IBPS CLERKS BANKING AWARENESS MCQs

1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949

2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body

3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies

4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings

5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products

6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks

7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development

8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support

9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks

10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline

11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor

12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits

13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.

14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit

15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee

16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures

17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization

18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances

19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals

20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks

21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions

22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory

23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.

24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement

25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations

26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month

27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts

28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance

29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice

30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.

31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution

32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits

33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs

34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly

35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis

36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)

37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.

38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management

39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan

40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products

41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance

42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing

43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan

45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate

46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.

47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit

48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package

49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance

50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments

51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit

52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects

53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers

54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans

55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company

56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services

57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards

58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal

59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC

60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT

61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting

62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity

63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC

64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182

65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account

66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above

67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee

68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%

69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR

70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.

71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee

72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor

73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15

74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI

75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555

76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note

77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan

78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these

79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits

81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.

82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)

83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.

84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one

85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC

86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks

87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.

88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit

89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI

90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit

91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control

92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system

93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate

94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969

95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank

96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent

97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government

98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate

99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores

100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad

Answers

1) d      2) c  3) d     4) d        5) d   6) c    7) b   8) d    9) a  10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d

ONGC MANAGEMENT TRAINEE 2009 PAPER

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1. A single phase transformer is connected to a supply of voltage V and frequency f and is supplying a load, connected across its secondary winding. If the supply voltage is reduced from V to V/2, the flux established in the core will
1. decrease by nearly 50%
2. increase by nearly 50%
3. remain unchanged
4. be affected by amount of load and not by the applied voltage
2. Under magnetic saturation of the core of a transformer, the reactance parameters of its equivalent circuit are affected such that
1. X1 and X2 increase while Xm does not change
2. X1 and X2 do not change while Xm decreases
3. X1 and X2 do not change while Xm increases
4. X1 and X2 decreases while Xm does not change
3. A single phase 2000/200 V, 10 kVA, two winding transformer is reconnected as a step-up autotransformer with 2000 V winding as primary. The kVA rating of the autotransformer shall be
1. 10 kVA
2. 11 kVA
3. 110 kVA
4. 220 kVA
4. The power factor at which power is drawn by a transformer is
1. very low under O.C. test but high under S.C. test
2. high under O.C. test but low under S.C. test
3. low both under O.C. and S.C. tests
4. high both under O.C. and S.C. tests
5. The O.C.C. of a shunt d.c. generator is represented by E = 12+66I. If the field resistance is 70 ohms, the no-load voltage of the generator will be
1. 144 V
2. 210 V
3. 220 V
4. 288 V
6. In d.c. shunt motors, the developed torque is proportional to
1. induced e.m.f.
2. armature current
3. output power
4. line current
7. The speed of a separately excited d.c. motor can be controlled below base speed by (a) armature resistance control and (b) supply voltage control. What happens to the slope of modified speed-torque characteristics under the two methods?
1. It changes in both types of control
2. It remains unchanged in both types of control
3. It remains unchanged in armature resistance control while changes in supply voltage control
4.  It remains unchanged in supply voltage control while changes in armature resistance control
8. The polarity of interpoles used in d.c. machines is
1. same as the main pole ahead in generators while opposite of the main pole ahead in motors
2. same as the main pole ahead ion motors while opposite of the main pole ahead in generators
3. same as the main pole ahead in both motors and generators
4. opposite of the main pole ahead in both motors and generators
9. In synchronous generators, examine the following statements about voltage regulation:
1. Synchronous impedance method gives pessimistic results
2. MMF method gives optimistic results
3. In unsaturated machine both methods (synchronous impedance and MMF) give same result Which of the statements are correct?
   
