Monday, August 29, 2011
Friday, August 26, 2011
Bank of Baroda Clerk Exam Paper 2011
SOCIO - ECONOMIC, BANKING AND COMPUTER AWARENESS
1. Which of the following nations is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) India
(3) South Africa
(4) Greece
(5)Brazil
2. Which of the following is represented by the letter ‘L' in the abbreviation CAMELS, the rating system used in financial world ?
(1) Loans
(2) Leadership
(3) Liabilities
(4) Liquidity
(5) None of these
3. Repo rate is decided by which of the following organizations?
(1) SEBI
(2) AMFI
(3) All Banks
(4) RBI
(5) IMF
4. Many a times we read a term ‘PPP' in financial dailies/magazines. What is the full form of the same as used in financial world?
(1) Purchasing Power Parity
(2) Per captia Potential Purchases
(3) Public Per captia Power
(4) Present Purchasing Power
(5) Popular Public Preferences
5. The rate of interest on Term Deposits in Banks is stipulated by which of the following?
(1) RBI
(2) Government of India
(3) Indian Banks Association
(4) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
(5) Individual Banks themselves
6. Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
(1) Providing project finance
(2) Selling Mutual Funds
(3) Deciding policy rates like CRR, Repo Rates/SLR etc.
(4) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
(5) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances etc.
7. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations'?
(1) Stock Exchanges in India
(2) Indian Banks' Association
(3) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Reserve Bank of India
8. The famous name Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following organizations/banks?
(1) Cairn Energy
(2) ICICI Bank
(3) Pepsi Co.
(4) Vodafone
(5) Citigroup
9. Which of the following is the main function of I.M.E.?
(1) Finance investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these
10. Which of the following is not a mode of foreign capital inflow to India?
(1) FDI
(2) FII
(3) NRI Accounts
(4) No Frills Accounts
(5) All these are valid for foreign capital inflow
11. Five Year Plans in India are finally approved by which of the following bodies?
(1) National Development Council
(2) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(3) Union Cabinet
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Finance Minister
12. Which of the following schemes is launched specifically for helping Senior Citizens to avail loan by mortgage of their residential property?
(1) English Mortgage Scheme
(2) Senior Capital Loan Scheme
(3) Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme
(4) DEMAT Account Scheme
(5) None of these
13. The most appropriate measure of a country's economic growth is___
(1) Net National Product
(2) Net domestic product
(3) Gross domestic product
(4) Per capita real income
(5) Total Foreign Investment in a year
14. In order to streamline the functioning of MFI sector the RBI had appointed a committee. The committee was headed by___
(1) Dr. Y.V.Redddy
(2) Shri M.V.Nair
(3) Shri Y.H.Malegam
(4) Dr. D.Subbarao
(5) Smt. Usha Thorat
15. The census in India is done after a gap of every-
(1) 5 years
(2) 10 Years
(3) 12 Years
(4) 15 Years
(5) None of these
16. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
(5) Six
17. Which of the following is/are the depositories in India handling dematerialized shares?
(A) National Payment Corporation of India
(B) Central Depository Service (CDSL)
(C) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
(1) Both (A) & (B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A)
(4) Only(C)
(5) All (A),(B) & (C)
18. What does the term NSDL stand for?
(1) National Securities Development Limited
(2) National Securities Depository Limited
(3) National Safety Development Limited
(4) Natural Safety Development Limited
(5) National Social & Developmental Liabilities
19. Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) does not have which of the following functions?
(1) Equipment leasing
(2) Housing finance and investments in financial securities
(3) Hiring & Purchasing Assets.
(4) Demand Deposits
(5) None of these
20. Insurance business in India is regulated by___
(1) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(2) SEBI
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority (IRDA)
(5) AMFI
21. Basel III in banks is being planned to be implemented from which of the following years?
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
(5) 2019
22. Money Laundering refers to which of the following?
(1) Conversion of assets into cash
(2) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(3) Conversion of cash into gold
(4) Conversion of gold into cash
(5) Conversion of shares into cash
23. As per the repots in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking service to all villages having a population of 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories?
(1) Plan for Financial Inclusion
(2) Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Lending
(3) Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers
(4) Extensions of Internal and Branchless Banking
(5) None of these
24. The price at which the Govt. Purchases food grain for maintaining the public distribution system is known as-
(1) Ceiling prices
(2) Procurement price
(3) Minimum Price
(4) Issue Price
(5) Distribution price
25. Which of these books is written by Kiran Desai?
(1) A Village By the Sea
(2) Darkness at Noon
(3) Lolita
(4) My Son's Father
(5) The Inheritance of Loss
Computer Awareness
26. The ___controls communications for the entire computer system.
(1) Arithmetic-logic unit
(2) Semiconductor
(3) Motherboard
(4) Coprocessor
(5) None of these
27. A ___is approximately 1 million bytes.
(1) Megabyte
(2) Kilobyte
(3) Gigabyte
(4) Terabyte
(5) None of these
28. Which of the following is formally defined as a criminal action perpetrated primarily through the use of a computer?
(1) Phishing
(2) Hacking
(3) Cybercrime
(4) Social networking
(5) None of these
29. Hardware used to translate words, sound images and actions that People understands into a form that the system unit can process is known as-
(1) Device drivers
(2) Device readers
(3) Input devices
(4) Output devices
(5) None of these
30. Being- means being familiar enough with computers in such a manner that you understand their capabilities and limitations.
(1) Computer literate
(2) Computer competent
(3) Computer savvy
(4) Technology literate
(5) None of these
31. The System component that controls and manipulates data in order to produce information is called the -
(1) Keyboard
(2) Microprocessor
(3) Monitor
(4) Mouse
(5) None of these
32. The container that houses most of the electronic components that make up a computer system is known as the -
(1) Arithmetic -logic unit
(2) Central processing unit
(3) RFID
(4) System catalog
(5) None of these
33. How a network is arranged and how it shares information and resources is called a network___
(1) Topology
(2) Strategy
(3) Protocol
(4) Architecture
(5) None of these
34. These chips are specifically designed to handle the processing requirements related to displaying and manipulating 3-D images.
