सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: SSC Group-B Ministry of Home Affairs vacancy March2010

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: SSC Group-B Ministry of Home Affairs vacancy March2010

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: Oriental Bank Specialist Officer Jobs April2010

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: Oriental Bank Specialist Officer Jobs April2010

General Science for forthcomming exams

General Science for forthcomming exams



1. The respiration is carried on by
(A) Kidneys
(B) Brain
(C) Intestine
(D) Lungs
Ans (D)
2. Which is the outer protective cover of the body?
(A) Skeleton
(B) Hair
(C) Skin
(D) None of these
Ans (C)
3. Which collects the blood from the organs?
(A) Arteries
(B) Veins
(C) Lungs
(D) Nerves
Ans (B)
4. Which removes waste materials from the body?
(A) Kidneys
(B) Lungs
(C) Heart
(D) Brain
Ans (A)
5. Which of the following is well developed and functional in grazing animals?
(A) Appendix
(B) Liver
(C) Duodenum
(D) Rectum
Ans (A)
6. How many teeth will the children have?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 28
(D) 20
Ans (D)
7. What is inner lining of the alimentary canal called ?
(A) oesophagus
(B) Mucous membrance
(C) Muscle
(D) Muscular
Ans (B)
8. Which of the following is not a part of the alimentary canal?
(A) Mouth
(B) Stomach
(C) Small intestine
(D) lungs
Ans (D)
9. Liver and pancreas are the ________ glands.
(A) blood clear
(B) digestive
(C) breathing
(D) none of these
Ans (B)
10. _________ is a sticky substance in saliva and provides easy movement for food.
(A) Insulin
(B) Amylase
(C) Mucin
(D) none of these
Ans (C)
11. Nose opens at the uuper end of _____ through a pair of internal nostrils.
(A) Larnyx
(B) Trachea
(C) Pharnyx
(D) none of these
Ans (C)
12. Which of the following is a long tube and wind pipe?
(A) Bronchi
(B) Nasal canal
(C) Pharnyx
(D) Trachea
Ans (D)
13. How many lungs are present in the human body?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) none of these
Ans (B)
14. The lungs are covered by two membrances called as _______
(A) Veins
(B) Air sacs
(C) pleura
(D) none of these
Ans (C)
15. The normal temperature of a human body is _____
(A) 98.4ºC
(B) 98.4ºF
(C) 99.0ºC
(D) 99.0ºF
Ans (B)
16. What is the temperature of boiling water?
(A) 100ºC
(B) 32ºC
(C) 180ºF
(D) 32ºF
Ans (A)
17. Units which can be expressed in terms of two or more fundamental units of mass or called____ units
(A) Derived
(B) defined
(C) undefined
(D) underived
Ans (A)
18. The mean distance of sun from the earth is called
(A) Astronomical units
(B) Lightyear
(C) Astrological units
(D) Angstroms
Ans (A)
19. One nano metre =
(A) 10Aº
(B) 11Aº
(C) 12Aº
(D) 10.5Aº
Ans (A)
20. Which of the following is known as acqua gold
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Nitric Acid
(C) Hydrochloric Acid
(D) Ammonia WRONG 3 2
21. The force is the product of _____
(A) velocity and acceleration
(B) the speed and acceleration
(C) mass and speed
(D) mass and acceleration
Ans (D)
22. Root part is represented in a mature emryo by
(A) plumule
(B) radicle
(C) chalaza
(D) cotyledons
Ans (B)
23. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of
(A) phosphorus
(B) potassium
(C) fatti acid
(D) fluorine
Ans (D)
24. Excess of fat in the body is stored in
(A) Adipose tissue
(B) Acrosome
(C) Connective tissue
(D) Bone marrow
Ans (A)
25. Disease caused by HIV virus is
(A) mumps
(B) plague
(C) AIDS
(D) tuberculosis
Ans (C)

GENERAL SCIENCE : EXPECTED QUESTIONS

GENERAL SCIENCE : EXPECTED QUESTIONS



1. How many carbon atoms are there in one molecule of methane (chemical formula CH4?)

a. 1

b. 4

c. 5

d. The number cannot be determined from the formula.

2. Which form of matter has a definite volume, but no definite shape?

a. Solid

b. Liquid

c. Gas

d. Plasma

3. Processes of changing a liquid to a gas is called

a. Melting

b. Boiling

c. Vaporization

d. Sublimation

4. An element is determined by the number of

a. Atoms

b. Electrons

c. Neutrons

d. Protons

5. Fluorine F is a

a. Metal

b. Non metal

c. Compound

d. Element

6. State of uranium (U) at 0? c and 1 atm of pressure is

a. Gas

b. Liquid

c. Solid

d. Vapour

7. CaSo4 is named as

a. Calcium carbonate

b. Calcium hydroxide

c. Calcium oxide

d. Calcium sulphate

8. Cobalt is a

a. Halogen

b. Transition metal

c. Alkaline earth metal

d. None of these

9. What term describes the concentration of a solution in moles per litter?

a. Molarity

b. Osmosis

c. Molality

d. Diffusion

10. The Ideal gas law is a combination of Boyle’s law, Charle’s law and Avogadro’s law .What is the Ideal gas law?

a. PV=NRT

b. PE=mgh

c. F=ma

d. V=IR

11. Which of these values signifies the greatest temperature?

a. 1 degree Kelvin

b. 1 degree Rankin

c. 1 degree Fahrenheit

d. 1 degree Celsius

12. What is the abbreviation THEL stands for

a. Tactical high energy laser

b. Titanium harmonic emergent laser

c. Thermabaric harmonic emergent light

d. Thermo baric high energy light

13. Why are recoilless guns recoilless?

a. Their barrels are open at both ends.

