UPSC EXAMS SCHEDULE

CALENDAR for EXAMINATIONS - 2011

S.No	NAME OF EXAMINATION	DATE OF NOTIFICATION	LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS	DATE OF COMMENCEMENT OF EXAM	DURATION OF EXAM.
1	COMBINED MEDICAL SERVICES EXAM, 2011	11.09.2010	11.10.2010    (MONDAY)	16.01.2011 (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
2	C.D.S. EXAM.(I), 2011	25.09.2010	25.10.2010 (MONDAY)	13.02.2011        (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
3	N.D.A. & N.A. EXAM.(I), 2011	16.10.2010	15.11.2010  (MONDAY)	17.04.2011 (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
4	ENGINEERING SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2011	25.12.2010	24.1.2011 (MONDAY)	14.05.2011 (SATURDAY)	03 DAYS
5	CIVIL SERVICES (PREL) EXAM., 2011	19.02.2011	21.03.2011   (MONDAY)	12.06.2011 (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
6	INDIAN FOREST SERVICE    EXAM, 2011	12.03.2011	11.04.2011 (MONDAY)	09.07.2011 (SATURDAY)	10 DAYS
7	SCRA EXAM, 2011	19.03.2011	18.04.2011  (MONDAY)	31.07.2011 (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
8	N.D.A. & N.A. EXAM.(II), 2011	09.04.2011	09.05.2011   (MONDAY)	21.08.2011  (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
9	C.D.S. EXAM.(II), 2011	30.04.2011	30.05.2011   (MONDAY)	18.09.2011 (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
10	CENTRAL POLICE FORCES (AC) EXAM., 2011	28.05.2011	27.06.2011   (MONDAY)	09.10.2011 (SUNDAY)	1 DAY
11	CIVIL SERVICES (MAIN) EXAM., 2011			29.10.2011   (SATURDAY)	21 DAYS
12	I.E.S./I.S.S. EXAM., 2011	30.07.2011	29.08.2011   (MONDAY)	03.12.2011 (SATURDAY)	3 DAYS
13	GEOLOGISTS' EXAM., 2011	13.08.2011	12.09.2011   (MONDAY)	03.12.2011 (SATURDAY)	3 DAYS
14	S.O./STENO (GD-B/GD-I) LTD. DEPTTL. COMPETITIVE EXAM.	23.07.2011	19.09.2011   (MONDAY)	17.12.2011  (SATURDAY)	4 DAYS
NOTE:- THE DATES OF NOTIFICATION AND COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATIONS/ RTs ARE LIABLE TO ALTERATION, IF THE CIRCUMSTANCES SO WARRANT.

United India Insurance AO Exam 2009

Reasoning Ability

Directions—(Q. 1—5) In the following questions, the symbols +, -,x
÷ and = are used with the following meanings
A + B means A is greater than B;
A – B means A is greater than or equal to B;
A x B means A is equal to B;
A ÷ B means A is smaller than B; and
A = B means A is smaller than or equal to B.
For each question you have to assume given statements to be true and then decide which of the two given conclusions is are definitely true. Give answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true;
(B) If only conclusion II is true;
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true; and
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
1. Statements:
D=S, N + V, D x R, R + V
Conclusions: I. S + V
II D+N

2. Statements:
K x P, M + J, C÷ P, K = M
Conclusions: I. M + P
II. M x P
3. Statements:
L – R, N x M, L ÷ M, N = P
Conclusions: I. M + R
II. R+P
4.Statements:
W + K, S = Z, X – W, S x K
Conclusions: I. K x Z
II. X÷K
5. Statements:
P ÷ Q, W – N, P — N, T + W
Conclusions: I. P x W
II. Q÷W
Directions—(Q. 6—10) There are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II , III and IV. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) .
6. Statements:
Some songs are throngs.
Some throngs are longs.
Conclusions:
I. Some songs are longs.
II. No songs are longs.
III. Only longs are songs.
IV Only songs are longs.
(A) Only I Follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Either III or IV follows
7. Statements:
Some charts are darts.
All darts are carts.
Some carts are smarts.
Conclusions:
I. Some charts are carts.
II. Some carts are darts.
Ill. Some darts are smarts.
IV. Some smarts are charts.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
8. Statements:
All blanks are beams.
All bridges are beams.
All bridges are cows.
Conclusions:
I. Some cows are beams.
II. Some blanks are cows.
III. Some blanks are bridges.
IV. Some bridges are not cows.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) I,II and III follow
(D) None follow