(1) Graphics coprocessors
(2) Arithmetic - logic unit processors
(3) Control unit processors
(4) CISC chips
(5) None of these
35. Which type of software is used to make a slide show ?
(1) Spreadsheets software
(2) World processing software
(3) Presentation software
(4) System software
(5) None of these
36. RAM is referred to as- storage.
(1) Direct
(2) Volatile
(3) Secondary
(4) Sequential
(5) None of these
37. The - tells the rest of the computer how to carry out a program's instruction.
(1) ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) System unit
(4) Motherboard
(5) None of these
38. The combination of operating system and processor in a computer is referred to as computers'___
(1) Firmware
(2) Specification
(3) Minimum requirements
(4) Platinum
(5) None of these
39. The position of a disk that contains no stored data, but may contain latent data is called-
(1) RAM slack
(2) A cluster
(3) Swap space
(4) Unallocated space
(5) None of these
40. What is keyboard used for?
(1) Input text and numbers and send commands to the computer
(2) To create new keys to use with your computer
(3) To open the computer up
(4) To create pictures and images and send them to your computer
(5) None of these
41. The information processing cycle includes the following processes -
(1) Input, processing, output, storage
(2) Input, output, manipulation, arithmetic
(3) Data, processing, printing, editing
(4) Storage, display, data, information
(5) None of these
42. How tightly the bits can be packed next to one another on a disk is referred to as-
(1) Tracks
(2) Sectors
(3) Density
(4) Configuration
(5) None of these
143. What are the speakers attached to your computer used for?
(1) Displaying images
(2) Sending messages
(3) Storing messages
(4) Handling sound and music
(5) Make system look technical
44. Tape is described as using this type of access-
(1) magneto-optical
(2) DVD
(3) Direct
(4) Disastrous
(5) None of these
45. Many experts are predicting that this revolution is expected to dramatically affect the way we communicate and use memory___
(1) Graphics
(2) Input
(3) Computer technology
(4) Industry
(5) Wireless
46. The acronym DBMS stands for what?
(1) Double-blind management setup
(2) Document binder management system
(3) Data binding and marketing structure
(4) Database methodology system
(5) None of these
47. The Name of the location of a particular piece of data is its___
(1) Address
(2) Memory name
(3) Storage site
(4) Data location
(5) None of these
48. The arithmetic/logic unit performs the following actions___
(1) Checks data for accuracy
(2) Does calculations using addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division
(3) Does logical comparisons, such as equal to, greater than, less than
(4) Does both calculations and logical comparisons
(5) None of these
49.The most powerful type of computer is___
(1) Mainframe computers
(2) Microcomputers
(3) Minicomputers
(4) Synocomputers
(5) Supercomputers
50. Letters, memos, term papers, reports and contracts are all examples of ___
(1) Models
(2) Spreadsheets
(3) Documents
(4) menus
(5) None of these
ANSWERS:
1) 1 2) 4 3) 4 4) 1 5) 5 6) 3 7) 3 8) 5 9) 3 10) 4
11) 1 12) 3 13) 3 14) 3 15) 2 16) 2 17) 2 18) 2 19) 4 20) 4
21) 5 22) 2 23) 1 24) 2 25) 5 26) 3 27) 1 28) 3 29) 3 30) 1
31) 2 32) 5 33) 4 34) 1 35) 3 36) 2 37) 2 38) 5 39) 3 40) 1
41) 1 42) 3 43) 4 44) 3 45) 5 46) 5 47) 4 48) 4 49) 5 50) 3
Tuesday, August 23, 2011
SSC CISF CONSTABLE (GD) 2011 SOLVED PAPER
GENERAL AWARENESS
(Exam Held On: 05-06-2011)1. The element used for making solar cells is
(1) Magnesium
(2) Sodium
(3) Calcium
(4) Silicon
2. In the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi from October 3 to October 14, Deepika Kumari won gold medal in the
(1) Women's Free Style Wrestling (67 kg)
(2) Women's Archery (Individual Recurve)
(3) Women's 25mPistol
(4) Women's Weightlifting (58 kg)
3. The National Tree of India is
(1) Neem
(2) Peepal
(3) Banyan
(4) Mango
4. The dance Kathakali is associated with the State of
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Kerala
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Orissa
5. Who of the following is not a recipient of 'Bharat Ratna'?
(1) MoraIji Desai
(2) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(3) Rajiv Gandhi
(4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
6. Srinagar is located on the bank of the river
(1) Indus
(2) Jhelum
(3) Chenab
(4) Ravi
7. Who discovered Solar System?
(1) Newton
(2) John Hadley
(3) Copernicus
(4) Galileo
8. Chief of the Indian Navy has the rank of
(1) General of Indian Navy
(2) Chief of Indian Navy
(3) Naval Chief
(4) Admiral
9. What causes common cold?
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Virus
(4) Protozoa
10. Meningitis is a disease which affects the
(1) Kidneys
(2) Liver
(3) Heart
(4) Brain
11. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of
(1) U.S.A. .
(2) Canada
(3) Germany
(4) Australia
12. "Not to destroy the Government property" is a
(1) Positive duty
(2) Legal duty
(3) Civil duty
(4) Negative duty
13. Who proposed the Preamble beforethe drafting committee of the Constitution?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) B.R. Ambedkar
(3) B.N. Rao
(4) Mahatma Gandhi
14. Which of the following is not the "Tri Ratna" of Jainism ?
(1) Right faith
(2) Right knowledge
(3) Right view
(4) Right conduct
15. The sea which existed in the place of the Himalayas was
(1) Red Sea
(2) Arabian Sea
(3) Tethys Sea
(4) Dead Sea
16. India has the monopoly in the International market in the supply of
1) Iron
(2) Mica
(3) Bauxite
(4) Copper
17. Who is the director of the film 'Lagaan'?
(1) B.R. Chopra
(2) Govind Nehlani
(3) Ashutosh Gowarikar
(4) Ani! Sharma
18. Number of teeth which are replaced in man are
(1) 12
(2) 20
(3) 32
(4) 16
19. Who among the following was the pioneer of Yoga ?
(1) Patanjali
(2) Vagbhata
(3) Atreya
(4) Vrudukanta
20. As we go from Equator to North pole the value of 'g', the acceleration due to gravity
(1) remains the same
(2) decreases
(3) increases
(4) None of the above
21. Shaving mirror is
(1) Convex
(2) Concave
(3) Plane
(4) Parabolic
22. When was the First Gerneral Election to the Lok Sabha held?
(1) 1950 - 51
(2) 1951 - 52
(3) 1952 - 53
(4) 1956 - 57
23. Which of the following is used for wrapping of fractured bones?
(1) White cement
(2) White lead
(3) Zinc oxide
(4) Plaster of Paris
24. Teachers Day is observed every year on
(1) 5th September
(2) 15th September
(3) 20th September
(4) 25th September
25. Which one of the following is a water borne disease?
(1) Diabetes
(2) Cholera
(3) Small Pox
(4) Malaria
Answers:
1. 4, 2. 2, 3. 3 4. 2 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 3 8. 4 9. 3 10. 4 11. 4 12. 3 13. 1 14. 3 15. 3 16. 2 17. 3 18. 1 19. 1 20. 3 21. 2 22. 2 23. 4 24.1 25. 2
Monday, August 22, 2011
COMMON WRITTEN EXAMINATION [CWE] FOR RECRUITMENT IN CLERICAL CADRE IN 19 PUBLIC SECTOR BANKS
A Common Written Examination (CWE) will be conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) as a pre-requisite for selection of personnel for Clerical cadre posts in the Public Sector Banks mentioned below.
This system of Common Examination for recruitment of Clerks has been approved by each of the 19 participating Public Sector Banks and the Managing Committee of the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) with the consent of the Government of India.
IBPS, an autonomous body, has been authorised by IBA and has received a mandate from the 19 Public Sector Banks listed below to conduct the Common Written Examination. The CWE for Clerical Cadre posts will be conducted twice a year by IBPS.
