Wednesday, June 30, 2010
Monday, June 28, 2010
Indian Air Force Ground Duties Branch Common Enrance Test
Indian Air Force Ground Duties Branch Common Enrance Test Scheme, Syllabus and Model Paper
SCHEME AND SYLLABUS
Common entrance Test (CET) is a tool to assess the proficiency of the candidate in English and General Awareness, for selection in Ground Duties Branches.CET has two parts, namely
- Part A- Multiple Choice Questions: English and General Awareness (30 Questions) (Duration 20 Minutes)
- Part B- Descriptive Test in English: Three Questions – One Comprehension passage with 5 Questions, one letter writing and One paragraph writing (Duration: 30 minutes).
This test is applicable to all those aspirants who apply for non-technical branches. The contents of the test include the following in Part-A and Part-B respectively:-
- Part A: English (Grammar and usage) and General Awareness – MCQs
- Part B: General Composition in English
(ii) Letter writing
(iii) Paragraph Writing
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
COMMON ENTRANCE TEST (CET)
PART-A: Multiple Choice Questions1. She spent her time in Mumbai ____________ in cafes and bars.
(a) hang out (b) hang up
(c) hang on (d) hanging out
2. One should ________ drugs.
(a) Keep up
(b) Keep Down
(c) Keep Off
(d) Keep on
3. The boy has __________ from all disciplines.
(a) Break away (b) Broken away
(c) Break into (d) Broken into
4. Strong Acids _________ metals.
(a) act upon (b) act upto
(c) act on (d) acting upto
5. If I _______________ you I wouldn’t return the call.
(a) Was (b) am
(c) were (d) would be
6. Our teacher ____________ us to the laboratory and showed us a number of experiments.
(a) taken (b) taking
(c) took (d) takes
7. Nisha________ her son against the dangers of driving the car too fast.
(a) threatened (b) warned
(c) spoke to (d) remembered
8. Give an example pertinent ________case.
(a) with (b) to
(c) on (d) for
9. He was, advised to abstain _______all alcoholic drinks.
(a) from (b) in
(c) by (d) to
10. In which year was Jesus crucified.
(a) 50 AD (b) 43 AD
(c) 33 AD (e) 190 AD
11. Lenin’s death took place in
(a) 1924 (b) 1922
(c) 1921 (d) None of these
12. The first president of USA was
(a) Jimmy Carter
(b) Theodore Roosevelt
(c) Abraham Lincoln
(d) George Washington
13. The most popular city of world
(a) New York (b) Mumbai
(c) Tokyo (d) London
14. World’s largest sugarcane producer is
(a) Cuba (b) India
(c) Pakistan (d) China
15. The brightest planet is
(a) Saturn (b) Mars
(c) Venus (d) Jupiter
16. Which of the following instruments
is used for measuring humidity of air?
(a)hydrometer(b) seismometer
(c)hygrometer(d) barometer
17. If a horse starts suddenly, the rider may fall due to
(a) moment of inertia
(b) inertia of rest
(c) law of conservation of mass
(d) third law of motion
18. The gland that contains body’s
thermostat is
(a) Pancreas (b) Thyroid
(c) pituitary (d) Hypothalamus
19. Blood is formed in human adult by
(a) Heart (b) Spleen
(c) Red bone marrow (d) lungs
20. which soil requires least use of fertilizers
(a) Red soil (b) alluvial oil
(d) laterite soil (d)black soil
21. The Temperature at which water possesses maximum density is
(a) 0 deg C (b) 4 deg C
(c) -4 deg C (d) 0 deg F
ANTONYMS
22. He was apotheosized because of his miraculous powers.
(a) departure from tradition
(b) impatience with stupidity
(c) demolition from glory
(d) surrender to impulse
23. His ideas are quixotic.
(a) Slow (b) pragmatic
(c) grave (d) benevolent
24. Propriety and sobriety makes one fit for the society.
(a) Influence (b) holiness
(c) civility (d) mirth
SYNONYMS
25. Rumors are always concocted stories in an exaggerated form.
(a) Manage (b) tickle
(b) smart (d) originate
26. Seated amongst the assembly were distinguished persons from different fields.
(a) Differentiated (b) renowned
(c) recognized (d) classified
27. Learned persons from all fields gathered at the conference.
(a) acquired (b) gained
(c) educated (d) well -informed
ERRORS
28. If you would recall (a) / our first meeting (b) / than you may (c) /understand my point. (d)
29. The party was (a) / scheduled to take place (b)/ tomorrow but now (c) / it stand cancelled. (d)
30. While presenting (a)/ his maiden speech (b) / Kamal seemed very confidently (c) / and people responded very well (d).
PART-B: Descriptive Type Questions
A passage is given below followed by five questions. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below.The stock-taking at the first national convention on consumer protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement as genuine for safeguarding the people’s interests. Spreading awareness about the rights of the consumers and the relief open to them in case they did not get their money’s worth of goods and services has highly been identified as the first priority. While this may not be a difficult task in urban areas, where the movement is concentrated at present, taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play. The involvement of 500 odd consumer organizations in the country in publicizing the concept of fair trade practices and their remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding if the message is conveyed through village bodies. Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the consumer protection act. The mounting backlog of cases in consumer courts, points to the need for toning up the district level redressal machinery. The main objective of the movement is the creation of a culture that denies place in the market for products that are not consumer friendly. This is possible only if consumer bodies take over the watchdog role performed by the government till now and exercise social control over the market to see that the benefits of liberalization are not reaped by traders alone. But the plea to industry to exercise self regulation and maintain minimum standards of quality and devise appropriate pricing is bound to go unheeded unless strict measures are taken to ensure compliance.
Questions: (5 Marks)
(a) What was the purpose of the first national convention on consumer protection?
(b) What does consumer protection act guarantee to the consumer against?
(c) How did the government contribute to the consumer protection movement?
(d) What approach is required for spreading consumer protection movement to the rural areas?
(e) What is the role of consumer bodies?
2. You have seen an advertisement in the ‘Times of India’ calling for applications for the post of a Sales Executive. Write a letter to the Personnel Manager, New World Publications, Worli, Mumbai, applying for the job with a detailed bio-data of yourself. (10 Marks)
3. Write a paragraph of not more than 100 words on the following topic:-
Small Family Happy Family
Financial and General Awareness
Financial and General Awareness
1. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India?
(A) 1975
(B) 1947
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia
(C) J. S. Mathur
(D) Sushma Nath
3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for.
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s Education
(D) Development of Rural India
4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All
5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?
(1) It does not accept deposits.
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(3) Lack of human interface.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?
(1) Better human resource management
(2) Adequate capital to support risks
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of these
10.The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:
(A) Government of India
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
(A) Union Government
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Supreme Court
13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of
(A) IDA
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) IFC
14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
(A) 1999
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
18.In India, income tax is levied by
(A) Union Government
(B) State Governments
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) RBI
19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
(A) National Bank
(B) Cooperative Bank
(C) Scheduled Bank
(D) Unscheduled Bank
1. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India?
(A) 1975
(B) 1947
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia
(C) J. S. Mathur
(D) Sushma Nath
3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for.
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s Education
(D) Development of Rural India
4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All
5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?
(1) It does not accept deposits.
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(3) Lack of human interface.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?