9. Statements:
Some Chinese are not Russians.
All Russians are Africans.
Some Africans are Indians.
Conclusions:
I. Some Chinese are not Africans.
II. Some Chinese are not Indians.
Ill. All Russians are Indians.
IV. Some Indians are Chinese.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Either II or IV follows
10. Statements:
All chalks are cheese.
No cheese are ships.
Some herds are ships.
Conclusions:
I. Some herds are not chalks.
II. Some herds are cheese.
Ill. Some cheese are not herds.
IV. No chalk is a ship.
(A) I, II and IV follow
(B) Either II or III and IV follows
(C) II and III follow
(D) II and IV follow
Directions—(Q. 11—15) A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular logic. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement?
Input: CRI END YAM STU THE
StepI:YAM THE CRI END STE
StepII:YAM THE STE END CRI
Step III:STU CRI YAM THE END
Step IV;STU CRI END THE YAM
Study the logic and answer questions
11. If step VII of an input is ‘OVER THE PRE NEW BONE’ what is
the step IV of that input?
(A) BONE THE PRE OVERNEW
(B) THE PRE BONE NEW OVER
(C) THE BONE PRE OVER NEW
(D) PRE BONE THE OVER NEW
12. Given the following input— SYM REACH LAD PHOTO CAL
what step will the following arrangement?
REACH LAD PHOTO SYM CAL
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) IV
(D) III
13. If Step VI of a given input be ‘MAP IND PAK RUS ENG’, what would be the input?
(A) IND MAP PAK RUS ENG
(B) IND MAP ENG RUS PAK
(C) ENG RUS IND PAK MAP
(D) RUS MAP IND ENG PAK
14. Given the following input, what would be Step VIII of the input?
Input : BANK CRIS ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
(A) PRIZE WITH CRIS ATTRACT BANK
(B) CRIS BANK PRIZE WITH ATTRACT
(C) PRIZE WITH BANK ATTRACT CRIS
(D) CR15 BANK ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
15. In which step will we get the same arrangement as the input?
(A) VIII
(B) IX
(C)X
(D)XI
Directions—(Q. 16—20) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I II and III. You have to consider the statement and the assumption, and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Then decide which one of the answers, (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct.
16. Statement : Considering the tickets sold during the last seven days, the circus authorities decided to continue the show for another fortnight which includes two weekends.
Assumptions:
I. People may not turn up on weekdays.
II. The average number of people who will be visiting circus will be more or less the same as that of the last seven days.
III. There may not be enough responses at other places.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
17. Statement : The telephone company informed the subscribers through a notification that those who do not pay their bills by the due date will be charged penalty for every defaulting day.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by the due date to avoid penalty.
II. The money collected as penalty may set off the losses due to delayed payment.
III. People generally pay heed to such notices.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
18. Statement The national air carrier has decided to start a weekly air service from town ‘A’ to town ‘B’.
Assumptions:
I. There will be enough passengers to make the operation economically viable.
II. Other carriers may not start such service.
III The people staying around these towns can afford the cost of air travel.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Both II and III are implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) ALL are implicit
19. Statement : A group of friends decided to go for a picnic to Dum Duma Lake during the next holiday season to avoid crowd of people.
Assumptions:
I. Generally many people do not go to Dum Duma Lake.
II. People prefer other spots to Dum Duma Lake.
III. Many people do not know about Dum Duma Lake.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) All are implicit