PARTICIPATING BANKS
Allahabad Bank
Indian Overseas Bank
Andhra Bank
Oriental Bank of Commerce
Bank of Baroda
Punjab National Bank
Bank of India
Punjab & Sind Bank
Bank of Maharashtra
Syndicate Bank
Canara Bank
UCO Bank
Central Bank of India
Union Bank of India
Corporation Bank
United Bank of India
Dena Bank
Vijaya Bank
Indian Bank
Any individual who aspires to join any of the above Public Sector Banks as a Clerk or in a post in that cadre, will necessarily be required to take the CWE. Prospective candidates who wish to appear for the CWE will have to apply to IBPS and should carefully read the advertisement regarding eligibility criteria, online registration process, pattern of examination, issuance of call letters and score cards.
Candidates who appear for the CWE will be able to check their status after the examination. Scorecards will be issued to candidates who secure minimum qualifying marks and above in each test of the examination.
It should, however, be noted that successful candidates in the CWE who have been issued scorecards and who meet the stipulated eligibility criteria are then required to apply to any of the participating banks they wish to as and when individual banks call for applications, quoting their personal details and their CWE scores. Each bank will then individually shortlist candidates and carry out their own selection processes such as Interviews etc. for final selection.
Each participating Public Sector Bank will independently issue a separate recruitment notification, specifying their vacancies and stipulating the eligibility criteria in terms of age, educational qualification, proficiency in Official Language of the State/UT for which vacancies he wishes to apply, experience (if any), minimum required level of IBPS score in each test and on Total Score (if any) etc.
Since clerical cadre recruitment would be on State-wise basis, candidates can apply for vacancies in one State/ UT only. It will therefore be necessary that candidates appear for examination in one of the centres of a particular State/UT where they would like to apply for emaployment i.e. they have to appear for the examination from a centre for that particular State/UT as mentioned in Annexure I. The candidate may also be required to possess proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT for which vacancies he
wishes to apply to be eligible as per the notifications of the Participating Banks.
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS (as on 01.08.2011)
A pass with 60% marks in the aggregate in Matriculation/SSC (old pattern)/SSLC/10th std. Examination of 10+2+3 pattern or equivalent. For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates a pass in the aggregate in Matriculation/SSC (old pattern)/SSLC/10th std.
Examination of 10+2+3 pattern or equivalent
OR
A pass with 50% marks in HSC examination of 10+2 (10+2+3 pattern) /11th Std. of
(11+1+3) pattern or Intermediate/Pre-University or any equivalent examination/Diploma in Banking recognized by Central/State Government or U.T. administration. For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates a pass in HSC examination of 10+2 (10+2+3 pattern) /11th Std. of (11+1+3) pattern or Intermediate/Pre-University or any equivalent examination/Diploma in Banking recognized by Central/State Government or U.T. administration
OR
Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.
Age (As on 01.08.2011):
Minimum: 18 Years Maximum: 28 Years
The maximum age limit specified is applicable to General Category candidates.
This advertisement is also available on IBPS’s website address www.ibps.in Candidates are advised to remain in touch with IBPS’s website for any information which may be put for further guidance.
Decision of the IBPS in respect of all matters pertaining to this examination would be final and binding on all candidates.
Start date for Online Registration 25.08.2011
Payment of Application Fees/ Intimation Charges 24.08.2011 to 23.09.2011 (both dates inclusive)
Last date for Online Registration 24.09.2011
Last date for Editing Application Details 26.09.2011
Download of Call letter for Written Examination After 11.11.2011
Written Examination 27.11.2011
Website:www.ibps.in
Thursday, August 18, 2011
Civil Services (Prelim) Exam, 2011 Result Announced
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has announced the result of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011 held on 12.06.2011.
The candidature of the qualified candidates is provisional. In accordance with the Rules of the Examination, all these candidates have to apply again in the Detailed Application Form (DAF), which is available on the website of the Union Public Service Commission www.upsc.gov.in. All the qualified candidates are advised to fill up the DAF and submit the same ONLINE for admission to the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011 to be held from 29.10.2011. The DAF will be available on the website of the Commission till 11.59 PM on 1.9.2011. Important instructions regarding filling up of the DAF and submitting the same ONLINE to the Commission are also available on the website. The candidates who have been declared successful have to first get themselves registered on the relevant page of the website before filling up the ONLINE Detailed Application Form. The qualified candidates are further advised to refer to the Rules of the Civil Services Examination, 2011 published in the gazette of India (Extraordinary) vide Department of Personnel and Training notification F. No.13018/3/2011-AIS(I), dated 19.2.2011, which is also available on the website of the Commission.
After submitting the DAF duly filled in ONLINE, the candidates are required to take out a print out of the finally submitted DAF separately and will have to send the printed copy of the DAF duly signed by the candidates alongwith all relevant documents including the prescribed fees, wherever applicable as enclosures addressed to the Under Secretary [CS(M)], Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069, so as to reach the Commission`s Office latest by 09.09.2011. The envelope containing the print out of the DAF submitted ONLINE should be superscribed “Application for Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011”. It can also be delivered at Union Public Service Commission counter by hand till 09.09.2011 (5.00 P.M). It may be noted that mere submission of application form does not, ipso facto, confer on any right for admission to the Main Examination. The admission certificate alongwith the time table of the Main Examination will be issued to the eligible candidates 2-3 weeks before the commencement of the examination. Changes, if any, in the postal address after submission of the DAF may be communicated to the Commission at once.
The Union Public Service Commission have a Facilitation Counter near the Examination Hall Building in its Campus. Candidates may obtain any information/clarification regarding their result of the above mentioned examination on all working days between 10.00 AM to 5.00 PM, in person or on Tel. No. 011-23385271, 011-23098543 or 011-23381125 from this Facilitation Counter. Candidates can also obtain information regarding their result by accessing Union Public Service Commission Website www.upsc.gov.in.
The result of Roll Nos.000797, 000957, 003533, 004994, 052161, 062662, 110670, 233449 & 257379 has been withheld.
The result of Roll Nos.000797, 000957, 003533, 004994, 052161, 062662, 110670, 233449 & 257379 has been withheld.
BUREAU OF INDIAN STANDARDS SCIENTIST-‘B’ SELECTION PROCEDURE
Eligible candidates will be required to appear in a written examination of 2½ hrs duration.
The question paper will be of two parts with a total of 120 objective type questions with multiple choice answers.
Part I - consists of 80 questions on respective technical discipline as mentioned in the advertisement.
Part II - consists of 40 questions on aptitude/analytical reasoning including English.
The standard of questions will be of the level of Graduate Engineer or Post Graduate Science of the discipline mentioned in the advertisement.