b. They are loaded with missiles not cannon balls

c. They are not placed an wheels

d. They are made up of very heavy metal

14. Which statement is true about airplanes?

a. To dive, ailerons are down

b. To dive, elevators are down

c. To dive, elevators are up

d. To dive, ailerons are up

15. Taxonomy of vertebrate divides fishes in to which two basic groups?

a. Jawed and jawless

b. Gilled and non-gilled

c. Mammalian and non-mammalian

d. Nematodes and non-nematodes

16. What makes almost 99% of the visible Universe?

a. Quasars

b. Nitrogen

c. Plasma

d. Solids

17. What do we call cells with a nucleus?

a. Prokaryotic

b. Eukaryotic

c. Mitochondrial

d. Golgi

18. What does the prefix’ achy-‘’ means?

a. Too fast

b. Too slow

c. Too loud

d. Too soft

19. A doctor says you need a CBC.What is he talking about?

a. An enema

b. A vacation

c. A medication

d. A blood test

20. In preparation for a blood test, the lab slip says you have to be NPO for 8 hours prior to test, what do you have to do?

a. Sleep for 8 hours

b. Exercise for 8 hours

c. Lie flat in bed for 8 hours

d. Do not take anything by mouth

21. What is the exact value of the `Pi’?

a. 3

b. 22/7

c. Impossible to calculate

d. 3.14

22. What is the smallest prime number?

a. 2

b. 144

c. 1

d. 3

23. What is the only number with no reciprocal?

a. Pi

b. 0

c. 1

d. -1

24. How fast is a mile a minute?

a. Speed of the fastest human runner

b. 60 yards an hour

c. 60 kilometre an hour

d. 60 miles an hour

25. Yhrium

a. xe

b. Y

c. V

d. W



Answers



1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. b

6. c 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. a

11. d 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. a

16. c 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. d

21. c 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. b

MEDICAL INVENTIONS

MEDICAL INVENTIONS

SNo
Name
Medical Inventions

1
Ronald Rose
Malaria Parasite

2
Salk, Jonas E.
Anti-polio Vaccine

3
Simpson and Harrison
Chloroform

4
Waksman
Streptomycin

5
Banting
Insulin ( as a palliative for diabetes)

6
Barnard, Christian
Replacing the human heart

7
Brahmachari, U.N.
Cure of Kala-a-zar fever

8
Davy
Isolation of metals by electricity; studied properties of chlorine

9
Domagk
Sulpha drugs as bactericides

10
Eijkman
Cause of Beri-Beri

11
Finsen
Discovered curative effect of ultra violet rays; photography

12
Fleming, Alexander
Penicillin (in 1929)

13
Harvey
Circulation of blood

14
Hahnemann
Homoeopathy (founder)

15
Hopkins, Frederick Gowland
Vitamin D

16
Jenner
Smallpox Vaccination

17
Koch
Tubercle Bacillus

18
Lainnec
Stethoscope

19
Lister, Lord
Antiseptic treatment

20
Pasteur, Louis
Treatment of rabies; cure of hydrophobia

Indian Polity : Objective General Awareness

Indian Polity : Objective General Awareness



SET-1

1. If it is desirable to establish a Presidential form of government in India, the foremost and immediate amendment has to be made affecting the—
(A) System of Judiciary
(B) Composition of the Parliament
(C) Powers of the Executive
(D) Provisions of the Fundamental Rights

2. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented—
(A) In any court of the country
(B) In the Supreme Court only
(C) In the High Court only
(D) In either Supreme Court of High Court

3. Who amongst the following can be removed without Parliament's resolution?
(A) Governor of a state
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Any judge of a High Court
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

4. If a question asked by a Member of Parliament is a starred one, he will get—
(A) A written answer
(B) An oral answer
(C) Answer in the Zero hour
(D) No answer

5. According to the provisions of the Constitution, which one of the following can be abolished?
(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha

6. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, will be decided by the—
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Prime Minister

7. After the general elections a new Lok Sabha is constituted. In its first session, the Speaker is elected. Who presides over this first session?
(A) Ex-Speaker
(B) Ex-Prime Minister
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Oldest member of the House

8. The 'Indian Parliament' comprise of the—
(A) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the President
(C) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers
(D) Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers

9. In the event of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery of any state, under which one of the following Articles can President's Rule be imposed?
(A) 352
(B) 256
(C) 360
(D) 370

10. Which one of the following has got most effective provisions towards the establishment of socio-economic justice in India?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of the State Policy
(D) Preamble of the Constitution

11. Which one of the following is a national political party?
(A) All India Anna D. M. K.
(B) National Conference
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) All India Forward Block

12. Which of the following is a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Tibet
(C) Myanmar
(D) Malaysia

13. Human Rights Day is observed all over the world every year on—
(A) 24 October
(B) 7 November
(C) 10 December
(D) 25 December

14. Individual liberty is best reflected in a—
(A) Socialist State
(B) Communist State
(C) Welfare State
(D) Fascist State

15. Universal Adult Franchise makes a government—
(A) More responsive
(B) More efficient
(C) More popular amongst the minorities
(D) More stable

16. In Dictorship Executive is responsible to—
(A) An advisory council
(B) The people's representatives
(C) The high administrative officers
(D) No one

17. While casting her vote in any election, a woman exercises her—
(A) Civics right
(B) Social right
(C) Natural right
(D) Political right

18. In India, the states derive their power from the—
(A) People
(B) Constitution
(C) State Assembly
(D) Parliament

19. How many representatives for Vidhan Parishad of U.P. are elected from the teacher's constituency?
(A) 18
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 6

20. For removing the Vice President of Indian from his office a resolution is initiated in—
(A) The joint sitting of both the House
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) Any of the two Houses

21. Which of the following has got a Lt. Governor?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Karnataka
(D) Manipur

22. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been ensured to the citizens of India?
(A) To get education
(B) To get employment
(C) To buy and sale property
(D) To form associations or unions

23. By Parliament we mean—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

24. Who appoints the ad-hoc Chief Justice of a High Court?
(A) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) The President of India
(C) The Governor of the State concerned
(D) The Cabinet at the Centre

25. In the Panchayati Raj system, the 'Panchayat Samiti' is constituted at the—
(A) Village level
(B) Block level
(C) City level
(D) District level

Answers :

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (B)

SET-2

1. Which of the following is the demerit of a federation?
(A) It encourages regionalism
(B) It creates unity in diversity
(C) It gives considerable measure of autonomy to the states
(D) It prevents the central government from being despotic in behaviour