(1) Better human resource management
(2) Adequate capital to support risks
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of these
10.The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:
(A) Government of India
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
(A) Union Government
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Supreme Court
13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of
(A) IDA
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) IFC
14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
(A) 1999
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
18.In India, income tax is levied by
(A) Union Government
(B) State Governments
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) RBI
19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
(A) National Bank
(B) Cooperative Bank
(C) Scheduled Bank
(D) Unscheduled Bank
Indian Air Force Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT
Indian Air Force Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) Question Papers 2010
TECHNICAL BRANCH
Part A: General Engineering
1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is
(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100
(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20
2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is
(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity (D) Non of these
6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its
(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these
7. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of
(A) 1μm (B) 100 μm
(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å
8. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted
9. Moving electric charges will interact with
(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these
10. Gamma radiation is most similar to
(A) sound waves (B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons
11. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is
(A) meson (B) anti proton
(C) positron (D) muon
12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial pressure of oxygen is close to
(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg
13. In the electrolytic cell
(A) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
14. The force required to maintain a body at constant speed in free space is equal to
(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it
15. If the length of a spring is halved, the spring constant becomes
(A) half (B) 1/4th
(C) double (D) four times
16. The coefficient of static friction depends on
(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the bodies
(C) the presence of foreign matter between the surface
(D) all of these
17. The units of angular impulse in SI system are
(A) Nms (B) Ns
(C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m
19. Stainless steel contains iron and
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Chromium and carbon
(C) Nickel and carbon
(D) Chromium and manganese
20. The property of material by which it offers resistance to scratching or indentation is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Resilience
21. The failure of a material due to repeated stressing is known as
(A) Creep
(B) Fracture
(C) Fatigue
(D) Brittle Fracture
22. The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called
(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Amplifier
(D) Transducer
23. When a charge is moved from one point to another in an electric field, the work done is
(A) independent of the path
(B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) measured in Joules per metre
(D) measure in Volt per metre
24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is
(A) Paper (B) Ceramic
(C) Polyester (D) Mica
25. A zener diode operates
(A) In an extremely high forward bias
(B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(C) In an extremely low forward bias
(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down voltage
26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell is often used as a measure of its
(A) Rate of discharge
(B) Operating temperature
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectancy
27. An uniformly distributed load is one which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) loads the beam from one end only
28. A steam engine device which keeps the speed of the engine, all loads, constant is known as
(A) Flywheel
(B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Governor
29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest freezing point is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon – 11
(D) Freon – 22
30. Heat and work are
(A) Path functions
(B) Properties of a substance
(C) Point functions
(D) Absolute units
PART B-1 AE (M): MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. An impulse turbine
(A) Makes use of a draft tube
(B) Always operates submerged
(C) Converts the pressure head into velocity head through the vanes
(D) Is most suited for low head installations
2. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to
(A) Diameter of its impeller
(B) Square of diameter of its impeller
(C) Cube of diameter of its impeller
(D) Fourth power of diameter of its impeller
3. The locus of the common point on the two meshing spur gears is known as
(A) Addendum circle
(B) Duodenum circle
(C) Pitch circle
(D) Base circle
4. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration then the body is said to have
(A) Free vibration
(B) Forced vibration
(C) Damped vibration
(D) Natural vibration
5. For machining at high speed the tool material should have
(A) Wear resistance
(B) Red hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) All of these
6. MIG welding is
(A) A gas welding process
(B) An electric resistance welding process
(C) A electric resistance welding process
(D) A forge welding process involving high temperatures and low pressures
7. The ability of sand to permit the metal to shrink when it solidifies is known is
(A) Plasticity (B) Permeability
(C) Collapsibility (D) Cohesiveness
8. Rivets are generally specified by
(A) Overall length
(B) Shank diameter
(C) Thickness of plates to be jointed
(D) Diameter of head
9. Which of the following is steady flow compressor
(A) Reciprocating compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Voot blower
(D) Vane blower
10. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle
(C) Brayton cycle (D) Joule cycle
11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals
(A) Decreases with rise in temperature
(B) Does not vary with temperature
(C) Increases with rise in temperature
(D) Remains constant with rise in temperature
12. During adiabatic saturation process, air property which remains constant, is known as
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Relative humidity
(D) Specific humidity
13. Bell-Coleman cycle as applied to refrigeration operates
(A) On open air system
(B) On vapour compression system
(C) On vapour absorption system
(D) On none of these
14. The gears in which axes of the shaft connected by them, intersect, are known as
(A) Spur gears (B) Bevel gears
(C) Spiral gears (D) Gear train
15. Shot peening
(A) Is done at re-crystallization temperature
(B) Changes the crystalline structure at materials
(C) Improves the fatigue life of small parts
(D) Refines the grain structure
16. In a bomb calorimeter the heat released by the fuel is absorbed by
(A) Atmospheric air
(B) Water
(C) Metal container
(D) Bomb, water and metal container
17. Nitriding is done
(A) On low carbon steels only
(B) To impart blue colour to steels
(C) To improve machinability
(D) To increase surface hardness
18. The extent of cold work that a metal can withstand depends on
(A) Purity of metal
(B) Carbon percentage
(C) Ductility
(D) Room temperature
19. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio
(A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine
20. Annealing of steels is done to
(A) Remove internal stresses
(B) Produce soft core under hard surface
(C) Produce hard core under soft surface
(D) Introduce capacity to withstand shocks
PART B-2 AE (M): AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
1. What mass of lead (sp gr = 11) will weigh as much as 8 gram of iron (Sp gr = 8) when both are immersed in water
(A) 7.7 gram (B) 8.8 gram
(C) 10.0 gram (D) 1.1 gram
2. Which of the two forces are important in floating bodies
(A) inertial, pressure
(B) buoyancy, gravity
(C) gravity, inertial
(D) pressure, viscous
3. A dimensionless number which is a ratio of kinematics viscosity to thermal diffusivity is known as
(A) Prandtl Number
(B) Nusselt Number
(C) Reynold’s Number
(D) Stanton Number
4. Ozone is an
(A) isomer of oxygen
(B) allotrope of oxygen
(C) isobar of oxygen
(D) isotope of oxygen
5. Within a carburetor the velocity of air is maximum at
(A) inlet
(B) outlet
(C) venture
(D) does not change within a carburetor
6. A 50 Kg mass is accelerated from rest to 50 m/s. The force on it is
(A) 500 N
(B) 2,500 N
(C) 512 N
(D) Can not be determined from the given data
7. In vacuum the velocity of light depends on
(A) none of the following
(B) frequency
(C) temperature
(D) pressure
8. The source of solar energy is
(A) nuclear fission / fusion
(B) electromagnetic radiation
(C) chemical energy
(D) burning of hydrogen
9. The pressure of a real gas is less than the pressure of an ideal gas because of
(A) increase in the number of intermolecular collisions
(B) higher energy possessed by the molecules than the theoretical estimates
(C) inter-molecular forces
(D) finite size of molecules
10. Which of the following is dimensionless
(A) young’s modulus of elasticity
(B) stress (C) strain
(D) shear stress
11. Which of the following relations is incorrect One atmospheric pressure is nearly equal to
(A) 1013 bar
(B) 1013250 dynes/cm2
(C) 1.033kgf/cm2
(D) 735 mm of Hg
12. Which of the following is a scalar quantity
(A) velocity of a gear
(B) acceleration of a car
(C) force in friction
(D) area of a triangle
13. The Mach number at inlet of a gas turbine diffuser is 0.3. The shape of the diffuser would be
(A) converging (B) diverging
(C) diverging – converging
(D) converging – diverging
14. For adiabatic expansion with friction through a nozzle, the following remains constant
(A) entropy (B) static enthalpy
(C) stagnation enthalpy
(D) stagnation pressure
15. Separation of flow is caused by
(A) reduction of pressure in the direction flow
(B) decrease in the boundary layer thickness
(C) increase of pressure in the direction of flow
(D) adverse pressure gradient
16. A pilot tube senses
(A) stagnation pressure
(B) average pressure
(C) maximum pressure
(D) velocity head pressure
17. Which of the following materials has the higher value of Poisson’ ratio
(A) rubber (B) copper
(C) steel (D) concrete
18. During forced vertex flow
(A) velocity increases with radius
(B) velocity decreases with radius
(C) fluid rotates as a composite solid
(D) inertial forces are significant
19. Hooke’s law is valid within the limits of proportionality. The limit of proportionality depends on
(A) type of loading
(B) area of cross section
(C) type of material
(D) hardness of material
20. Euler’s equation of fluid motion can be integrated when it is assumed that
(A) the fluid is incompressible
(B) Bernoulli’s equation is satisfied
(C) flow is rotational
(D) velocity potential exits and the density is constant
PART B-3 AE (L): ELECTRICAL, ELECTRONICS AND INSTRUMENTATION
1. In order for a 30 volt, 90 watt lamp to work properly in a 120 volt supply the required series resister in ohm is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
2. According to Theremin’s theorem, any linear active network can be replaced by a single voltage source
(A) in series with a single impedance
(B) in parallel with a single impedance
(C) in series with two impedances
(D) in parallel with two impedances
3. The internal resistance of ammeter is
(A) very small (B) very high
(C) infinite (D) zero
4. Hay bridge is used mainly for the measurement of
(A) resistance (B) inductance
(C) conductance (D) capacitance
5. Which of the following is true about series resonance
(A) The reactance becomes zero and impedance becomes equal to resistance
(B) The current in the circuit becomes maximum
(C) The voltage drop across inductance and capacitance cancels each other
(D) All of the above statements are correct
6. A 3-Ф, 4 wire, 400/230 v feeder supplies 3-phase motor and an unbalanced lighting load. In this system
(A) all four wires will carry equal current
(B) neutral wire will carry no current
(C) neutral wire will carry both motor current and lighting load current
(D) neutral wire will carry current only when lighting load is switched on
7. Equalizing connections are required when paralleling two
(A) alternators
(B) compound generators
(C) series generators
(D) both (B) and (C)
8. An ideal transformer is one which
(A) has a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(B) has no losses and magnetic leakage
(C) has core of stainless steel and windings of pure copper metal
(D) has interleaved primary and secondary windings
9. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is most similar to that of a
(A) synchronous motor
(B) repulsion-start induction motor
(C) transformer with a shorted secondary
(D) capacitor-start, induction-run motor
10. In the forward region of its characteristic, a diode appears as
(A) an OFF switch
(B) a high resistance
(C) a capacitor
(D) an ON switch
11. The common-emitter forward amplification factor βdc is given by
(A) IC/IE (B) IC/Ib
(C) IE/IC (D) IB/IF
12. A common emitter amplifier is characterized by
(A) low voltage gain
(B) moderate power gain
(C) signal phase reversal
(D) very high output impedance
13. After VDS reaches pinch-off value VP in a JFET, drain current IO becomes
(A) zero (B) low
(C) saturated (D) reversed
14. An electronic oscillator
(A) needs an external input
(B) provides its own input
(C) is nothing but an amplifier
(D) is just a dc/ac converter
15. In an SCR, the function of the gate is to
(A) switch it off
(B) control its firing
(C) make it unidirectional
(D) reduce forward breakdown voltage
16. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
17. Registers and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(A) count pulses
(B) store binary information
(C) are made from an array of flip-flops and gates integrated on a single chip
(D) are in fact shift register
18. A flip-flop
(A) is a sequential logic device
(B) is a combinational logic device
(C) remembers what was previously stored in it
(D) both (A) and (C)
19. An operational amplifier
(A) can be used to sum two or more signals
(B) can be used to subtract two or more signals
(C) uses to principle of feed back
(D) all of the above
20. TTL logic is preferred to DRL logic because
(A) greater fan-out is possible
(B) greater logic levels are possible
(C) greater fan-in is possible
(D) less power consumption is possible
PART B-4 AE (L): ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS
1. In a communication system, noise is most likely to get into the system
(A) at the transmitter
(B) in the channel
(C) in the information source
(D) at the destination
2. When modulation frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant, the modulation system is
(A) amplitude modulation
(B) phase modulation
(C) frequency modulation
(D) angle modulation
3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) a short – circuited stub
(B) an open – circuited stub
(C) a quarter – wave line
(D) a half – wave line
4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) observed by the F2 layer
(B) reflected by D layer
(C) capable of use for long-distance communication on the moon
(D) affected by the solar cycle
5. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-uda array
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded diploe
(D) High gain
6. A duplexer is used
(A) to couple two different antennae to a transmitter without mutual interference
(B) to allow one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual interference
(C) to prevent interference between two antennae when they are connected to receiver
(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in pulsed radar
7. Indicate which of the following system is digital
(A) Pulse – Position modulation
(B) Pulse – Code modulation
(C) Pulse – Width modulation
(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation
8. A forward error correcting code corrects errors only
(A) requiring partial retransmission of the signal
(B) requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C) using parity to correct to errors in all cases
(D) requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted
9. A typical signal strength received from a geosynchronous communication satellite is of the order of
(A) a few milli watts
(B) kilo watts
(C) watts
(D) few pico watts
10. Telephone traffic is measured
(A) with echo cancellers
(B) by the relative congestion
(C) in terms of the grade of service
(D) in erlangs
11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which
(A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than logic 1 voltage level
(D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level
12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) two NAND gates
(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) an AND gate and an OR gate