SBI Associate Bank PO Exam 2011 Solved Paper
GENERAL AWARENESS
(EXAM HELD ON: 07-08-2011)
1. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad
2.Which of the following countries is NOT associated with the proposed TAPI gas pipeline?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) Portugal
d) Afghanistan
e) Turkmenistan
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) Portugal
d) Afghanistan
e) Turkmenistan
3. Bhagyam oilfields are located in which of following states?
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Maharashtra
e) Karanatka
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Maharashtra
e) Karanatka
4. The Central Government has approved Rs 7000 crore Project to clean which of the following rivers?
a) Narmada
b) Ganga
c) Mahanadi
d) Kaveri
e) Godavari
a) Narmada
b) Ganga
c) Mahanadi
d) Kaveri
e) Godavari
5. Recently a controversy rages over new land acquisition policy in which of following states?
a) Maharashtra
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Madhya Pradesh
e) West Begal
a) Maharashtra
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Madhya Pradesh
e) West Begal
6.BP Plc, a well known company is engaged in which one of the following as its major operations?
a) Nuclear Power Generation
b) Oil and Gas Exploration
c) Wind power generation
d) Steel production
e) Coal production
a) Nuclear Power Generation
b) Oil and Gas Exploration
c) Wind power generation
d) Steel production
e) Coal production
7. As per statement given by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in medias, the main cause of
increased inflation rate is the recent hike in prices of ______.
a) daily commodities
b) petroleum products--ans
c) infrastructure materials
d) imported goods
e) None of the above
increased inflation rate is the recent hike in prices of ______.
a) daily commodities
b) petroleum products--ans
c) infrastructure materials
d) imported goods
e) None of the above
8. The System Software is used to
a) diagonose and troubleshooting the attached device
b) create graphics images
c) draw the picture on paper
d) manage the available internal resources
e) None of these
a) diagonose and troubleshooting the attached device
b) create graphics images
c) draw the picture on paper
d) manage the available internal resources
e) None of these
9. One billionth of a second is
a) gigabyte
b) nanosecond
c) terabyte
d) megabyte
e) None of these
a) gigabyte
b) nanosecond
c) terabyte
d) megabyte
e) None of these
10. A technology used to create, store, exchange and utilize information in its various forms including business data, conversations, still images, motion pictures and multimedia presentations is called
a) website
b) information technology
c) internet chat
d) networking
e) None of these
a) website
b) information technology
c) internet chat
d) networking
e) None of these
11. A program which is used find spam data in the computer and capable to distroy is called
a) firewall
b) anti-spam program
c) adware remover
d) pop-up blocker
e) None of these
a) firewall
b) anti-spam program
c) adware remover
d) pop-up blocker
e) None of these
12. A chip placed on the electronic circuit board inside a system unit that hold temporarliy piece of information/data is called (containing the data being displayed on output device)
a) modem
b) scanner
c) memory
d) hard disk
e) None of these
13. A graphic or piece of text that links to another piece of information in a web page is
a) meta-tag
b) page connection
c) domain name
d) hyperlink
e) None of these
a) meta-tag
b) page connection
c) domain name
d) hyperlink
e) None of these
14. Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Java
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Java
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN
15. Embedded operating systems are used in
a) desktop computers
b) mainframe computers
c) PDAs
d) network server computer
e) None of these
a) desktop computers
b) mainframe computers
c) PDAs
d) network server computer
e) None of these
16. . A Web or part of a Web site, or part of an online service that provides a venue for communities of
users with a common interest to communicate in real time is called
a) user forum
b) blog
c) discussion forum
d) chat-group
e) None of these
users with a common interest to communicate in real time is called
a) user forum
b) blog
c) discussion forum
d) chat-group
e) None of these
17. The main electronic circuit board in the system unit is called
a) Circuit plate
b) Chassis
c) Motherboard
d) Processor
e) None of these
a) Circuit plate
b) Chassis
c) Motherboard
d) Processor
e) None of these
18. The System Unit consists of
a) all electronic components of the computer used to process data
b) all hardware and software
c) application programs
d) Mouse and keyboard
e) None of these
a) all electronic components of the computer used to process data
b) all hardware and software
c) application programs
d) Mouse and keyboard
e) None of these
19. A portable computer called Laptop, having a weight about 1.4 to 4.5 kg is also known as
a) Desktop PC
b) Mainframe Computer
c) Personal Computer
d) Micro Computer
e) Notebook computer
a) Desktop PC
b) Mainframe Computer
c) Personal Computer
d) Micro Computer
e) Notebook computer
20. if Reserve Bank of India hikes interest rates by 25 basis points in its monetary policy, then a commercial bank would like to increase it’s interest rates on loans by 25 basis points of
a) Prime Lending Rate
b) Repo rate
c) Base rate
d) Saving account interest rate
e) None of these
a) Prime Lending Rate
b) Repo rate
c) Base rate
d) Saving account interest rate
e) None of these
21. Which one of the following pairs of countries is associated with nuclear arms control treaty START?
a) US-China
b) China-Iran
c) US-Russia
a) US-China
b) China-Iran
c) US-Russia
d) US – Japan
e) None of these
e) None of these
22. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at …..
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad
23. Which of the following schemes is NOT launched by Ministry of Rural Development?
a) National Family Benefit Scheme
b) National Old Age Pension Scheme
c) Nationall Maternity Benefit Scheme
d) Mid Day Meal scheme
e) All the above are launched by Ministry of Rural Development
a) National Family Benefit Scheme
b) National Old Age Pension Scheme
c) Nationall Maternity Benefit Scheme
d) Mid Day Meal scheme
e) All the above are launched by Ministry of Rural Development
24. Who among the followings has been appointed as coach of Indian cricket team for next two years?
a) Gary Kirsten
b) John Buchanan
c) Andy Flower
d) Duncan Fletcher
e) None of the above
a) Gary Kirsten
b) John Buchanan
c) Andy Flower
d) Duncan Fletcher
e) None of the above
25. What does the letter ‘L’ stands for in the term LAF commonly used in financial/economic news?
a) Liquidity
a) Liquidity
b) Least
c) Liabilities
d) Longitudinal
e) Linear
c) Liabilities
d) Longitudinal
e) Linear
26. FINO, a term used by media in financial newspapers and tv news channels is stands for
a) Financial Information Network & Operations
b) Financial Inclusion News & Operations
c) Financial Inclusion Network & Operations
d) Fast Information Network & Operations
e) None of the above
a) Financial Information Network & Operations
b) Financial Inclusion News & Operations
c) Financial Inclusion Network & Operations
d) Fast Information Network & Operations
e) None of the above
27. Why Kanishtha Dhankar recently was in news?
a) She is new Femina Miss India World 2011
b) She is new coach of Women’s Hockey team
c) She has won gold medal in Asian Games 2010
d) She has won Miss World 2011 crown
e) None of these
a) She is new Femina Miss India World 2011
b) She is new coach of Women’s Hockey team
c) She has won gold medal in Asian Games 2010
d) She has won Miss World 2011 crown
e) None of these
28. Goodluck Jonathan has been re-elected as President of _________.
a) Sudan
b) South Korea
c) Lebanon
d) Nigeria
e) Ghana
a) Sudan
b) South Korea
c) Lebanon
d) Nigeria
e) Ghana
29. The Planning Commission has set GDP growth target for 12th Plan (2012-17) at _______.
a) 7.5 – 8.0 per cent
b) 8.0 – 8.5 per cent
c) 9 – 9.5 per cent
d) 9.5 – 10.0 per cent
e) None of the above
a) 7.5 – 8.0 per cent
b) 8.0 – 8.5 per cent
c) 9 – 9.5 per cent
d) 9.5 – 10.0 per cent
e) None of the above
30. The International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance, has been adopted by which of the following international agencies/organisation?