2. The first non-aligned summit conference was held in 1961 in—
(A) Cairo (Egypt)
(B) Belgrade (Yugoslavia)
(C) Nairoh (Kenya)
(D) Havana (Cuba)

3. Which of the following is wrong about the Parliamentary Democracy?
(A) It does not adjust easily according to the changed circumstances
(B) Ministers get more opportunities to show their abilities under this system of government
(C) President gives impartial advice
(D) There is close co-operation between the executive and the legislature

4. In a Presidential type of government, we find that—
(A) The Chief Executive is always elected
(B) The term of the Chief Executive is fixed for certain period
(C) The Secretaries are fully subordinate to the President
(D) All the above

5. A representative government is not possible without—
(A) Political parties
(B) Impartial election
(C) Political consciousness among the people
(D) All the above

6. "A political party consists of a group of citizens more or less organised, who act as a political unit and who, by the use of their voting power, aim to control the government and carry out their general policies." Whose words are these?
(A) Garner
(B) Gilchrist
(C) Gettell
(D) MacIver

7. Which of the following is the demerit of party system?
(A) It creates awakening among the masses who starts struggling for their demands
(B) It compels the government to work according to public opinion
(C) It leads government to introduce reforms
(D) It divides nation into several groups

8. In India there is
(A) One party system
(B) Bi-party system
(C) Multi party system
(D) None of the above

9. A coalition government in a country is generally formed where there is—
(A) Two party system
(B) One party system
(C) Multi party system dominated by one party
(D) No party system

10. The real work of opposition party in a democratic country is—
(A) To make delays in legislation
(B) To put obstacles in the way of the government of the rival parties
(C) To topple down the government of the rival parties
(D) To offer the healthy criticism to the government of rival parties

11. Which of the following conditions is necessary to make party system successful?
(A) Political parties should be organised on caste basis
(B) Political parties should give more importance to the local problems than national issues
(C) Political parties should try to solve the economic and political problems
(D) Political parties should not allow the people to take active interest in the politics

12. Ultimate object of a political party is—
(A) To contest election
(B) To expose the weakness of rival political parties
(C) To form and run their own government according to their own policies
(D) To increase their strength or membership

13. Political equality means—
(A) Every citizen should be given political education
(B) Every citizen should be given a chance to work in the government turn by turn
(C) Every citizen should be given right to vote and contest election
(D) Every citizen should be a member of any political party

14. Adult franchise is disadvantageous—
(A) If the people cast their votes in favour of those candidates who give them money
(B) If the votes caste their votes to the candidates belonging to their own castes or religion and not to the able candidates
(C) If the people caste their votes thought lessly
(D) In all the above cases

15. Some articles of the Constitution of India were enforced even before 26th January, 1950, when were they enforced?
(A) December 24, 1949
(B) October 26, 1949
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) December 26, 1949

16. Indian constitution is—
(A) More rigid than American constitution
(B) More flexible than English constitution
(C) More rigid than both English and American constitutions
(D) More rigid than English constitution but flexible than American constitution

17. Indian constitution was prepared in—
(A) 2 years and 11 months
(B) 2 years and 18 months
(C) 2 years and 18 days
(D) 2 years 11 months and 18 days

18. Indian constitution after its completion was adopted by Constituent Assembly on—
(A) January 26, 1950
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) October 2, 1948

19. Which of the following is not included in the preamble to the Indian constitution?
(A) Justice social, economic and political
(B) Education to men, women and children
(C) Liberty of thought, expression, faith and worship
(D) To promote equality of status and opportunity to all

20. The idea of Fundamental Rights was taken from—
(A) England
(B) America
(C) Iran
(D) Ancient India

21. President of the Constituent Assembly with whose signature the Indian constitution was adopted was—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

22. The ultimate authority according to the preamble of the Indian constitution vests in—
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President, Prime Minister and rulers of native states
(D) People of India as a whole

23. The parliamentary set up in the Indian constitution has been adopted from—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Russia
(C) England
(D) All the above

24. Which of the following has been borrowed from Ireland by the framers of the Indian constitution ?
(A) Preamble
(B) Nomination of the members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Directive principles of states policy
(D) Supreme Court

25. Idea of concurrent list in Indian constitution was borrowed from—
(A) England
(B) America
(C) Australia
(D) Russia

Answers :

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (C)

SET-3

1. It is "an association estalished by nature for the supply of man's every day wants." About which Aristotle said these words?
(A) Society
(B) Family
(C) Community
(D) State

2. Indian foreign policy of non-alignment stands for—
(A) Acting as a mediator between nations
(B) Non-involvement in the power block politics
(C) Co-operating with the neighbouring countries
(D) Taking side of all the nations

3. A subject is said to be in the concurrent list when a law can be passed on it by—
(A) The Central Government
(B) The Central and State Government both
(C) The State Government
(D) The President and the Prime Minister together

4. Who among the following persons is acknowledged as the father of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

5. When a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, but not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days of its receipt—
(A) It cannot become an Act
(B) It is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses
(C) It is again referred to the Rajya Sabha
(D) It is reconsidered by the Lok Sabha itself

6. The Industrial Revolution was brought about on account of—
(A) The workers refusing to work with their hands
(B) The Government insisting on the use of machines
(C) Lack of market for hand-made goods
(D) Invention of machinery and its application

7. Which of the following is not the function of the state?
(A) To protect from external aggression
(B) To provide for education and public health
(C) To compel its citizens to be religious persons
(D) To maintain law and order

8. The first General Election of Lok Sabha were held in the year—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1957

9. The signatories to Panchasheel declaration were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Pakistan
(C) Malasiya and Myanmar
(D) India and China

10. Who among the following persons, was responsible for the merger of Pincely States into the Indian Dominion?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
(D) Sri Vithalbhai Patel

11. Of the following which is not essential for a welfare state?
(A) Efficient administration
(B) People's participation in administration
(C) Preaching of the morals
(D) Social security system

12. The most essential function of a state is to make—
(A) Labour-laws
(B) Marriage-laws
(C) Laws for the protection of the people and the property
(D) Laws for health and education

13. Who led the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai and Vipin Chandra Pal
(B) Mrs. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) None of these