(D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate
13. Which of the following devices has its characteristics very close to that of an ideal current source.
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET
14. The main use of a common base transistor amplifier is
(A) as voltage amplifier
(B) current amplifier
(C) for matching a high source impedance to a low load impedance
(D) for rectification of a.c. signal
15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) nearly twice cut-off
(C) at mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC
16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
17. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)
(A) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
(B) make target tracking easier with conical scanning
(C) increase the maximum range
(D) have no effect of the range resolution
18. A solution to the “blind speed” problem in a radar system is to
(A) change the Doppler frequency
(B) vary the PRF
(C) use mono pulse
(D) use MTI
19. The number of active picture elements in a television image depends on
(A) fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna
20. In a colour TV, the three primary colours are
(A) red, orange and blue
(B) red, blue and green
(C) red, green and yellow
(D) red, orange and green
PART B-5 AE (L): COMPUTER ENGINEERING
1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
(A) makes logic decision
(B) allows electron flow only in one direction
(C) works on binary algebra
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values
2. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy is:
(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base
(B) byte-bit-field-record-file
(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base
(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base
4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more than communicate data to and from a CPU of a computer. How does a ‘smart’ terminal differ from dumb terminal
(A) it has a primary memory
(B) it has a cache memory
(C) it has a micro processor
(D) it has an input device
5. The main distinguishing features of fifth generation digital computer will be
(A) liberal use of micro processors
(B) artificial intelligence
(C) extremely low cost
(D) versatility
6. Which of the following terms is not used to refer to the recording density of a disk
(A) mega-density (B) single-density
(C) double-density (D) quad-density
7. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) primary and secondary
(B) random and sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) central and peripheral
8. Which one of the following is not an octal number
(A) 29 (B) 75 (C) 16 (D) 102
9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are very difficult to read
(A) directly
(B) in bright light
(C) in dull light
(D) both (B) and (C)
10. Both computer instructions and memory addresses are represented by
(A) character codes
(B) binary codes
(C) binary word
(D) parity bit
11. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an
(A) interpreter (B) simulator
(C) compiler (D) commander
12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board repeat as long as we hold them down. Such type of keys are known as
(A) typematic keys
(B) functional keys
(C) automatic keys
(D) alphabetic keys
13. What does the acronym ISDN stands for
(A) Indian Standard Digital Network
(B) Integrated Services Digital Network
(C) Intelligent Service Digital Network
(D) Integrated Services Data Network
14. Two basic types of operating system are
(A) sequential and direct
(B) batch and time sharing
(C) direct and interactive
(D) batch and interactive
15. Which of the following entity does not belong to word processing
(A) characters (B) words
(C) cells (D) paragraphs
16. A schema describes
(A) data elements
(B) records and filer
(C) record relationship
(D) all of the above
17. Which of the following is not a tool used to manage and control schedule performance
(A) CAD (B) PERT
(C) CPM (D) Gantt Chart
18. An expert system differs from a data base program in that only an expert system
(A) contains declarative knowledge
(B) contains procedural knowledge
(C) features the retrieval of stored information
(D) experts users to draw own conclusion
19. The virtual memory addressing capability of 80386 is
(A) 4 GB (B) 16 GB
(C) 64 GB (D) 64 TB
20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel consists of
(A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor
(B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor only
(C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and memory management unit (MMU) only
(D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor, memory management unit and a cache me
TECHNICAL BRANCH
Part A: General Engineering
1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is
(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100
(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20
2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is
(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity (D) Non of these
6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its
(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these
7. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of
(A) 1μm (B) 100 μm
(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å
8. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted
9. Moving electric charges will interact with
(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these
10. Gamma radiation is most similar to
(A) sound waves (B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons
11. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is
(A) meson (B) anti proton
(C) positron (D) muon
12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial pressure of oxygen is close to
(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg
13. In the electrolytic cell
(A) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
14. The force required to maintain a body at constant speed in free space is equal to
(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it
15. If the length of a spring is halved, the spring constant becomes
(A) half (B) 1/4th
(C) double (D) four times
16. The coefficient of static friction depends on
(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the bodies
(C) the presence of foreign matter between the surface
(D) all of these
17. The units of angular impulse in SI system are
(A) Nms (B) Ns
(C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m
19. Stainless steel contains iron and
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Chromium and carbon
(C) Nickel and carbon
(D) Chromium and manganese
20. The property of material by which it offers resistance to scratching or indentation is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Resilience
21. The failure of a material due to repeated stressing is known as
(A) Creep
(B) Fracture
(C) Fatigue
(D) Brittle Fracture
22. The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called
(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Amplifier
(D) Transducer
23. When a charge is moved from one point to another in an electric field, the work done is
(A) independent of the path
(B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) measured in Joules per metre
(D) measure in Volt per metre
24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is
(A) Paper (B) Ceramic
(C) Polyester (D) Mica
25. A zener diode operates
(A) In an extremely high forward bias
(B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(C) In an extremely low forward bias
(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down voltage
26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell is often used as a measure of its
(A) Rate of discharge
(B) Operating temperature
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectancy
27. An uniformly distributed load is one which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) loads the beam from one end only
28. A steam engine device which keeps the speed of the engine, all loads, constant is known as
(A) Flywheel
(B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Governor
29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest freezing point is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon – 11
(D) Freon – 22
30. Heat and work are
(A) Path functions
(B) Properties of a substance
(C) Point functions
(D) Absolute units
PART B-1 AE (M): MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. An impulse turbine
(A) Makes use of a draft tube
(B) Always operates submerged
(C) Converts the pressure head into velocity head through the vanes
(D) Is most suited for low head installations
2. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to
(A) Diameter of its impeller
(B) Square of diameter of its impeller
(C) Cube of diameter of its impeller
(D) Fourth power of diameter of its impeller
3. The locus of the common point on the two meshing spur gears is known as
(A) Addendum circle
(B) Duodenum circle
(C) Pitch circle
(D) Base circle
4. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration then the body is said to have
(A) Free vibration
(B) Forced vibration
(C) Damped vibration
(D) Natural vibration
5. For machining at high speed the tool material should have
(A) Wear resistance
(B) Red hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) All of these
6. MIG welding is
(A) A gas welding process
(B) An electric resistance welding process
(C) A electric resistance welding process
(D) A forge welding process involving high temperatures and low pressures
7. The ability of sand to permit the metal to shrink when it solidifies is known is
(A) Plasticity (B) Permeability
(C) Collapsibility (D) Cohesiveness
8. Rivets are generally specified by
(A) Overall length
(B) Shank diameter
(C) Thickness of plates to be jointed
(D) Diameter of head
9. Which of the following is steady flow compressor
(A) Reciprocating compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Voot blower
(D) Vane blower
10. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle
(C) Brayton cycle (D) Joule cycle
11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals
(A) Decreases with rise in temperature
(B) Does not vary with temperature
(C) Increases with rise in temperature
(D) Remains constant with rise in temperature
12. During adiabatic saturation process, air property which remains constant, is known as
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Relative humidity
(D) Specific humidity