a) World Health Organisation (WHO)
b) International Maritime Organization
c) International Labour Organization
d) United Nations (UN)
e) International Atomic Energy Agency
a) World Health Organisation (WHO)
b) International Maritime Organization
c) International Labour Organization
d) United Nations (UN)
e) International Atomic Energy Agency
31. The amount of liquid assets, such as cash, precious metals or other short-term securities, that a
financial institution or bank must maintain in its reserves is called
a) CRR
b) Bank Deposits
c) Fixed Assets
d) SLR
e) None of these
financial institution or bank must maintain in its reserves is called
a) CRR
b) Bank Deposits
c) Fixed Assets
d) SLR
e) None of these
32. Before launching the new indices to measure food inflation, earlier it is measured on the basis of
a) Wholesale Price Index
b) Consumer Price Index
c) Nifty Index
c) BSE & NSE index
e) None of these
a) Wholesale Price Index
b) Consumer Price Index
c) Nifty Index
c) BSE & NSE index
e) None of these
33. Which of the following space agencies has recently placed three satellites Resourcesat,
Youthsat, and X-SAT successfully in the Earth orbit?
a) NASA
b) ROSCOSMOS
c) CNSA
d) ISRO
e) None of these
Youthsat, and X-SAT successfully in the Earth orbit?
a) NASA
b) ROSCOSMOS
c) CNSA
d) ISRO
e) None of these
34. K Balachander who recently won Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2010 is a famous
a) Cinematographer
b) Director
c) Musician
d) Dancer
e) Writer
a) Cinematographer
b) Director
c) Musician
d) Dancer
e) Writer
BRICS?
a) Sudan
b) Singapore
b) South Korea
d) Srilanka
e) South Africa
Wednesday, August 17, 2011
Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011
English Language
(Exam Held on 16-1-2011)
Directions—(Q. 1 to 5) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) “What is waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(2) “Speak to her”, he said, “She's into books”.
(3) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticing her.
(4) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(5) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
1. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
2. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
4. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 6 to15) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came …(6)… effect in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just …(7)… the corner, it is fast becoming clear that …(8)… well-intentioned ideas into …(9)… will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admissions under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling. The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that schools will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure …(10)… will only incentives manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, …(11)… we have the infrastructure in place first. Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the …(12)… way around. In that sense, legislators' assessment of ground realities is …(13)… target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of lowcost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down …(14)… on private schools for failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the existing government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much-needed supply-demand …(15)… in the education sector.
6. (A) with
(B) for
(C) on
(D) into
(E) in
Ans : (D)
7. (A) around
(B) near
(C) into
(D) about
(E) reaching
Ans : (A)
8. (A) forming
(B) translating
(C) having
(D) taking
(E) framing
Ans : (B)
9. (A) affect
(B) ideas
(C) practice
(D) concept
(E) procedure
Ans : (C)
10. (A) benefit
(B) merit
(C) chance
(D) basis
(E) method
Ans : (C)
11. (A) unless
(B) until
(C) executed
(D) provided
(E) exercised
Ans : (D)
12. (A) other
(B) any
(C) two
(D) differ
(E) after
Ans : (A)
13. (A) on
(B) of
(C) often
(D) taken
(E) off
Ans : (E)
14. (A) soft
(B) more
(C) less
(D) only
(E) hard
Ans : (D)
15. (A) need
(B) equilibrium
(C) expectation
(D) attempt
(E) aspects
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. The President has denied (A) / that the economy is in recession (B) / or was go into one (C) / despite a spate of downcast reports. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. The angry at being (A) / left out of the bonanza (B) / is palpable among (C) / employees of the organization. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
18. His comments came after (A) / the research group said that its (B) / consumer confidence index were (C) / slumped to its lowest level. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
19. If all goes well, (A) / the examination scheduled for next month (B) / is all set to be completely free (C) / from annoying power cuts and disruptions. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
20. There are just too few trains (A) / for the ever-grow (B) / number of passengers (C) / in the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
21. The buzz at the party was (A) / that a famous (B) / filmstar and politician, would (C) / probable drop by for a while. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
22. The Opposition disrupted proceedings (A) / in both Houses of Parliament (B) / for the second consecutive day (C) / above the plight of farmers in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
23. In response to the growing crisis, (A) / the agency is urgently asking for (B) / more contributions, to make up for (C) / its sharp decline in purchasing power. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
24. The tennis player easy through (A) / the opening set before her opponent, (B) / rallied to take the final two sets (C) / for the biggest victory of her young career. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
25. Aggression in some teenage boys (A) / may be linkage to overly (B) / large glands in their brains, (C) / a new study has found. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26 to 35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Centre for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,” said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper's lead author, “But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added." Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of such cuts on the world's climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR - based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team's results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have other impacts, according to the climate modelling study.
Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8.7 inches). also, Arctic ice in the summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three-quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.
26. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) As global warming is not an issue of concern
(B) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change
(C) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts
(D) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. What would not be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) Temperatures will stop soaring
(B) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace
(C) The rise in sea level would be lesser
(D) All of the above would be the impact
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ?
(A) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius
(B) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches
(C) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100
(D) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
29. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ?
(A) A study of the rise in water level
(B) A study of rise in temperatures
(C) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions
(D) A study of the Arctic region
(E) A study of change in seasons
Ans : (C)
30. Which of the following statements is true in context of the passage ?
(A) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm
(B) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(C) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during the pre-industrial era
(D) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change” ?
(A) Climate change can be stopped completely
(B) Climate change can be regularized
(C) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively
(D) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
32. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ?
(A) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree
(B) So that they could stabilize the climate change
(C) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions
(D) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at end of this century ?
(1) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius.
(2) Arctic warming would be reduced by half.
(3) Thermal expansion will stop completely.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 34 to 37) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage—
34. DRAMATIC
(A) unprecedented
(B) thrilling
(C) spectacular
(D) effective
(E) feeble
Ans : (D)
35. SHRINK
(A) contract
(B) physician
(C) wither
(D) shrivel
(E) reduce
Ans : (E)
36. PREDOMINANTLY (A) clearly
(B) aggressively
(C) mainly
(D) firstly
(E) faintly
Ans : (C)
37. MASSIVE
(A) tall
(B) tough
(C) total
(D) little
(E) severe
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 38 to 40) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
38. SIGNIFICANT
(A) substantial
(B) miniscule
(C) incoherent
(D) unimportant
(E) irrelevant
Ans : (D)
39. OPPOSED
(A) resistant
(B) against
(C) favouring
(D) similar
(E) agree
Ans : (D)
40. DIMINISHED
(A) created
(B) rose
(C) increased
(D) lessen
(E) finished
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correc tion is required, mark (E) as the answer.
41. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and stood a top the 24-storey building to participate in the activities.
(A) gathered all her courage
(B) gathered all courageous
(C) gather all courageous
(D) is gathered all courage
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
42. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration.
(A) go so well
(B) going so well
(C) gone as well
(D) going as well
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
43. The ban was imposed by the state's commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie.
(A) had threats of burning
(B) had threated to burn
(C) had threatened to burn
(D) had threatened to burning
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
44. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in Pune.