14. "One who owes allegiance to the state, has access to the civil and political rights and is inspired with a sprit of-service to the community" is known as—
(A) An ideal soldier
(B) A true politician
(C) A real citizen
(D) A great patriot

15. The constitution of which country inspired us, to establish a 'Republic' ?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) South Africa
(D) Britain

16. One may lose citizenship if one?
(A) Maintains trade with a foreign country
(B) Visits foreign countries
(C) Has correspondence with foreign people
(D) Takes political shelter in a foreign country

17. Which of the following is the hindrance in the way of good citizenship?
(A) To be more educated
(B) To be a wealthy person
(C) To be communal-minded
(D) To be religious-minded

18. "Man's life was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short." Who holds such views about the nature of state?
(A) Locke
(B) Hobbes
(C) Rousseau
(D) T.H. Green

19. "A man is born free and everywhere he is in chains," Whose words are these?
(A) Rousseau
(B) Austin
(C) Plato
(D) Hegel

20. Which of the following is not the duty of a state?
(A) To serve the people
(B) To command the people
(C) To protect the people
(D) To promote the health of the people

21. In a welfare state, the government—
(A) Restricts the liberty of the individuals
(B) Determines the fashions of the people
(C) Controls the trade and commerce
(D) Helps the people against poverty, old age and unemployment

22. Which of the following is not the organ of a government?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislature
(D) Political Parties

23. The essential element of the modern state is—
(A) The Supreme Court
(B) The Political Parties
(C) The Division of Power
(D) The Sovereignty

24. Which of the following is not included in the executive wing of the government?
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President or the King
(C) The Ministers
(D) The Judges of the Courts

25. A legislature of a country—
(A) Makes the laws
(B) Interprets the laws
(C) Protects the laws
(D) Enforces the laws

Answers :

1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (A)

SET-4

1. Which of the following is the function of a judiciary ?
(A) Maintenance of law and order
(B) Appointment of the Judges
(C) Imparting justice according to the laws
(D) Making of the laws

2. The main function of the Constituent Assembly is—
(A) Framing the Constitution
(B) Amending the Constitution
(C) Enforcement of the Constitution
(D) Interpretation of the Constitution

3. The legislature having two houses is known as—
(A) Uni-cameral
(B) Bi-cameral
(C) Upper House
(D) Lower House

4. Which of the following arguments is not in favour of the second chamber of a legislature?
(A) It safeguards against the domination of the lower house
(B) It provides for representation of the special interests and the minorities
(C) It helps is hastly legislation
(D) It gives representation to the Units in the federation

5. In a socialist country, the government—
(A) Control the means of production and distribution
(B) Controls the means of production only
(C) Control the means of distribution only
(D) Distributes equal wealth among the citizens

6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the meaning and the position of Sovereignty? It is—
(A) The supreme and unlimited authority of the state in internal sphere only
(B) The absolute and unlimited power of the state in external sphere only
(C) The unlimited and ultimate authority of the state both in internal and external spheres
(D) The power which enjoys complete control over all the citizens in a state

7. A state ruled by a few persons for the good of all the people, is known as—
(A) Aristocracy
(B) Democracy
(C) Oligarchy
(D) Monarchy

8. A constitutional monarchy means a state where a king—
(A) Makes the constitution for the country
(B) Has to act according to the constitution
(C) Is elected by the people
(D) Is hereditary head of the state

9. The state governed by one person for the good of the people, is known as—
(A) Tyranny
(B) Monarchy
(C) Democracy
(D) Polity

10. In the unitary type of government, there is—
(A) Rule of one person for the good of all the people
(B) One unit of administration for the entire state
(C) Rule of a single dynasty for a long period
(D) Unicameral legislature

11. "Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people." Whose statement is it?
(A) Rousseau
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) T. H. Green
(D) Abraham Lincoln

12. Where there is no hereditary king but an elected head of the state, it is known as—
(A) Democracy
(B) Monarchy
(C) Republic
(D) Federation

13. 'Residuary Powers' means those powers which are—
(A) Delegated by the centre to the states
(B) Enjoyed by the king or the President only
(C) Delegated by the state to the centre
(D) Retained by the centre or the state for themselves after division of powers between the centre and the unit states in a federation

14. Which one of the following articles in the constitution of India is related to the amendment of the constitution?
(A) Article 268
(B) Article 363
(C) Article263
(D) Article 368

15. In a parliamentary type of the government, the ministry is responsible to—
(A) The Upper House only
(B) The Lower House only
(C) Both Upper and Lower Houses
(D) The President or the King

16. Where an executive head, elected for a specific period is not responsible to the legislature and can be removed only by impeachment or death, such a government is known as—
(A) Dictatorship
(B) Presidential type of government
(C) Federal type of government
(D) Democratic type of government

17. Which one of the following is not the function of the executive in a state?
(A) To appoint and dismiss the ministers
(B) To enforce the laws passed by the legislature
(C) To appoint and dismiss the legislators
(D) To run the administration of the country

18. An independent Judiciary is—
(A) A safeguard for the civil rights of the people
(B) A danger to the constitution
(C) An obstacle to the ministry
(D) A detriment to the Democracy

19. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(A) Minto-Morley reforms Communal representation
(B) Government of India Act 1935 Provincial Autonomy
(C) Simon Commission-Partition of India
(D) Cabinet Mission-The constitution of the Constituent Assembly

20. For which of the following does the democracy not stand?
(A) Equality
(B) Liberty
(C) Fraternity
(D) Dynasty rule

21. Democracy can function successfully in a country if the people are—
(A) Physically strong and healthy
(B) Patriots
(C) Politically conscious
(D) Basically honest

22. Dictatorship is based on—
(A) Force and Fear
(B) Public Opinion
(C) Will of God
(D) Allegiance of the Constitution

23. The constitution (79th Amendment) Act 1999 relates to—
(A) Extension of reservation of seats for SC/STs in Lok Sabha and State Vidhan Sabha till January 25, 2010
(B) The grant of 33% reservation of seats in India legislatures including Parliament to women
(C) Clearing the way for reservation in promotion to union and state services to the candidates of scheduled castes and Scheduled Tribes
(D) Grant of Statehood to Union territory of Pondicherry