• 1, 2 and 3
• Only 1 and 2
• Only 3
• Only 2 and 3

10. Under symmetrical short circuit of a synchronous generator, the armature reaction is 
1. magnetizing
2. demagnetizing
3. cross-magnetising
4. mainly magnetising
11. In synchronous generators, the fifth harmonic in induced emf can be eliminated by using coils show chorded by an angle
1. 9o
2. 18o
3. 27 o
4. 36o
12. In induction motor operation, a slip greater than 1 refers to
1. regenerative braking
2. motoring in reverse direction
3. plugging
4. dynamic braking
13. As the applied voltage to an induction motor, operating under no-load, is reduced to half
1. its speed reduced and stator current increases
2. its speed reduced and stator current also reduces
3. its speed reduces but there is not change in stator current
4. there is no change in speed but stator current reduces
14. A 3-phase induction motor is delivering a load of 10 kW at a lagging p.f. of 0.5. If a 3-phase capacitor bank of 7.3 kVAR is connected at its input, the resulting kVA drawn from supply shall be (approximately)
1. 26.5
2. 24.5
3. 20.0
4. 14.0
15. An electric motor developing a starting torque of 10 Nm starts with a load of 6 Nm at its shaft. If the acceleration at start is 2 rad/sec2 , the moment of inertia of the system must be
1. 2 kg-m2
2. 2 N-m2
3. 0.5 kg-m2
4. 0.5 N-m2
16. A synchronous motor works as a synchronous condenser if
1. underexcited
2. overexcited
3. excited with 100% excitation
4. unexcited
17. In relation to damper bar winding in a synchronous motor, examine the following statements:
1. Damper bars are provided in slots on poles
2. Damper bars improve excitation
3. Damper bars help the motor self start
4. Damper bars minimize hunting.
     Which of the statements are correct?
1. 1, 2, 3
2. 2, 3
3. 1, 4
4. 1, 3, 4
18. In large power ratings, synchronous motor is considered superior to induction motor, since
1. it is less expensive
2. its efficiency is better
3. it can be operated at better power factor
4. its speed regulation is superior.
19. An induction motor drive is designed for two speed operation. For this purpose, the motor is provided with two windings on its stator corresponding to 4 poles and 8 poles. While the motor was running on 4 pole winding, a changeover to 8 pole winding is made. The motor will
• experience dynamic braking
• experience regenerative braking
• experience no braking but will slow down due to its inertia
• draw dangerously high current

20. A d.c. shunt motor drive of 100 h.p. is run (a) at half the rated speed by armature voltage control and (b) at 1.5 times the rated speed by field control. Its power rating in the two cases shall be modified as
• 100 h.p. in both cases
• 50 h.p. in case (a) and 150 h.p. in case (b)
• 50 h.p. in case (a) and 100 h.p. in case (b)
• 100 h.p. in case (a) and 150 h.p. in case (b)
21. A single phase full controlled rectifier can work as inverter, if the firing angle is between
• 0o and 90o
• 60o and 90o
• 90o and 180o
• 0o and 60o
22. When d.c. voltage is converted to a.c. by an inverter, PWM technique is used to
• control only the output voltage from within the inverter
• control both the output voltage and frequency from within the inverter
• control the output current
• reduce losses in the inverter
23. A thyristor which is in ON state is to be switched OFF. For this purpose a reverse bias is applied across it. Examine the following statements regarding flow of current from anode to cathode (forward current):
• Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is purely resistive
• Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is dominantly inductive
• Forward current can continue to flow if the circuit is dominantly capacitive
• Forward current will immediately stop flowing.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• Only 4
• Only 1
• Only 2 and 3
• Only 2
24. In a 3-phase full controlled thyristor bridge rectifier operating under continuous conduction mode, each thyristor conducts for
• 180o and two thyristors conduct at a time
• 120o and three thyristors conduct at a time
• 180o and three thyristors conduct at a time
• 120o and two thyristors conduct at a time
25. A single phase fully controlled rectifier is feeding a d.c. motor. At a = 0o, the armature voltage is 200 V and motor speed is 1000 rpm. Neglecting armature resistance and considering continuous conduction, the armature voltage and speed at a = 60o will be
• 100 V and 500 rpm
• 100 V and 1000 rpm
• 200 V and 500 rpm
• 100 V and speed will depend upon load
26. The grading capacitors are provided across the series connected interrupters in EHV circuit breakers for
• reducing short circuit current
• improving power factor
• equalizing distribution of recovery voltage across the interrupters
• preventing inductive current chopping.
27. The minimum cost operating condition for a thermal plant is that
• the larger units should generate more power as compared to smaller units
• the smaller units should generate more power as compared to larger units
• the incremental cost rate of the units be proportional to their rating
• the incremental cost rate of all the units be equal
28. The effect of earth on a three-phase transmission line is to
• increase its capacitance and decrease inductance
• decrease its capacitance and increase inductance
• increase its capacitance without affecting inductance
• increase its inductance without affecting capacitance.

