JAM 2011 COMPUTER APPLICATIONS QUESTION PAPER

JAM 2011 GEOLOGY QUESTION PAPER

Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2012

General Knowledge

(Held on 22-1-2012)

1. Which of the following is one of the core functions of the Reserve Bank of India ?
(A) To act as Tax collector of the Govt. of India
(B) Work as Banker to the Banks
(C) Help in finalization of the Union Budget
(D) Participate in annual meetings of the various financial institutes world wide
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)

2. Which of the following tools is used frequently by the RBI to control credit and monetary situations of the markets in the country ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
(C) Balance of Trade
(D) Forward Rate Agreements
(E) Electronic Clearing Service
Ans: (A)

3. The National Social Security Fund (NSSF) launched with a corpus of Rs. 1000 crore will help which of the following groups of society ?
(A) Bank Employees
(B) Central and State Government Employees
(C) Workers of the unorganized sectors
(D) War widows
(E) Women employees engaged in textile industry
Ans: (C)

4. What is the full form of the term ‘PDS’ which is a channel of distribution of foodgrains and other essentials to poor people on subsidized rates ?
(A) Public Distribution System
(B) Potential Development System
(C) Profitable Distribution Source
(D) Public Development Syndication
(E) Public Distribution Stores
Ans: (A)

5. India and Afghanistan recently signed a Strategic Partnership Agreement. Who among the following signed on it for Afghanistan during his visit to New Delhi ?
(A) President of Afghanistan
(B) Vice President of Afghanistan
(C) Foreign Minister of Afghanistan
(D) Finance Minister of Afghanistan
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)

6. Mr. Makhdoom Amin Fahim, who was on a state visit to India is the Commerce Minister of—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Nepal
(E) Myanmar
Ans: (B)

7. Which of the following terms is used in the field of finance and banking ?
(A) Metabolism
(B) Genetic Process
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) Debt instrument
(E) Experimental Error
Ans: (D)

8. Who among the following Indian Leaders was in New York in September 2011 to address UN General Assembly ?
(A) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Mr. Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Ms. Meira Kumar
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)

9. Who among the following is the Chief Minister of Gujarat at present ?
(A) Sri Arun Jaitley
(B) Sri Praful Patel
(C) Sri L. K. Advani
(D) Sri Narendra Modi
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)

10. The 12th plan papers are sent to ‘NDC’ for approval-was the news in various newspapers recently. This means the plan was sent to—
(A) New Democratic Council
(B) National Development Council
(C) New Democratic Committee
(D) National Democratic Council
(E) New Departmental Committee
Ans: (B)

11. India recently signed a Tax treaty with ‘Uruguay’. This is a country in—
(A) South America
(B) South Africa
(C) South East Asia
(D) Gulf
(E) Europe
Ans: (A)

12. Which of the following is not a member of North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) USA
(D) France
(E) India
Ans: (E)

13. Which of the following countries launched its first Space Laboratory Module named ‘Tiangong-1’ recently ?
(A) South Korea
(B) North Korea
(C) China
(D) Japan
(E) Italy
Ans: (C)

14. India recently signed a significant Border Pact with which of the following SAARC countries ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Nepal
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) Bangladesh
Ans: (E)

15. Northern Rashidpur Field, where a huge stock of gas is found, is a place in—
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) India
Ans: (C)

16. Women of which of the following countries got voting rights in General Elections for the first time ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) Nepal
(E) Saudi Arabia
Ans: (E)

17. Which of the following is the currency of Myanmar ?
(A) Dinar
(B) Kyat
(C) Pesso
(D) Euro
(E) Dollar
Ans: (B)

18. Which of the following countries recently decided to lift ban on Foreign News, Websites, etc. as a reforms measure ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Nepal
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) Myanmar
Ans: (E)

19. Who among the following is the first recipient of the Hridaynath Mangeshkar Award presented in September 2011 ?
(A) Asha Bhosle
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Sonu Nigam
(D) Kailash Kher
(E) Anu Malik
Ans: (B)

20. Mansur Ali Khan Pataudi was associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Badminton
(B) Cricket
(C) Football
(D) Hockey
(E) Lawn Tennis
Ans: (B)

21. Ms. Helle Thorning Schmidt has become the first woman Prime Minister of—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Malaysia
(C) Denmark
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)

22. Miss Leila Lopes who was crowned Miss Universe 2011, is a resident of—
(A) Britain
(B) Denmark
(C) New Zealand
(D) Angola
(E) Brazil
Ans: (D)

23. Sri B. C. Khanduri has become the Chief Minister of which of the following States for the second term ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttarakhand
(E) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (D)

24. First share market in India was established in which of the following cities ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Chennai
(C) Jaipur
(D) Mumbai
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)

