production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by 8 million tons and pulses by 2 million tons by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12).

6. March List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
A. Kishan Maharag 1. Sarangi player
B. Hari Prasad 2. Tabla
player
C. Pt. Gopalji 3. Pakhawaj
Mishra player
D. Kudak Singh 4. Bansuri
player
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Hari Prasad- Bansuri player
Kishan Maharag -an Indian tabla player who belonged to the Benares gharana.
Pt. Gopalji Mishra- Sarangi player

7. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Alha - Bundelkhand
(b) Birha - Purvanchal
(c) Chaiti- Rohelkhand
(d) Kajri - Avadh
Ans. c
Explanation:
Chaiti is sung in the month of Chait that falls in March/April as per the Hindu calendar. This is certainly a season specific song. This season has a great importance in the largely agrarian society of Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar for this is the season of harvest.
Birha is extremely popular among the farmers and laborers in eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Even though Kajri is sung in a large region - Mirzapur is considered the real home of the Kajri.

8. Which one of the following is not a fold dance of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Charkula
(b) Dadra
(c) Karma
(d) Muria
Ans. d
Explanation:
The dances in Uttar Pradesh can be broadly classified in to two categories namely Classical and Folk. The first group comprises Kathak where as the later has Charkula, Karma and Dadra in its list.

9. Sukna scam case was recetly (first quarter of 2010) much in the news. With which State is it concerned?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Rajasthan
(d) West Bengal
Ans. d
Explanation:
Sukhna land scam case is concerned with West Bengal.The Court of Inquiry into the Sukhna land scam case, in which three other Army generals have been indicted, holds Lt General Prakash responsible for allegedly hiding information and taking undue interest in promoting the vested agenda of real estate developer and family friend Dilip Agarwal.

10. The author of the book which recently became the root cause of the controversy regarding the script of the film "Three Indiots" is
(a) Adhijat Joshi
(b) Mohammad Khalid
(c) Chetan Bhagat
(d) Rajkumar Hirani
Ans. c

11. Consider the following statements:
1. The crop insurance scheme in India was started in the year 1985.
2. The total number of agroclimatic zone in U.P. is 9.
3. Food for work programme was started in the year 1977.
4. Blue resolution is concerned with production of mustard.
Of these statements:
(a) only 1 and 2 are correct
(b) only 2 and 3 are correct
(c) only 3 and 4 are correct
(d) only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. d
Explanation:
Since Independence, India has witnessed
significant increase in foodgrain production (green revolution), oilseeds (yellow revolution), milk (white revolution), fish (blue revolution), and fruits and vegetables (golden revolution).

12. In which year the Government of India included ten new tribes of Uttar Pradesh as Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 2004 (b) 2003
(c) 2002 (d) 2001
Ans. b
Explanation:
In 2003, the Government of India included ten new tribes of Uttar Pradesh as Scheduled Tribes.

13. In Uttar Pradesh, which one of the following districts has the largest population of Scheduled Tribes?
(a) Sonebhadra
(b) Mirzapur
(c) Kheri
(d) Bijnore
Ans. c
Explanation: District wise distribution of ST population shows that Kheri district has the highest proportion of STs (1.2 per cent), followed by Balrampur (1.1 per
cent).

14. How many nations were members of the BASIC Block at the December 2009 Copenhangen Meet?
(a) Five (b) Four
(c) Three (d) Two
Ans. b
Explanation: The BASIC countries (also Basic countries, BASIC or G4) are a bloc of four large developing countries – Brazil, South Africa, India and China – formed by an agreement on 28 November 2009. The four committed to act jointly at the Copenhagen climate summit, including a possible united walk-out if their common minimum position was not met by the developed nations.

15. The Rangnath Mishra Commission report which was tabled in the Parliament in December 2009, relates to
(a) Electoral reforms
(b) Police reforms
(c) Religious and Linguistic Minorities
(d) Tax reforms
Ans. c
Explanation: Ranganath Mishra Commission is an enquiry commission assigned by Government of India to study and find solution for the minority status of India. The report was conducted by National Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities.
Main Findings
*15% of jobs in government services and seats in educational institutions for minorities
*reserves 8.4% out of existing OBC quota of 27% for minorities
*SC reservation to Dalit converts[1]

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
(Name of (The writing
Film) inspiring the
film)
A. 3 Idiods 1. Pygmalion
B. Slum dog 2. Five Point some
Millionaire one
C. Junoon 3. Q and A
d. My Fair Lady 4. A Flight Pigeons

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. d

17. Who has written the book "The Rediscovery of India" published around November 2009?
(a) Ram Chandra Guha
(b) Meghnad Desai
(c) Arun Shourie
(d) Mohan Bhagwat
Ans. b
Explanation: book "The Rediscovery of India"- Meghnad Desai

18. Which country lunched the World's first satellite dedicated to monitoring "greenhouse gas emissions" in 2009?
(a) Japan (b) Brazil
(c) India (d) U.S.A.
Ans. a
Explanation: The first satellite dedicated to monitoring carbon dioxide emissions was launched into space from a center in Japan. The satellite -- named "Ibuki," which means "breath" -- was sent into orbit along with seven other piggyback probes on a Japanese H2A rocket. Japan's space agency-JAXA

19. "Project Arrow" is concerned with the modernisation of which of the following?
(a) Airports
(b) Post offices
(c) Road Transport
(d) Railways
Ans. b
Explanation: The department of posts (DoP) launched ‘Project Arrow’, an initiative to transform India Post into a vibrant and responsive organization and to make a visible and positive difference in postal operations to benefit the customers, informed a senior department official.

20. During Prime Minister Man Mohan Singh's visit to Russia in December 2009, India and Russia signed an agreement mainly relating to
(a) Civil nuclear cooperation
(b) Climate change
(c) Cooperation in agriculture sector
(d) Cooperation in science and technology sector
Ans. a
Explanation: Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh inked six major defense and nuclear deals including a crucial agreement on the use and cooperation of atomic energy during his three-day Russia visit.

21. The city which has been selected by a famous International magazine "Travel and Leisure" in its survey 2009 as the best city from tourism point of view in the world is
(a) Udaipur (b) Hongkong
(c) Singapore (d) Dubai
Ans. a
Explanation: Udaipur has been named the World's Best City in a poll by Travel and Leisure magazine. The Rajasthani city is the first South Asian hotspot to get the prestigious title. New York has been voted the 'Best City in America', for the ninth year in a row.
22. Football World Cup 2010 will be held in
(a) Britain (b) Germany
(c) Portugal (d) South Africa
Ans. d
Explanation: The 2010 FIFA World Cup will be the 19th FIFA World Cup, the premier international football tournament. It is scheduled to take place between 11 June and 11 July 2010 in South Africa. This will be the first time that the tournament has been hosted by an African nation, after South Africa beat Morocco and Egypt in an all-African bidding process.

23. How many seats BSP won in the elections to the U.P. Legislative Council held in January 2010?
(a) 31 (b) 32
(c) 33 (d) 34
Ans. d
Explanation: BSP has swept Legislative Council elections held for 36 seats, winning 33 seats.

24. The Indian citizen who has been honoured with Ramon Magasaysay award for the year 2009 is
(a) Bhimsen Joshi
(b) Deep Joshi
(c) Indira Sinha
(d) Pankaj Srivastava
Ans. b
Explanation: Deep Joshi is an Indian social worker and NGO activist and the recipient of 2009 Magsaysay awards announced. He was recognised for his vision and leadership in bringing professionalism to the NGO movement in India. He co-founded a non-profit organisation, Professional Assistance for Development Action (PRADAN) of which he is the Executive Director. He was awarded the 2009 Magsaysay award for Community Leadership for his work for "development of rural communities".

25. At the 56th National Film Awards for 2008 the best feature film award was bagged by
(a) Antaheen (b) Fashion
(c) Jogeva (d) Rock on
Ans. a
Explanation: BEST FEATURE FILM: Antaheen (Bengali)-Director : Aniruddha Roy Chowdhury; “For lyrical blend of technical devices in the right proportion to depict shifting human relationships in an urban scenario”.

26. Commonwealth Games are scheduled to take place in New Delhi, India in 2010. Which location has been chosen for the next Commonwealth Games in 2014?
(a)Brisbane - Australia
(b) Victorai - Canada
(c) Auckland - New Zealand
(d) Glasgow - Scotland
Ans. d
Explanation: The 20th Commonwealth Games in 2014 will be held in Glasgow, the largest city in Scotland. It will be the largest multi-sport event ever held in Scotland, although the country previously hosted the Games in 1970 and 1986 in Edinburgh.

27. Suresh Kalmadi has been elected Chairman of the 'Asian Athletic Association' on November 9th 2009 for the
(a) 2nd term (b) 3srd term
(c) 4th term (d) 5th term
Ans.
Explanation: The Asian Athletics Association is the Asian governing body for the sport of athletics. It is headquartered in Singapore. It organises the Asian Championships in Athletics and other continental competitions.Suresh Kalmadi of India is the current president. He was first elected to the position in 2000 and was re-elected for a third time in 2009.

28. ICC announced a list of 55 Cricket players in 2009 to be included in its inaugural "Hall of Fame" list.
Identify from the following cricketers who was not included in the list.
(a) Kapil Dev
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Sunil Gavaskar
(d) Bishan Singh Bedi
Ans. b
Explanation: Indian cricketers in list- Bishan Singh Bedi, Kapil Dev, Kapil Dev

29. 2016 Olympic Games will be held at
(a) Chicago
(b) Madrid
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) Tokyo
Ans. c
Explanation: Rio de Janeiro has been chosen as the venue for the 2016 Olympic Games. This is the first time the Olympics are being held in a South American country. Rio de Janeiro beat Tokyo and Chicago among other cities to successfully bid for the hosting.