29. In case of a transmission line if the voltage regulation is negative, then the load power factor is
1. zero
2. lagging
3. unity
4. leading
30. The voltage gradient at the surface of a cable, having a conductor of radius r and a sheath of radius R, is minimum when
1. R = r/e
2. R = r
3. R =er
4. R = er
where e = natural exponent
31. In an N-bus power system with M-PV buses, the size of the Jacobian matrix for load flow calculation is
1. N×N
2. (N-M) ×(N-M)
3. (N-1) × (N-1)
4. (N-M-1) × (N-M-1)
32. The zero-sequence equivalent circuit of a delta-star transformer, with solidly grounded neutral, is
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
33. The plug setting multiplier of a 5 Amp. IDMT relay for a fault current of 4000 Amp. and a relay setting of 125%, with a C.T. ratio of 80 will be
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 8
34. If the cost of electricity generation is to be reduced then
1. the diversity factor and load factor both should be low
2. the diversity factor and load factor both should be high
3. the diversity factor should be high while the load factor should be low
4. the diversity factor should be low and the load factor should be high
35. The coefficients of reflection for voltage and current for an open ended line are respectively
1. -1.0 and -1.0
2. -1.0 and 1.0
3. 1.0 and 1.0
4. 1.0 and -1.0
36. If G is the MVA rating of a synchronous machine with inertia constant H sec. and operating frequency f, then the angular momentum M of the machine, in MJ-sec/electrical degree, is
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
37. Circular grooves are provided underneath the insulator disc for
1. reducing the weight of the disc
2. improving disc strength
3. increasing cooling of the disc
4. increasing the creepage distance
38. The arc formation in vacuum circuit breaker is initiated by
1. field emission
2. thermal emission
3. photo emission
4. secondary emission
39. The series reactors are used to
1. limit over voltages
2. control Ferranti effect
3. limit fault current
4. improve stability

40. If the spacings Dab, Dbc and Dca between the phases a, b, and c of a three phase transmission line are not equal, then the equivalent spacing Deq can be calculated as 
• (Dab + Dbc + Dca)/3
• (Dab * Dbc * Dca)/3
• (Dab + Dbc + Dca)1/3
• (Dab * Dbc * Dca)1/3
41. For calculating fault current for a double line to ground fault in an ungrounded system
• positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected in series
• positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected in parallel
• positive and negative sequence networks are connected in parallel
• positive and negative sequence networks are connected in series
42. The unit of R, the regulation constant of turbine speed governor, is
• Hz/MW
• MW/sec
• MW/Hz
• MW-Hz
43. If in a power system the line to line base voltage is VB kV and the 3-phase base MVA is SB, then the base impedance of the system is
• 
• 
• 
• 
44. The pumped storage hydro plants are used as
• Base load plants
• Peak load plants
• Mid-range plants
• both (A) and (B)
45. The specified operating criteria for the proper operation of interconnected power system is , that Area Control Error (ACE) must be zero at least once in a
• 1 sec period
• 1 min period
• 10 min period
• 1 hr period
46. If a network has b branches and n nodes, then the number of independent KVL equations for the network are
• b-n
• n-b+1
• b-n-1
• b-n+1
47. What will be the value of ZL for maximum power transfer condition in the circuit shown in Fig. Q.47?

• (2-j2)W
• (2+j2)W
• (3-j2)W
• (3+j2)W
48. Which of the following statements does not apply to series RLC circuit?
• The current and the admittance are maximum at resonance
• The phase angle of the impedance changes from +90o to –90o as the frequency is varied from 0 to ¥
• The total stored energy in the circuit is constant at resonance
• The power factor is unity at resonance
49. The average value of a sine wave over a full cycle is
• 
• 
• 
• zero

50. A two port network is reciprocal and symmetrical, if ABCD parameters satisfy the conditions:
• AB-CD = 1 and A = D
• AD-BC = 1 and A = D
• AC-BD = 1 and A = D
• AD-BC = 1 and B = C
51. Tellegen’s theorem is applicable to
• linear time invariant networks only
• non-linear time invariant network only
• any network satisfying Kirchoff’s current and voltage laws
• linear time variant network only
52. The circuit element having identical properties for forward and reverse direction of current flow through it, is called a
• linear element
• irreversible element
• bilateral element
• unilateral element
53. A fundamental cut set contains
• only one tree branch and minimum number of links
• only one link and minimum number of tree branches
• only tree branches
• only links
54. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q. 54 if the switch is opened at t = 0 and the initial current through the switch and L1 is 10 A, then the current i(t) and the voltage v(t) of t > 0 are

• 0 A, 0 V
• 0 A, ¥ V
• 6 A, 12 V
• 10 A, 20 V
55. The Thevenin and Norton equivalents of network A at points X, Y (Fig. Q.55) can not be found if