25. Which of the following is not decided by the Finance Minister while presenting Union Budget every year ?
(A) Rate of Income Tax
(B) Expenditure on Defence Services
(C) Relief packages to various sections of the society
(D) Repo and Reverse Repo
(E) Revenue expected from various sources
Ans: (D)

26. Which country is at the top in production of milk in the world ?
(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) Japan
(D) South Korea
(E) China
Ans: (A)

27. Who amongst the following is the President of France at present ?
(A) Angela Markel
(B) Elena Vesnina
(C) David Cameron
(D) Dilma Rousseff
(E) Nicolas Sarkozy
Ans: (E)

28. Which of the following is not an agricultural commodity ?
(A) Mango
(B) Cumin
(C) Sulphur
(D) Tomato
(E) Garlic
Ans: (C)

29. Which organization is being given the status of Micro Finance Regulating Authority ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) SEBI
(E) ICICI Bank
Ans: (D)

30. GNP, the term used by economist, stands for—
(A) Group Net Product
(B) Gross National Product
(C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Net Working Process
(E) Grand National Promotion
Ans: (B)

31. Some rural people still prefer to go to which of the following non institutional source for their credit needs ?
(A) Micro Finance Institutions
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) Money Lenders
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)

32. Term ‘Balance of Payment’ is used in relation to which of the following ?
(A) Tax collection
(B) Exports and Imports
(C) Annual sales of a factory
(D) Deficit in Union Budget
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)

33. Which of the following is not a foodgrain ?
(A) Paddy
(B) Jowar
(C) Bajra
(D) Maize
(E) Isabgol
Ans: (E)

34. Which of the following is an employment generating programme of Govt. of India ?
(A) MGNREGA
(B) NRHM
(C) Bharat Nirman
(D) Pulse Polio
(E) ASHA
Ans: (A)

35. When the loan is granted by a bank for purchase of Electronic goods, it is called—
(A) Priority Sector
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)

36. Which of the following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Power by most of the Nuclear Power Plants across the world ?
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Uranium
(D) Nickel
(E) Barium
Ans: (C)

37. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy ?
1. Wind Energy
2. Solar Energy
3. Nuclear Energy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (E)

38. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation IFRS as used in corporate/financial sector ?
(A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
(B) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
(C) International Financial Reporting Standards
(D) International Financial Reporting system
(E) Indian Formal Reporting System
Ans: (C)

39. ‘Heavy Water’ is used in which of the following fields ?
(A) Textile Industry
(B) Cement Industry
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Nuclear Power
(E) Pharma Industry
Ans: (D)

40. At present who is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India ?
(A) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Dr. D. Subbarao
(D) Dr. Subir Gokarn
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)

41. As per the reports in various newspapers, many private companies are trying to obtain the licences to launch a banking company in India. Which of the following organizations / agencies issues the licence for the same ?
(A) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B) Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF)
(C) Indian Banks’ Association
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) Reserve Bank of India
Ans: (E)

42. ‘Pulitzer Prize’ is given in the field of—
(A) Literature
(B) Social Service
(C) Films
(D) Science
(E) Sports
Ans: (A)

43. Which of the following terms/trophies is related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Trump
(C) Grand slam
(D) Fifa Cup
(E) Ashes
Ans: (E)

44. Who amongst the following is the Prime Minister of Pakistan ?
(A) Yusuf Raza Gillani
(B) Nawaz Sharif
(C) Hina Rabbani Khar
(D) Asif Ali Zardari
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)

45. Prof. Muhammad Yunus, the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006, is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field
of banking ?
(A) Core Banking
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement
(E) Internet Banking
Ans: (B)

46. Which of the following phenomenon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’ ?
(A) Greenhouse Effect
(B) Fire in coal mines
(C) Dry Farming
(D) Monsoon
(E) Trade winds
Ans: (A)

47. OPEC is a group of countries which are—
(A) Exporting oil
(B) Producing cotton
(C) Members of G-20
(D) Developing and poor
(E) Nuclear powers
Ans: (A)

48. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) A Bend in the River
(B) A China Passage
(C) A Suitable Boy
(D) Revolution 2020
(E) A House for Mr. Biswas
Ans: (D)

49. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with—
(A) Football
(B) Chess
(C) Hockey
(D) Badminton
(E) Lawn Tennis
Ans: (E)

50. Baichung Bhutia is a famous—
(A) Politician
(B) Cine actor
(C) Social worker
(D) Football Player
(E) Journalist
Ans: (D)

Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2012

General English 

(Held on 22-1-2012)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

“India lives in its villages,” said Mahatma Gandhi. Literally and from the social, economic and political …(1)…, the statement is …(2)… even today. Around 65% of the State’s population is living in rural areas. People in rural areas should have the same …(3)… of life as is …(4)… by people living in sub-urban and urban areas. Further, there are cascading …(5)… of poverty, unemployment, poor and inadequate infrastructure in rural areas on urban centres causing slums and …(6)… social and economic tensions manifesting in economic deprivation and urban poverty. Hence Rural Development, which is concerned …(7)… economic growth and social justice, improvement in the living standard of the rural people by providing adequate and quality social services and minimum basic needs, …(8)… essential. The present strategy of rural development mainly …(9)… on poverty alleviation, better livelihood opportunities, provision of basic amenities and infrastructure facilities …(10)… innovative programmes of wage and self-employment.