13. Bell-Coleman cycle as applied to refrigeration operates
(A) On open air system
(B) On vapour compression system
(C) On vapour absorption system
(D) On none of these
14. The gears in which axes of the shaft connected by them, intersect, are known as
(A) Spur gears (B) Bevel gears
(C) Spiral gears (D) Gear train
15. Shot peening
(A) Is done at re-crystallization temperature
(B) Changes the crystalline structure at materials
(C) Improves the fatigue life of small parts
(D) Refines the grain structure
16. In a bomb calorimeter the heat released by the fuel is absorbed by
(A) Atmospheric air
(B) Water
(C) Metal container
(D) Bomb, water and metal container
17. Nitriding is done
(A) On low carbon steels only
(B) To impart blue colour to steels
(C) To improve machinability
(D) To increase surface hardness
18. The extent of cold work that a metal can withstand depends on
(A) Purity of metal
(B) Carbon percentage
(C) Ductility
(D) Room temperature
19. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio
(A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine
20. Annealing of steels is done to
(A) Remove internal stresses
(B) Produce soft core under hard surface
(C) Produce hard core under soft surface
(D) Introduce capacity to withstand shocks
PART B-2 AE (M): AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
1. What mass of lead (sp gr = 11) will weigh as much as 8 gram of iron (Sp gr = 8) when both are immersed in water
(A) 7.7 gram (B) 8.8 gram
(C) 10.0 gram (D) 1.1 gram
2. Which of the two forces are important in floating bodies
(A) inertial, pressure
(B) buoyancy, gravity
(C) gravity, inertial
(D) pressure, viscous
3. A dimensionless number which is a ratio of kinematics viscosity to thermal diffusivity is known as
(A) Prandtl Number
(B) Nusselt Number
(C) Reynold’s Number
(D) Stanton Number
4. Ozone is an
(A) isomer of oxygen
(B) allotrope of oxygen
(C) isobar of oxygen
(D) isotope of oxygen
5. Within a carburetor the velocity of air is maximum at
(A) inlet
(B) outlet
(C) venture
(D) does not change within a carburetor
6. A 50 Kg mass is accelerated from rest to 50 m/s. The force on it is
(A) 500 N
(B) 2,500 N
(C) 512 N
(D) Can not be determined from the given data
7. In vacuum the velocity of light depends on
(A) none of the following
(B) frequency
(C) temperature
(D) pressure
8. The source of solar energy is
(A) nuclear fission / fusion
(B) electromagnetic radiation
(C) chemical energy
(D) burning of hydrogen
9. The pressure of a real gas is less than the pressure of an ideal gas because of
(A) increase in the number of intermolecular collisions
(B) higher energy possessed by the molecules than the theoretical estimates
(C) inter-molecular forces
(D) finite size of molecules
10. Which of the following is dimensionless
(A) young’s modulus of elasticity
(B) stress (C) strain
(D) shear stress
11. Which of the following relations is incorrect One atmospheric pressure is nearly equal to
(A) 1013 bar
(B) 1013250 dynes/cm2
(C) 1.033kgf/cm2
(D) 735 mm of Hg
12. Which of the following is a scalar quantity
(A) velocity of a gear
(B) acceleration of a car
(C) force in friction
(D) area of a triangle
13. The Mach number at inlet of a gas turbine diffuser is 0.3. The shape of the diffuser would be
(A) converging (B) diverging
(C) diverging – converging
(D) converging – diverging
14. For adiabatic expansion with friction through a nozzle, the following remains constant
(A) entropy (B) static enthalpy
(C) stagnation enthalpy
(D) stagnation pressure
15. Separation of flow is caused by
(A) reduction of pressure in the direction flow
(B) decrease in the boundary layer thickness
(C) increase of pressure in the direction of flow
(D) adverse pressure gradient
16. A pilot tube senses
(A) stagnation pressure
(B) average pressure
(C) maximum pressure
(D) velocity head pressure
17. Which of the following materials has the higher value of Poisson’ ratio
(A) rubber (B) copper
(C) steel (D) concrete
18. During forced vertex flow
(A) velocity increases with radius
(B) velocity decreases with radius
(C) fluid rotates as a composite solid
(D) inertial forces are significant
19. Hooke’s law is valid within the limits of proportionality. The limit of proportionality depends on
(A) type of loading
(B) area of cross section
(C) type of material
(D) hardness of material
20. Euler’s equation of fluid motion can be integrated when it is assumed that
(A) the fluid is incompressible
(B) Bernoulli’s equation is satisfied
(C) flow is rotational
(D) velocity potential exits and the density is constant
PART B-3 AE (L): ELECTRICAL, ELECTRONICS AND INSTRUMENTATION
1. In order for a 30 volt, 90 watt lamp to work properly in a 120 volt supply the required series resister in ohm is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
2. According to Theremin’s theorem, any linear active network can be replaced by a single voltage source
(A) in series with a single impedance
(B) in parallel with a single impedance
(C) in series with two impedances
(D) in parallel with two impedances
3. The internal resistance of ammeter is
(A) very small (B) very high
(C) infinite (D) zero
4. Hay bridge is used mainly for the measurement of
(A) resistance (B) inductance
(C) conductance (D) capacitance
5. Which of the following is true about series resonance
(A) The reactance becomes zero and impedance becomes equal to resistance
(B) The current in the circuit becomes maximum
(C) The voltage drop across inductance and capacitance cancels each other
(D) All of the above statements are correct
6. A 3-Ф, 4 wire, 400/230 v feeder supplies 3-phase motor and an unbalanced lighting load. In this system
(A) all four wires will carry equal current
(B) neutral wire will carry no current
(C) neutral wire will carry both motor current and lighting load current
(D) neutral wire will carry current only when lighting load is switched on
7. Equalizing connections are required when paralleling two
(A) alternators
(B) compound generators
(C) series generators
(D) both (B) and (C)
8. An ideal transformer is one which
(A) has a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(B) has no losses and magnetic leakage
(C) has core of stainless steel and windings of pure copper metal
(D) has interleaved primary and secondary windings
9. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is most similar to that of a
(A) synchronous motor
(B) repulsion-start induction motor
(C) transformer with a shorted secondary
(D) capacitor-start, induction-run motor
10. In the forward region of its characteristic, a diode appears as
(A) an OFF switch
(B) a high resistance
(C) a capacitor
(D) an ON switch
11. The common-emitter forward amplification factor βdc is given by
(A) IC/IE (B) IC/Ib
(C) IE/IC (D) IB/IF
12. A common emitter amplifier is characterized by
(A) low voltage gain
(B) moderate power gain
(C) signal phase reversal
(D) very high output impedance
13. After VDS reaches pinch-off value VP in a JFET, drain current IO becomes
(A) zero (B) low
(C) saturated (D) reversed
14. An electronic oscillator
(A) needs an external input
(B) provides its own input
(C) is nothing but an amplifier
(D) is just a dc/ac converter
15. In an SCR, the function of the gate is to
(A) switch it off
(B) control its firing
(C) make it unidirectional
(D) reduce forward breakdown voltage
16. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
17. Registers and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(A) count pulses
(B) store binary information
(C) are made from an array of flip-flops and gates integrated on a single chip
(D) are in fact shift register
18. A flip-flop
(A) is a sequential logic device
(B) is a combinational logic device
(C) remembers what was previously stored in it
(D) both (A) and (C)
19. An operational amplifier
(A) can be used to sum two or more signals
(B) can be used to subtract two or more signals
(C) uses to principle of feed back
(D) all of the above
20. TTL logic is preferred to DRL logic because
(A) greater fan-out is possible
(B) greater logic levels are possible
(C) greater fan-in is possible
(D) less power consumption is possible
PART B-4 AE (L): ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS
1. In a communication system, noise is most likely to get into the system
(A) at the transmitter
(B) in the channel
(C) in the information source
(D) at the destination
2. When modulation frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant, the modulation system is
(A) amplitude modulation
(B) phase modulation
(C) frequency modulation
(D) angle modulation
3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) a short – circuited stub
(B) an open – circuited stub
(C) a quarter – wave line
(D) a half – wave line
4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) observed by the F2 layer
(B) reflected by D layer
(C) capable of use for long-distance communication on the moon
(D) affected by the solar cycle
5. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-uda array
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded diploe
(D) High gain
6. A duplexer is used
(A) to couple two different antennae to a transmitter without mutual interference
(B) to allow one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual interference
(C) to prevent interference between two antennae when they are connected to receiver
(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in pulsed radar
7. Indicate which of the following system is digital
(A) Pulse – Position modulation
(B) Pulse – Code modulation
(C) Pulse – Width modulation
(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation
8. A forward error correcting code corrects errors only
(A) requiring partial retransmission of the signal
(B) requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C) using parity to correct to errors in all cases
(D) requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted
9. A typical signal strength received from a geosynchronous communication satellite is of the order of
(A) a few milli watts
(B) kilo watts
(C) watts
(D) few pico watts
10. Telephone traffic is measured
(A) with echo cancellers
(B) by the relative congestion
(C) in terms of the grade of service
(D) in erlangs
11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which
(A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than logic 1 voltage level
(D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level
12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) two NAND gates
(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) an AND gate and an OR gate