24. Of the following, which one is correct about a federation?
(A) Federation is domination of the centre on the states
(B) Federation is dependence of the centre on the states
(C) The centre and the states interfere in the matters of each other
(D) Federation is an association of states that forms a new one and all the units and centre derive power from the constitution

25. Which one of the following is not the power of the President of India?
(A) To declare emergency
(B) To appoint and dismiss the ambassadors
(C) To appoint and dismiss the members of Lok Sabha
(D) To dissolve Parliament and order for fresh election

Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (B)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C)

Element Symbol and Atomic Numbers

Element Symbol and Atomic Numbers

Name
Symbol
Atomic Number

Hydrogen
H
1

Helium
He
2

Lithium
Li
3

Beryllium
Be
4

Boron
B
5

Carbon
C
6

Nitrogen
N
7

Oxygen
O
8

Flourine
F
9

Neon
Ne
10

Sodium (Natrium)
Na
11

Magnesium
Mg
12

Aluminium
Al
13

Silicon
Si
14

Phosphorous
P
15

Sulphur
S
16

Chlorine
Cl
17

Argon
Ar
18

Potassium (Kalium)
K
19

Calcium
Ca
20

Titanium
Ti
22

Vanadium
V
23

Chromium
Cr
24

Manganese
Mn
25

Iron (Ferum)
Fe
26

Cobalt
Co
27

Nickel
Ni
28

Copper (Cuprum)
Cu
29

Zinc
Zn
30

Germenium
Ge
32

Bromine
Br
35

Krypton
Kr
36

Zirconium
Zr
40

Silver
Ag
47

Tin (Stannum)
Sn
50

Antimony (Stabnium)
Sb
51

Iodine
I
53

Barium
Ba
56

Gold (Aurum)
Au
79

Mercury (Hydragerm)
Hg
80

Lead (Plumbum)
Pb
82

Bismuth
Bi
83

Radium
Ra
88

Thorium
U
90

Uranium
U
92

Plutonium
Pu
94

Curium
Cm
96

FACTS ABOUT HUMAN BODY

FACTS ABOUT HUMAN BODY


Length of alimentary canal
Approximately 8 meters

BMR (Basal metabolic rate)
1600 K.cal/day

Number calls in body
75 trillion

Longest bone
Femur (thigh bone)

Smallest bone
Ear ossicle, stapes

Weight of brain
1400 gms

Blood volume
6.8 litres (in 70 kg body)

Normal B.P
120/80 mm Hg

Number of R.B.C
(a) In male: 4.5-5.0 million/cubic mm
(b) In female: 4.0-4.5 million/cubic mm

Life span of R.B.C
120 days

Normal W.B.C count
5000-10000/cubic mm

Life span of W.B.C
3-4 days

D.L.C (Differential leucocyte count)
(a) Basophils-0.5-1%
(b) Eosinophils-1-3%
(c) Monocytes-3-8%
(d) Neutrophils-40-70%
(e) Lymphocytes-2-25%

Blood platelets count
2,00,000-4,00,000/cubic mm

Haemoglobin
(a) In male: 14-15.6 gm/100 c.c of blood
(b) In female: 11-14 gm/100 c.c of blood

Hb content in body
500-700 gm

Universal blood donor
O Rh-ve

Universal blood recipient
AB

Blood clotting time
2-5 minutes

Average body weight
70 kg

Normal body temperature
98.4.F or 37.C

Breathing rate
16-20 minutes

Dental formula
adult:2123/2123=32
child: 2120/2120=22 milk teeth

Number of cranial nerves
12 pairs

Number of spinal nerves
31 pairs

Largest endocrine gland
Thyroid

Gestation period
9 months (253-266 days)

Normal heart beat
72-75/ minutes

Largest gland
Liver

Largest muscles in the body
Gluteus maximus (Buttock muscle)

Largest smooth muscle
Uterus of pregnant women

Smallest muscles in the body
Stapedius

Largest artery
Abdominal aorta

Largest vein
Inferior venacava

Largest W.B.C
Monocyte

Smallest W.B.C
Lymphocyte

Greatest regeneration power
In liver

Longest nerve
Sciatic

Longest cell
Neuron (nerve cell)

Menstrual cycle
28 days

Menopause age
45-50 years

Minimum regeneration power
In brain cell

Minimum distance for proper vision
25 cm

Type of placenta
Haemochorial (Chorioallantoic)

Pulse rate
72/minute

Volume of semen
2-4 ml/ejaculation

Normal sperm count
200-350 million/ejaculation

ESR (normal Erythrocyte sedimentation rate)
4.10 min/hour

Thinnest skin
Conjunctiva

pH of gastric juice
1.4

pH of urine
6.0

pH of blood
7.35-7.45

FACTS ABOUT HUMAN BODY

FACTS ABOUT HUMAN BODY


Length of alimentary canal
Approximately 8 meters

BMR (Basal metabolic rate)
1600 K.cal/day

Number calls in body
75 trillion

Longest bone
Femur (thigh bone)

Smallest bone
Ear ossicle, stapes

Weight of brain
1400 gms

Blood volume
6.8 litres (in 70 kg body)

Normal B.P
120/80 mm Hg

Number of R.B.C
(a) In male: 4.5-5.0 million/cubic mm
(b) In female: 4.0-4.5 million/cubic mm

Life span of R.B.C
120 days

Normal W.B.C count
5000-10000/cubic mm

Life span of W.B.C
3-4 days

D.L.C (Differential leucocyte count)
(a) Basophils-0.5-1%
(b) Eosinophils-1-3%
(c) Monocytes-3-8%
(d) Neutrophils-40-70%
(e) Lymphocytes-2-25%

Blood platelets count
2,00,000-4,00,000/cubic mm

Haemoglobin
(a) In male: 14-15.6 gm/100 c.c of blood
(b) In female: 11-14 gm/100 c.c of blood