1. (A) controversies
(B) issues
(C) strata
(D) perspectives
(E) nuance
Ans: (D)

2. (A) truth
(B) valid
(C) major
(D) alive
(E) placid
Ans: (B)

3. (A) desire
(B) access
(C) quality
(D) span
(E) method
Ans: (C)

4. (A) asked
(B) gained
(C) administered
(D) enjoyed
(E) relaxed
Ans: (D)

5. (A) result
(B) consequence
(C) effects
(D) lines
(E) affects
Ans: (C)

6. (A) gathering
(B) ending
(C) aspects
(D) virtual
(E) consequential
Ans: (A)

7. (A) by
(B) with
(C) in
(D) on
(E) of
Ans: (B)

8. (A) becomes
(B) were
(C) are
(D) befalls
(E) turns
Ans: (A)

9. (A) symbolises
(B) talks
(C) attends
(D) favours
(E) focuses
Ans: (E)

10. (A) through
(B) of
(C) from
(D) along
(E) past
Ans: (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

11. For the first time ever, a government advisory board asked scientific journals not to publish details of certain biomedical experiments.
(A) This is first time
(B) For the first ever time
(C) At the first time
(D) First time for
(E) No correction required
Ans: (A)

12. People living downstream would get 15–20 minutes to run for their life if the dam bursts.
(A) run for their lives
(B) run at their life
(C) run after their lives
(D) run for life
(E) No correction required
Ans: (A)

13. The minister also claimed that all the formalities had been completed and it would be implemented in immediate effects.
(A) immediately in affect
(B) with immediate effect
(C) to immediate effect
(D) immediately with effects
(E) No correction required
Ans: (B)

14. A meeting was convened in order to give SEZs a new lease in life.
(A) new lease of life
(B) new leasing in life
(C) leased life
(D) newer lease on life
(E) No correction required
Ans: (A)

15. As group of lawyers took violence while trying to stop another group from attending court.
(A) violent
(B) took to violence
(C) opted for taking of violence
(D) violently took
(E) No correction required
Ans: (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) This, thus, diminishes the effectiveness of these employees to motivate change.
(2) In this context of advocating behaviour change, it can be said that rural NGOs in India that depend on local population for employees face a limited labour pool who are as likely to be vulnerable to the traditional social pressures and therefore equally marginalized as their clients.
(3) It was found that employees indeed ‘walked the talk’ and their index of empowerment was related to their tenure in the NGO, thus disproving the theory of failure due to local employees.
(4) If NGO employees are advocating behaviour change for self-empowerment, such behaviour must also be modeled for successful transmission.
(5) A successful rural NGO in India that has received accolades for its work in empowerment and has succeeded despite having a major employee pool of locals was examined to established if the employees actually ‘walked the talk’.
(6) These pressures may cause a gap between what the employees may be trained to ‘preach’ and what they may ‘practice’.

16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans: (E)

17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans: (C)

18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans: (B)

19. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans: (C)

20. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans: (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. Police officials said that they..… a tip-off about the plan and …… to catch the gang.
(A) received - managed
(B) attempted - sprung
(C) sensed - tried
(D) got - caught
(E) rendered – pleased
Ans: (A)

22. Three rag-pickers who ………… missing from the dump yard are suspected to have been buried under the ……… of waste.
(A) are - bag
(B) went - mounds
(C) go - heaps
(D) is - tons
(E) since – rubble
Ans: (B)

23. The campaign was …. at creating awareness among the public ….. drug abuse.
(A) expected - to
(B) targeted - for
(C) meant - regarding
(D) aimed - about
(E) intended – on
Ans: (D)

24. The judge has ……… a ‘defiant’ assistant commissioner to one month jail for his deliberate …... of the court orders.
(A) ruled - infringement
(B) sent - action
(C) sentenced - violation
(D) auctioned - breach
(E) ordered – attempt
Ans: (C)

25. Fed up by official ………, the villagers repaired a road themselves which had been in dire straits for the ………… thirteen years.
(A) indifference - many
(B) entry - last
(C) apathy - past
(D) guidance - next
(E) lethargy – passed
Ans: (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

26. The Magician, who has been (A) / using his talent for make the public aware (B) / of various social issues, is confident (C) / that his mission would be a success. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (B)