(A) will be inaugurate
(B) is inauguration
(C) will inaugurating
(D) is inaugurate
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
45. At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable.
(A) come forward
(B) come to the fore
(C) came to the forth
(D) came to the fore
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 46 to 50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
46. Behaving in a …… and serious way, even in a …… situation, makes people respect you.
(A) calm, difficult
(B) steady, angry
(C) flamboyant, tricky
(D) cool, astounding
(E) silly, sound
Ans : (A)
47. Alongwith a sharp rise in ……, a recession would eventually result in more men, women, and children, living in ……
(A) crime, apathy
(B) fatalities, poor
(C) deaths, slums
(D) unemployment, poverty
(E) migrations, streets
Ans : (D)
48. The government has …… to provide financial aid to the ones …… by severe floods in the city.
(A) desired, troubled
(B) promised, havoc
(C) failed, affected
(D) wanted, struck
(E) decided, ill
Ans : (C)
49. An airplane with …… passengers on board made an unscheduled …… as the airport to which it was heading was covered with thick fog.
(A) irritable, slip
(B) faulty, stop
(C) variety, halt
(D) tons, wait
(E) numerous, landing
Ans : (C)
50. Deemed universities …… huge fees, but have not been successful in providing …… education to our students.
(A) collect, maintaining
(B) pay, better
(C) ask, good
(D) charge, quality
(E) demand, quantitative
Ans : (D)
(1) “What is waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(2) “Speak to her”, he said, “She's into books”.
(3) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticing her.
(4) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(5) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
1. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
2. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
4. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 6 to15) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came …(6)… effect in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just …(7)… the corner, it is fast becoming clear that …(8)… well-intentioned ideas into …(9)… will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admissions under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling. The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that schools will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure …(10)… will only incentives manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, …(11)… we have the infrastructure in place first. Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the …(12)… way around. In that sense, legislators' assessment of ground realities is …(13)… target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of lowcost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down …(14)… on private schools for failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the existing government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much-needed supply-demand …(15)… in the education sector.
6. (A) with
(B) for
(C) on
(D) into
(E) in
Ans : (D)
7. (A) around
(B) near
(C) into
(D) about
(E) reaching
Ans : (A)
8. (A) forming
(B) translating
(C) having
(D) taking
(E) framing
Ans : (B)
9. (A) affect
(B) ideas
(C) practice
(D) concept
(E) procedure
Ans : (C)
10. (A) benefit
(B) merit
(C) chance
(D) basis
(E) method
Ans : (C)
11. (A) unless
(B) until
(C) executed
(D) provided
(E) exercised
Ans : (D)
12. (A) other
(B) any
(C) two
(D) differ
(E) after
Ans : (A)
13. (A) on
(B) of
(C) often
(D) taken
(E) off
Ans : (E)
14. (A) soft
(B) more
(C) less
(D) only
(E) hard
Ans : (D)
15. (A) need
(B) equilibrium
(C) expectation
(D) attempt
(E) aspects
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. The President has denied (A) / that the economy is in recession (B) / or was go into one (C) / despite a spate of downcast reports. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. The angry at being (A) / left out of the bonanza (B) / is palpable among (C) / employees of the organization. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
18. His comments came after (A) / the research group said that its (B) / consumer confidence index were (C) / slumped to its lowest level. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
19. If all goes well, (A) / the examination scheduled for next month (B) / is all set to be completely free (C) / from annoying power cuts and disruptions. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
20. There are just too few trains (A) / for the ever-grow (B) / number of passengers (C) / in the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
21. The buzz at the party was (A) / that a famous (B) / filmstar and politician, would (C) / probable drop by for a while. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
22. The Opposition disrupted proceedings (A) / in both Houses of Parliament (B) / for the second consecutive day (C) / above the plight of farmers in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
23. In response to the growing crisis, (A) / the agency is urgently asking for (B) / more contributions, to make up for (C) / its sharp decline in purchasing power. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
24. The tennis player easy through (A) / the opening set before her opponent, (B) / rallied to take the final two sets (C) / for the biggest victory of her young career. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
25. Aggression in some teenage boys (A) / may be linkage to overly (B) / large glands in their brains, (C) / a new study has found. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26 to 35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Centre for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,” said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper's lead author, “But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added." Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of such cuts on the world's climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR - based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team's results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 450 ppm would have other impacts, according to the climate modelling study.
Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8.7 inches). also, Arctic ice in the summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three-quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.
26. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) As global warming is not an issue of concern
(B) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change
(C) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts
(D) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. What would not be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ?
(A) Temperatures will stop soaring
(B) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace
(C) The rise in sea level would be lesser
(D) All of the above would be the impact
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ?
(A) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius
(B) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches
(C) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100
(D) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
29. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ?
(A) A study of the rise in water level
(B) A study of rise in temperatures
(C) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions
(D) A study of the Arctic region
(E) A study of change in seasons
Ans : (C)
30. Which of the following statements is true in context of the passage ?
(A) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm
(B) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(C) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during the pre-industrial era
(D) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change” ?
(A) Climate change can be stopped completely
(B) Climate change can be regularized
(C) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively
(D) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
32. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ?
(A) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree
(B) So that they could stabilize the climate change
(C) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions
(D) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at end of this century ?
(1) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius.
(2) Arctic warming would be reduced by half.
(3) Thermal expansion will stop completely.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 34 to 37) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage—
34. DRAMATIC
(A) unprecedented
(B) thrilling
(C) spectacular
(D) effective
(E) feeble
Ans : (D)
35. SHRINK
(A) contract
(B) physician
(C) wither
(D) shrivel
(E) reduce
Ans : (E)
36. PREDOMINANTLY (A) clearly
(B) aggressively
(C) mainly
(D) firstly
(E) faintly
Ans : (C)
37. MASSIVE
(A) tall
(B) tough
(C) total
(D) little
(E) severe
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 38 to 40) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
38. SIGNIFICANT
(A) substantial
(B) miniscule
(C) incoherent
(D) unimportant
(E) irrelevant
Ans : (D)
39. OPPOSED
(A) resistant
(B) against
(C) favouring
(D) similar
(E) agree
Ans : (D)
40. DIMINISHED
(A) created
(B) rose
(C) increased
(D) lessen
(E) finished
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correc tion is required, mark (E) as the answer.
41. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courage and stood a top the 24-storey building to participate in the activities.
(A) gathered all her courage
(B) gathered all courageous
(C) gather all courageous
(D) is gathered all courage
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
42. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration.
(A) go so well
(B) going so well
(C) gone as well
(D) going as well
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
43. The ban was imposed by the state's commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie.
(A) had threats of burning
(B) had threated to burn
(C) had threatened to burn
(D) had threatened to burning
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
44. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in Pune.