(D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate
13. Which of the following devices has its characteristics very close to that of an ideal current source.
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET
14. The main use of a common base transistor amplifier is
(A) as voltage amplifier
(B) current amplifier
(C) for matching a high source impedance to a low load impedance
(D) for rectification of a.c. signal
15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) nearly twice cut-off
(C) at mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC
16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
17. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)
(A) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
(B) make target tracking easier with conical scanning
(C) increase the maximum range
(D) have no effect of the range resolution
18. A solution to the “blind speed” problem in a radar system is to
(A) change the Doppler frequency
(B) vary the PRF
(C) use mono pulse
(D) use MTI
19. The number of active picture elements in a television image depends on
(A) fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna
20. In a colour TV, the three primary colours are
(A) red, orange and blue
(B) red, blue and green
(C) red, green and yellow
(D) red, orange and green
PART B-5 AE (L): COMPUTER ENGINEERING
1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
(A) makes logic decision
(B) allows electron flow only in one direction
(C) works on binary algebra
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values
2. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy is:
(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base
(B) byte-bit-field-record-file
(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base
(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base
4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more than communicate data to and from a CPU of a computer. How does a ‘smart’ terminal differ from dumb terminal
(A) it has a primary memory
(B) it has a cache memory
(C) it has a micro processor
(D) it has an input device
5. The main distinguishing features of fifth generation digital computer will be
(A) liberal use of micro processors
(B) artificial intelligence
(C) extremely low cost
(D) versatility
6. Which of the following terms is not used to refer to the recording density of a disk
(A) mega-density (B) single-density
(C) double-density (D) quad-density
7. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) primary and secondary
(B) random and sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) central and peripheral
8. Which one of the following is not an octal number
(A) 29 (B) 75 (C) 16 (D) 102
9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are very difficult to read
(A) directly
(B) in bright light
(C) in dull light
(D) both (B) and (C)
10. Both computer instructions and memory addresses are represented by
(A) character codes
(B) binary codes
(C) binary word
(D) parity bit
11. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an
(A) interpreter (B) simulator
(C) compiler (D) commander
12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board repeat as long as we hold them down. Such type of keys are known as
(A) typematic keys
(B) functional keys
(C) automatic keys
(D) alphabetic keys
13. What does the acronym ISDN stands for
(A) Indian Standard Digital Network
(B) Integrated Services Digital Network
(C) Intelligent Service Digital Network
(D) Integrated Services Data Network
14. Two basic types of operating system are
(A) sequential and direct
(B) batch and time sharing
(C) direct and interactive
(D) batch and interactive
15. Which of the following entity does not belong to word processing
(A) characters (B) words
(C) cells (D) paragraphs
16. A schema describes
(A) data elements
(B) records and filer
(C) record relationship
(D) all of the above
17. Which of the following is not a tool used to manage and control schedule performance
(A) CAD (B) PERT
(C) CPM (D) Gantt Chart
18. An expert system differs from a data base program in that only an expert system
(A) contains declarative knowledge
(B) contains procedural knowledge
(C) features the retrieval of stored information
(D) experts users to draw own conclusion
19. The virtual memory addressing capability of 80386 is
(A) 4 GB (B) 16 GB
(C) 64 GB (D) 64 TB
20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel consists of
(A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor
(B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor only
(C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and memory management unit (MMU) only
(D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor, memory management unit and a cache me
Sunday, June 27, 2010
Saturday, June 26, 2010
Friday, June 25, 2010
AIR & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010
AIR & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010 for 128 Engineering Assistant | All India Radio
AIR & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010: All India Radio (AIR) & Doordarshan (AIR & Doordarshan) has published advertisement to recruitment of 128 Assistant Engineers. Candidates who are interested and want to apply for All India Radio (AIR) & Doordarshan Jobs may submit applications before the last date.
air
AIR - & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010
1. Engineering Assistants
Total posts: 128 posts (in various Zones)
Age Limit: 18-27 years as on 02/08/2010
Qualification required for Assistant Engineer Post
1. Three Years Diploma in Radio/Telecommunication/ Electrical/ Electronics/ Information technology/ Electrical Communication Engineering recognised by Government of India.
OR
2. Degree with Physics as one of the subjects from a recognised University
OR
3. Degree in Engineering in the relevant field (as mentioned above for diploma) from a recognised University.
OR
4. Diploma in Sound recording and Sound Engineering awarded by Film and Television Institute of India, Pune.
Submission of Application:
Last date to receipt of application 30/07/2010 to the following address:
To Chief Engineer(Training), Staff Training Institute (Technical), AIR & Doordarshan, Kingsway, Delhi – 110009.
More Information
For complete details like qualification, experience, age relaxation, eligibility, how to apply, selection procedure and application format related to AIR - & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010 for Assistant Engineering posts, download following advt.
AIR - Air India Radio & Doordarshan Recruitment Details 2010
Read more: http://getsarkari-naukri.blogspot.com/#ixzz0rqsiUmfW
AIR & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010: All India Radio (AIR) & Doordarshan (AIR & Doordarshan) has published advertisement to recruitment of 128 Assistant Engineers. Candidates who are interested and want to apply for All India Radio (AIR) & Doordarshan Jobs may submit applications before the last date.
air
AIR - & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010
1. Engineering Assistants
Total posts: 128 posts (in various Zones)
Age Limit: 18-27 years as on 02/08/2010
Qualification required for Assistant Engineer Post
1. Three Years Diploma in Radio/Telecommunication/ Electrical/ Electronics/ Information technology/ Electrical Communication Engineering recognised by Government of India.
OR
2. Degree with Physics as one of the subjects from a recognised University
OR
3. Degree in Engineering in the relevant field (as mentioned above for diploma) from a recognised University.
OR
4. Diploma in Sound recording and Sound Engineering awarded by Film and Television Institute of India, Pune.
Submission of Application:
Last date to receipt of application 30/07/2010 to the following address:
To Chief Engineer(Training), Staff Training Institute (Technical), AIR & Doordarshan, Kingsway, Delhi – 110009.
More Information
For complete details like qualification, experience, age relaxation, eligibility, how to apply, selection procedure and application format related to AIR - & Doordarshan Recruitment 2010 for Assistant Engineering posts, download following advt.
AIR - Air India Radio & Doordarshan Recruitment Details 2010
Read more: http://getsarkari-naukri.blogspot.com/#ixzz0rqsiUmfW
Tuesday, June 22, 2010
Sunday, June 20, 2010
Saturday, June 19, 2010
Thursday, June 17, 2010
LIC AAO Examination Question Paper Held On May 12, 2007
LIC AAO Examination Question Paper Held On May 12, 2007
(Quantitative Aptitude)
1. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is:
(1) 4236 (2) 4306
(3) 4336 (4) 5336
2. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y-x) (y+x) is:
(1) 730/77 (2) 73/77
(3) 7.3/77 (4) 703/77
3. An employee may claim Rs. 7.00 for each km when he travels by taxi and Rs. 6.00 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed Rs. 595 for traveling km. How many kms did he travel by taxi?
(1) 55 (2) 65
(3) 62 (4) 70
4. The square root of 3 + “5 is :
(1) “3 /2 + 1/”2 (2) “3 /2 - 1/”2
(3) “5 /2 - 1/”2 (4) “(5/2) + “(1/2)
5. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 370C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 340C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then what was the temperature on Thursday?
(1) 36.50C (2) 360C
(3) 35.50C (4) 340C
6. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits. If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is:
(1) 72 (2) 32
(3) 27 (4) 23
7. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C now?
(1) 24 (2) 27
(3) 28 (4) 30
8. If 2^(2x-1) = 8^(3-x), then the value of x is:
(1) -1 (2) -2
(3) 2 (4) 3
9. A man’s basic pay for a 40 hours’ week is Rs. 200. Overtimes is paid at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and his total was Rs. 300. He therefore, worked for a total of (in hours):
(1) 52 (2) 56
(3) 58 (4) 62
10. On a Rs. 10, 000 payment order, a person has choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees):
(1) 200 (2) 255
(3) 400 (4) 433
11. Rs. 600 are divided among A, B, C so that Rs. 40 more than 2/5 th of A’s share, Rs. 20 more that 2/7 th of B’s share and Rs. 10 more than 9/17 th of C’s may all be equal. What is A’s share (in Rupees)?
(1) 150 (2) 170
(3) 200 (4) 280
12. A, B, C started a business with their investment in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as before and B as well as C withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year was:
(1) 5 : 6 : 10 (2) 6 : 5 :10
(3) 10 : 5 : 6 (4) 4 : 3 : 5
13. If 9 men working 71/2 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20 days, then how many days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day to finish the work? It is being given that 2 men of latter type work as much as 3 men of the former type?
(1) 91/2 (2) 11
(3) 121/2 (4) 13
14. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the cistern is:
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 16 (4) 18
15. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be 100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C?
(1) 111 (2) 123
(3) 127 (4) 129
16. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 4 (4) 6
17. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in kg.) sold at 18% profit is:
(1) 560 (2) 600
(3) 400 (4) 640
18. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13, 380 after 3 years and Rs. 20, 070 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum (in Rupees) is:
(1) 8800 (2) 8890
(3) 8920 (4) 9040
19. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 10 m deep. Earth taken out of it, has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21m to form an embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3
(3) 3/4 (4) 3/5
20. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length of its diagonal (in metres) is:
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 17
ANSWERS
1. (4), 2. (2), 3. (1), 4. (4), 5. (2) 6. (3), 7. (1), 8. (3), 9. (2), 10. (2) 11. (1), 12. (1), 13. (3), 14. (2), 15. (1) 16. (4), 17. (2), 18. (3), 19. (2), 20. (4)
(Quantitative Aptitude)
1. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is:
(1) 4236 (2) 4306
(3) 4336 (4) 5336
2. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y-x) (y+x) is:
(1) 730/77 (2) 73/77
(3) 7.3/77 (4) 703/77
3. An employee may claim Rs. 7.00 for each km when he travels by taxi and Rs. 6.00 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed Rs. 595 for traveling km. How many kms did he travel by taxi?
(1) 55 (2) 65
(3) 62 (4) 70
4. The square root of 3 + “5 is :
(1) “3 /2 + 1/”2 (2) “3 /2 - 1/”2
(3) “5 /2 - 1/”2 (4) “(5/2) + “(1/2)
5. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 370C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 340C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then what was the temperature on Thursday?
(1) 36.50C (2) 360C
(3) 35.50C (4) 340C
6. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits. If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is:
(1) 72 (2) 32
(3) 27 (4) 23
7. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C now?
(1) 24 (2) 27
(3) 28 (4) 30
8. If 2^(2x-1) = 8^(3-x), then the value of x is:
(1) -1 (2) -2
(3) 2 (4) 3
9. A man’s basic pay for a 40 hours’ week is Rs. 200. Overtimes is paid at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and his total was Rs. 300. He therefore, worked for a total of (in hours):
(1) 52 (2) 56
(3) 58 (4) 62
10. On a Rs. 10, 000 payment order, a person has choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees):
(1) 200 (2) 255
(3) 400 (4) 433
11. Rs. 600 are divided among A, B, C so that Rs. 40 more than 2/5 th of A’s share, Rs. 20 more that 2/7 th of B’s share and Rs. 10 more than 9/17 th of C’s may all be equal. What is A’s share (in Rupees)?