27. Apart from the dance programmes, (A) / there will be training sessions for (B) / students from various schools in the city (C) / on a daily basis. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (E)

28. The government’s earnings (A) / through royalty, dividends and profit sharing (B) / have been steady rising (C) / over the years. (D) No error (E)\
Ans: (C)

29. In the afternoon, (A) / devotees organised a programme (B) / in which the name of the deity (C) / was chanted one lakh time. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (D)

30. Slick advertising campaigns, (A) / soaring gold prices and (B) / increasing purchasing power for consumers have (C) / helped develop a market for diamonds. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (C)

31. Despite of (A) / elaborate search operations, (B) / the police could find no trace (C) / of the missing girl. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (A)

32. The revelation comes (A) / at a time when (B) / women’s reservation is (C) / being deliberated upon. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (E)

33. The man was (A) / reportedly upset (B) / over his sister’s death (C) / about a fortnight behind. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (D)

34. The factory always emits (A) / a loud sound of hammering while (B) / operations of its machines generate a strong vibration, (C) / causing severely inconvenience to residents. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (E)

35. The society for animal welfare has (A) / urged people to keep an eye out (B) / for injured birds (C) / during the forthcoming festival. (D) No error (E)
Ans: (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Renewable Energy Technologies (RETs) have long been recognised for their potential as environment friendly, versatile and sustainable energy alternatives for rural areas of India. However, despite efforts by the Ministry o f Non-conventional Energy Sources (MNES) and the India Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA), RETs have not yet succeeded as a major alternative source of energy in rural India. The programmes of MNES and IREDA designed to support small-scale distributed systems have relied on heavily subsidized credit, technology training and consumer awareness activities to stimulate the market for end-user finance for renewable energy systems for domestic use and a tiered set of capital and interest rate subsidies for water pumping in the agriculture sector. While end-users in some rural areas now have access to solar-powered lanterns or lights and biogas systems for their home, and agricultural operations are taking advantage of remarkable capital subsidies for solar energy to use for water pumping, the use of heavy capital and interest rate subsidies, and the focus on domestic use rather than on matching renewable energy technology applications with income enhancement opportunities have tied the success of these programmes to government budgets and political cycles limiting both the breadth and depth of development and penetration of projects that harness renewable energy resources.

In order of fully understand the barriers to the development of renewable energy enterprises/projects in rural India, we must review a few of the key characteristics of investments in renewable energy projects.

First, investments in renewable energy projects are relatively information and capital-intensive. The greater information intensity arises primarily from the need for more upfront information regarding the energy resource compared to conventional power projects. Renewable energy resource assessments, in most cases, need to be site-specific and preferably with data for a significant period of time. Renewable energy technologies are also more capital-intensive than conventional hydrocarbon ones because of the large upfront investment cost in generation equipment needed to utilize a ‘free’ or low-cost energy source. Due to the capital intensity, the financial viability of such investments and projects is often more dependent on longer-term financing structures available at the outset of the project.

Second, individual renewable energy investments are generally smaller than those made in conventional power generation projects due to constraints on local resource availability. Local resource availability is in turn limited by the low energy density of renewable energy resources. As extensive time and resources are necessary to catalogue the sitespecific resource availability before finacing can be considered, the technical and managerial know-how requirements and associated costs that occur prior to the project often represent a much larger percentage of project costs than in the case of conventional power projects.

Third, entrepreneurs developing small-scale renewable energy projects face the same business and financial risks associated with any enterprise. The viability of any enterprise depends on its ability to build a
business based on solid concepts and competencies in sound contexts that mitigate those risks.

Considering the aforementioned characteristics, the key barriers to development of small-scale renewable energy projects are fourfold. First, rural entrepreneurs do not usually have the knowledge and expertise necessary to write business plans for projects that link renewable energy technologies with productive use of applications, to assess the rewards and risks of the project and estimate the costs to mitigate the associated risks. All of these are necessary inputs before a project is presented to a financier for investment. In addition, the negotiations with financiers may be complex, involving concepts and approaches that are not familiar to the entrepreneur. Second, the paperwork and soft costs associated with identifying and obtaining access to financing for small and medium-scale projects is high relative to the financing needs. Without critical first-stage financing, most of the entrepreneurs interested in developing renewable energy projects will not be able to take the time away from normal business operations to implement renewable energy projects. Third, many of the renewable energy technologies are still relatively new to the market, so the commercial chains, networks, marketing and financial links, and other institutional structures that service traditional energy technologies are not in place to assist the entrepreneur even if she/he has the skills, know-how and capital. Fourth, given the ‘newness’, there is a limited availability of investment capital to finance the high upfront costs associated with the initial stages of developing a renewable energy project.