Hb content in body
500-700 gm

Universal blood donor
O Rh-ve

Universal blood recipient
AB

Blood clotting time
2-5 minutes

Average body weight
70 kg

Normal body temperature
98.4.F or 37.C

Breathing rate
16-20 minutes

Dental formula
adult:2123/2123=32
child: 2120/2120=22 milk teeth

Number of cranial nerves
12 pairs

Number of spinal nerves
31 pairs

Largest endocrine gland
Thyroid

Gestation period
9 months (253-266 days)

Normal heart beat
72-75/ minutes

Largest gland
Liver

Largest muscles in the body
Gluteus maximus (Buttock muscle)

Largest smooth muscle
Uterus of pregnant women

Smallest muscles in the body
Stapedius

Largest artery
Abdominal aorta

Largest vein
Inferior venacava

Largest W.B.C
Monocyte

Smallest W.B.C
Lymphocyte

Greatest regeneration power
In liver

Longest nerve
Sciatic

Longest cell
Neuron (nerve cell)

Menstrual cycle
28 days

Menopause age
45-50 years

Minimum regeneration power
In brain cell

Minimum distance for proper vision
25 cm

Type of placenta
Haemochorial (Chorioallantoic)

Pulse rate
72/minute

Volume of semen
2-4 ml/ejaculation

Normal sperm count
200-350 million/ejaculation

ESR (normal Erythrocyte sedimentation rate)
4.10 min/hour

Thinnest skin
Conjunctiva

pH of gastric juice
1.4

pH of urine
6.0

pH of blood
7.35-7.45

Common Chemicals Names of Some Compounds

Common Chemicals Names of Some Compounds

Common Name
Chemical Name
Chemical Formulae

Dry Ice
Solid Carbondioxide
CO2

slaked Lime
Calcium Hydroxide
Ca (OH)2

Bleaching Powder
Calcium Oxychloride
CaOCl2

Nausadar
Ammonium Chloride
NH4Cl

Caustic Soda
Sodium Hydroxide
NaOH

Rock Salt
Sodium Chloride
NaCl

Caustic Potash
Potassium Hydroxide
KOH

Potash Alum
Potassium Aluminium Sulphate
K2SO4 Al2 (SO4)3.24H2O

Epsom
Magnesium Sulphate
MgSO4.7H2O

Quick Lime
Calcium Oxide
CaO

Plaster of Paris
Calcium Sulphate
(CaSO4) ½ H2O

Gypsum
Calcium Sulphate
(CaSO4) .2H2O

Green Vitriol
Ferrous Sulphate
FeSO4.7H2O

Mohr's Salt
Ammonium Ferrous Sulphate
FeSO4 (NH4)2 SO4.6H2O

Blue Vitriol
Copper Sulphate
CuSO4.5H2O

White Vitriol
Zinc Sulphate
ZnSO4.7H2O

Marsh Gas
Methane
CH4

Vinegar
Acetic Acid
CH3COOH

Potash Ash
Potassium Carbonate
K2CO3

Hypo
Sodium Thiosulphate
Na2S2O3.5H2O

Baking Powder
Sodium Bicarbonate
NaHCO3

Washing Soda
Sodium Carbonate
Na2CO3.10H2O

Magnesia
Magnesium Oxide
MgO

Chalk (Marble)
Calcium Carbonate
CaCO3

Lunar Caustic
Silver Nitrate
AgNO3

Laughing Gas
Nitrous Oxide
N2O

Chloroform
Tricholoro Methane
CHCl3

Vermelium
Mercuric Sulphide
HgS

Borax
Borax
Na2B4O7.10H2O

Alcohol
Ethyl Alcohol
C2H5OH

Sugar
Sucrose
C12H22O11

Heavy Water
Duterium Oxide
D2O

Globar's Salt
Sodium Sulphate
Na2SO4.10H2O

T.N.T
Tri Nitrotoluene
C6H2CH3 (NO2)3

Calomel
Mercurous Chloride
HgCl

Sand
Silicon Oxide
SiO2

BRANCHES OF SCIENCE

BRANCHES OF SCIENCE

Branch
Concerning Field

Aeronautics
Science of flight of airplanes

Astronomy
Study of heavenly bodies

Agronomy
Science dealing with crop plants

angiology
Deals with the study of blood vascular system

Anthology
Study of flowers

Anthropology
Study of apes and man

Apiculture
Honey industry (Bee Keeping)

Araneology
Study of spiders

Batracology
Study of frogs

Biochemistry
Deals with the study of chemical reactions in relation to life activities

Biotechnology
Deals with the use of micro-organism in commercial processes for producing fine chemicals such as drugs, vaccines, hormones, etc, on a large scale

Cardiology
Study of heart

Craniology
Study of skulls

Cryptography
Study of secret writing

Cryogenics
Study concerning with the application and uses of very low temperature

Cytology
Study of cells

Dermatology
Study of skin

Ecology
The study of relationship between organisms and environment

Entomology
Study of insects

Etiology
Study of cause of disease

Eugenics
Study of improvement of human race by applying laws of heredity. It is related with future generations

Evolution
Deals with the study of origin of new from old

Exbiology
Deals with life or possibilities of life beyond the earth

Floriculture
Study of flower yielding plants

Geology
Study of condition and structure of the earth

Genetics
Study of heredity and variations

Gerontology
Study of growing old

Gynaecology
Study of female reproductive organ

Horticulture
Study of garden cultivation

Haematology
Study of blood

Hepatology
Study of liver

. Iconography
Teaching by pictures and models

Immunology
Science which deals with the study of resistance of organisms against infection

Jurisprudence
Science of law

Kalology
Study of human beauty

Lexicography
Compiling of dictionary

Mycology
Study of fungi

Myology
Study of muscles

Nephrology
Study of kidneys

Neurology
Study of nervous system

Numismatics
Study of coins and medals

Obstetrics
Branch of medicine dealing with pregnancy

Oneirology
Study of dreams

Ophthalmology
Study of eyes

Ornithology
Study of birds

Osteology
Study of bones

Palaeontology
Study of fossils

Philately
Stamp collecting

Philology
Study of language

Phonetics
Concerning the sound of a spoken language

Physiography
Natural phenomenon

Pedology
Study of soils

Pathology
Study of disease causing organisms

Phycology
Study of algae

Physiology
Science dealing with the study of functions of various parts of organisms

Pisciculture
Study of fish

Pomology
Study of fruits

Seismology
Study of earthquakes

Sericulture
Silk industry (culture of silk moth and pupa)

Serpentology
Study of snakes

Telepathy
Communication between two minds at a distance with the help of emotions thoughts and feelings

Taxonomy
Study of classification of organisms

Virology
Study of virus

INDIAN ECONOMY SINCE 1947 TO 2007

INDIAN ECONOMY SINCE 1947 TO 2007


1947
Finance Minister R.K. Shanmukham Chetty presented first budget to Parliament, John Mathai presented first railway budget.