• Networks A and B are coupled
• A is an active network
• B is a passive network
• B is a non-linear network
56. If X×Y= 0 then XÅY is equal to
• X+Y
• 
• 
• 1
57. The value of base x will be
(101)x + (110)7 = (101)8 + (29)16
• 2
• 7
• 8
• 10
58. Consider the counter circuit shown in Fig. Q.58.
If the present state QA QB of the counter is QA = 1 & QB = 0, the next state of the counter will be
• QA = 1, QB = 1
• QA = 1, QB = 0
• QA = 0, QB = 1
• QA = 0, QB = 0
59. In 8085 A mp, stack pointer is a 16 bit register which is
• Incremented by 2 whenever data is pushed on to stack
• Incremented by 2 whenever data is popped from stack
• Incremented by 1 whenever data is pushed on the stack
• Neither incremented nor decremented a result of PUSH and POP operation

60. The instruction LDA 0805H is used to input a data from an I/O device. Choose the correct statement
• It is possible only if device is interfaced using memory mapped I/O
• It is possible only if device is interfaced using I/O mapped I/O
• Instead of LDA 0805H, the instruction STA 0805H should be used
• only IN PORT instruction can be used in 8085 A mp.
61. The macro RTL implemented by INR M in 8085 A microprocessor is
• (M)¬ (M) +1
• (H,L)¬(H,L) + 1
• M(H,L) ¬M(H,L) +1
• (H) ¬ (H) + 1, (L) ¬ (L) +1
62. In an 8085 A microprocessor when INTR interrupt, becomes active, the control will be transferred to
• 0024 H memory location
• 003C H memory location
• anywhere in the memory decided by the interrupting device
• 0034 H memory location
63. In an 8255 programmable peripheral interface both the groups are programmed in made ‘0’. The possible number of combination in which the ports can be programmed is
• 16
• 4
• 3
• 2
64. The meaning of direct addressing mode is
• The address of operand is available in register pair
• The address of operand is available in PC
• The data is directly available in the instruction itself
• The address of the operand is available in the instruction itself. 
65. The schematic symbol shown in following Fig. Q. 65 is that of

• Zener diode
• Esaki diode
• Varistor
• Varactor
66. The V-I characteristic shown in Fig. Q. 66 is that of

• PN junction diode
• Tunnel diode
• Zener diode
• Varactor
67. In a four variable V-K Map shown in Fig. simplified expression for X is

• 
• 
• 
• 
68. In following circuit assuming voltage drop of LED as 2 V, the LED current when transistor is saturated will be

• 12 mA
• 9.7 mA
• 6 mA
• 5.8 mA

69. In the following circuit the collector voltage VC is (assume VBE = 0.7 V)

• -17.4 V
• 5.6 V
• 12.3 V
• 17.4 V
70. From the following V-K map the simplified expression for Z is

• 
• 
• 
• 
71. The method of absolute measurement of resistance is
• Ohm method
• Potentiometer method
• Lorenz method
• Rayleigh method
72. The instrument which gives the value of the quantity to be measured in terms of instrument constants and its deflection is called the
• absolute instrument
• secondary instrument
• recording instrument
• integrating instrument
73. The current passing through a resistor of (50±0.2)W is (4.0±0.02)A. The limiting error in the computed value of power will be
• 0.2 %
• 0.4 %
• 0.9 %
• 1.4 %
74. The coil of an instrument has 40 turns. The mean length of the coil is 25 mm and the axial length of the coil is 20 mm. If the flux density is 0.1 T and the coil current is 20 mA, the torque on the moving coil will be
• 40×10–6 N-m
• 20×10–6 N-m
• 40×10–3 N-m
• 20×10–3 N-m
75. In thermocouple element, heat energy transferred to the hot junction is converted to electrical energy by
• Johnson’s effect
• Seebeck effect
• Hall effect
• Faraday’s effect
76. The scale of dynamometer type instrument marked in terms of RMS value would be
• uniform throughout
• non-uniform, crowded near full scale
• non-uniform, crowded at the beginning
• non-uniform, crowded around mid-scale
77. The harmonic distortion percentage is accurately measure with
• V.T.V.M.
• An oscilloscope
• Harmonic distortion meter
• Square wave generator
78. A thermometer has a time constant of 3.5 s. It is quickly taken from a temperature 0oC to water bath at 100oC. What temperature will be indicated after 1.5 s?
• 100oC
• 50oC
• 35oC
• 15oC
79. A digital voltmeter employees an ADC which requires a start pulse, uses an analog comparator and has a relatively fixed conversion time independent of applied voltage. The ADC is
• digital ramp converter
• dual slope converter
• successive approximation converter
• flash type