36. Which of the following is/are the small change/s visible in a few rural areas in terms of usage of RETs?
(1) Biogas systems are being used.
(2) People now use solar powered lights.
(3) Agricultural operations are now carried out by pumping. of water through the use of solar energy.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)

37. Which of the following is/are the reason/s that the programmes implemented by IREDA and MNES have not yet succeeded in making RETs the major alternative source of energy ?
(1) Focus on employment generation.
(2) Emphasis on industrial use of renewable energy.
(3) Interest rate subsidies linking these to Government budgets and political cycles.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)

38. Which of the following is/are the problem/s faced by rural entrepreneurs in the development of small-scale renewable energy projects ?
(1) Lack of technical know-how to implement these projects.
(2) Lack of willingness amongst local for the implementation of such projects.
(3) Inability to deal with intricate details in interactions with financiers of renewable energy projects.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)

39. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Programmes to Implement Renewable Energy Projects in Rural Areas.
(B) Rural Renewable Energy Projects - The Barries
(C) The Benefits of Alternative Sources of Energy
(D) The Government and Renewable Energy Projects
(E) Taking Forward Renewable Energy Projects in India
Ans: (A)

40. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/s of investment in RETs ?
(1) There are a number of investors willing to invest readily invest in these projects.
(2) These demand more investment of capital over the conventional energy projects.
(3) These involve lesser risk as compared to the conventional energy projects.
(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)

41. Why are renewable energy projects termed information-intensive ?
(1) The information on resources required by these projects is specific in terms of the location as well as the time period.
(2) Very little information about renewable energy is available for the implementation of these projects.
(3) Information needed by these projects is mostly confidential and requires a lot of paperwork in order to gain access.
(4) The information required by these projects is far greater than that required by any other project related to energy conservation.
(5) The information required by these projects is very vast and sometimes unrelated to the project at hand.
Ans: (D)

42. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(1) The renewable energy projects are independent of the government budget.
(2) Renewable energy projects require investments for a longer term than a conventional energy project.
(3) Securing finance for renewable energy projects involves a lot of paperwork.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)

43. What, according to the passage, is a drawback of renewable energy projects ‘newness’ ?
(A) The unfamiliarity with the concept of renewable energy amongst the locals.
(B) The low risk factor involved in its implementation attracts entrepreneurs who fail to complete these projects in time.
(C) Too many investors willing to invest in these projects thereby creating confusion.
(D) The absence of well-established links for networking, marketing and financing.
(E) These require minimum paperwork thus there are few or no records of these projects being generated for future reference.
Ans: (D)

Directions—(Q. 44–47) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. OUTSET
(A) Start
(B) Periphery
(C) Boundary
(D) Culmination
(E) Stage
Ans: (A)

45. VIABILITY
(A) Technicality
(B) Rigidity
(C) Regularity
(D) Commodity
(E) Feasibility
Ans: (E)

46. CRITICAL
(A) Grave
(B) Vital
(C) Dangerous
(D) Final
(E) Severe
Ans: (B)

47. RECOGNIZED
(A) Predictable
(B) Standard
(C) Known
(D) Resembled
(E) Questioned
Ans: (C)

Directions—(Q. 48–50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. MITIGATE
(A) Aggravate
(B) Anger
(C) Moderate
(D) Alienate
(E) Alleviate
Ans: (E)

49. COMPLEX
(A) Plain
(B) Simple
(C) Undisturbed
(D) Compound
(E) Unilateral
Ans: (B)

50. LIMITED
(A) Boundless
(B) Released
(C) Freed
(D) Seamless
(E) Allowed
Ans: (A)

IIFT 2011-13 Admission Test solved paper

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Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2012

General English 

(Exam Held on 12-2-2012)

Directions—Q. (1-10) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once, a teacher was travelling (1) with a few of his followers. While they were travelling, they happened to pass by a lake. They stopped there and the teacher told one of his disciples, ‘‘I am thirsty. Please get me some water from that lake there.’’

The obedient disciple walked up to the lake. When he reached there, he (2) that some people were washing clothes in the lake water and, right at that moment, a bullock cart was crossing through the lake. As a (3), the water had become very muddy and turbid. The disciple though, ‘‘How can I give this muddy water to my teacher!’’ So he came back and told the teacher, ‘‘The water in there is very muddy. I don't think it is fit to drink. So I did not bring it to you. Should I ask those people to (4) their activities so that I can bring clean water for you?’’ The teacher did not reply. He simply smiled and said that he would like to rest for a little while before (5) the journey.

After about half an hour, the teacher asked the same disciple to go back to the lake and get him some water to drink. The disciple obediently went back to the lake. This time he (6) that the lake had absolutely clear water in it. The mud had settled down and the water above it looked fit to be had. So he collected some water in a pot and (7) it to the teacher.