30. The mascot of the 19th Common-Wealth Games, to be held in 2010 in New Delhi is
(a) Bhaloo (b) Cheetah
(c) Chital (d) Shera
Ans. d
Explanation: Shera, mascot of the XIX Commonwealth Games 2010 Delhi, is the most visible face of the XIX Commonwealth Games 2010 Delhi. His name comes from the Hindi word Sher – meaning tiger.

31. The 'Man of the Series' in the triangular series of the Idea Cup 2010 concluded on 13th January, 2010 is
(a) M.S. Dhoni
(b) Kumar Sangakkara
(c) Virat Kohli
(d) Virender Sehwag
Ans. b
Explanation:
The 'Man of the Series' in the triangular series of the Idea Cup 2010 concluded on 13th January, 2010 is Kumar Sangakkara.

32. The atmosphere exerts enormous pressure on us. But, we do not feel it because
(a) our blood exerts a pressure slightly more than that of the atmosphere.
(b) We are used to it
(c) our bones are very strong and can withstand the pressure.
(d) the surface area of our head is very small.
Ans. a
Explanation:
The atmosphere exerts enormous pressure on us. But, we do not feel it because our blood exerts a pressure slightly more than that of the atmosphere.

33. In which of the following industries is mica used as a raw material?
(a) Iron and Steel
(b) Toys
(c) Glass and Pottery
(d) Electrical
Ans. d
Explanation: Mica has a high dielectric strength and excellent chemical stability, making it a favoured material for manufacturing capacitors for radio frequency applications. It has also been used as an insulator in high voltage electrical equipment, and between the bars of commutators in Direct Current motors and generators.

34. The micro-organism which is associated with the production of Bt cotton is a
(a) Fungus
(b) Bacterium
(c) Blue green Alga
(d) Virus
Ans. b
Explanation: Mahyco (Maharashtra Hybrid Seed Company), in collaboration with Monsanto, has introduced Bt cotton technology into India. Bt cotton carries the Cry1Ac gene derived from the common soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis var. kurstaki, which results in the expression of the Cry1Ac protein that confers resistance to insect pests—notably Helicoverpa armigera, commonly referred to as American Bollworm.

35. Which of the following leguminous plant is also a petro-plant?
(a) Pigeon-pea (b) Pea
(c) Gram (d) Pongam
Ans. d
Explanation: Pongamia pinnata is a deciduous legume tree and used for anti-inflammatory, anti-plasmodial, anti-nonciceptive, anti-hyperglycaemic, anti-lipidperoxidative, anti-diarrhoeal, anti-ulcer, anti-hyperammonic and antioxidant. Its oil is a source of biodiesel. It has also alternative source of energy, which is renewable, safe and non-pollutant.

36. If an apple is releasted from an orbiting spaceship, it will
(a) fall towards the Earth
(b) move at a lower speed
(c) move along with the spaceship at the same speed
(d) move at a higher speed
Ans. c
Explanation:
If an apple is releasted from an orbiting spaceship, it will move along with the spaceship at the same speed.

37. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Space Based Solar Poser (SBSP), it is suggested be made a national goal.
Reason (R) : Supply of SBSP is 99% uninterrupted throughout the year, besides the enormity of energy availability.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. a(?)
Explanation:
Space-based solar power (SBSP) is a system for the collection of solar power in space, for use on Earth. SBSP differs from the usual method of solar power collection in that the solar panels used to collect the energy would reside on a satellite in orbit, often referred to as a solar power satellite (SPS), rather than on Earth's surface. In space, collection of the Sun's energy is unaffected by the various obstructions which reduce efficiency or capacities of Earth surface solar power collection.

38. Computer virus is a
(a) fungus
(b) bacterium
(c) IC 7344
(d) Software program
Ans. d
Explanation: A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer. The term "virus" is also commonly but erroneously used to refer to other types of malware, adware, and spyware programs that do not have the reproductive ability.

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
A. Arithant 1. American Cryogenic Rocket
B. Awacs 2. Anti tank missile
C. Atlas 3. Israel developed
Centaur Falcon for Air
Force
D. Nag 4. Atomic submarine
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. b
Explanation:
The Atlas-Centaur was an American expendable launch system derived from the SM-65 Atlas missile. It was the first rocket to use cryogenic fuel; the Centaur stage burned liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen.
India’s first nuclear-powered submarine INS Arihant , becoming only the sixth country in the world to do so.

40. Salk's vacine is connected with which one of the following diseases?
(a) Small pox (b) Tetanus
(c) T.B. (d) Polio
Ans. d
Explanation: The Salk vaccine, or inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV), is based on three wild, virulent reference strains, type 1 poliovirus, type 2 poliovirus, and type 3 poliovirus The injected Salk vaccine confers IgG-mediated immunity in the bloodstream, which prevents polio infection.

41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
(Disease) (Cause)
A. Marasmus 1. Prolonged
Starvation
B. Kwashiorkor 2. Protein
Deficiency
C. T.B. 3. Bacterial
Infection
D. Hepatitis B 4. Viral Infection

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
Marasmus is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition characterized by energy deficiency. Kwashiorkor (pronounced /kwɑːʃiˈɔrkər/) is an acute form of childhood protein-energy malnutrition characterized by edema, irritability, anorexia, ulcerating dermatoses, and an enlarged liver with fatty infiltrates. Kwashiorkor was thought to be caused by insufficient protein consumption but with sufficient calorie intake, distinguishing it from marasmus.

42. Which one of the following is not property matched?
(a) Gene splicing & recombinant DNA technology —Genetic Engineering

(b) A diagnostic test to detect the presence or absence or genetic disorders in unborn child - Amniocentesis

(c) A process by which living organisms break down complex matter into simpler constitutents - Biodegradation

(d) An inbuilt time- keeping system in all organisms
- Bio-mass
Ans. d

43. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): If Ice collects on the freeze the cooling in the refrigerator is affected adversely.
Reason (R) : Ice is a poor conductor.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans. b
Explanation:
Early freezer units accumulated ice crystals around the freezing units. This was a result of humidity introduced into the units when the doors to the freezer were opened. This frost buildup required periodic thawing ("defrosting") of the units to maintain their efficiency.

44. What type of electromagnetic radiation is used in the remote control of a television
(a) infrared
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) Visible
(d) None of these
Ans. a
Explanation: Most of electronic remotes communicate to their respective devices via infrared (IR) signals and a few via radio signals. Television IR signals can be mimicked by a universal remote, which is able to emulate the functionality of most major brand television remote controls.

45. Which one of the following statements is not true for a person suffering from hypermetropia?
(a) The person can see far objects distinctly.
(b) The focal length of the lens is large.
(c) The image of the close objects is focussed behind the retina.
(d) A concave lens is used to correct this defect.
Ans. d
Explanation:
Also called far-sightedness, or far-sighted. Rays of light reflected off objects in front of the eye are focused behind the retina. hypermetropia caused by an imperfection in the eye (often when the eyeball is too short or The focal length of the lens is large). It may be corrected with convex lenses in eyeglasses.

46. "Endoscope" used by Doctors for examining the inside of the patient's stomach, works on the principle of
(a) reflection of light
(b) dispersion of light
(c) total internal reflection of light
(d) refraction of light
Ans. c
Explanation: "Endoscope" used by Doctors for examining the inside of the patient's stomach, works on the principle of total internal reflection of light

47. An enzyme which helps in the digestion of protein is
(a) urease (b) sulfatase
(c) trypsin (d) protease
Ans. d (most correct answer)
Explanation: Trypsin is a serine protease found in the digestive system of many vertebrates, where it hydrolyses proteins.
A protease is any enzyme that conducts proteolysis, that is, begins protein catabolism by hydrolysis of the peptide bonds that link amino acids together in the polypeptide chain forming the protein.

48. Methane is present in the atmosphere of
(a) Moon (b) Sun
(c) Jupiter (d) Mars
Ans. c
Explanation:
Surface of Jupiter is made up of many gases like hydrogen, Helium and methan.

49. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
(a) controlled fusion reaction
(b) uncontrolled fusion reaction
(c) controlled fission reaction
(d) uncontrolled fission reaction
Ans. a
Explanation: Hydrogen bomb, a thermonuclear weapon is based on the principle of uncontrolled fusion reaction.

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Naturally (Elements present)
occurring
substance)
A. Diamond 1. Calcium
B. Marble 2. Silicon
C. Sand 3. Aluminum
D. Ruby 4. Carbon

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. d

51. Which one of the following compounds is used as a sedative?
(a) Potassium bromide
(b) Calcium chloride
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Phosphorus trichloride
Ans. a
Explanation: Potassium bromide (KBr) is a salt, widely used as an anticonvulsant and a sedative in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Its action is due to the bromide ion (sodium bromide is equally effective). Potassium bromide is presently used as a veterinary drug, as an antiepileptic medication for dogs and cats.

52. The hypo solution used in photography is the aqueous solution of
(a) Sodium thiosulphate
(b) Sodium tetrahionate
(c) Sodium sulphate
(d) ammonium per sulphate
Ans. a
Explanation: The hypo solution used in photography is the aqueous solution of Sodium thiosulphate. It is used as an antidote to cyanide poisoning. It is also widely used in rural area as a topical antifungal agent for tinea versicolor.

53. Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles leads to fatigue?
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Uric acid
Ans. a
Explanation:
. Accumulation of Lactic acid in the muscles leads to fatigue.

54. Which one of the following had supported the non-cooperation movement, but could not see its upshots?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Chitranjan Das
Ans. a
Explanation:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak had supported the non-cooperation movement, but could not see its upshots. Bal Gangadhar Tilay Gandhijee.k passed away on 1 Aug 1920. His place was soon taken.

55. Which of the following is a substance abundantaly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease?
(a) Iron (b) Vitamin A
(c) Fluorine (d) Iodine
Ans. d
Explanation:
Iodine is a substance abundantaly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease.

56. In countries where polished rice is the mean cereal in their diet, people suffer from
(a) Pellagra (b) beri-beri
(c) scurvy (d) osteomalacia
Ans. b
Explanation:
In countries where polished rice is the mean cereal in their diet, people suffer from beri beri because polices rice is deficient in water soluble vitamins specially vitamin B1.

57. Which one of the following silver salts is used for producing artificial rains?
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Silver nitrate
(d) Silver iodide
Ans. d
Explanation:
Silver iodide and dry ice are used for producing artificial rains

58. With which one of the following movements was Aruna Asaf Ali associated?
(a) Khilafat Movement
(b) Non Cooperative Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
Ans. d
Explanation:
Aruna went to prision during the 1930 and 1932 Civil Disobedience Movement and in 1040 in connection with Gandhijee’s call for Individual Satyagraha. She was elected the first mayer of Delhi in 1958.

59 The official historian of India's struggle for independence was
(a) R.C. Majumdar
(b) Tarachand
(c) V.D. Savarkar
(d) S.N. Sen
Ans. d (?)
Explanation:
The official historian of India's struggle for independence was Tarachand.

60. Who among the following was not associated with the Home Rule Movement?
(a) C.R. Das
(b) S. Subramaniya Iyer
(c) Annie Besant
(d) B. G. Tilak
Ans. a
Explanation:
Two Home Rule Leagues were started in 1915-16, one under leadership of Lokamanya Tilak and the other under the leadership of Annie Besant and S. Subramaniya.

61. Read the following events connected with Indian National Movement and find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below:
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Wavell Offer
Code:
(a) 1,3,4,2 (b) 1,2,3,4
(c) 1,3,2,4 (d) 4,3,2,1
Ans. a
Explanation:
Cripps Mission- In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripes was sent to India with Constitutional proposal to seek Indian supportfor the war.
Quit India Movement- After Cripps departure, Gandhi framed a resolution calling for British withdrawal and a non violent non cooperative movement against any Japanese invasion. The CWC meeting at Wardha July 14, 1942 accepted the idea for struggle.
Wavell Offer- The idea was to reconstruct the governor general’s executive council pending the the preparation of a new constitution.For this porosr, a conference was convened by The viceriy, Lord Wavell, at Simla in June 1945.
Cabinet Mission Plan- The Atttlee Government in Feb 1946 the decision to send a high powered mission of three British Cabinet members to India to find out the ways and means for a regociated, peacefull tranfer of power to India.

62. Given below are two statements labelled as:
Assertion(A): The Congress boycotted the Simon Commission.
Reason(R): The Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. a
Explanation:
Simon Commission came in 1928 to explore possibility of further constitutional advance and bycotted by Indians because no indians represented in Commission.

63. Who out of the following had told "Destruction is the best method of dealing with the foreign clothes?
(a) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Chitranjan Das
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Ans. b
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi had told "Destruction is the best method of dealing with the foreign clothes.

64. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) larry Collins - Freedom at
and Dominique Midnight
Lapierre
(b) Durga Das - India from
Curzon to
Nehru and
After
(c) K.K. Aziz - The Man
Who Divided
India
(d) Maulana Abul - India Wins
Kalam Azad Freedom
Ans.
Explanation: c
THE MAN WHO DIVIDED INDIA — An Insight into Jinnah's Leadership and its Aftermath: Rafiq Zakaria

65. Where was Mahatma Gandhi when a raid was made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt Depot?
(a) In Yervada Jail
(b) In Sabarmati Jail
(c) In Agha Khan Palace Poona
(d) In Ahmadnagar Fort Jail
Ans. a
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi was in Yervada Jail when a raid was made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt Depot. On May 1930, Sarojini Naidu, Imam Sahib and Manilal took up the unfnished task of leading a raid on Dharsana Salt Depot.

66. Match the peasants revolts of the 19th century with their respective areas
(a) Kuki revolt 1. Punjab
(b) Kuka revolt 2. Bengal
(c) Pabna Peasant revolt 3. Bihar
(d) Birsa Munda revolt 4. Tripura
Choose your answer with the help of given code:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Kuki revolt-------------------Tripura
Kuka revolt------------------ Punjab
Pabna Peasant revolt------- Bengal
Birsa Munda revolt----------- Bihar

67. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Jhansi 1. Moulavi Ahmad
Shah
B. Lucknow 2. Azimullah Khan
C. Kanpur 3. Begum Hazrat
Mahal
D. Faizabad 4. Rani Laxmi Bai
Codes:
A B C C
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. a
Explanation:
Jhansi- Rani Laxmi Bai
Lucknow- Begum Hazrat Mahal
Kanpur- Azimullah Khan
Faizabad-Moulavi Ahmad Shah

68. The entry of woman as a bhikshuni into the Buddhist Sangha was allowed by Gautam Buddha at
(a) Sravasti (b) Vaisali
(c) Rajagriha (d) Kushinagar
Ans. b
Explanation:
The entry of woman as a bhikshuni into the Buddhist Sangha was allowed by Gautam Buddha at Vaisali. Buddha gave women permission to join the order at Vaisali after acceptance of the eight gurudhamma-eight important rules by his foster-mother Mahapajapati Gotami, who became the first ordained bhikkhuni.

69. Choose the correct pair
(a) Ellora Caves - Saka
(b) Mahabalipuram - Rashtrakutas
(c) Meenakshi Temple- pallavas
(d) Khajuraho - Chandellas
Ans. d
Explanation:
Ellora is an archaeological site, 30 km (19 mi) from the city of Aurangabad in the Indian state of Maharashtra built by the Rashtrakuta rulers.
Mahabalipuram is a town in Kancheepuram district in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Mahabalipuram was a 7th century port city of the South Indian dynasty of the Pallavas.
Meenakshi Temple is an historic Hindu temple located in the holy city of Madurai, Tamil Nadu, India. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva and his consort, Goddess Parvati. Meenakshi temple were built during the Nayak rule.

70. Budha is depicted on the coins of
(a) Wima Kadphises
(b) Kanishka
(c) Nahapana
(d) Budh Gupta
Ans. b
Explanation:
Budha is depicted on the coins of Kanishka. Several of The Buddhist coins of Kanishka display Kanishka himself on the obverse, and the Buddha standing on the reverse.

71. Put the following events in chronological order and choose your answer with the help of given code:
A. Formation of an interim Government
B. The arrival of the Cabinet Mission
C. Muslim League launches Direct Action
D. Jinnah's wrecking of the Shimla Conference
Codes:
(a) B D C A (b) D B C A
(c) A B D C (d) D B A C
Ans. a
Explanation:
The arrival of the Cabinet Mission
Jinnah's wrecking of the Shimla Conference
Muslim League launches Direct Action
Formation of an interim Government

72. In which of the follwing movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger strike as a weapon?
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(c) Ahmedabad Strike
(d) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. c
Explanation:
Ahmedabad Strike- first use of hunger strike as a weapon. Gandhi intervened in a dispute between mill owners of Ahmedabad and workers over the issue of discontinuation of the plague bonus. Gandhi asked the workers to go a strike and demand a 35% increase in wage.

73. Mention of which of the following rivers in the Rigveda suggests the Aryan's connection with Afghanistan?
(a) Asikni
(b) Parushni
(c) Kubha, Kramu
(d) Vipas, Sutudri
Ans. c
Explanation:
Rigvedic aryans were wll aquainted with region of Afghanistan. Rigveda mentions Afghanistan’s rivers Kubha, Kramu, Gomati and Suvasti.

74. The city plan of ancient Shravasti is in the shape
(a) Circular
(b) Crescentic
(c) Triangular
(d) Rectangular
Ans. d(?)
Explanation:
The city plan of ancient Shravasti is in the shape rectangular.

75. Where is the wild ass sasnctuary?
(a) U.P. (b) Assam
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan
Ans. c
Explanation:
Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary also known as the Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Little Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat state of India.

76. Kissan Bahi Yojana was started in Uttar Pradesh in
(a) 1970 (b) 1975
(c) 1990 (d) 1992
Ans. d
Explanation:
Kissan Bahi Yojana was started in Uttar Pradesh in 1992.

77. Yapaniya was a school of
(a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
(c) Saivism (d) Vaisnavism
Ans. b
Explanation:
Yapaniya was a Jain order in western Karnataka which is now extinct.

78. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of "Param Bhagawata" was
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II
(d) Srigupta
Ans. c
Explanation:
Chandragupta II was described as Param Bhagwata.

79. Panini and Patanjali are the renowned names in the literary history of ancient India. Under which dynasty did they flourish?
(a) Pushyabhukti (b) Kushanas
(c) Sungas (d) Guptas
Ans. c
Explanation:
Patañjali is the compiler of the Yoga Sutras, an important collection of aphorisms on Yoga practice, and also the author of the Mahābhāṣya, a major commentary on Pāṇini's Ashtadhyayi. Panini and Patanjali flourished Under Sungas dynasty.