20. Statement : “Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession”—Advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Flats are available in court
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
Ill. It is a practice to give such an advertisement.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only III is implicit
(D) All are implicit
21. pq—rqp—qrrq—p—rrqpp—r
(A) rqpqr
(B) qprrq
(C) qrprp
(D) rppqq
22. nnt—qqn—tt—qnn—tq-.
(A) nnqtq
(B) qntnq
(C) tnqtq
(D) ttqtq
Directions(Q. 23 and 24)
P + Q means P is the brother of Q
P – Q means P is the sister of Q
P x Q means P is the father of Q
P ÷ Q means P is the mother of
Q.
23. A÷B-C x D,
then A is D
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Mother
(D) Grandmother
24. Which of the following shows that V is the grandmother of Y?
(A) VxR+KVY
(B) V÷RxK-Y
(C) V÷R+KxY
(D) VxR-K÷Y
25. How many pairs of letters are there in the word STRAIGHT FORWARD which have numbers of letters between them in the word equal to the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(A)4
(B)5
(C)6
(D)7
26. Milk: Butter
(A) Banana : Fruit
(B) Juice : Health
(C) Wood: Paper
(D) Chili Spices
27. Hat : Headwear
(A) Shark : Fish
(B) Crocodile : Terrapin
(C) Shoe : Socks
(D) Glove: Hand
28. Horse : Cow
(A) Milk: Ice-cream
(B) Mars : Moon
(C) Snow : Water
(D) Pink: Blue
29. Hair : Head
(A) Teeth : Mouth
(B) Tea-leaves : Mountain slopes
(C) Hand: Arm
(D) Footpath : Road
30. Fore: Hind
(A) Sky:Space
(B) Land:Sea
(C) North : South
(D) Face:Neck
Directions—(Q. 31—35) Read the following information to answer the questions— A, B, C, D and E are sons of P, Q ,R, S and T but not in the same order.
Match the right mother and son on the basis of the information given below—
Q is not B’s or C mother.
A’s or Es mother is not T.
C is not R’s son.
E is not Q’s or S’s son and his mother’s name does not start with the letter ‘R’.
A’s mother is not Q or R
31. Who is S’s son?
(A)A
(B)B
(C)C
(D)D
32. Who is C mother?
(A)P
(B)R
(C)S
(D)T
33. Who is Q’s son?
(A)A
(B)D
(C)B
(D)E
34. Who is P’s son?
(A)B
(B)C
(C)D
(D)E
35. Who is son of R ?
(A)E
(B)A
(C)B
(D)D
Lflrections—(Q. 36-40) In each of the following number series, two terms are put within brackets. Mark in the answer-sheet—
(A) If both the bracketed terms are right;
(B) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong;
(C) If the first bracketed term is wrong and second is right;
(D) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.
36. 5, 17, (30), 73, 129, (225)
37. 11, 29, (55), 89, (131), 181
38. 3, 12, 28, 32, (42), (57), 61, 70, 86
39. 2,3,6, (11), 18, (27), 38
40. 4, 14, (18), (24), 31, 36, 38, 48, 53
Directions—(Q. 41-45 )Choose the odd one.
41.
(A) YNHIA
(B) SGRFI
(C) ISEPU
(D) FHUJU
42.
(A) PROUD
(B) DRIVER
(C) WHEAT
(D) TRAIN
43.
(A) CXHIA
(B) RCFCL
(C) MTOWF
(D) CPRSV
44.
(A) JOT
(B) OUT
(C) TEN
(D)DIN
45. (A) HR
(B) GT
(C) KP
(D) FU
Directions—(Q. 46-49) Read the following information and answer the questions given below it. If ranks of five candidates P, Q ,R S and T are arranged in ascending order of their marks in Numerical Ability, T is the fourth and S is the first. When they are arranged in the ascending order of marks in General Awareness, P takes the place of T and T takes the place of Q. R’s position remains the same in both the arrangements. Q’s marks are lowest in one test and highest in the other test. P has more marks than R in Numerical Ability.
46. Who has secured the highest marks in General Awareness?
(A)Q
(B)T
(C)S
(D)R
47. Who has secured the highest marks in Numerical Ability?
(A)S
(B)R
(C)P
(D)Q
48. Which of the following groups of candidates has improvement in rank in General Awareness as compared to that in Numerical Ability?
(A) SPT
(B) PSR
(C) QST
(D) SPQ
49. Whose marks in General Awareness are more than R’s marks in General Awareness?
(A) Only P’s
(B)P’s, Q’s and S’s
(C) P’s, S’s and T’s
(D) P’s, Q’s and T’s
50. In a certain code CAMEL is written as XPOGT and RABBITS as YPUULFZ. How can AIRMAIL be written in that code?
(A) PIYOPLT
(B) PLYOPTL
(C) PLROPLT
(D) PLYOPLT
Answers:

1	A
2	C
3	A
4	B
5	D
6	C
7	A
8	D
9	D
10	B
11	C
12	B
13	D
14	C
15	C
16	B
17	D
18	C
19	D
20	A
21	D
22	C
23	D
24	B
25	C
26	C
27	D
28	B
29	A
30	C
31	A
32	D
33	B
34	D
35	C
36	C
37	A
38	C
39	A
40	D
41	D
42	B
43	C
44	B
45	A
46	B
47	D
48	A
49	C
50	D

NEW INDIA ASSURANCE CO. LTD. (A.O.) EXAM., 2009

General Awareness

1. Which of the following is not the
name of an Insurance Scheme
launched by the Government of
India
(A) ]anashree Bima Yojana
(B) Krishi Shramik Sarnajik
Suraksha Yojana
(C) Shiksha Sahyog Yojana
(D) Varsha Bima Yojana
(E) National Saving Scheme
Programme
Answer.D
2. Which of the following insurance
companies writes its punch
line in the advertisements
”Insurance is the subject matter
of solicitation” ?
(A) CIC
(B) LIC
(C) ING Vysya Life Insurance
Co.
(D) Tata AIG Life Insurance Co.
(E) None of these
Answer.B
3. How much Foreign Institutional
Investment is allowed in
insurance sector at present
(A) 20%
(B) 46%
(C) 59%
(D) 63%
(E) None of these
Answer.E
4. How many public sector companies in India are in Insurance
Business
(A) Only one
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than ten
Answer.A
5. Which of the following was the
parent company of New India
Assurance ?
(A) LIC
(B) GIC
(C) Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd.
(D) United India Insurance
(E) None of these
Answer.B
6. Which of the following organizations of the workers of unorganized sector has adopted an insurance scheme for all its workers and has become a model organization for the workers of the unorganized sector ?
(A) SERC
(B) SEWA
(C) VSNL
(D) SEBI
(E) MTNL
Answer.B
7. Which of the following projects
of the ISRO was recently insured
by the New India Assurance
Company ?
(A) MATSAT-II
(B) Aryabhatt
(C) PSLV
(D) Chandrayaan
(E) lNSAT—2E
Answer.C
8. Which of t.he following industrial
groups of India is Not in any
type of Insurance Business in
India 7
(A) Tatas
(B) Birlas
(C)‘ Iaipurias
(D) Mahindras
(E) All are in Insurance Business
Answer.C
9. Which of the following words/
terms is closely associated with
the insurance business
(A) Archives
(B) Donation
(C) Actuary
(D) Quest
(E) All are associated with
insurance
Answer.C
10. Which of the following is the
abbreviated name of the agency /
organization which is the regulator of insurance business in
India ?
(A) NHB
(B) IRDA
(C) IBA
(D) IDFC
(E) ICRISAT
Answer.B
ll. Insurance services are normally
not provided for which of the
following?
(A) Health
(B) Life
(C) jobs
(D) House & Property
(E) It is available for all
Answer.C
12. The New India Assurance Company was established in 1919
by
(A) Dorab Tata
(B) G. D. Birla
(C) Iamunalal Baja]
(D) Kamlapat Singhania
(E) None of these
Answer.A
13. Which of the following is largest
Non Life Insurance Company in
India ?
(A) ICICI Lombard General
Insurance Company Ltd.
(B) United India Insurance
Company Ltd.
(C) General Insurance Company
Ltd.
(D). New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(E) None of these
Answer.D
14. Ramesh Pokhriyal has taken over
as the new-
(A) Chief Minister of Chhattis-
garh
(B) Chief Minister of Uttara-
khand
(C) Governor of Haryana
(D) Governor of Uttarakhand
(E) Governor of Chhattisgarh
Answer.B
15. As per the announcement made
by the Govt. of India, which of
the following organizations is
set up by it for a very specific
purpose of providing a personal
identity card to all its citizens ?
(A) National Remote Sensing
Agency
(B) Unique Identification
Authority of India (UIA)
(C) National Spot Exchange
(D) Trade Development Authority
(E) People’s Union for Civil
Liberties
Answer.B
16. Which of the following Insurance
Companies was launched with
NABARD as one of its promoter”s with 30% stake in it ?
(A) General Insurance Corpora-
tion Ltd.
(B) National Insurance Corn-
pany Ltd.
(C) Agriculture Insurance Com-
pany Ltd,
(D) SBI Life Insurance Company
Ltd.
(E) None of these
Answer.A
17. Who amongst the following is
new Foreign Secretary of India 7
(A) Nirupama Rao
(B) Goolarn E. Vahanvati
(C) Brindeshwar Pathak
(D) Naveen Chawla
(E) None of these
v
Answer.A
18. Which of the following correctly
describes what the ’Bancass-
urance’ is
1. It is an arrangement where-
by the branches of a bank
sell / distribute insurance
products of an insurance
company.
2. It is a new product devel-
oped/ launched by the banks
in which the risks of the
high value customers are
covered for any losses to
their property and/or lives
through an insurance cover.
3, It is a new product launched
by some banks by which
they are providing insurance
cover to exporters/ impor-
ters for the losses, if any due
to high fluctuations in the
exchange rates of dollars
and other major currencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer.A
19, Which of the following is the