(1) 150 (2) 170
(3) 200 (4) 280
12. A, B, C started a business with their investment in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as before and B as well as C withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year was:
(1) 5 : 6 : 10 (2) 6 : 5 :10
(3) 10 : 5 : 6 (4) 4 : 3 : 5
13. If 9 men working 71/2 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20 days, then how many days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day to finish the work? It is being given that 2 men of latter type work as much as 3 men of the former type?
(1) 91/2 (2) 11
(3) 121/2 (4) 13
14. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the cistern is:
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 16 (4) 18
15. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be 100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C?
(1) 111 (2) 123
(3) 127 (4) 129
16. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 4 (4) 6
17. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in kg.) sold at 18% profit is:
(1) 560 (2) 600
(3) 400 (4) 640
18. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13, 380 after 3 years and Rs. 20, 070 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum (in Rupees) is:
(1) 8800 (2) 8890
(3) 8920 (4) 9040
19. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 10 m deep. Earth taken out of it, has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21m to form an embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3
(3) 3/4 (4) 3/5
20. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length of its diagonal (in metres) is:
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 17
ANSWERS
1. (4), 2. (2), 3. (1), 4. (4), 5. (2) 6. (3), 7. (1), 8. (3), 9. (2), 10. (2) 11. (1), 12. (1), 13. (3), 14. (2), 15. (1) 16. (4), 17. (2), 18. (3), 19. (2), 20. (4)
ESIC LDC (Employees State Insurance Corporation) Maths
ESIC LDC (Employees State Insurance Corporation) Maths
1. 41.2 x 0.15 =?
(A) 6.18 (B) 0.618
(C) 0.0618 (D) 61.80
2. 75% of 48 = ?
(A) 64 (B) 48
(C) 36 (D) 0.36
3. If 24 men do a work in 40 days, in how many days will 30 men do it?
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 32 (D) 28
4. A train travels 82.6 lan/hour. How many metres will it travel in 15 minutes?
(A) 20.65
(B) 206.50
(C) 2065
(D) 20650
5. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank if the capadty of the bucket is 13.5 litres?
(A) 13.5
(B) 24
(C) 12
(D) cannot be determined because the capacity of tank is not given.
6. A mother is three times as old as her son. After 15 years she will be twice as old as her son. What is the present age in years of the mother?
(A) 30
(B) 44
(C) 50
(D) 60
7. The breadth of a rectangular hall is %th its length. If the area of the hall is 300 sq m, what is the difference between the length and breadth of the hall?
(A) 15
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
8. 9: 15 : : 45 : ?
(A) 3
(B) 27
(C) 9
(0) 75
9. Divide a sum of Rs 832 between A and B in the ratio of 1/3 :1.5'
(A) Rs 520, Rs 312
(B) Rs 500, Rs 300
(C) Rs 530, Rs ~OO
(0) Rs 510, Rs 315
10. I paid Rs 27.20 as sales tax on a watch worth Rs 340. Find the rate of sales tax.
(A) 10%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(0) 12%
11. Amit deposited Rs 150 per month in a bank for 8 months under the recurring deposit scheme. What will be the maturity value if the rate of interest is 8% per annum.
(A) Rs 1236
(B) Rs 1200
(C) Rs 1000
(d) Rs 1500
12.. Through what angle does the minute hand of a dock turn in 5 minutes?
(A) 30'
(B) 35'
(C) 36'
(0) 32"
13. The surface area of a cube is 150 sm2• Its volume
(A) 150 cm3
(B) 125 em3
(C) 64 em3
(0) 216 em3
14. Two lines intersect:
(A) at a
(B) in a line
(C) at infinite number of points
(d) at two points
15. 6 dozen eggs are bought for Rs 48. How much will 132 eggs cost?
(A) Rs 80
(B) Rs 78
(C) Rs 82
(D) Rs 88
16. From the sum of 17 and -12, subtract 48
(A) - 20
(B) - 17
(C) - 48
(D) - 43
17. Plato was born in 429 B.C. and expired in 348 B.c. How long did he live?
(A) 81 years
(B) 79 years
(C) 80 years
(D) 82 years
18. Two whole numbers are such that one is two times the other. If their difference is 19, their sum is:
(A) 19
(B) 38
(C) 57
(D) 76
19. If a circle and a square have the same perimeter then:
(A) Their areas are equal
(B) The area of the circle is twice that of the square
(C) The area of the square is twice that of the cirde
(d) None of these
20. A closed box made of wood of uniform thickness has length, breadth and height 12 em, 10 em and 8 em respectively. If the thickness of the wood is 1 em, the inner surface area is:
(A) 456 cm2
(B) 376 em2
(C) 264 em2
(D) 696 em2
21. At 2.15 AM the hour and minute hands of a clock form an angle of:
(A) 30'
(B) 22.5
(C) 7.5
(0) 5'
22. Successive discounts of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of:
23. Hamid sells 2 horses at the same price. On one he makes a profit of 10% and on the other he suffers a loss of 10"16 . Which one of the following statemnets is true?
(A) He makes n profit, no loss
(B) He makes a profit of 1%
(C) He suffers a loss of 1%
(d) He suffers a loss of 2%
24. Find the least number which when divided by 12, leaves a remainder of 7; when divided by 15, leaves a remainder of 10 and when divided by 16, leaves a remainder of 11.
(A) 115
(B) 235
(C) 247
(0) 475
25. In what time will a train 100 metres long with a speed of 50 km/hour cross a pillar?
(A) 7 seconds
(B) 72 seconds
(C) 12 seconds
(D) 20 seconds
1. 41.2 x 0.15 =?
(A) 6.18 (B) 0.618
(C) 0.0618 (D) 61.80
2. 75% of 48 = ?
(A) 64 (B) 48
(C) 36 (D) 0.36
3. If 24 men do a work in 40 days, in how many days will 30 men do it?
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 32 (D) 28
4. A train travels 82.6 lan/hour. How many metres will it travel in 15 minutes?
(A) 20.65
(B) 206.50
(C) 2065
(D) 20650
5. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank if the capadty of the bucket is 13.5 litres?
(A) 13.5
(B) 24
(C) 12
(D) cannot be determined because the capacity of tank is not given.
6. A mother is three times as old as her son. After 15 years she will be twice as old as her son. What is the present age in years of the mother?
(A) 30
(B) 44
(C) 50
(D) 60
7. The breadth of a rectangular hall is %th its length. If the area of the hall is 300 sq m, what is the difference between the length and breadth of the hall?
(A) 15
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
8. 9: 15 : : 45 : ?
(A) 3
(B) 27
(C) 9
(0) 75
9. Divide a sum of Rs 832 between A and B in the ratio of 1/3 :1.5'
(A) Rs 520, Rs 312
(B) Rs 500, Rs 300
(C) Rs 530, Rs ~OO
(0) Rs 510, Rs 315
10. I paid Rs 27.20 as sales tax on a watch worth Rs 340. Find the rate of sales tax.
(A) 10%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(0) 12%
11. Amit deposited Rs 150 per month in a bank for 8 months under the recurring deposit scheme. What will be the maturity value if the rate of interest is 8% per annum.
(A) Rs 1236
(B) Rs 1200
(C) Rs 1000
(d) Rs 1500
12.. Through what angle does the minute hand of a dock turn in 5 minutes?
(A) 30'
(B) 35'
(C) 36'
(0) 32"
13. The surface area of a cube is 150 sm2• Its volume
(A) 150 cm3
(B) 125 em3
(C) 64 em3
(0) 216 em3
14. Two lines intersect:
(A) at a
(B) in a line
(C) at infinite number of points
(d) at two points
15. 6 dozen eggs are bought for Rs 48. How much will 132 eggs cost?
(A) Rs 80
(B) Rs 78
(C) Rs 82
(D) Rs 88
16. From the sum of 17 and -12, subtract 48
(A) - 20
(B) - 17
(C) - 48
(D) - 43
17. Plato was born in 429 B.C. and expired in 348 B.c. How long did he live?
(A) 81 years
(B) 79 years
(C) 80 years
(D) 82 years
18. Two whole numbers are such that one is two times the other. If their difference is 19, their sum is:
(A) 19
(B) 38
(C) 57
(D) 76
19. If a circle and a square have the same perimeter then:
(A) Their areas are equal
(B) The area of the circle is twice that of the square
(C) The area of the square is twice that of the cirde
(d) None of these
20. A closed box made of wood of uniform thickness has length, breadth and height 12 em, 10 em and 8 em respectively. If the thickness of the wood is 1 em, the inner surface area is:
(A) 456 cm2
(B) 376 em2
(C) 264 em2
(D) 696 em2
21. At 2.15 AM the hour and minute hands of a clock form an angle of:
(A) 30'
(B) 22.5
(C) 7.5
(0) 5'
22. Successive discounts of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of:
23. Hamid sells 2 horses at the same price. On one he makes a profit of 10% and on the other he suffers a loss of 10"16 . Which one of the following statemnets is true?
(A) He makes n profit, no loss
(B) He makes a profit of 1%
(C) He suffers a loss of 1%
(d) He suffers a loss of 2%
24. Find the least number which when divided by 12, leaves a remainder of 7; when divided by 15, leaves a remainder of 10 and when divided by 16, leaves a remainder of 11.