80. The great Jain Scholar Hemachandra adorned the court of
(a) Amoghavarsha
(b) Kumarapala
(c) Jaysimha Siddharaja
(d) Vidyadhara
Ans. b
Explanation:
He was born in Dhandhuka, Gujarat. At the time, Gujarat was ruled by the Solanki dynasty. Hemachandra rose to prominence under the reign of Siddharaj Jaysinh I, and was an advisor to his successor Kumarapala (1143–1173). During Kumarapala's reign, Gujarat became a reputed center of culture.

81. The three age system - Stone,Bronze and Iron from the collection of Copenhagen museum was coined by
(a) Thomson (b) Lubbock
(c) Taylor (d) Childe
Ans. a
Explanation:
The three-age system is the periodization of human prehistory into three consecutive time periods, named for their respective predominant tool-making technologies:The Stone Age,The Bronze Age,The Iron Age. Its formal introduction is attributed to the Danish archaeologist Christian Jürgensen Thomsen in the 1820s in order to classify artifacts in the collection which later became the National Museum of Copenhagen, Denmark.

82. Which musical instrument was played by the Mughal Emperor Aurganzeb?
(a) Sitar
(b) Pakhawaj
(c) Veena
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Explanation:
Mughal Emperor Aurganzeb was an accomplished veena player.The largest number of books on classical Indian music in Persian were written during Aurganzeb’s reign.

83. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Babar - Battle of Khanwa
(b) Humayun - Battle of Chausa
(c) Akbar - Battle of Haldighati
(d) Jahangir - Battle of Balkh
Ans. d
Explanation:
The Battle of Khanwa was the second in a series of three major battles, victories in which gave Zahir ud-Din Babur overlordship over North India.
When Humayun turned his attention from the east Sherkhan attacked him at a place called Chausa. In this battle of Chausa in 1539, Humayun was defeated and he escaped to Agra.
The Battle of Haldighati was fought between the Mughal Empire and the forces of Mewar on June 21, 1576 at Haldighati in Rajasthan, India.It was a decisive victory for the Mughal Emperor Jalal ud-Din Muhammad Akbar's general Raja Maan Singh against the Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar

84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
(Monuments) (Builders)
A. Alai Darwaja, 1. Alauddin
Delhi Khalji
B. Buland Darwaja 2. Akbar
Fatehpur Sikri
C. Moti Masjid, Agra 3. Shahjahan
D. Moti Masjid, Delhi 4. Aurangzeb
Codes:
A B C C
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. a
Explanation:
The Alai Darwaza is a magnificent gateway built by Ala-ud-din Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate.
The Buland Darwaza is a grand gateway located in Fatehpur Sikri near Agra. This triumphal arch was built by the Mughal Emperor Akbar, when he defeated the king of Khandesh or Gujarat in 1573.
The Moti Masjid in Agra was built by Shah Jahan. During the rule of Shah Jahan. Moti Masjid's architectural features are quite similar to that of the Saint Basil's Cathedral in Moscow.
The Moti Masjid is a large white marble mosque built by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb at the Red Fort complex in Delhi, India,

85. In U.P. the first 'Biotechnology Park' was established at
(a) Lucknow (b) Noida
(c) Agra (d) Kanpur
Ans. a
Explanation:
In U.P. the first 'Biotechnology Park' was established at Lucknow.

86. Who had composed the 'Gita Govinda'?
(a) Dhoyi
(b) Govardhanacharya
(c) Jayadeva
(d) Lakshmana Sen
Ans. c
Explanation:
The Gita Govinda (Sanskrit गीत गोविन्द) (Song of Govinda) is a work composed by the 12th-century poet, Jayadeva, who was born in Kenduli Sasan near Puri in Orissa. This work has been of great importance in the development of the bhakti traditions of Hinduism.

87. Which medieval King of India introduced the "Iqkta system"?
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
Explanation:
In the Islāmic empire of the Caliphate, land granted to army officials for limited periods in lieu of a regular wage. The iqṭāʿ system was established in the 9th century ad to relieve the state treasury when insufficient tax revenue and little booty from campaigns made it difficult for the government to pay army salaries. Iltutmish King of India introduced the "Iqkta system" in India.

88. Jain temple of Abu is made of
(a) Sandstone (b) Lime Stone
(c) Granite (d) marble
Ans. d
Explanation:
Jain Temple of Abu is one of the finest Jain temple known world over for its extraordinary architecture and marvelous marble stone carvings.

89. Which among the following organisations supportecd the Suddhi movement?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahma Samaj
(c) Deva Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Ans. a
Explanation:
The Arya Samajis were threatened with the invention of a mode of conversion and wanted to present themselves as the protectors of the entire Hindu community. In this regard the Suddhi Movement started.

90. The institution of local self government got a fillip during the Viceroyalty os
(a) Lord Mayo
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Dufferin
(d) Lord Curzon
Ans. b
Explanation:
In the late 19th century, the British Government initiated the concept of Local Self Government. When Lord Ripon became the Viceroy of India and provided notable contribution to the development of Local Government in the country. Lord Ripon is considered to be the founding father of urban local government.

91. With which Uprising is Mangal Pandey associated?
(a) Barrackpur
(b) Meerut
(c) Delhi
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
Explanation:
Even before the outbreak at Meerut, Mangal Pande had become a martyr at Barrackpore.

92. With one of the following is correctly matched?
A. Khuldabad- Tomb of Shaikh
Salim Chisti
B. Fatehpur Tomb of Itimad-
Sikri ud-Daula
c. Agra Tomb of
Aurangzeb
d. Delhi Tomb of Abdur- Rahim Khan-i- khanan
Ans. d
Explanation:
The tomb of Shaikh Salim was originally built with red sandstone but later converted into a beautiful marble mausoleum. The mausoleum was built by Akbar as a mark of his respect and reverence for the saint. Tomb of Sheikh Salim Chishti is located within the Jama Masjid complex of Fatehpur Sikri, U.P..
Aurangzeb's tomb at Khultabad in Aurangabad at Mahrashtra state.
Itmad-ud-Daula's is a Mughal mausoleum in the city of Agra in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh.

93. The Kirtistambha at Chittor was built by
(a) Rana Sanga
(b) Rana Kumbha
(c) Rana Pratap
(d) Rajna Udai Singh
Ans. b ( most correct answer)
Explanation:
The Kirtistambha at Chittor was built by Rana Kumbha(?).Kirti Stambh or "Tower of Fame" is situated at Chittorgarh fort in Rajasthan, India. The 22 metre high tower was built by a Bagherwal Jain merchant Jijaji Kathod in 12th century.Vijay Stambha or "Tower of Victory" is an imposing structure located in Chittorgarh fort in Rajasthan, India. It was constructed by Mewar king Rana Kumbha between 1442 AD and 1449 AD to commemorate his victory over the combined armies of Malwa and Gujarat led by Mahmud Khilji .

94. Who among the following rulers is famous as "Prithvi Raj Chauhan"?
(a) Prithvi Raj I
(b) Prithvi Raj II
(c) Prithvi Raj III
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Explanation:
Prithvi Raj III, commonly known as Prithvi Raj Chauhan, who ruled the kingdom of Ajmer and Delhi in northern India during the latter half of the 12th century.

95. Arrange the following million cities of Uttar Pradesh in ascending order of their population size.
1. Agra 2. Allahabad
3. Meerut 4. Lucknow
use the code given below to select the correct answer.
(a) 1,3,2,4 (b) 4,2,1,3
(c) 2,1,4,3 (d) 2,3,1,4
Ans. d
Explanation: million cities of Uttar Pradesh in descending order of their population size.
1. Kanpur
2. Lucknow
3. Agra
4. Ghaziabad
5. Meerut
6. Varanasi
7. Allahabad

96. The author of the book "India Divided" was
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Narendra Deva
(d) Asaf Ali
Ans. b
Explanation:
The author of the book "India Divided" was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
(Authors) (Works)
A. Bankim Chandra 1. Anand Math
Chatterji
B. Michael 2. Captive Lady
madhusudan Das
C. Ravindra Nath 3. Gora
Tagore
D. Sarojini Naidu 4. The Broken Wing
Codes:
A B C C
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans. a
Explanation:
Anand Math- is a Bengali novel, written by Bankim Chandra Chatterji.
The Broken Wing- Sarojini Naidu
Gora- Ravindra NathTagore

98. In which of the Indian Provinces the first Communist Government was established?
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Andra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Ans. c
Explanation:
The first communist government assumed power in Kerala in 1957, after winning a majority in the state elections. Thus the EMS Namboodiripad government of 1957 set a a new example not only for the communist parties of other Indian states but also of the rest of the world to emulate.

99. Which one of the following biosphere reserves is not ioncluded ion the list of world network of biosphere reserves of UNESCO?
(a) Simlipal
(b) Sunderban
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Nilgiri
Ans. a (most correct answer)
Explanation:
• Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
• Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
• Sundarbans national park
• Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
• Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve
• Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
• Simlipal Biosphere Reserve
The last three are among the 22 new sites recently added by UNESCO to its World Network of Biosphere Reserves. Their inclusion raises the number of Indian sites on the World list to seven, from a total of 15 Biosphere Reserves across the subcontinent. Recently India has added one more area as bsr namely cold desert of Himachal Pradesh taking the total count to 16.

100. As per Census 2001, the class I cities of India claim a share of the total urban population of
(a) 40.40% (b) 56.50%
(c) 65.20% (d) 62.32%
Ans. c
Explanation:
As per Census 2001, the class I cities of India claim a share of the total urban population of 65.20%.
Note- As per Census 2001, Urban population as percentage to total population=27.82
As per Census 2001, the class I cities of India claim 178 millions population.