(A) will be inaugurate
(B) is inauguration
(C) will inaugurating
(D) is inaugurate
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
45. At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable.
(A) come forward
(B) come to the fore
(C) came to the forth
(D) came to the fore
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 46 to 50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
46. Behaving in a …… and serious way, even in a …… situation, makes people respect you.
(A) calm, difficult
(B) steady, angry
(C) flamboyant, tricky
(D) cool, astounding
(E) silly, sound
Ans : (A)
47. Alongwith a sharp rise in ……, a recession would eventually result in more men, women, and children, living in ……
(A) crime, apathy
(B) fatalities, poor
(C) deaths, slums
(D) unemployment, poverty
(E) migrations, streets
Ans : (D)
48. The government has …… to provide financial aid to the ones …… by severe floods in the city.
(A) desired, troubled
(B) promised, havoc
(C) failed, affected
(D) wanted, struck
(E) decided, ill
Ans : (C)
49. An airplane with …… passengers on board made an unscheduled …… as the airport to which it was heading was covered with thick fog.
(A) irritable, slip
(B) faulty, stop
(C) variety, halt
(D) tons, wait
(E) numerous, landing
Ans : (C)
50. Deemed universities …… huge fees, but have not been successful in providing …… education to our students.
(A) collect, maintaining
(B) pay, better
(C) ask, good
(D) charge, quality
(E) demand, quantitative
Ans : (D)
Sunday, August 14, 2011
Approved Distance Learning Institutes in India
ANDHRA PRADESH | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Acharya Nagarjuna University, Guntur | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Andhra University, Visakhapatnam | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad | State Open University | 07/04/13 | |
Dravidian University, Kuppam | State Government University | – | |
Gitam University, Visakhapatnam | Deemed University | 2011–12 (CW–JC) | |
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad | State Government University | – | |
Kakatiya University, Warangal | State Government University | – | |
Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad | Central University | – | |
NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad | State Government University | – | |
Osmania University, Hyderabad | State Government University | 2011–12 | |
Potti Sreeramulu Telugu University, Hyderabad | State Government University | 2013–14 (CW) | |
Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, Tirupati | Deemed University | 2012–13 | |
Rayalseema University, Kurnool | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Sri Krishnadevaraya University, Anantapur | State Government University | – | |
Sri Padmavati Mahila Visvavidyalayam, Tirupati | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati | State Government University | – | |
University of English & Foreign Languages, Hyderabad | Institute of national importance | – | |
University of Hyderabad, Hyderabad | Central University | – |
ARUNACHAL PRADESH | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Rajiv Gandhi University, Itanagar | Central University | – |
ASSAM | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Dibrugarh University, Dibrugarh | State Government University | – | |
Gauhati University, Gauhati | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Krishna Kanta Handique State Open University, Guwahati | State Open University | 7/4/13 |
BIHAR | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Babasaheb Bhim Rao Ambedkar Bihar University, Muzaffarpur | State Government University | – | |
Lalit Narayan Mithila University, Darbhanga | State Government University | – | |
Magadh University, Bodh Gaya | State Government University | – | |
Nalanda Open University, Patna | State Open University | 7/4/13 | |
Patna University, Patna | State Government University | 2010–11 |
CHHATTISGARH | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Dr. CV Raman University, Bilaspur | Private State University | – | |
MATS University, Raipur | Private State University | – | |
Pt. Sunderlal Sharma (Open) University, Bilaspur | State Open University | 7/4/13 |
DELHI | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
AIMA, Delhi | Private Institution | 2009–10 | |
Delhi University, Delhi | Central University | – | |
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University, Delhi | State Government University | – | |
Indira Gandhi National Open University, Delhi | National Open University | 2014–15 | |
Institute of Management and Development, Delhi | Private Institution | – | |
Institute of Rail Transport, New Delhi | State Government Institution | 2013–14 (CW) | |
Jamia Hamdard, New Delhi | Deemed University | – | |
Jamia Milia Islamia, New Delhi | Central University | – | |
Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan | Deemed University | 2012–13 | |
TECNIA Institute of Technology, Delhi | Private Institution | 2009–10 |
GUJARAT | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Open University, Ahmedabad | State Open University | 7/4/13 | |
Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India, Ahmedabad | Private Institution | – | |
Gujarat Vidyapith, Ahmedabad | Deemed University | – | |
Sumandeep Vidyapeeth University, Vadodara | Deemed University | – |
HARYANA | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Chaudhary Devilal University, Sirsa | State Government University | – | |
Guru Jambheshwar University, Hisar | State Government University | 2011–12 | |
IILM Institute of Higher Education, Gurgaon | Private Institution | 2009–10 | |
JK Business School, Gurgaon, Haryana | Private Institution | 2009–10 | |
Kurukshetra University, Kurukshetra | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Maharishi Dayanand University, Rohtak | State Government University | – | |
Maharshi Markandeshwar University, Amblala | Deemed University | 2012–13 | |
Manav Rachna International University | Deemed University | 2012–13 |
HIMACHAL PRADESH | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Himachal Pradesh University, Shimla | State Government University | – |
J&K | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
University of Jammu, Jammu | State Government University | – | |
University of Kashmir, Srinagar | State Government University | – |
KARNATAKA | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Bangalore University, Bangalore | State Government University | – | |
Bharatiya Vidya Foundation, Bangalore | Private Institution | – | NA |
Gulbarga University, Gulbarga | State Government University | – | |
Kannada University, Hampi | State Government University | – | |
Karnataka State Open University, Mysore | State Open University | 7/4/13 | |
Karnataka University, Dharwad | State Government University | – | |
Kuvempu University, Shimoga | State Government University | – | |
Mangalore University, Mangalore | State Government University | – | |
Manipal University, Manipal | Deemed University | – | |
National Law School of India University, Bangalore | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Swamy Vivekananda Yoga Anusandhan Sansthan, Bangalore | Deemed University | – | |
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belgaum | Deemed University | – |
KERALA | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Kannur University, Kannur | State Government University | – | |
Mahatma Gandhi University, Kottayam | State Government University | – | |
University of Calicut, Kozhikode | State Government University | – | |
University of Kerala, Thiruvananthapuram | State Government University | – |
MADHYA PRADESH | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Awadhes Pratap Singh University, Rewa | State Government University | – | |
Barkatullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal | State Government University | – | |
Devi Ahilya Vishwavidyalaya, Indore | State Government University | – | |
Dr Harisingh Gour V V , Sagar | Central University | – | |
Jiwaji University, Gwalior | State Government University | – | |
M.G. Chitrakoot Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya, Chitrakoot | State Government University | – | |
Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University, Bhopal | State Open University | 7/4/13 | |
Maharishi Mahesh Yogi Vedic Vishwavidyalaya, Katni | State Government University | – | |
Rani Durgawati University, Jabalpur | State Government University | – |
MAHARASHTRA | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Balaji Institute of Modern Management, Pune | Private Institution | 2012–13 | |
Bharati Vidyapeeth University, Pune | Deemed University | – | |