The teacher looked at the water, and then he looked up at the disciple and said, ‘‘See what you have done to make the water clean. You let it be for a little while and the mud (8) down on its own and you got clear water. Human mind is also like that. When it is disturbed, one must just let it be. Give it a little (9). It will settle down on its own. You don't have to put in any effort to calm it down. It will (10) on its own. It is effortless.’’

1. (A) together

(B) besides

(C) also

(D) to

(E) along

Ans : (E)

2. (A) noticed

(B) caught

(C) finding

(D) seen

(E) seeing

Ans : (A)

3. (A) result

(B) problem

(C) cause

(D) effects

(E) answer

Ans : (A)

4. (A) lose
(B) continued
(C) stop
(D) forgot
(E) close
Ans : (C)

5. (A) end
(B) thinking
(C) reporting
(D) continuing
(E) start
Ans : (D)

6. (A) got
(B) see
(C) notice
(D) seen
(E) found
Ans : (E)

7. (A) hand
(B) bring
(C) brought
(D) present
(D) get
Ans : (C)

8. (A) ran
(B) settled
(C) threw
(D) scattered
(E) fell
Ans : (B)

9. (A) push
(B) happy
(C) minute
(D) time
(E) money
Ans : (D)

10. (A) settled
(B) happen
(C) settled
(D) clean
(E) occurred
Ans : (D)

Directions—Q. (11-15) : Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as whole.

11. ............. of being told to leave early, she late very late.
(A) inspite
(B) despite
(C) though
(D) even
(E) still
Ans : (A)

12. All the houses in that area .......... similar.
(A) find
(B) look
(C) same
(D) not
(E) was
Ans : (B)

13. She ........... the book store last week.
(A) went
(B) visited
(C) seen
(D) go
(E) gone
Ans : (B)

14. Anju was feeling homesick so she .......... to her hometown last month.
(A) left
(B) visit
(C) returned
(D) run
(E) gone
Ans : (C)

15. Rachna's wedding dress was ........ by her sister.
(A) make
(B) stitch
(C) create
(D) designed
(E) tear
Ans : (D)

Directions—Q. (16-25) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

16. The teacher scolded and (A) / punished all those (B) / students who had (C) / neglected their homework. (D) No Error
Ans : (E)

17. The actor has declined (A) / to performance the stunts in (B) / his next movies because (C) / of his back injury. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

18. Out of all the (A) / candidates who appeared (B) / for the interview only (C) / three was selected. (D) No error. (E)
Ans : (A)

19. Of later they (A) / have started using paper (B) / and cloth carry-bags instead (C) / of plastic ones. (D) No Error. (E)
Ans : (A)

20. Today morning she said (A) / that she would buy (B) / the groceries on her (C) / way home by work. (D) No Error. (E)
Ans : (D)

21. Suraj had not lose (A) / confidence even after (B) / losing the singing (C) / competition last year. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

22. She could not (A) / attend the function (B) / as her flight to (C) / Pune was delayed. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (E)

23. Many students have (A) / volunteered to help (B) / the NGO in keeping (C) / the city clean. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (E)

24. The kids were (A) / delighted when they (B) / saw a elephant at (C) / the zoo yesterday. (D) No Error. (E)
Ans : (*)The preposition ‘in’ in place of it should be used.

25. People do not have (A) / access to basically necessities (B) / like potable water in (C) / many parts of the country. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—Q. (25-30) : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. There are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If all the words printed bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

26. They wish (A) to donate (B) some clothes (C) to the orphannage. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

27. Shweta surprised (A) everyone by (B) coming earlier (C) than expected. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

28. I think (A) we should (B) take a write (C) turn from this junction. (D) All correct. (E)
Ans : (C)

29. He bought (A) a mobile (B) phone from a shope (C) near this his house. (D) All correct. (E)
Ans : (C)

30. She conted (A) the money (B) before putting (C) it in her bag. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—Q. (81-45) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrase have been printed in bold to help your locate them while answering some of the questions.

A princess who was not only known for her beauty but also for her intelligence and quick wit, wanted to marry a man who was more intelligent and learned as compared to her. She was not too concerned about his looks or wealth. One day she told her father, ‘‘I have decided. Let any man ask me eight questions. If I am unable to answer even one of them, I will marry him.’’ The king was well aware of his daughter's intelligence. He asked her, He asked her, ‘‘And what if you answer all the questions?’’ he asked. ‘‘Then that man will be rejected and will not be given a second chance,’’ she answered. The king agreed reluctantly as he had no choice left.

The next day an announcement was made in the kingdom, about the princess' challenge. Many suitors came to the place to try their luck but the princess was too clever for them. She answered all their questions in no time.