101. Which megacity of India generates the largest solid waste per capital annually?
(a) Bangalore (b) Chennai
(c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
Ans. d
Explanation:
Mumbai generates the largest solid waste per capital annually.

102. Today the largest contributor to carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions is
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
Ans. a
Explanation:
China Overtakes U.S. as No. 1 Emitter of Carbon Dioxide.

103. Which one of the following is the most important factor responsible for decline of bio-diversity?
(a) Genetic assimilation
(b) Controlling predators
(c) Destruction of habitat
(d) Controlling pests
Ans. c
Explanation:
Destruction of habitat following is the most important factor responsible for decline of bio-diversity.

104. Which one of the following States of India has the highest rural literacy rate?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Manipur
(c) Goa (d) Gujarat
Ans. c

105. The minimum percentage of population below the poverty limit is recorded in
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Goa
Ans. a

106. Jhooming is practised by
(a) The Bhotias
(b) The Khasis
(c) The Santhals
(d) The Todas
Ans. b
Explanation:
Jhum cultivation or shifting agriculture used to be practiced by the tribal groups in the north-eastern states of India like Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland. This system often involves clearing of a piece of land followed by several years of wood harvesting or farming until the soil loses fertility. The Khasis inhabit the eastern part of Meghalaya and practice Jhum cultivation.

107. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : Madhya Pradesh is called the Ethiopia of India
Reason (R) : Its hallmarks are excessive infantile mortality and malnutrition.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans. a
Explanation:
Madhya Pradesh seems to have emerged as the poverty bowl of the Asian region. It has not only surpassed its neighbouring states like Chhattisgarh, but has outdone even Ethiopia in terms of hunger, according to the Planning Commission.

108. The UNESCO has given international recognition to
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere
(b) Nanda Devi Biosphere
(c) Manas Biosphere
(d) Simlipal Biosphere
Select the correct answer from the following code:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans. a
Explanation:
The UNESCO has given international recognition to Nilgiri Biosphere and Nanda Devi Biosphere.

109. Which one of the following lakes has been recently included under National Lake Conservation Project?
(a) Bhimtal (b) Pulicat
(c) Ooty (d) Sambhar
Ans. a
Explanation:
The Ministry of Environment & Forests, Government of India has initiated a Centrally Sponsored Scheme called the National Lake Conservation Plan (NLCP), since June, 2001, on 70:30 cost sharing basis between the Central Government and the respective State Government, with the objective of restoring and conserving the polluted and degraded lakes in urban and semi urban areas in the country. Bhimtal has been recently included under National Lake Conservation Project.

110. The population of U.P. exceeds that of
1. Bangladesh 2. Brazil
3. Pakistan 4. Indonesia
Select the correct answer from the following code:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans. b (most correct answer)
Explanation:
1. Bangladesh-156 millions
2. Brazil-198 millions
3. Pakistan-176 millions
4. Indonesia-240 millions
UP-166 millions

111. If interest payment is added to primary deficit, it is equivalent to
(a) Budget deficit
(b) Fiscal deficit
(c) Deficit financing
(d) Revenue deficit
Ans. b
Explanation:
If interest payment is added to primary deficit, it is equivalent to Fiscal deficit. Concept of Fiscal deficit is being used since fiscal 1997-98 in India.

112. Consider the following statements and state which is/are correct?
1. The sub-prime crisis which hit the U.S. economy was caused by sudden increase in oil prices.
2. The crisis ld to default in home-loan repayment.
3. It led to failure of some U.S. banks.
4. Sub prime crisis caused crash in Indian Stock Market.
Choose your answer from given code.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. c
Explanation:
The subprime mortgage crisis is an ongoing real estate crisis and financial crisis triggered by a dramatic rise in mortgage delinquencies and foreclosures in the United States, with major adverse consequences for banks and financial markets around the globe.

113. In Uttar Pradesh, recognized Stock Exchange is at
(a) Lucknow (b) Kanpur
(c) Varanasi (d) Ghaziabad
Ans. b
Explanation:
In Uttar Pradesh, recognized Stock Exchange is at Kanpur.

114. National Renewal Fund was constituted for the purpose of
(a) providing pension for retiring employees
(b) social security
(c) rural reconstruction
(d) restructuring & modernization of industries.
Ans. d
Explanation:
In order to protect the interest of workers, Government had set up a National Renewal Fund (NRF) in 1992. National Renewal Fund was constituted for the purpose of restructuring & modernization of industries.

115. Open-market operations of Reserve Bank of India refer to
(a) trading in securities
(b) auctioning of Foreign Exchange
(c) transaction in gold
(d) none of the above
Ans. a
Explanation:
Open market operations are the means of implementing monetary policy by which a central bank controls the short term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and thus indirectly the total money supply. This involves meeting the demand of base money at the target rate by buying and selling government securities, or other financial instruments.

116. An increase in CRR by the Reserve Bank of India results in
(a) decrease in debt of the government.
(b) reduction in liquidity in the economy.
(c) attracting more FDI in the country.
(d) more flow of credit to desired sectors.
Ans. b
Explanation:
An increase in CRR by the Reserve Bank of India results in reduction in liquidity in the economy. The Reserve Bank of India raised CRR of banks in April 2010 by 25 basis points which will suck out Rs. 12,500 crore in economy.

117. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act became effective in
(a) 2004 (b) 2005
(c) 2006 (d) 2007
Ans. c
Explanation:
Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act, 2005, supported by SEZ Rules, have come into effect on 10th Feb 2006.Asia’s first EPZ was set up in Kandla, India in 1965.

118. In the 11th Five Year Plan, which of the following sectors accounts for maximum combined Central, State and U.T. expenditure?
(a) Transport
(b) Energy
(c) Agriculture and Rural Development
(d) Social sector
Ans. d
Explanation:
Social sector accounts for maximum combined Central, State and U.T. expenditure In the 11th Five Year Plan. Expenditure on social services by Centre and State as a proportion of total expenditure is 23.8 in 2009-10.

119. Which of the following provides the largest credit to agriculture and allied sectors?
(a) Cooperative Banks
(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) Cooperative and Regional Rural Banks jointly.
Ans. c
Explanation:
Share of Agriculture Credit
Commercial Bank-68 %
Regional Rural Banks-12%
Cooperative Banks-20%

120. Who had suggested an imposition of 'expenditure tax' in India for the first time?
(a) Kalecki
(b) Kaldor
(c) R.J. Chelliah
(d) Gautam Mathur
Ans. b
Explanation:
In order to widen the tax base, Kaldor in his tax reform proposal for India suggested the imposition of expenditure tax, wealth tax, gift tax and property tax.

121. Which one of the following writes is issued during the pendency of proceedings in a court?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo warranto
Ans. b
Explanation:
Certiorari is writes is issued during the pendency of proceedings in a court. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with latter in a case. It is issued on the grounds of excess of Jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.

122. The word 'Secularism' was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
(a) 25th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 52nd Amendment
Ans. b
Explanation:
The word 'Secularism' was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment of 1976. The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of Secularism.

123. Mid day Meal Scheme is financed and managed by
(a) Food and Civil Supply Department of State Governments
(b) Department of Consumer Affairs and Welfare
(c) Ministry of Programme Implementation.
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development
Ans. d
Explanation:
Mid day Meal Scheme is financed and managed by Ministry of Human Resource Development. Mid Day Meal Scheme was launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development with effect from 15th August 1995. Foodgrains are supplied free of cast @ 100gram per child per school day where cooked meal is being seved with minimum content of 300 calories and 8-12 gram protein each day of school for minimum of 200 days.

124. In which of the following Committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Committee on Government Assurances
Ans. c
Explanation:
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committee on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, the mebmers of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.

125. Provision regarding Panchayats and Municipalities was made in the Indian Constitution in which year?
(a) 1991 (b) 1995
(c) 2000 (d) 1993
Ans. d
Explanation:
The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave constituttional recognition to the panchayats by adding a new Part IX and new Schedule 11 to the Constitution. Similarly, 74rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave constituttional recognition to the municipalities by adding a new Part IX-A and new Schedule 112 to the Constitution. Both Amendment Acts came inti force in 1993.

126. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?
(a) Short duration discussion
(b) Question hour
(c) Adjournment motion
(d) Zero hour
Ans. a
Explanation:
The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of Short duration discussion. Calling Attention Notice is introduced in the Parliament by a member to the call the attention of the minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and seek authoritativre statement from him on that matter. In Short duration discussion, the Parliament members can raise such discussion on a matter of urgent public importance.

127. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
A. Article 14 1. Amendment
Procedure
B. Article 36 2. Council of
Ministers
C. Article 74 3. Right to Equality
D. Article 368 4. Directive Principles
Codes:
A B C C
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c)1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. d
Explanation:
Article 14- Right to Equality
Article 36- Directive Principles
Article 74- Council of Ministers
Article 368- Amendment Procedure

128. The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation and choose your answer from the given code.
1. Haryana 2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland 4. Meghalaya
Codes:
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,3,4,1
(c) 3,1,4,2 (d) 2,4,1,3
Ans. c
Explanation:
Nagaland-1963
Haryana-1966
Meghalaya-1972
Sikkim-1974

129. The function of the Pro-Temp. Speaker is to
(a) conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of Speaker.
(b) swear in members.
(c) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected.
(d) only check if the election certificates of the members are in order.
Ans. c (most correct answer)
Explanation:
The president appoints and administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. Speaker Pro Tem presides over the first sitting of the newly elected Lok Sabha and administers oath to the new members. He also enables the House to elect the new spesker.