80. In measurements made using Q-meter, impedance elements should be connected in 
1. star
2. delta
3. series
4. parallel
81. The measured values of iron losses of a magnetic specimen are 15 W and 25 W at, 40 Hz and 60 Hz respectively at constant flux density. The respective hysteresis and eddy current losses at 50 Hz are
1. 14.584 W and 5.208 W
2. 7.5 W and 12.5 W
3. 5.208 W and 14.548 W
4. 5 W and 10 W
82. The most common and best bridge method for precise measurement of inductance over a wise range is
1. Maxwell’s
2. Hay’s
3. Wien
4. Anderson
83. The AC bridge that can be used for accurate determination of excitation frequency is
1. Wien bridge
2. Schering bridge
3. Anderson bridge
4. De Sauty bridge
84. A thermo-couple arrangement is to be used to measure temperature in the range of 700-800oC. Point out the pair that would be most suitable for this application
1. Copper-constantan
2. Chromel-alumel
3. Platinum-platinum rhodium
4. Iron-constantan
85. Rotameter is employed for measuring
1. flow
2. rotation
3. specific gravity
4. viscosity
86. Consider the following statements regarding the stability of a control system
1. Gain margin and phase margin are negative
2. Gain margin and phase margin are positive
3. All roots of characteristic equation must lie in left half of s-plane
4. Gain margin is positive and phase margin is negative
Out of these statements
1. 1 and 3 are correct
2. 1 and 2 correct
3. 2 and 3 are correct
4. 3 and 4 are correct
87. In the feedback system shown below, if the steady state error for a step input is 0.05, then the value of K is

1. 0.05
2. 0.95
3. 1.9
4. 19
88. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Location of poles on s-plane)
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
List II (Impulse Response)
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
Codes:                    A         B          C          D
1.      4          1          2          3
2.      3          4          2          1
3.      1          3          2          4
4.      1          3          4          2

89. The Nyquist plot for a control system is shown in Fig. Q.89. The Bode plot of |G| for the same system will be

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
90. A unity feedback second order control system is characterized by
where J = moment of inertia B = viscous damping coefficient K = system gain The transient response specification which is not affected by variation of system gain is the
1. peak overshoot
2. damped frequency of oscillations
3. setting time
4. rise time
91. The second order system X = AX has . The value of its damping factor x and natural frequency wn are respectively
1. 0.5 and 1
2. 1 and 1
3. 0.707 and 2
4. 1 and 2
92. A negative unit feedback system has forward path transfer function as Ks/(s2+2s+25). The break in point(s) of root locus occur at
1. s=5
2. s=-5
3. both A & B
4. s = 25
93. In an electrical analog of mechanical system of rotational motion, using torque-voltage analogy, inertial and viscous damper are respectively analogous to
1. Inductance and capacitance
2. Capacitance and resistance
3. Inductance and resistance
4. Capacitance and inductance
94. The characteristic equation of a feedback system is given by
For this system, stable closed loop behavior can be ensured when gain K is such that
1. 0 £ K £ 40
2. 0 £ K £ 10
3. 0 £ K £ ¥
4. 0 £ K £ 20
95. The eigen values of the matrix  are
1. (a+1), 0
2. a, 0
3. (a-1), (a-1)
4. 0, 0
96. A first order linear system is initially relaxed. For a unit step signal u(t), the response of the system is
(1-e-3t), t > 0 If a signal 3. u(t) + d(t) is applied to the same initially relaxed system, the response will be
1. 3(1-e-3t) .u(t)+ e-3t. d(t)
2. (1-3e-3t) .u(t)
3. 3(1+e-3t) .u(t)
4. 3.u(t)
97. Consider the following statements regarding the non linear system
1. dead zone can be classified as single valued non-linearity
2. hysteresis and backlash can be classified as double valued non-linearity
3. Coulomb friction can be classified as double valued non-linearity
Out of these statements
1. 1 and 3 are correct
2. all three are correct
3. 1 and 2 are correct
4. 2 and 3 are correct
98. Consider the system
. The condition for complete state controllability and complete observability is
1. d1 > 0, b2 > 0, b1 and d2 can be anything
2. d1 > 0, d2 > 0, b1 and b2 can be anything
3. b1 > 0, b2 > 0, d1 and d2 can be anything
4. b1 > 0, b2 > 0, d1 < 0 and d2 can be anything
99. The semilog plot of gain characteristic (BODE plot) of a network is shown in the Fig. Q.99.
The gain cross over frequency wc is
1. 20 rad/sec
2. 30 rad/sec
3. 40 rad/sec
4. 25 rad/sec
100. The pole-zero configuration of a phase lead compensating network is given by
1. 
2. 
3. 
4.