abbreviated name of the organizations which provides credit
guarantee to exporters ?
(A) FICCI
(B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI
(D) ECGC
(E) SEBI
Answer.D
20. The Railway Budget 2009-10 was
presented in the Lok Sabha (in
Iuly 2009) by
(A) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(B) Kapil Sibal
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Mamata Banerjee
(E) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer.D
21. ‘Satyam’ the well known company which has been i.n the news
in recent past, is now known
with its new name as—
(A) Mahindra Satyarn
(B) Birla Satyam
(C) Reliance Satyam
(D) Tata Satyam
(E) None of these
Answer.A
22. The Economic Survey which was
presented in the Lok Sabha in
]uly 2009, was the survey for the
year/ period of—
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008—09
(C) 2009-10
(D) Tenth five year plan
(E) None of these
Answer.B
23. The Government of India has
recently decided to allow about
2,200 items to come to Indian
markets with a tag of ‘Duty Free
Items} These items are imported
from
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Nepal
(E) Pakistan
Answer.B
24. Who amongst the following is
not one of the HFA Award
winners of 2009 ? (Under any one
of the categories).
(A) Priyanka Chopra
(B) Asin
(C) Farhan Akhtar
(D) Karishma Kapoor
(E) Hrithik Roshan
Answer.D
25. Saina Nehwal is a famous—
(A) Badminton player
(B) Table Tennis Player
(C) Lawn Tennis Player •
(D) Hockey Player
(E) Chess Player
Answer.A
26. ’No Tobacco Day’ is observed
every year on——
(A) lst May
(B) lst ]une
(C) 31st May
(D) 30th june
(E) None of these
Answer.C
27, India has recently appointed a
new Attorney General. Attorney
Generals are advisers to the
Government of India in-
(A) Defence related matters
(B) Diplomatic matters
(C) Legal matters
(D) Financial matters
(E) None of these
Answer.C
28. The presidential election in
which of the following countries,
held in ]une 2009, created a con•
troversy as one of the candidates
who was declared defeated
refused to accept the results of
the same ?
(A) Iran
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) USA
Answer.A
29. Which of the following awards is
given for excellence in the field
of Literature 7
(A) N. Borlaug Award
(B) Kalinga Prize
(C) Kishor Kumar Award
(D) Saraswati Samman
(E) Dronacharya Award
Answer.D
30. The parliamentarian elections of
which of die following organizations were held in june 2009 ?
(A) European Union (EU)
(B) Oil & Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC)
(C) Shanghai Corporation
(D) South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
(E) None of these
Answer.A
31. The 79th Amendment to the
Indian Constitution done in 1999
was associated with the»-
(A) reservation of seats in the
Parliament and State Assemblies
for sC/ ST candidates
(B) creation of three new states
Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and
jharkhand
(C) land reforms in many states
(D) giving more powers to
Panchayats
(E) None of these
Answer.A
32. Which of the following books is
written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) The Last Hero
(B) Stolen Harvest
(C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) Freedom From Fear
(E) God of Small Things
Answer.E
33. Which of the following schemes
was launched recently to make
Indian cities free from slums ?
(A) Bharat Nirrnan
(B) Indira Vikash Yojana
(C) Indira Awas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(E) None of these
Answer.D
34. Admiral Gorshkov Aircraft
carrier Refit Project is a deal
between India and-
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) Russia
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Answer.C
35. The sex ratio in India is higher in
which of the following states ?
(Females (1052) are more than
per thousand males)-
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Manipur
(D) Assam
(E) Karnataka
Answer.B
36. Which of the following countries
in Not a member of ASEAN ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Singapore
(C) China
(D) Vietnam
(E) Malaysia
Answer.C
37. Tipaimukh Dam which was in
news recently is located in which
of the following states ?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Manipur
(E) Assam
Answer.D
38. Which of the following states
has highest Literacy Rate in
country ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Kerala
Answer.E
39. Which of the following cups/
trophies is closely associated with
the game of Hockey ?
(A) Mardeka Cup
(B) Wimbledon Trophy
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Durand Cup
(E) Agha Khan Cup
Answer.E
40. Which of the following diseases
is caused by a virus ?
(A) Plague
(B) Cholera
(C) Whooping cough
(D) Tetanus
(E) Chicken pox
Answer.E