130. Reema is twice as old as Sumita. Three years ago the was three times as old as Sumita. How old is Reema now?
(a) 6 years (b) 7 years
(c) 8 eyars (d) 12 years
Ans. d
Explanation:
Let
Age of Reema=R
Age of Sumita=S
Reema is twice as old as Sumita
R=2XS---------------(1)
Three years ago the was three times as old as Sumita
R-3=(S-3)X3---------(2)
Replacing value of R in equation number (2)
2S-3=3S-9
S=6
R=6X2=12 years

131. The marked price of a table is Rs. 2,000, which is 25% above the cost price. If the shopkeeper sells the table at 8% discount on the marked price, his percentage of profit would be
(a) 14% (b) 15%
(c) 16% (d) 20%
Ans. b
Explanation:
Let
Cost price= X
X + Xx25/100=2,000
X=1,600
Selling price=2,000-2,000x8/100=1,840
Profit=240x100/1600=15%

132. Which of the following statements is not true of the Indian Economy?
(a) Its share of world population is only 16% but its share of world GDP is 1.6%.
(b) The share of service sector in India's GDP is only 25%
(c) 58% of its working population is engaged in agriculture, but the contribution of agriculture to the national income is 22%
(d) India occupies only 2.4% of the world's geographical area.
Ans. b
Explanation:
Share of agriculture and allied sectors in GDP at factor cast has declined gradually to 14.6 % in 2009-10. During same period , the share of industry has remained the same at about 28 %, while that of services has gone up to 57.2 %.

133. The expenses of Public Service Commission of Uttar Pradesh are charged upon
(a) Conolidated Fund of India
(b) Cosolidated Fund of State
(c) It's own generated fund from fees
(d) Contringent Fund
Ans. b
Explanation:
The expenses of Public Service Commission of Uttar Pradesh are charged upon cosolidated Fund of State. Thus, they are not subjucted to vote of the state legislature.

134. In 1930 a person's age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938 the father's age becomes 10 times the age of his son's age in 1930. The ages of father and son in 1940 were respectively
(a) 58 and 16 years
(b) 50 and 15 years
(c) 42 and 14 years
(d) 34 and 13 years
Ans. c
Explanation:
Let
Father’s age in 1930 =F
Son’s age in 1930=S
In 1930 a person's age was 8 times that of his son.
F=8XS---------------------------(I)
In 1938 the father's age becomes 10 times the age of his son's age in 1930.
F+8=10(S)-----------------------(II)
Replacing value of F in equation number (II)
8XS+8=10XS
2S=8
S=4
F=32
The ages of father and son in 1940 were respectively
Father’s age=32+10=42
Son’s age =4+10= 14

135. Who is the brand ambassador of BSNL?
(a) Shah Rukh Khan
(b) Abhishek Bachchan
(c) Priety Zinta
(d) Deepika Padukone
Ans. d
Explanation:
Actress Deepika Padukone has been appointed by Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd (BSNL) as its new brand ambassador. She replaces Preity Zinta, who was until now endorsing the brand.

136. The headquarer of R.B.I. is situated at
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Chennai
Ans. c
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
The Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Calcutta but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937. Though originally privately owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
137. An ox in a 'Kolhu' is tethered to a rope 3 m long. How much distance does the ox cover is 14 rounds?
(a) 300 m (b) 250 m
(c) 264 m (d) 232 m
Ans. c
Explanation:
Circumference=2πr
Distance covered in 14 rounds=2πrX14
=2x22/7x3x14=264


138. A can finish a work in 6 days whereas B can finish the work in 9 days. If both of them work together, what is the probability that the work will be finished on third day?
(a) ½ (b) 1/6
(c) 1 (d) 0
Ans. d (?)
Explanation:
A can finish a work in 6 days.
A’s 1 day’s work= 1/6
Whereas B can finish the work in 9 days.
B’s 1 day’s work-1/9
If both work togather
1 day’s work= 1/6 +1/9= 10/36
If both work togather
Work will be copleted= 36/10=3.6 days

139. Which layer of atmosphere is responsible for Aurora Borealis
(a) Troposphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Ionospehre
(d) Exosphere
Ans. c
Explanation:
The aurora borealis is also called the northern polar lights, as it is only visible in the sky from the Northern Hemisphere. Earth's magnetosphere is formed by the impact of the solar wind on the Earth's magnetic field. It forms an obstacle to the solar wind, diverting it. Auroras have also been observed on Venus and Mars.

140. The Ruhr basin is the famous Industrial region of
(a) China
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) United Kingdom
Ans. b
Explanation:
Ruhr river is situated in WC Germany, flowing west into the Rhine and major coal-mining & industrial region centered in the valley of this river is called Ruhr Basin

141. Which of the following countries are located on the Equator?
1. Brunei 2. Columbia
3. Kenya 4. Venezuela
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Coces:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans. b
Explanation: Countries that Lie on the Equator
1. Sao Tome and Principe
2. Gabon
3. Republic of The Congo
4. Democratic Republic of The Congo
5. Uganda
6. Kenya
7. Somalia
8. Indonesia
9. Kiribati (the equator may or may not touch dry land)
10. Ecuador
11. Colombia
12. Brazil

142. If the Sun rises at RIRAP in Arunachal Pradesh at 5.00 am (IST), then what time (IST) the Sun will rise in Kandla in Gujarat?
(a) About 5.30 a.m.
(b) About 6.00 a.m.
(c) About 7.00 a.m.
(d) About 7.30 a.m.
Ans. c
Explanation:
At present, India’s time is set in accordance with the 82.5 degrees East longitude that determines the Indian Standard Time (IST), set five-and-a-half-hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
If the sun rises at 5.00 AM at Tirap in Arunachal, it is only after about two hours that Kandla in Gujarat will get to see sunrise.

143. Which one of the following islands of the East Indies is divided into three countries?
(a) Borneo (b) Celebes
(c) new Guinea (d) Timor
Ans. a
Explanation:
Borneo is the third largest island in the world, located north of Australia, at the geographic centre of Maritime Southeast Asia. Politically, the island is divided among three countries: Indonesia, Malaysia and Brunei. Approximately 73% of the island is Indonesian territory; the Indonesian named for the island, Kalimantan.

144. 900E Ridge lies in
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Indian ocean
(c) Pacific ocean
(d) Mediterranean sea
Ans. b
Explanation:
90 degree east ridge is an aseismic ridge it is so called due to the lack of seismicity. The volcanics from the Ninety East Ridge in the Indian Ocean consist of basalts and oceanic andesites.

145. Which of the following rivers flow through a 'rift' valley?
(a) Ganga
(b) Brahamputra
(c) Narmada
(d) Krishna
Ans. c
Explanation:
The Narmada is one of only three major rivers in peninsular India that runs from east to west (largest west flowing river) along with the Tapti River and the Mahi River. It is the only river in India that flows in a rift valley flowing west between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges although the Tapti River and Mahi River also flow through rift valleys but between different ranges.

146. Which soil needs little irrigation as it retains soil moisture?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Laterite soil
Ans. b
Explanation:
Black soil needs little irrigation as it retains soil moisture. Among the in situ soils of India, the black soils found in the lava-covered areas are the most conspicuous. These soils are often referred to as regur but are popularly known as “black cotton soils,” since cotton has been the most common traditional crop in areas where they are found.

147. In an area with annual rainfall of more than 200 cms and sloping hills which crop will be ideal?
(a) Jute (b) Cotton
(c) Tea (d) Maize
Ans. c
Explanation:
In an area with annual rainfall of more than 200 cms and sloping hills is ideal for tea cultivation.

148. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
A. Etna 1. Ross Island
B. Vesuvius 2. Ecuador
C. Erebus 3. Italy
D. Cotopaxy 4. Sicily
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. b
Explanation:
Cotopaxy- Ecuador
Vesuvius- Italy
Mount Erebus in Antarctica is the southernmost historically active volcano on Earth. With a summit elevation of 3,794 metres (12,448 ft), it is located on Ross Island, which is also home to three inactive volcanoes, notably Mount Terror. Mount Erebus is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, which includes over 160 active volcanoes.

149. The Anglo-American Culture Realm does not include
1. Canada 2. U.S.A.
3. Maxico 4. Cuba
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 an 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans. d
Explanation:
Pertaining to Anglo-America, a term denoting an area of mixed English and American influence or heritage, or those parts of or groups within the Americas which have a tie to or which are influenced by England; or simply English-speaking America.

150. The Kalpsar Project for supply of sweet water is located in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. a
Explanation:
A project thus conceived initially as a tidal power project was transformed as tidal power cum fresh water supply project providing large multipurpose benefits. It is in fact a project envisaging total multipurpose development of the Gulf of Khambha

Tuesday, March 22, 2011

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) B.Ed. Entrance Exam.,2008

Part-A
Section–I
General English
Comprehension


Directions—Read the following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.

A duty is an obligation. It is something we owe to others as social beings when we live together. We must let others live with us. My right of living implies my duty to my fellow beings to allow them the same conditions of life. In fact, rights and duties are correlated. What is a right in regard to one may be a duty in regard to others. Rights and duties are two sides of the same coin. We should always observe from the standpoint of others. Moral duty is more effective than legal rights. A moral duty is that which is binding upon the people on moral grounds. It is my moral duty to help the poor because of being a member of the society.