The king was now worried about his daughter's marriage. Thus he decided to take the help of its trusted friend who was a great teacher. The teacher heard the king's story and after giving it some thought, said that he had a solution. He reassured the king that he would send his brightest student to question the princess. The next day a very handsome your man arrived at the palace. He was dressed in simple clothes. He announced that he had eight questions for the princess. The king summoned the princess. The young man's first question was, ‘‘How many stars are there in the sky?’’ The princess replied, ‘‘The number of stars in the sky is equal to the amount of hair on a goat.’’ His next question was, ‘‘Who has the most beautiful child in the world?’’ To this she answered, ‘‘Every child is the beautiful one for its mother.’’ Thus, every mother possesses the most beautiful child in the world. His third question was, ‘‘Who has hands and is yet consider handless?’’ The princess replied, ‘‘A rich man who does not share his wealth.’’ The young man's next question was, ‘‘Who has eyes but is still blind?’’ The princess replied, ‘‘A man without compassion who does not see the suffering the exists in the world.’’. The young man then showed a picture of a dilapidated palace to the princess and asked her what it meant. By now the princess was sure that the young man was as intelligent as her. Her reply was, ‘‘The picture shows that a house with a weak foundation is bound to collapse’’ be it a palace or a hut.’’ The young man then showed another picture to the princess. This one was of an old lady collecting firewood, while carrying a heavy load on the back. The princess smiled and replied, ‘‘This picture depicts human greed’’ The woman has already collected more firewood than what she can carry. Yet she does not want to give up and go home.’’ Now, the princess had answered six questions accurately. There were only two questions left. The young man's seventh question was, ‘‘Princess, which is the question that can't answer?’’ The princess was stumped at this question. If she told him the answer, the young man would ask that question as the last one, and if she did not answer it, she would lose anyway. She accepted defeat and told the king that she would like to marry this intelligent man.

31. What did the king do in order to find a suitable husband for husband for his daughter.
(A) He asked his trusted minister to go and find a suitable husband for his daughter?
(B) He helped the suitors by providing questions to be asked
(C) He consulted his trusted friend who was the great teacher
(D) He asked his daughter to marry a man who was not as intelligent as her
(E) He found a wealthy and handsome prince for her
Ans : (C)

32. According to the princess, who has the most beautiful child in the world?
(A) The princess' mother
(B) Every mother
(C) The young man's mother
(D) The king's mother
(E) The king's friend
Ans : (B)

33. Why was the king worried?
(A) None of the suitors could outsmart the princess and thus lost the challenge
(B) The princess wanted to marry a pauper
(C) The suitors were too smart as compared to the princess
(D) The princess could not answer the eight question asked by the suitors
(E) No one showed up to face the princess' challenge
Ans : (A)

34. What kind of a man did the princess want to marry?
(A) Someone who was good looking
(B) Someone who was more clever than the king
(C) Someone who was Wealthier than her
(D) Someone who was brave
(E) Someone who was cleverer than her
Ans : (E)

35. Which of the following is true according to the given passage?
(A) The princess could not answer a single question
(B) The young man was not as intelligent as the princess
(C) The king was reluctant to let the princess marry the young man
(D) The princess answered all the questions asked by the young man
(E) None is true
Ans : (E)

36. What was the young man's eighth question?
(A) He showed a picture of a dilapidated palace, to the princess and asked her to interpret it
(B) He did not ask the eighth question at all
(C) He showed a picture of an old woman collecting firewood with a load on her back, to the princess and asked her to interpret it
(D) He asked the princess, how many stars were there in the sky
(E) He asked the princess, which was the question that the princess would not know the answer to
Ans : (E)

37. What did the princess decided in the end?
(A) That she would never get married
(B) That she wanted to ask the young man eight questions
(C) That she wanted to marry a man of her father's choice
(D) That she wanted to marry another suitor
(E) that she wanted to marry the young man
Ans : (E)

38. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage.
(1) The princess accepted defeat
(2) The young man showed a picture to the princess
(3) The princess decided to marry an intelligent man
(4) The teacher sent his student to ask questions
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
(E) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

39. What was the young man's sixth question?
(A) He showed a picture of an old woman collecting firewood with a load on her back, to the princess asked her to interpret it
(B) He showed a picture of a dilapidated palace, to the princess and asked her to interpret it
(C) He asked the princess, which was the question that the princess would not know the answer to
(E) He did not ask the sixth question at all
Ans : (B)

40. Which of the following may be an appropriate title for the given passage?
(A) The foolish princess
(B) The helpless king
(C) The brightest student
(D) Eight questions for the princess
(E) The questions
Ans : (C)