(A) 115
(B) 235
(C) 247
(0) 475
25. In what time will a train 100 metres long with a speed of 50 km/hour cross a pillar?
(A) 7 seconds
(B) 72 seconds
(C) 12 seconds
(D) 20 seconds
Tuesday, June 15, 2010
Monday, June 14, 2010
SBI CLERKS EXAM 2009
State Bank of India
Clerical Cadre (Clerk) Recruitment Exam., 2009
General Awareness :: General English :: Quantitative Aptitude
:: Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge
Reasoning : Solved Paper
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Clerical Cadre (Clerk) Recruitment Exam., 2009
General Awareness :: General English :: Quantitative Aptitude
:: Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge
Reasoning : Solved Paper
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Saturday, June 12, 2010
Indian Legal Service to be revamped to attract fresh talent
Indian Legal Service to be revamped to attract fresh talent
The Indian Legal Service (ILS) will be revamped to attract fresh and talented law graduates - and not just experienced officers - to various government services, officials in the law and justice ministry said Friday.
The Indian Legal Service, a channel of appointment of legal professionals in the service of central government, is an all-India service that has existed since 1956. Its officers are generally appointed through a competitive examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).The examination, however, is open only to people with legal experience of over 10 years as practicing advocates or judicial officers - and not to fresh law graduates, said the ministry officials.
The ministry has moved a proposal for opening up the UPSC examination to fresh law graduates for selection as ILS officers, said the officials adding that it was consulting the ministry of personnel and training on the issue.
ILS officers are generally appointed at various levels, beginning with the rank of under secretary in various departments and wings of the law ministry.
The three important departments of the law ministry include the legal affairs department, the legislative department and the justice department.
While the legal affairs department is entrusted with the task of giving the government and its ministries legal opinion on various issues, the legislative department drafts bills piloted by various ministries. The department of justice is concerned with the issues of appointments in the higher judiciary.
The law ministry also has the Law Commission of India under it for conducting legal research and evaluating the need for amending various laws or updating them.
The posts of officers in these departments are filled up by ILS officers, largely appointed by the UPSC, but often officers are taken in on deputation from other departments as well.
Similarly, ILS officers are also appointed as advocates in the ministry's central agencies at the Supreme Court of India and high courts all over the country, liaisoning for the central government.
But fresh law graduates do not have these opportunities and are virtually left with no direct opening for central government jobs.
Courtesy: http://sify.com
Thursday, June 10, 2010
S.S.C. Statistical Investigators Grade-III and Compiler Exam., 2008
S.S.C. Statistical Investigators Grade-III and Compiler Exam., 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 15-6-2008)
1. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is located at—
(A) Bangkok
(B) Singapore
(C) Kualalumpur
(D) Manila
Ans : (D)
2. Explicit cost means—
(A) Payments made for short period
(B) Payments made for long period
(C) Payments incurred on fixed and variable costs
(D) Payments made for productive resources
Ans : (D)
3. The most important aspect affecting cropping pattern is—
(A) The social consideration
(B) The economic consideration
(C) The political consideration
(D) The geographical consideration
Ans : (D)
4. Which is the most mobile factor of production ?
(A) Land
(B) Labour
(C) Capital
(D) Organisation
Ans : (C)
5. Cottage and small scale industries are desirable in Indian Economy from the point of view of—
(A) Income generation
(B) Large scale production
(C) Low cost technology
(D) Employment generation
Ans : (D)
6. Which one of the following item is entered as credit in the balance of Payment Account ?
(A) Imports from abroad
(B) Purchase of assets from abroad
(C) Sale of assets abroad
(D) Purchase of gold from abroad
Ans : (C)
7. When there are economies of scale, it means that an increase in production must be accompanied by—
(A) A reduction in total cost of production
(B) A reduction in average cost of production
(C) A reduction in prices of inputs
(D) An increase in profitability of producers
Ans : (B)
8. G-77 stands for a group of 77—
(A) Capitalist countries
(B) Socialist countries
(C) Advanced countries
(D) Developing countries
Ans : (D)
9. Changes in Bank Rate affects—
(A) The market rate of interest
(B) Select industries for investments
(C) Banks giving loans
(D) The cash reserve ratios
Ans : (A)
10. Total costs is a combination of—
(A) Fixed cost and variable cost
(B) Money cost and real cost
(C) Economic cost and social cost
(D) Past cost and future cost
Ans : (A)
11. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 245
(B) 250
(C) 260
(D) 300
Ans : (A)
12. The electoral college for election to the office of the President consists of elected members of the—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. Under which Article of the Constitution the central government can take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression and internal disturbances—
(A) 355
(B) 356
(C) 357
(D) 358
Ans : (A)
14. When did India become a Republic ? On—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) December 10, 1946
Ans : (C)
15. Who was the first Indian Scholar who treated Mathematics as a distinct subject ?
(A) Brahma Gupta
(B) Aryabhatta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) Ramanujam
Ans : (B)
16. In Buddhism a Chaitya is also known as—
(A) Residence of the Monks
(B) Hall of Worship
(C) Dining Hall
(D) Congregation Hall
Ans : (D)
17. When were Goa, Diu and Daman annexed into the Indian Union ?
(A) 1947 A.D.
(B) 1961 A.D.
(C) 1951 A.D.
(D) 1954 A.D.
Ans : (B)
18. The Maldives are the islands of this ocean—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Ans : (B)
19. Shiva is worshipped as Nataraja in a famous temple in Tamil Nadu, where ?
(A) Tanjore
(B) Madurai
(C) Rameshwaram
(D) Chidambaram
Ans : (D)
20. Australia is particularly known for—
(A) Wheat Mills and Wheat Cultivation
(B) Sheep rearing and Mining
(C) Lumbering and Paper Mills
(D) Jute Mills and Jute Cultivation
Ans : (B)
21. Lime is sometimes applied to soil in order to—
(A) Increase the acidity of the soil
(B) Decrease the alkalinity of the soil
(C) Decrease the acidity of the soil
(D) Increase the alkalinity of the soil
Ans : (D)
22. Which of the following depletes the ozone layer ?
(A) CFC’s
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Nitrogen dioxide
Ans : (A)
23. The turgid condition of a cell is due to—
(A) Loss of water
(B) Entry of water
(C) Loss of solutes
(D) Entry of solutes
Ans : (B)
24. In the blood group ‘O’ the antigen present is—
(A) A
(B) B
(C) A and B
(D) No antigen
Ans : (D)
25. The time-period of a pendulum on the moon—
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains the same
(D) Is zero
Ans : (B)
26. The human ear is sensitive to sound intensity ranging from—
(A) 200 to 300 db
(B) 300 to 400 db
(C) 500 to 600 db
(D) 0 to 180 db
Ans : (D)
27. A solar eclipse occurs when the—
(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon
(B) Moon comes between the sun and the earth
(C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon
(D) Sun comes between the earth and the star
Ans : (B)
28. The Angstrom unit measures—
(A) Temperature
(B) Electric current
(C) Time
(D) Wavelength
Ans : (D)
29. We can hold a pen due to the—
(A) Force of gravity
(B) Force of friction
(C) Force of weight
(D) Work done by our muscles
Ans : (B)
30. One calorie of energy is equivalent to—
(A) 0•42 joule
(B) 4•2 joule
(C) 42 joule
(D) 420 joule
Ans : (B)
31. Metals, when exposed to electromagnetic radiations, emit—
(A) Electrons
(B) Protons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Alpha particles
Ans : (A)
32. Which one of the following is a super cooled liquid ?
(A) Mercury
(B) Bromine
(C) Glass
(D) Ice-cream
Ans : (C)
33. Haemoglobin is an Iron-containing—
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Protein
(C) Antibody
(D) Hormone
Ans : (B)
34. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—
(A) Sodium
(B) Barium
(C) Potassium
(D) Calcium
Ans : (B)
35. Which one of the following is not a function of protein ?
(A) Building up of tissues
(B) Catalysing some reactions
(C) Growth of bones
(D) Repair of torn tissues
Ans : (B)
36. Metal used for galvanising iron is—
(A) Mercury
(B) Aluminium
(C) Copper
(D) Zinc
Ans : (D)
37. An example of a synthetic rubber is—
(A) Neoprene
(B) Nylon
(C) Rayon
(D) Polyester
Ans : (A)
38. The metal which is called Quick Silver is—
(A) Silver
(B) Aluminium
(C) Mercury
(D) Lead
Ans : (C)
39. What is the tenure of office of the Vice-President ?
(A) Co-terminus with that of the President
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) As decided by the Electoral College voting the person
Ans : (B)
40. Who amidst the following Presidents held office for two terms ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following constitutional documents had the most profound influence in creating the Indian Constitution ?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The US Constitution
(C) The British Constitution
(D) The UN Charter
Ans : (A)
42. Which of the following produces the widely used antibiotic penicillin ?
(A) An algae
(B) A bacterium
(C) A synthetic process
(D) A fungus
Ans : (D)
43. What forms the largest part of most diets ?
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Lipids
Ans : (C)
44. Acid present in Tamarind is—
(A) Citric acid
(B) Acetic acid
(C) Tartaric acid
(D) Oxalic acid
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following diseases is caused by a viral infection ?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Cholera
(C) Common cold
(D) Tetanus
Ans : (C)
46. In which part of India does saffron grow ?
(A) Darjeeling district
(B) Kashmir
(C) Hills in Madhya Pradesh
(D) Nilgiri Hills
Ans : (B)