I must try to create conditions that contribute to the welfare of humanity. Similarly, I owe a duty to my parents—to be obedient and respectful to them. This duty originates from the sense of responsibility which is directly related to our conscience. So this is concerned with a moral duty which any person owes without a legal bondage.

A sense of duty is paramount for the proper development of civilization. Hypocrisy is quite reverse to the sense of duty. It involves wickedness, while duty involves sincerity and faithfulness.

1. According to the passage, rights and duties are—
(A) Two sides of the same coin
(B) Correlated
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

2. According to the passage legal duty is—
(A) More important than moral duty
(B) Less important than moral duty
(C) More effective than moral duty
(D) Less effective than moral duty

3. Duty comes from—
(A) Responsibility
(B) Legal bondage
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) None of the above

4. Which of the following statements is not correct according to the passage ?
(A) Hypocrisy involves wickedness
(B) Hypocrisy is opposed to duty
(C) Duty involves sincerity
(D) Sense of duty is not important for the development of civilization

5. Which of the following moral duties has not been mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Moral duty towards our motherland
(B) Moral duty towards our parents
(C) Moral duty towards the poor
(D) Moral duty to contribute to the welfare of humanity

6. Which of the following is not related to moral duty ?
(A) Sense of responsibility
(B) Conscience
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) Sincerity

7. Why is it a duty to help the poor ?
(A) Because I am poor
(B) Because I am rich
(C) Because I belong to the society
(D) Because God wants this

8. Why should I be obedient and respectful to my parents ?
(A) Because of my sense of responsibility
(B) Because of legal bonding
(C) Because of civilization
(D) Because of hypocrisy

9. “We should always observe from the standpoint of others.” This is a—
(A) Simple sentence
(B) Complex sentence
(C) Compound sentence
(D) Phrase

10. The word ‘always’ in “We should always observe from the standpoint of others” is a/an
(A) Adverb
(B) Adjective
(C) Noun
(D) Verb
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
Part-A
Section–II
Logical & Analytical
Reasoning

Directions—(Q. 11–14) In each of the following questions an incomplete series of numbers, with one blank is given. Identify the missing member from the given alternatives.

11. 1, 27, 125, …?…, 729
(A) 242
(B) 314
(C) 307
(D) 343

12. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, …?…
(A) 25000
(B) 560
(C) 550
(D) 540

13. 3, 14, 47, …?…, 443, 1334
(A) 61
(B) 89
(C) 146
(D) 445

14. 2, 9, 30, 93, 282, …?…
(A) 849
(B) 846
(C) 649
(D) 746

Directions—(Q. 15–18) In each of the following questions there are five groups of letters. First is the primary one, followed by four; out of which one is different from the rest. Identify this odd member.

15. IIJL
(A) QQSV
(B) EEFH
(C) AABD
(D) MMNP

16. ABAC
(A) BCBD
(B) PRPQ
(C) CDCE
(D) STSU

17. BXTP
(A) OKGC
(B) DZVR
(C) XTOK
(D) EAWS

18. DINS
(A) HMSX
(B) FKPU
(C) JOTY
(D) NSXC

19. Which pair is different in some way from others in the following pairs ?
(A) Bottle and ink
(B) Can and oil
(C) Bag and clothes
(D) Boat and ship

Directions—(Q. 20–24) In each of the following questions there are five figures. First is a reference figure. Among the answer figures one figure does not belong to the class to which the first figure belongs. Identify this odd figure.

Directions—(Q. 25–28) In each of the following questions two statements are followed by two conclusions. Assuming that the two given statements are true (however absurd they may be) decide which of the two conclusions follows strictly from the given statements. Select the most appropriate alternative.

25. All men are chairs.
All animals are chairs
Conclusions :
I. All men are animals.
II. No animal is a man.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

26. Buckets are means of transport.
Stairs are means of transport.
Conclusions :
I. Buckets are stairs.
II. Some stairs are buckets.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

27. No bird has wings.
All birds are rational.
Conclusions :
I. Some rationals have wings.
II. Wingless are birds.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

28. All philosophers are rational people.
Some rational people are happy.
Conclusions :
I. Some happy people are philosophers.
II. Some happy people are rational.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

29. Which is the fourth letter to the left of the letter that is mid-way between ‘O’ and ‘P’ in ‘CARDIOGRAPH’ ?
(A) D
(B) I
(C) O
(D) R

30. Which is the odd term in the following list ?
(A) January
(B) May
(C) April
(D) August
Answers with Explanation :
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A)
19. (D) In all the rest the first is used to fill the second.
20. (A) All the rest are consonants alike ‘J’ while ‘A’ is vowel.
21. (B) All the rest are perfect squares.
22. (B) In all the rest the lower designs are the mirror image of the upper designs.
23. (D) In all the rest, the st. lines are both sides of the middle design.
24. (B) In all the rest both the leaves are not joined at one place.
25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (C) All the rest have thirty days each.
Part-A
Section–III

Educational and General Awareness

31. Ganpati festival was started by—
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

32. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade

33. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium

34. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ? 
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee

35. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh

36. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission

37. Who said—“Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

38. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh

39. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans

40. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light

41. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn

42. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk

43. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma

44. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba

45. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa

46. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh

47. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu

48. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara

49. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act

50. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components

51. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen

52. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report

53. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education

54. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)

55. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answers :
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C)
Part-A
Section–IV

Teaching-Learning and The School

56. What would be your approach if a student interrupts in your class ?
(A) You will ask him to leave the class
(B) You will ask him to behave properly
(C) You will assess his reasons to do the same
(D) You will give him extra home-work

57. How would you prefer to address a student who has not completed his home-work ?
(A) When are you going to complete it ?
(B) You did not do it. Try it
(C) Why did you not complete it ?
(D) You better ignore it now

58. Schools should be concerned with the development of child, which should include—
(A) Acquisition of knowledge by the child
(B) Acquisition of life-skills by the child
(C) Acquisition of skills required by the nation
(D) Acquisition of skills required by a healthy person

59. The main reason for non-achievement of full literacy in India is—
(A) Lack of funds
(B) Incapability of utilization of funds
(C) Lack of suitable facilities
(D) Lack of will to achieve the goal

60. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher-Association (PTA)’ in any school is to—
(A) Keep students in check/control
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning

61. Student gives a partially correct response to your question. Then you will—
(A) Seek further information
(B) Provide reinforcement
(C) Reframe your question
(D) Tell the correct information

62. School can be called a social agent if—
(A) It transmits knowledge
(B) It educates about rights and duties
(C) It imparts knowledge about traditions and values
(D) It organises various activities

63. One basic differenc between traditional schools and open learning schools is that—
(A) The former are systematic
(B) The latter do not cultivate cultural values
(C) The latter use modern gadgets
(D) The former carry personal touch

64. School can be considered a …… group as far as socialising agency is concerned.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Supplementary
(D) Tertiary

65. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of maturation
(B) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of social process
(C) ‘Life-skills’ are directly moulded
(D) ‘Life-skills’ are learnt

66. A student wants to share his problem with his teacher and visits the teacher for the same at his home. In such a situation, the teacher should—
(A) Suggest to him to escape from his home
(B) Contact the student’s parents and provide help
(C) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
(D) Warn him to never visit his home

67. If a student alleges against you for showing favouritism in evaluation of scripts, how would you deal with him ?
(A) Reject his allegations
(B) Adopt punitive measure
(C) Make efforts to reveal his position
(D) Show his answer book and few more

68. The major responsibility with which school personnel have been entrusted is that of—
(A) Adjusting social demands to the needs of the child
(B) Adjusting the child to conform to the demands of society
(C) Changing human nature to conform to social expectations
(D) Preparing the child to change the society

69. In order to develop a good rapport with students, a teacher should (select the most important activity)—
(A) Love his students
(B) Be friendly with all
(C) Pay individual attention
(D) Communicate well

70. The best reason because of which a teacher can command respect from his students is if—
(A) He follows innovative practices in the class
(B) He dictates notes to the class
(C) He reads and explains the text-book
(D) He does not give home assignment

71. Development of moral values among students is very important. What would you do to develop the same ?
(A) Encourage moral value related works
(B) Organise lectures
(C) Display stories based on moral values
(D) Present yourself as a role model

72. Teaching aids are useful because they—
(A) Help teacher’s work
(B) Activate all senses
(C) Help students to be attentive
(D) Make learning more meaningful

73. Teacher’s class-room behaviour should be good because—
(A) It will set an example
(B) Students will be more attentive
(C) Environment would be conducive to learning
(D) Students will appreciate it

74. You have a class which is very heterogeneous in height. You should allow a seating arrangement—
(A) Which is random
(B) Where smaller students are allowed to sit in such a way that they can see and participate easily in class activities
(C) Which is purely based on height
(D) That has taller students on one side of the class

75. Which one of the following may not be the best reason for cheating in the class-room examination ?
(A) Too lazy to study
(B) Parental pressure for good marks
(C) Fear of failure
(D) Self-prestige

76. In this age of academic excellence demand, inclusion of games and sports in schools is—
(A) A wastage of time
(B) Taking away a lot of time from academic work
(C) Giving time for leisure or relaxation
(D) Necessary for the co-ordinated development of the individual

77. Which one of the following pairs is odd (or not properly associated) ?
(A) Froebel — Playway
(B) Maria Montessori — Divergent thinking
(C) Keller — Co-operative learning
(D) Gandhiji — Soiled hands

78. While teaching the concept of a ‘circle’, which one of the following would be the best way to do it ?
(A) Present a picture of a circle
(B) Present pictures of circles of various sizes
(C) Present pictures of circles and ellipses
(D) Present pictures of circles and polygons