NATIONAL INSURANCE COMPANY LIMITED ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICERS SELECTION PROCEDURE

Candidates will be called for a written examination to be held on 30/01/2011 which would comprise the following: Objective type of tests in (i)Reasoning Ability, (ii) Quantitative Aptitude, (iii) English Language, (iv) Computer Operation related Awareness (v) Professional Knowledge –for the candidates belonging to Group A to C. (vi) A General Aptitude Test will be taken in lieu of Professional Knowledge Test for the candidates belonging to Group D. The additional topics, which will be covered in this part, will be a) Data Sufficiency b) Analysis of Information/Analytical Ability c) Data Interpretation. The first four tests i.e. Test of Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language and Computer Operation related Awareness will be common for all the candidates. The Test of Professional knowledge will be specific to each of the Group A to D as may be applicable.Test papers (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi) shall be both in English & Hindi.

Candidates will have to appear for the written examination at their own expenses on 30/01/2011.
The company reserves the right not to call any candidate to appear at the written examination and interview. On the basis of performance in written examination, candidates will be called for interview. The final selection will be made on the basis of overall performance in written examination and interview. Outstation candidates called for the interview will be reimbursed to and fro second-class rail fare/bus fare by the shortest route on production of evidence of having undertaken journey.
The candidates are advised to satisfy themselves before they apply that they fulfill requirement as to age, qualification, (Final result for the qualification must have been published on or before 31/10/2010) etc and if found ineligible, their candidature will be cancelled at any stage of recruitment. Appearing in the WRITTEN EXAMINATION & INTERVIEW will not automatically confer any right of being selected for the said post.

LIC AAO EXAM PATTERN

1.  LIC AAO Exam Pattern : The selection of LIC AAO (Chartered Accountant ) & LIC AAO (Actuarially Qualified ) will be on the basis of interview only but  for LIC AAO (Generalist), it will be on written exam & interview. One has to clear the written exam first & those who clear that will be called for the interview.
   Written Exam : There will be 2 papers in written exam.
   A. Paper I : It is objective type with MCQs. It consists of 4 sections which are -
   a. Section I – Reasoning Ability
   b. Section II – Numerical Ability
   c. section III – General Knowledge & current Affairs
   d. Section IV – English Language where questions will be on Grammar & Vocabulary.
   The first three sections are in bilingual language. So you can opt in either English or Hindi. But the last one is in English only. B. Paper II : It is descriptive type. There is 2 sections in it.
   a. Section I – Essay writing
   b. Section II – Precise writing & comprehension.
   The first section can be attempted in English or Hindi as per your convenience but the second one is in English only.
   
   Out of both papers, only Paper I is for deciding the merit  & paper II is the qualifying exam only. So paper I will decide the cut off criteria & those having marks above this will only be evaluated by paper II.
2. Interview : Those who clear the written exam are called for interview. In this, almost three times the vacancies are called. Among all this candidates, those who are able to satisfy the interviewers will be appointed.

LIC AAO 2008 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PAPER

1. In which of the following years the Government of India nationalised the general insurance business under the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act?
(1) 1970
(2) 1972
(3) 1976
(4) 1973
(5) 1981

2. When was the Kalka-Shimla Railway Line added to the UNESCO's World Heritage List?
(1) April 18.2008
(2) July 8. 2008
(3) August 15, 2007
(4) January 26,2008
(5) March 23, 2008

3. The famous Kailasanath Temple at Kanchiwasbuiltby was built by:
(1) Mahendravarman I
(2) Narasimhavarman II
(3) Nandivarman II
(4) Dantivarman
(5) None of these

4. Shivaji ceded the forts to the Mughals by which treaty?
(1) Chittor
(2) Pune
(31 Purandar
(4) Toma
(5) None of these

5. The Life Insurance Corporation of India was established in September 1956 under an Act of the Indian Parliament. The Government of India invested a capital of ------ in this corporation.
(1) Rs.5 •crore
(2) Rs. 4 crore
(3) Rs. 7 crore
(4) Rs. (3 crore.
(5) None otthese

6. Bindusara sent Asoka to quell the rebellion in..
(1) Swamagiri
(2) Taxila
(3) Uijain
(4) Tosali
(5) None of these

7. 'Royal Asiatic Society' was founded by
(1) Sir William Jones
(2) Sir John Marshall
(3) R. D. BaneIjee
(4) Sir William Bentick
(5) None of these

8. The first Sultan of Delhi. who attempted the conquest of South India was
(1) gutb-ud-din Mubarak
(2) Nasir-ud-din Khusrav Shah I
(3) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(4) Jala-ud-din Firoz
(5) None of these

9. Which of the following countries in February 2008 lifted a ban on Islamic headscarves at varsities?
(1) Turkey
(2) Germany
(3) Kuwait
(4) Afghanistan
(5) indonesia

10. Mahaballpuramis an important city that reveals the interest in arts of...
(1) Pallavas
(2) Cheras
(3) Pandyas
(4) Chalukyas
(5) None of these

11. The renowned musician duo: Tansen and Baiju Bawra, flourishec during the reign of
(1) Jehangir
(2) Bahadur Shah zafar
(3) Akbar
(4) ShahJahan
(5) None of these

12. Lord Mahavira died at
(1) Saravana Belagola
(2) Lumbini Garden
(3) KaIugumaIai
(4) Pavapuri
(5) None of these

13. The Indus people knew the use of Weights and Measures, which is proved by the discoveiy of the seal at
(1) KaIibangan
(2) Harappa
(3) Chanhudaro
(4) Lothal
(5) None of these