47. India is one of the largest producer of which of the following spices ?
1. Black pepper
2. Cardamom
3. Cloves
4. Ginger
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
48. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to strike
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to freedom of religion
Ans : (A)
49. Who can issue the writs for enforcement of the fundamental rights ?
(A) The District Judge
(B) The Human Rights Commission
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court
(D) The Director General of Police
Ans : (C)
50. What does hail consist of ?
(A) Granular ice
(B) Crystals of ice
(C) Water droplets
(D) Masses of ice in layers one above the other
Ans : (D)
Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Samiksha Adhikari Exam
Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Samiksha Adhikari Exam.,
General Studies : Solved Paper
(Held on 10-8-2008)
1. The only Indian Governor General was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)
2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)
4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
Ans : (A)
5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws
Ans : (C)
6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
Ans : (A)
7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
Ans : (D)
8. The President of India can nominate—
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
Ans : (D)
9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Ans : (D)
10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
Ans : (C)
11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555
Ans : (C)
14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950
Ans : (C)
15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)
16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Ans : (D)
17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
Ans : (B)
18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)
19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs
Ans : (B)
20. Sikkim became a new state by–
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment
Ans : (C)
21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
Ans : (A)
22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (B)
23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (C)
24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
Ans : (C)
25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)
26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)
27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank
Ans : (C)
29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14
Ans : (D)
30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
Ans : (D)
31. Mixed economy means—
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
(D) none of the above
Ans : (B)
32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (C)
33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (A)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
List-II (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Ship-building
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)
35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
Ans : (C)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
List-II (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)
37. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)
39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system
Ans : (B)
40. Laterite soil is found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (D)
41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland
Ans : (B)
42. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)
43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha
Ans : (B)
44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids
Ans : (D)
45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
Ans : (A)
46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List
Ans : (C)
47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery
Ans : (C)
48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra
Ans : (C)
49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
Ans : (B)
50. The major coffee producing state in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
Ans : (C)
52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland
Ans : (C)
53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Jamun
(B) Karonda
(C) Loquat
(D) Guava
Ans : (A)
54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (C)
55. Bauxite is an ore of—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Lead
(D) Silver
Ans : (A)
56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?
(A) Carbon dating
(B) Germanium dating
(C) Uranium dating
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)
57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Oxygen (O2)
Ans : (A)
58. Electron-volt is the unit for—
(A) energy
(B) charge of electron
(C) potential difference
(D) power
Ans : (A)
59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—
(A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion
(C) nuclear spallation
(D) none of these
Ans : (A)
60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
Ans : (D)
61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Cadmium
(D) Mercury
Ans : (B)
62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis
Ans : (D)
63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%
Ans : (D)
64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
(A) twins in which there is one male and one female
(B) twins in which both are females
(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
(D) twins physically attached to each other
Ans : (D)
65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
(A) full moon only
(B) new moon only
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans : (B)
66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
(A) UNO — London
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) ILO — New York
(D) FAO — Chicago
Ans : (B)
67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Mn
Ans : (B)
68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 80
Ans : (B)
69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—
(A) Sadbhavna Express
(B) Shanti Express
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Aman Express
Ans : (C)
70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—
(A) Anand Pawar
(B) Arvind Bhat
(C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo
Ans : (C)
71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shriharikota
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal
(C) Services
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)
73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin
Ans : (B)
74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)
75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
1. Madhuri Dixit
2. Ratan Tata
3. Sachin Tendulkar
4. Viswanathan Anand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (B)
76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
(A) World AIDS Day
(B) World Disabled Day
(C) World Environment Day
(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day
Ans : (D)
77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly matched ?
(A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Banawali — Haryana
(C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
(D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan
Ans : (D)
78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Chanda Pradyota
(C) Prasenajeta
(D) Udayana
Ans : (A)
79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
Ans : (B)
81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
(A) 57 years
(B) 78 years
(C) 135 years
(D) 320 years
Ans : (C)
83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?
1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Ashoka
4. Rudradaman
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (D)
84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
(A) Cyrene
(B) Egypt
(C) Macedonia
(D) Syria
Ans : (B)
85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Satavahana
(D) Kushana
Ans : (A)
86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
(A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
Ans : (D)
87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Balban
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish
Ans : (C)
89. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
(A) Saivites
(B) Saktas
(C) Vaishnavites
(D) Sun worshippers
Ans : (A)
90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
(A) Dasratha
(B) Brihadratha
(C) Kharavela
(D) Huvishka
Ans : (C)
91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
(A) Farrukhsiyar
(B) Shah Alam-I
(C) Shah Alam-II
(D) Shujaud Daula
Ans : (C)
92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)
93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans : (A)
94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1
(B) 32 : 1
(C) 40 : 1
(D) 64 : 1
Ans : (C)
95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
1. Abolition of Jazia
2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
3. Signing of Mahzar
4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans : (A)
96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?
(A) Abbas Tyabji
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)
97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
(B) Mukundi Lal
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Manmath Nath Gupta
Ans : (A)
98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
(A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt
(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (C)
99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Roshan Singh
(D) Ashfaqullah Khan
Ans : (A)
100. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) D. K. Karve
(C) Ramabai
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Ans : (B)
General Studies : Solved Paper
(Held on 10-8-2008)
1. The only Indian Governor General was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)
2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)
4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
Ans : (A)
5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws
Ans : (C)
6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
Ans : (A)
7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
Ans : (D)
8. The President of India can nominate—
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
Ans : (D)
9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Ans : (D)
10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
Ans : (C)
11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555
Ans : (C)
14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950
Ans : (C)
15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)
16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Ans : (D)
17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
Ans : (B)
18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)
19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs
Ans : (B)
20. Sikkim became a new state by–
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment
Ans : (C)
21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
Ans : (A)
22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (B)
23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (C)
24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
Ans : (C)
25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)
26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)
27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank
Ans : (C)
29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14
Ans : (D)
30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
Ans : (D)
31. Mixed economy means—
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
(D) none of the above
Ans : (B)
32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (C)
33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (A)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
List-II (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Ship-building
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)
35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
Ans : (C)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
List-II (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)
37. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)
39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system
Ans : (B)
40. Laterite soil is found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (D)
41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland
Ans : (B)
42. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)
43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha
Ans : (B)
44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids
Ans : (D)
45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
Ans : (A)
46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List
Ans : (C)
47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery
Ans : (C)
48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra
Ans : (C)
49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
Ans : (B)
50. The major coffee producing state in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
Ans : (C)
52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland
Ans : (C)
53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Jamun
(B) Karonda
(C) Loquat
(D) Guava
Ans : (A)
54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (C)
55. Bauxite is an ore of—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Lead
(D) Silver
Ans : (A)
56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?
(A) Carbon dating
(B) Germanium dating
(C) Uranium dating
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)
57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Oxygen (O2)
Ans : (A)
58. Electron-volt is the unit for—
(A) energy
(B) charge of electron
(C) potential difference
(D) power
Ans : (A)
59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—
(A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion
(C) nuclear spallation
(D) none of these
Ans : (A)
60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
Ans : (D)
61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Cadmium
(D) Mercury
Ans : (B)
62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis
Ans : (D)
63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%
Ans : (D)
64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
(A) twins in which there is one male and one female
(B) twins in which both are females
(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
(D) twins physically attached to each other
Ans : (D)
65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
(A) full moon only
(B) new moon only
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans : (B)
66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
(A) UNO — London
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) ILO — New York
(D) FAO — Chicago
Ans : (B)
67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Mn
Ans : (B)
68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 80
Ans : (B)
69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—
(A) Sadbhavna Express
(B) Shanti Express
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Aman Express
Ans : (C)
70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—
(A) Anand Pawar
(B) Arvind Bhat
(C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo
Ans : (C)
71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shriharikota
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal
(C) Services
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)
73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin
Ans : (B)
74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)
75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
1. Madhuri Dixit
2. Ratan Tata
3. Sachin Tendulkar
4. Viswanathan Anand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (B)
76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
(A) World AIDS Day
(B) World Disabled Day
(C) World Environment Day
(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day
Ans : (D)
77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly matched ?
(A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Banawali — Haryana
(C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
(D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan
Ans : (D)
78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Chanda Pradyota
(C) Prasenajeta
(D) Udayana
Ans : (A)
79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
Ans : (B)
81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
(A) 57 years
(B) 78 years
(C) 135 years
(D) 320 years
Ans : (C)
83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?
1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Ashoka
4. Rudradaman
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (D)
84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
(A) Cyrene
(B) Egypt
(C) Macedonia
(D) Syria
Ans : (B)
85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Satavahana
(D) Kushana
Ans : (A)
86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
(A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
Ans : (D)
87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Balban
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish
Ans : (C)
89. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
(A) Saivites
(B) Saktas
(C) Vaishnavites
(D) Sun worshippers
Ans : (A)
90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
(A) Dasratha
(B) Brihadratha
(C) Kharavela
(D) Huvishka
Ans : (C)
91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
(A) Farrukhsiyar
(B) Shah Alam-I
(C) Shah Alam-II
(D) Shujaud Daula
Ans : (C)
92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)
93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans : (A)
94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1
(B) 32 : 1
(C) 40 : 1
(D) 64 : 1
Ans : (C)
95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
1. Abolition of Jazia
2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
3. Signing of Mahzar
4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans : (A)
96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?
(A) Abbas Tyabji
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)
97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
(B) Mukundi Lal
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Manmath Nath Gupta
Ans : (A)
98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
(A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt
(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans : (C)
99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Roshan Singh
(D) Ashfaqullah Khan
Ans : (A)
100. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) D. K. Karve
(C) Ramabai
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Ans : (B)
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