1948
Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) set up to provide long term finance to industries.
RBI nationalised.


1949
Mahindra & Mahindra launches first locally assembled Willys Jeep.
Rupee devalued for first time by approximately 31%.


1950
Stock exchanges come under Central Government after the adoption of the Constitution.
Premier Automobiles (PAL) enters into collaboration with Fiat to launch Fiat 500.


1951
First 5 year plan set up with budgetary outlay of Rs. 2,378 crore.


1952
Atomic Energy establishment at Mumbai. In 1966 rechristened the Bhabha Atomic Research
Centre.


1953
Private Airlines nationalised.


1954
Telco produces commercial vehicles in collaboration with Daimler Benz.
Bhakra Dam inaugurated for Hydro power.
In December, Imperial Bank of India taken over by government and renamed State Bank of
India.


1955
ICICI set up with support of World Bank and other agencies.


1956
Industrial policy resolution in force.
Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act passed.


1957
Ambassador car launched by Hindustan Motors.


1958
Finance Minister T.T. Krishnamachari resigns following Justice Chagla’s report that he is
responsible for the Mundhra-LIC share scam.


1959
ONGC, IOC set up. TV transmission introduced.


1963
Gold Control Order comes into force.


1964
UTI and IDBI set up.


1965
Minimum annual bonus of 4% of salary becomes mandatory for companies.


1966
Dhirubhai Ambani sets up Reliance Industries.
Rupee devalued by 36%.


1969
Forward trading in shares banned. MRTP Act passed.


1970
Supreme Court holds nationalisation of banks illegal while Presidential Ordinance revalidates
it.


1972
Oil struck at Bombay High. Bonus ceiling raised to 8·33% of annual salary.


1973
FERA passed. SAIL set up by merging five PSU steel companies.


1974
Complete nationwide rail strike launched by George Fernandes.
Indira Gandhi imposes 12% ceiling on dividends. Stock market crashes.


1975
Communication satellite Aryabhatta launched.
Emergency declared. 20 point economic programme announced. COFEPOSA approved by
Parliament.


1977
Industry Minister George Fernandes ousts Coca Cola and IBM as they to reduce shareholding in Indian subsidiaries to 40%.


1978
Currency denominations of Rs. 1,000 and above demonetized.


1979
Ramesh Chauhan of Parle launches Thums Up.


1980
Bombay Stock Exchange shifts to Phiroze Jeejeebhoy Towers.


1981
Maruti Udyog set up.


1982
300,000 textile workers go on strike led by Datta Samant making it the largest union activity in the world.


1983
Takeover bid of DCM and Escorts by Swaraj Paul. Maruti 800 launched.


1984
HAL-assembled first MIG-27-M aircraft rolls out.
Union Carbide leaks MIC gas in Bhopal kills 2500 people.


1986
Shipping Credit and Investment Corporation of India (SCICI) set up.


1987
Birla group is divided into six family branches.
Bofors Howitzer gun scam rocks the country.


1988
SEBI set up.
Supreme Court orders payment of Rs. 715 crore to victims of Bhopal gas.
Kirti Ambani arrested on charges of trying to kill DCM chairman Nusli Wadia.


1991
Rs. 13,000 crore Sardar Sarovar project cleared by V.P. Singh.
25 tonnes of gold sent to London to raise $ 200 million to bail bankrupt nation.
Liberalisation of industrial licencing allowing foreign investment up to 51%.
MRTP and Companies Act amended to accommodate new industrial houses and expansion of existing ones.
Import curbs on capital goods relaxed.
Bill approved to bring PSUs under BIFR.


1992
OTCEI formed to list equities of small companies.
Iron and Steel prices decontrolled. India also decides to import one million tonnes of wheat
for the first time.
Government raises Suzuki stakes to 50 in Maruti. Maruti becomes first PSU to go private.
Harshad Mehta arrested in Rs. 10,000 crore Securities scam. Then SEBI Chairman M. N.
Goiporia forced to quit.
Foreign institutional investors allowed to enter stock market.


1993
Rupee became convertible on trade account.
Delicensing of motorcars and consumer goods.
Chauhans of Parle sell out to Coke. Coca Cola makes come back.


1994
NSE set up.
Air India, IA, ONGC converted to companies.
Telecome sector opened to private companies.
Cable TV ordinance issued. Sensex touches all time high of 4,630·54 points.
Deregulation of lending rates.


1995
NSE computerises trading operation. Replaces open system of trading with screen-based
trading.
Amendment of Patent Act of 1970 by Patent bill.
Open general licence list expanded from 43 to 75. Biscuit king Rajan Pillai dies at Tihar Jail.


1996
Disinvestment commission set up to facilitate disinvestment from PSU’s.


1997
Labour leader Datta Samant assassinated.
Then Finance Minister P. Chidambaram announces dream budget. Reduces taxes, import
tariffs, liberalises investment norms, opens up health insurance to private sector.
VSNL successfully completes $ 488 million GDR issue. Telco with a turnover of Rs. 10,096
crore becomes first private company to cross Rs. 10,000 crore in sales.
Birla-AT & T becomes first telecome services to achieve financial closing. Debt financing
worth $ 283 million announced.
Navratna package to empower nine hand-picked PSU’s (BHEL, Bharat Petroleum Ltd., IOC,
NTPC, HPCL, ONGC, IPCL, SAIL and VSNL) financially to become global giants announced.
2003 The Competition Act-2002 introduced in India from 14 Jan.,


2003
The Companies (Amendment) ordinance 2002 introduced from 5 Feb., 2003.


2004
The Broad Band Service started by BSNL and MTNL for Internet and Communication.


2007
Baba Kalyani—Businessman of the year, 2006 (By Business India)


2008
In changing scene in world’s billionaire club, billionaire Anil Ambani has emerged as the
biggest wealth creator, while famed American investor Warren Buffett has overtaken Software
King Bill Gates and Mexican Tycoon Carlos Slim to lead the list of World’s richest people
released by Forbes on March 6, 2008.