14. Which language was mostly used for• the propagation of Buddhism?
(I) Sanskrit
(2) Prakrit
(3) Pall
(4) Sauraseni
(5) None of these

15. The 11 th National Conference on e-Governance was held in February 2008 at - 
1) Chennai
(2) Guwahati
(3) Jaipur
(4) Chandigarh
(5) None of these

16. Which of the following statements about Kharif and Rabi is not-correct?
(1) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in late Spring
(2) Kharif season begins with the onset of monsoon season and harvested in Autumn
(3) Rabi season begins in Autumn after the rains and harvested in late Spring.
(4) Important Kharif crops are rice, millets. jute, maize and cotton; important Rabi crops are wheat, gram. barley and linseed
(5) None of these

17. Raniganj Coal Mine is situated in
(1) Bihar
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) West Bengal
(4) Maharashtra
(5) None ofthes~

18. Bosnia-Herzegovina formed the parts of
(1) Czechoslovakia
(2) Yugoslavia
(3) Bulgaria
(4) Azerbaijan
(5) None of these

19. Major producer of sugar is
(1) Australia
(2) Cuba
(3) India
(4) Mauritius
(5) None of these

20. In the north-east of the Deccan plateau is?
(1) Chhola Nagpur plateau
(2) Malawa plateau
(3) Deccan plateau
(4) Vindhyan Range
(5) None of these


Answers:
1. 1
2. 2
3.2
4.3
5.1
6.3
7.1
8. 3
9. 1
10. 1
11. 3
12. 4
13. 2
14. 3
15. 4
16. 1
17. 3
18. 2
19. 2
20.1

SAIL MT (Admin) and Technical Previous Exam Paper

1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Jute
(d) Rapeseed
Ans. (c)

2. Blue Revolution is associated with
(a) Fish
(b) Milk
(c) flower
(d) Litmus
Ans. (a)

3. Study the following features of farming in India:
1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together cultivation.
2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled.
3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land.
4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements.
Which of these features belong to cooperative farming?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves?
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (b)

5. The largest food crop of India is
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) gram
Ans. (b)

6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from
(a) Rapeseed and mustard
(b) Til
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)

7. Tobacco cultivated in Gujarat is mostly used for the manufacture of
(a) beedi
(b) cigarette
(c) zarda
(d) snuff powder
Ans. (a)

8. India is the largest producer of
(a) tobacco
(b) sugar
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (c)

9. Rubber plantations are located mostly in
(a) Kerala and Karnataka
(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra and Kerala
(4) West Bengal and Kerala
Ans. (a)

10. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of
(a) 120
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 280
Ans. (c)

11. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a more than three-fold rise in food grains production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are reason for it?
1. The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.
2. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.
3. Too much emphasis is laid on what and paddy compared to the coarse grains.
4. The gains of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop rather than food crops.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) l, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

12. The state which is known as the ‘Granary of India’ is
(a) Kerala
(b) U.P
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab
Ans. (d)

13. Which of the following states is the Leading producer of tobacco?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c)

14. Which of the following is the most important cash crop of West Bengal?
(a) Tea
(b) Jute
(c) Arecanut
(d) Coffee
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)

15. Sowing season for kharif crop is
(a) February-March
(b) June -July
(c) August –September
(d) October -December
Ans. (b)

16. Which one of the following crop combinations is characteristic of the upper Bhramaputra Valley?
(a) Rice, Jute, Oilseeds
(b) Rice, Pulses, Oilseeds
(c) Rice, Tea, Oilseeds
(d) Tea, Gram, Jute
Ans. (c)

17. Which irrigation canal irrigates the portion of Thar Desert?
(a) Indira Gandhi canal
(b) Nangal canal
(c) Western Yamuna canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

18. Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
(a) North-east region
(b) Indo Gangetic plain
(c) Krishna -Godavari delta
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)

19. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is
(a) Barbari
(b) Beetal
(c) Jamnapari
(d) Black Bengal
Ans. (b)

20. Which state produces maximum wheat in the country?
(a) Punjab
(b) U.P
(c) M.P
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (b)

21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Fertilizer
(c) High yielding varieties of seeds
(d) Crop insurance
Ans. (d)

22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Linseed
(d) Barley
Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) West Bengal
(c Punjab
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)

24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in
(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) U.P. hills
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (d)
25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) tea
(d) rice
Ans. (b)

26. Which of the following is the largest livestock ( in number) in India?
(a) Sheep
(b) Goats
(c) Buffaloes
(d) Horses and Ponies
Ans. (b)

27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
1. It is largely practised in Assam
2 It is referred to as ‘slash and burn’ technique
3 in it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)

28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is
(a) barley
(b) wheat
(c) rice
(d) sorghum
Ans. (c)