Directions—Q. (41-43) : Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

41. Summoned :
(A) Sent
(B) Asked
(C) Forgot
(D) Called
(E) Convened
Ans : (D)

42. Depicts :
(A) Draws
(B) Calculates
(C) Shows
(D) Completes
(E) Increases
Ans : (A)

43. In no time :
(A) Very quickly
(B) Very slowly
(C) Very late
(D) At the last moment
(E) Very angrily
Ans : (A)

Directions—Q. (44-45) : Choose the word / group of words which is most opposite in meaning the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. Defeat :
(A) Loss
(B) Conquest
(C) Victory
(D) Challenge
(E) Power
Ans : (C)

45. Heavy :
(A) Pale
(B) Weak
(C) Weight
(D) Strong
(E) Light
Ans : (E)

Directions—Q. (46-50) : Rearrange the following six sentence (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in proper sequence for form a meaning paragraph the answer the questions given below them.
(1) What he woke up, the poet asked; ‘‘Sir, shall I read the poem again?’’
(2) A poet visited a king hoping to impress him with some poems he had written; the king asked him to leave the poems with him and promised the read them later.
(3) The poet was confused at the king's response and said, ‘‘No, Sir, you fell asleep.’’
(4) The poet, however, insisted on reading out the poems to him and as the poet droned on the king fell asleep.
(5) The king replied, ‘‘Why? I've already given you my opinion, haven't I?’’
(6) ‘‘That's right,’’ the king replied, ‘‘When I fell asleep I gave my opinion about your poems.’’

46. Which of the following should be the second sentence in the rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 1
Ans : (D)

47. Which of the following should be the first sentence in the rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence in the arrangement?
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

49. Which of the following should be the last (sixth) sentence in the rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 1
(E) 4
Ans : (C)

50. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence in the rearrangement?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 1
Ans : (B)

VISAKHAPATNAM STEEL PLANT Management Trainee (Technical) Recruitment

VISAKHAPATNAM STEEL PLANT (Vizag Steel)
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
(A Government of India Enterprise)
Visakhapatnam - 530031 (AP)

Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Umited, Visakhapatnam Steel Plant(Vizag Steel), is a prestigious "Mini Ratna" PSU under the Ministry of Steel. Vizag Steel invites bright, energetic and talented youth to join as Management Trainees for a challenging career with excellent growth opportunities.

• Management Trainee (Technical) : 162 posts (UR-81, SC-24, ST-7, OBC-50) (PWD-1)  (Metallurgy-17, Mechanical-57, Electrical-69, Civil-6, Computer Science -2, Chemical-5, Instrumentation-6), Pay Scale : Rs.20600-3%-46500 (E-1),  Age : 25 years

Application Fee : Rs. 500/- to be deposited in any of the Core Banking branches of State Bank of India (SBI) in the RINL/ VSP Power Jyoti Current Account No. 30589461220 through prescribed challan.

Selection by a Written Test on 10/06/2012  followed by Group Discussion/ Interview for selected  

How to Apply : Eligible candidates would be required to applyOnline through Rashtriya Ispat Website only.

Important Dates :

1. Starting Date of Online Registration : 04/04/2012
2. Closing Date of Online Registration : 23/04/2012
3. Date of Written Exam : 10/06/2012

The detailed advertisement  is available athttp://www.vizagsteel.com/code/tenders/jobdocs/13412 Advertisement_Final_02_2012.pdf  for details, and apply On line at Career section in Vizag Steel website athttp://www.vizagsteel.com/index.asp?sm=1&url=code/tenders/jobadshome.asp

UIIC Specialist and Generalist Officers Recruitment

UNITED INDIA INSURANCE COMPANY LIMITED (UIIC)
24, Whites Road, Chennai – 600014

Recruitment of Officer (Scale I) (Generalist and Specialist)

Applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of Officers in Specialist and Generalist disciplines :

• Specialist and Generalist Officers : 350 posts (UR-192, SC-45,ST-21,OBC-92) (PH-12) in Finance (CA/ ICWA/ ACA/ M.Com.), IT (MCA/MCM/BE (CS/ECE/EEE), Law (LLB), Technical (Engineering in Mechanical, Electrical, Civil, Electronics and Metallurgy). Actuarial  (PG in Statistics/ Mathematics/ Actuarial Sc.), General Administration, Age : 21-30 years, relaxation as per rules., Pay Scale : Rs.17240-32640/-  

Application Fee : Rs.500/- to be paid in any Branch of State Bank of India (plus Rs.40/- as SBI fee) by paying appropriate application by filling the Fee Payment Challan and remitting the amount. No fee for SC/ST/PH candidates.

Date of Written Examination : 03/06/2012

How to Apply: Apply Online at United India Insurance Company website only from 07/04/2012 to 25/04/2012.  After applying on-line, take a print out of the system generated online application form and retain it for future reference. DO not send this printout to the company. 

For further details and apply Online, Please visit http://www.uiic.co.in/recruitment.htm from 07/04/2012 onwards