79. Teaching would be more effective if the teacher—
(A) Makes his intent purposeful
(B) Is master of the subject
(C) Uses various instructional aids
(D) Declares his objectives in the beginning

80. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on—
(A) Development of traits to face hurdles of daily life
(B) Inculcation of values cherised by the community
(C) Preparation for academic excellence
(D) Development of traits of good citizenship
Answers :
56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (A)
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (D)
Part-B
Section–V
Subject Competence
(i) Science

following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.81. Clothes do not dry quickly on a rainy day because on a rainy day—
(A) Humidity is high
(B) Humidity is low
(C) Temperature becomes high
(D) Atmospheric pressure rises

82. Joule is the unit of—
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Energy
(D) Pressure

83. The audible range of hearing for average human beings is—
(A) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
(B) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(C) 2 Hz to 20 KHz
(D) 2 KHz to 20 KHz

84. Tritium is an—
(A) Isobar of Hydrogen
(B) Isotope of Hydrogen
(C) Isobar of helium
(D) Isotope of helium

85. Which of the following ions helps in the
opening and closing of stomata ?
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Ca++
(D) None of the above

86. Which of the following does not have plus (+) or minus (–) signs marked on it ?
(A) Resistor
(B) Ammeter
(C) Voltmeter
(D) Battery

87. Photosynthesis is a—
(A) Catabolic process
(B) Anabolic process
(C) Amphibolic process
(D) All of these

88. If a mirror forms an erect but diminished image of an object placed anywhere infront of it, is a—
(A) Concave Mirror
(B) Plane Mirror
(C) Convex Mirror
(D) Concave and convex Mirror (both)

89. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is called—
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Thermopile
(C) Barometer
(D) Manometer

90. Orange colour of the setting sun is due to—
(A) Reflection of light
(B) Diffusion of light
(C) Scattering of light
(D) Polarisation of light

91. What is the final colour of blue litmus when a dilute solution of NaOH is added to it ?
(A) Red
(B) Pink
(C) Orange
(D) Blue

92. Pick the odd one out—
(A) Fermentation
(B) Aerobic Respiration
(C) Anaerobic Respiration
(D) Breathing

93. Hypotonic solution as compared to Hypertonic solution has—
(A) More solute
(B) Less solute
(C) Same solute
(D) Nothing can be said about the amount of solute

94. Volt is the unit of—
(A) Charge
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Potential difference

95. Two resistors having resistances of 1 ohm and 2 ohms respectively are connected is series with a battery. The current through the 2 ohms resistor is 2 amperes. The current through the 1 ohm resistor will be—
(A) 0·5 amp
(B) 1 amp
(C) 2 amp
(D) 4 amp

96. The addition of which one of the following will decrease the pH value of water ?
(A) Caustic Soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Salt
(D) Hydrochloric acid

97. The branch of science that deals with tumours is—
(A) Osteology
(B) Anatomy
(C) Oncology
(D) Urology

98. Pneumonia is a disease associated with—
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Gums
(D) Kidney

99. ‘Decibel’ is a measure of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Intensity of sound
(D) Energy

100. Which of the following have the highest frequency ?
(A) Heat waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays
Answers with Explanation :
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (D)
92. (A) Fermentation is an enzymatic transformation of organic substracts. Rest three do not need enzymatic transformation.
93. (B) 94. (D)
95. (C) In series connection same current flows through all the resistances.
96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (D)
Part-B
Section–V

(ii) Mathematics
101. The value of
102. In a mixture of 35 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 2. Another 5 litres of milk is added to the mixture. The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture is—
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2

103. Walking at 4 km an hour, a peon reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. The distance of his office from the residence is—
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 2 km

104. If 5x–2·32x–3 = 135, then the value of x is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

105. The simple interest on a certain amount at 4% p.a. for 4 years is Rs. 80 more than the interest on the same sum for 3 years at 5% p.a. The sum is—
(A) Rs. 6000
(B) Rs. 7200
(C) Rs. 7500
(D) Rs. 8000

106. A trader marks an article at 30% more than the cost price. He gives 10% discount to his customers and gains Rs. 25·50 per article. The cost price of the article is—
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 175
(D) Rs. 250

107. The price of sugar is increased by 25%. How much per cent should a man decrease his consumption so that there is no increase in his expenditure ?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 5%
(D) 15%

108. Rs. 6500 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 15 more persons each would have got Rs. 30 less. The original number of persons was—
(A) 65
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 40

109. 2 men and 6 boys can do in 4 days a piece of work which would be done again in 4 days by 4 men and 3 boys. One man will do it in—
(A) 36 days
(B) 24 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 12 days

110. If sin A = 24/25, the value of tan A + sec A, where 0° < A < 90° is—
(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 24
(D) 7

111. If tan A = n sin B and sin A = m sin B, then the value of cos2 A is—
(A) m2/n2
(B) m2 × n2
(C) m2 – n2
(D) m2 + n2

112. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the hill is 30°. If the tower is 50 m high, the height of the hill is—
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 200 m

113. A steel wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 sq. cm. If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area of the circle is—
(A) 88 sq. cm
(B) 142 sq. cm
(C) 154 sq. cm
(D) 212 sq. cm

114. The number of spherical bullets that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm, if the diameter of each bullet be 4 cm, is—
(A) 2541
(B) 847
(C) 1270
(D) 363

115. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of a cylinder is 2 : 3. If its volume is 1617 cm3, the total surface area of the cylinder is—
(A) 575 cm2
(B) 770 cm2
(C) 1205 cm2
(D) 1500 cm2

116. The median of the following data is—
25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 26, 20, 32
(A) 25·5
(B) 26
(C) 26·5
(D) 25

117. The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is 80 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is—
(A) 70 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 50 kg
(D) 73 kg

118. The value of k so that the points A(k, 1), B(2, 1) and C(5,–1) are collinear is—
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

119. The common difference of the A.P. a, a + d, a + 2d,… for which the 20th term is 10 more than the 18th term, is—
(A) 4
(B) – 4
(C) – 5
(D) 5

120. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 10
is—
(A) 5/12
(B) 1/6
(C) 5/6
(D) 1/12
Answers :
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (D) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (D)
Part-B
(iii) Social Science

121. The Treaty of Sreerangapattanam was between Tipu Sultan and—
(A) Cornwallis
(B) Clive
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Wellesley

122. The famous Besnagar Pillar Inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult of—
(A) Panchika and Hariti
(B) Pashupatis
(C) Krishna-Vasudeva
(D) Shakti

123. What is a water hyacinth ?
(A) A weed
(B) A medicinal plant
(C) A decorative plant
(D) A highly sought after plant

124. To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for recommendations ?
(A) Ordinary bills
(B) Finance bills
(C) Bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
(D) Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution

125. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of—
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Switzerland
(D) South Africa

126. Indian Railways tied up with which of the following to launch a co-branded card and
traveller loyalty card to tap the huge railway passengers market ?
(A) BoB card
(B) Citibank card
(C) SBI card
(D) None of these

127. Which bank advertises itself as the world’s local bank ?
(A) Citibank
(B) HSBC
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) ABN Amro

128. In which state is Silent Valley located ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

129. Which of the following is not a promotional and motivational measure suggested in the National Population Policy 2000 ?
(A) Reward Panchayat and Zila Parishad for promoting small family norm
(B) Incentive to adopt two child norm
(C) Couples below poverty line will be given health insurance plans
(D) Banning abortion facilities (looking at female infanticides)

130. Who said, “HANOZ DELHI DOOR AST” ?
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Farid
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) None of these

131. In which of the following constitutional documents did the British Government for the first time, officially lay down as the goal of constitutional development in India, not only dominion status, but also responsible Government ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Indian Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935

132. In which state is chromite abundantly found ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka

133. For what is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam known ?
(A) Bear
(B) Tiger
(C) Wild ass
(D) Birds

134. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in—
(A) Censuring a Central Minister
(B) Creating a new All India Service
(C) Considering Money Bills
(D) Appointing judges

135. Which of the following provides the largest part of the demand for loanable funds in
India ?
(A) Hire purchase borrowers
(B) Private house purchasers
(C) Corporate businesses
(D) Farmers

136. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India ?
(A) Wellesley
(B) Cavendish Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings

137. The National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI) was inaugurated in—
(A) July 1992
(B) July 1993
(C) July 1994
(D) July 1995

138. One of the major towns of the Godavari region in the Satavahana kingdom was—
(A) Pratishthana
(B) Arikamedu
(C) Kokkhai
(D) Maski

139. In the Islamic (Mughal) buildings that came up in India, the elements of decoration did not include—
(A) Calligraphy
(B) Depiction of living beings
(C) Geometry
(D) Foliage

140. Jaya is the name of a high yielding variety of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Bajra
(D) Cotton
Answers :
121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (D) 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (A)
131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D)
137. (A) November 1992 (Incorporation)
April 1993 (Recognition as a stock exchange)
June 1994 (Commenced operation in the
wholesale Debt Market segment in June 1994.138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (B)
Part-B
(iv) English

141. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Dormant’—
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active

142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow

143. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial

144. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest

145. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist

146. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic

147. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial

148. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive

149. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of

150. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive

151. Choose the passive voice of—‘Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?

152. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’—
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard

153. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over

154. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On

155. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron

156. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte

157. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare

158. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles

159. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period

160. Which of the following is not a language skill?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking

Answers :
141. (D) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (D)
148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (D) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (C) 156. (B) 157. (D)158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)