29. Terrace farming is widely practised in
(a) Malabar coast
(b) Mountain areas
(c) Deserts
(d) Deccan plateau
Ans. (b)

30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India?
(a) Mustard
(b) Linseed
(c) Sunflower
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)

31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation?
(a) Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Buckingham Canal
(c) Western Yamuna Canal
(d) Upper Ganga Canal
Ans. (b)

32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions?
(a) 10%
(b) 13.5%
(c) l7.8%
(d) 19.5%
Ans. (b)

33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Ans. (d)

34 The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)

35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of
1. Coconut
2. Black pepper
3, Rubber
4. Groundnut
(a) l, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 ant 4
(c) l and 4
(d) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (d)

36. In the Northern Plains of India, rice is the main crop from Bengal to eastern Uttar Pradesh, whereas in western Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab, wheat is the main produce. This is because
(a) in the eastern region, fine clayey soil is avail able
(b) the western region remains cold during the winter season.
(c) the average rainfall decreases towards the west.
(d) the cultivation of rice requires cheap labour force
Ans. (b)

37. Jute is grown on a large scale in the delta of
(a) Ganges
(b) Sutlej
(c) Damodar
(d) Indus
Ans. (c)

38. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risk coverage by Indian farmers in
(a) Dry farming
(b) Share cropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Relay cropping
Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following statements:
I. The Green Revolution has been limited in its spatial coverage in India.
II. It has been confined mainly to Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh.
Of these statements,
(a) both I and II are true.
(b) I is true but II is false.
(c) Both I and II are false.
(d) I is false but II is true.
Ans. (b)

40. India has attained self sufficiency in the production of
(a) coal
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) manganese
Ans. (d)

41. The largest coal deposit in India is in
(a) Godavari Valley
(b) Brahmani Valley
(c) Damodar Valley
(d) Satpura Valley
Ans. (c)

42. The headquarters of ONGC is situated at
(a) Bombay
(b) Delhi
(c) Dehradun
(d) Vadodara
Ans. (c)

43. Numaligarh in Assam is associated with which industry
(a) Oil refinery
(b) Automobile
(c) Cofee
(4) Cooperative farming
Ans. (a)

44. Mathura refinery receives crude oil from
(a) Cauvery basin
(b) Vadodara
(c) Kandla
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)

45. Which of the following power systems provides the highest quantity of energy in India?
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Thermal
(d) Wind and tidal
Ans. (a)

46. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because
(a) it has extensive dry coast
(b) its coastal waters are very saline
(c) it has extensive shallow seas
(d) besides producing salt from saline water it has reserves of rock salt
Ans. (c)

47. Coking coal is found in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa
Ans. (c)

48. The new oil refinery in North India is going to be set up at
(a) Bhatinda
(b) Panipat
(c) Udaipur
(d) Mathura
(e) Udhampur
Ans. (b)

49. Manganese ore is abundantly found in
(a) Karnataka
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans. (c)

50. Bombay High is famous for
(a) atomic reactor
(b) steel plant
(c) chemical industry
(d) petroleum deposits
Ans. ( d)

HPCL Information System Officer Exam Model Paper

English Language Test

1) Yesterday’s dinner _______ leftovers from lunch and a simple stew that Mum _____.
A) Comprised, concocted
B) Combined, concocted
C) Comprised, cooked
D) Combined, cooked

Quantitative Test

1) Ram’s salary is 125% of Raghu’s salary, Ramesh’s salary is 60% of Raghu’s salary. The total of the three salaries is Rs.6,12,000. What
is Ramesh’s salary?
A) Rs.2.52 lakhs
B) Rs.1.30 lakhs
C) Rs.2.02 lakhs
D) Rs.1.48 lakhs

IT Skills

1) Your 32 bit application stops responding several days after installation. Task manager shows the CPU usage 100 percent. You end
the application. The CPU usage is still at 100 percent. What should you do?
A) Use disk defragment tool to clean up disk
B) Use task manager to end any related child process
C) Increase the memory and restart the application
D) All the Options

2) A graphic terminal is refreshed using a RAM having the specification:
Frame size: 1024 X 1024
Horizontal sweep time: 63.5 micro sec
Retrace time: 30% of sweep time
One word of RAM stores 4 pixels.
The refresh cycle time is __________
A) 200 nano sec
B) 174 micro sec
C) 174 nano sec
D) 200 micro sec

3) Trace route uses which field in the IP header to work?
A) TTL
B) Identification
C) Protocol
D) Header Length

RBI Grade B General Awareness Paper

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini

26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria

29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”
(d) “all other things decreasing”

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis

65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.

73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.

75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.

Answers  : 
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)