Dr. D Y Patil University, Pune | Deemed University | 2012–13 | |
Indian Institute of Material Management, Navi Mumbai | Private Institution | 2013–14 (CW) | |
Indira International Distance Education Academy, Indira Group of Institutes, Pune | Private Institution | 2010–11 | |
International Institute for Population Sciences, Mumbai | Deemed University | 2013–14 (CW) | |
Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya, Wardha | Central University | – | |
MIT, Pune | Private Institution | – | |
NMIMS University, Mumbai | Deemed University | 2012–13 | |
North Maharashtra University, Jalgaon | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Padmashree Dr. DY Patil University, Navi Mumbai | Deemed University | 2011–12 | |
PSB Educational Foundations, Pune | Private Institution | 2009–10 | |
Sant Gadge Baba Amravati University, Amravati | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Shivaji University, Kolhapur | State Government University | – | |
Shreemati Nathibai Daodar Thackersey (SNDT) Women’s University, Mumbai | State Government University | – | |
Sinhgad Technical Education Society, Pune | Private Institution | – | |
Swami Ramanand Teerth Marathwada University, Nanded | State Government University | – | |
Symbiosis Centre for Distance Learning, Pune | Private Institution | – | |
Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai | Deemed University | 2013–14 (CW) | |
Tilak Maharashtra Vidyapeeth, Pune | Deemed University | 2013–14 (CW) | |
University of Mumbai, Mumbai | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Welingkar Institute of Management Studies, Mumbai | Private Institution | 2009–10 | |
Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University, Nashik | State Open University | 7/4/13 |
MEHGALAYA | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
NEHU, Shillong | Central University | – |
MIZORAM | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
ICFAI, Aizawl | Private Institution | – |
NAGALAND | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Global Open University, Wokha | Private State University | – |
ORISSA | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Asian School of Business Management, Bhubaneshwar | Private Institution | – | |
Berhampur University, Berhampur | State Government University | – | |
Fakir Mohan University, Balasore | State Government University | – | |
North Orissa University, Mayurbhanj | State Government University | – | |
Sambalpur University, Sambalpur | State Government University | – | |
Utkal University, Bhubaneswar | State Government University | – |
PONDICHERRY | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Pondicherry University, Pondicherry | Central University |
PUNJAB | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar | State Government University | – | |
Lovely Professional University, Phagwara | Private State University | 2012–13 | |
Panjab University, Chandigarh | State Government University | – | |
Punjab Technical University, Jalandhar | State Government University | 2011–12 | |
Punjabi University, Patiala | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Thapar Instt. of Engg. & Technology, Patiala | Deemed University | 2011–12 |
RAJASTHAN | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
BITS, Pilani, Rajasthan | Deemed University | – | |
IASE Deemed University, Sardarshahr | Deemed University | – | |
Jagan Nath University, Jaipur | Private State University | 2012–13 |
RAJASTHAN | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Jain Vishva Bharati Institute, Ladnun | Deemed University | – | |
Jaipur National University, Jaipur | Private State University | 2011–12 | |
JRN Rajasthan Vidyapeeth, Udaipur | Deemed University | – | |
NIMS University, Jaipur | Private State University | 2011–12 | |
Vardhman Mahaveer Open University, Kota | State Open University | 7/4/13 |
SIKKIM | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
EIILM University, Jorethang | Private State University | 2009–10 | |
ICFAI University, Gangtok | Private University | – | |
Sikkim Manipal University, Gangtok | Private State University | 2012–13 |
TAMIL NADU | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Alagappa University, Karaikudi | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Annamalai University, Annamalainagar | State Government University | 14/02/2012 | |
Bharath University, Chennai | Deemed University | – | |
Bharathiar University, Coimbatore | State Government University | – | |
Bharathidasan University, Tiruchirapalli | State Government University | – | |
CII Institute of Logistics, Chennai | State Government Institution | 2012–13 | |
Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai | State Government Institution | – | |
Dr. MGR University, Chennai | State Government University | – | |
Gandhigram Rural University, Gandhigram | Deemed University | – | |
Karpagam University, Coimbatore | Deemed University | 2011–12 | |
Karunya University, Coimbatore | Deemed University | – | |
Madurai Kamaraj University, Madurai | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Manonmaniam Sundaranar University, Tirunelveli | State Government University | – | |
Meenakshi Academy of Higher Education and Research (Meenakshi University), Chennai | Deemed University | 2013–14 (CW) | |
Mother Teresa Women’s University, Kodaikanal | State Government University | – | |
Periyar Maniammai University, Thanjavur | Deemed University | – | |
Periyar University, Salem | State Government University | – | |
PRIST University, Thanjavur | Deemed University | – | |
SASTRA University, Thanjavur | Deemed University | – |
TAMIL NADU | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Sri Chandrasekharendra Saraswathi Viswamahavidyalaya, Kanchipuram | Deemed University | – | |
Sri Ramachandra University, Chennai | Deemed University | – | |
SRM University, Kanchipuram | Deemed University | – | |
St. Peter’s University, Chennai | Deemed University | 2011–12 | |
Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, Coimbatore | State Government University | – | |
Tamil Nadu Dr. Ambedkar Law University, Chennai | State Government University | – | – |
Tamil Nadu Open University, Chennai | State Open University | 7/4/13 | |
Tamil University, Thanjavur | State Government University | – | |
University of Madras, Chennai | State Government University | – | |
Vinayaka Missions University, Salem | Deemed University | 2013–14 (CW) |
TRIPURA | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
ICFAI University, Agartala | Private Institution | 2012–13 | |
Tripura University, Agartala | Central University | – |
UTTARAKHAND | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Dev Sanskriti Vishwavidyalaya, Haridwar | Private State University | 2012–13 | |
Gurukul Kangri V V, Haridwar | Deemed University | – | |
ICFAI University, Dehradun | Private State University | – | |
University of Petroleum and Energy Studies, Dehradun | Private State University | 2011–12 | |
Uttarakhand Open University, Nainital | State Open University | 7/4/13 |
UTTAR PRADESH | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh | Central University | – | |
Allahabad Agricultural Institute , Allahabad | Deemed University | 2011–12 | |
Amity University, Noida | Private State University | – | |
BLS Institute of Management, Ghaziabad | Private Institution | – |
UTTAR PRADESH | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Dayalbagh Education Institute, Agra | Deemed University | 2011–12 | |
IMT Distance and Open Learning Institute, Ghaziabad | Private Institution | – | |
Indian Institute of Carpet Technology, Bhadohi, UP | State Government Institution | 2011–12 | |
NIMT, Greater Noida | Private Institution | 2009–10 | – |
Shobhit Institute of Engg. & Tech., Meerut | Deemed University | – | |
Swami Vivekananda Subharti University, Meerut | Private State University | 2011–12 | |
U.P. Rajarshi Tandon Open University, Allahabad | State Open University | 7/4/13 | |
University of Allahabad, Allahabad | Central University | – | |
University of Lucknow, Lucknow | State Government University | – |
WEST BENGAL | |||
University/Institution | Category | Approval Upto | Website |
Jadavpur University, Kolkata | State Government University | 2011–12 | |
Netaji Subhas Open University, Kolkata | State Open University | 7/4/13 | |
Rabindra Bharati University, Kolkata | State Government University | – | |
University of Burdwan, Burdwan | State Government University | – | |
University of Kalyani, Kalyani | State Government University | 2011–12 | |
University of North Bengal, Darjeeling | State Government University | 2012–13 | |
Vidyasagar University, Midnapore | State Government University | 2012–13 |
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