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: SSC SAS Apprentice CGDA Exam-2010#more

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: SSC SAS Apprentice CGDA Exam-2010#more

Bank Clerk Computer Based Solved Paper

Bank Clerk Computer Based Solved Paper
1. Compiler is the
(a) name given to the computer operator
(b) part of the digital machine to store the information
(c) translator of source program to object
(d) part of arithmetic logic unit
(e) operator of Boolean Algebra
Ans (c)

2. Main memory is(a) Random Access Memory (b) Read only Memory
(c) Serial Access Memory (d) None of these
Ans (a)
3. Which of the following is the smallest and fastest computer imitating brain working?
(a) Supercomputer (b) Quantum Computer
(c) Param-10,000 (d) IBM chips
Ans (b)
4. A compact disc (CD) is a data storage of the type
(a) Magnetic (b) Optical (c) Electrical (d) Electromechanical
Ans (a)
5. Which of the following is not as language for computer programming?(a) WINDOWS (b) PASCAL (c) BASIC
(d) COBOL (e) All of these
Ans (a)
6. What are the two basic types of memory that your computer uses?(a) RAM (b) RW/RAM (c) ROM (d) ERAM (e) POST
Ans (a)
7. The term gigabyte refers to
(a) 1024 bytes (b) 1024 kilobytes (c) 1024 megabytes
(d) 1024 gigabytes (e) None of the above
Ans (c)
8. A computer with CPU speed around 100 million instructions per second & with the word length of around 64 bits is known as
(a) Super computer (b) Mini computer (c) Micro computer
(d) Micro computer (e) None of the above
Ans (a)
9. What digits are representative of all binary numbers?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) Both (a ) and (b) (d) 3 (e) None of the above
Ans (c)
10. To locate a data items for storage is
(a) Field (b) Feed (c) Database
(d) Fetch (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
11. Off-line operation is the operation of devices without the control of
(a) Memory (b) CPU (c) ALU
(d) Control unit (e) None of the above
Ans (b)
12. A type of line printer that uses an embossed steel band to form the letters printed on the paper is
(a) Golf ball printer (b) Dot-matrix printer
(c) Laser printer (d) Band printer (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
13. A software used to convert source program instructions to object instruction is known as
(a) Compiler (b) Assembler (c) Interpreter
(d) Language processor (e) None of the above
14. The 'IC' chip, used in computers, is made of
(a) Chromium (b) Iron oxide (c) Silica (d) Silicon
Ans (d)
15. Name the first general purpose electronic computer
Ans : UNIVAC
16. The size of commonly used Floppy disk is
(a) 4.5” (b) 3.5” (c) 3.25” (d) 5.5”
Ans (b)
17. Which of the following statement is wrong
(a) Windows XP is an operating system
(b) Linux is owned and sold by Microsoft
(c) Photoshop is a graphical design tool by Adobe
(d) Linux is free and open source software
Ans (b)
18. Operating system of a computer
(a) Enables the programmer to draw a flow chart
(b) Links a program with subroutine with references
(c) Provides a layer, user friendly interface
(d) None of the above
Ans (c)
19. The term ‘Operating System’ means
(a) A set of programs which control computer working
(b) The way a user operates the computer system
(c) Conversion of high level language to machine language
(d) The way computer operator works
Ans (a)
20. Wild card operators specifies
(a) can be used when writing into multiple files
(b) allows several files to be read simultaneously
(c) Provide an easy way of groups of related files
(d) Are only used when printing the contents of a file
Ans (c)
21.Which one of the following is not a broadband communication medium
(a) Microwave (b) Fibre optic cable
(c) Twisted pair (d) Coaxial cable
Ans (c)
22.Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation
(a) Coaxial cable (b) Satellite (c) Modem (d) Optical fibre
Ans (c)
23. Which one of the following is not an application software package
(a) Redhat Linux (b) Microsoft Office
(c) Adobe PageMaker (d) Open Office
Ans (a)
24. Who is the father of computer
Ans : Charles Babbage
25.The function of key F4 is
Ans : To repeat the last action
26.The function of key F4 is
Ans : To repeat the last action
27. The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called binary digits or .......
(a) bytes (b) kilobytes (c) decimal bytes (d) bits (e) nibbles
Ans (D)
28. A monitor's ...... is the distance between the holes in the mask behind the screen. This helps determine how sharp the dots appear.
(a) refresh rate (b) dot pitch (c) resolution
(d) colour depth (e) None of the above
Ans (B)
29. A directly accessible appointment calendar is a feature of a ....... resident package.
(a) CPU (b) memory (c) Buffer (d) ALU (e) None of the above
Ans (B)
30. Perforated paper used as input or output media is known as
(a) Paper tape (b) Magnetic tape (c) Punched paper tape
(d) Card punch (e) None of the above
Ans (A)
31. The invention of the slide rule is attributed to
(a) Babbage (b) Oughtred (c) Pascal
(d) Napier (e) None of the above
Ans (B)
32. Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage.
(a) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape
(b) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape
(c) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans (e)
33. The memory sizes in mainframe computers and advanced technology micro computer are expressed as
(a) Bytes (b) Kilo-bytes (c) Bits
(d) Megabytes (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
34. A prefix for billion which is equal to .... is called as billi.
(a) 100 (b) 10000 (c) 1000 (d) 10 (e) None of the above
Ans (d)
35. Each model of a computer has a unique
(a) Assembly language (b) Machine language
(c) High level language (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans (b)
36. One kilobyte = ____ byte.
(a) 1250 (b) 2088 (c) 1024 (d) 1000
Ans (c)
37. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory device' in computers?
(a) Rectifier (b) Flip-Flop (c) Comparator (d) Attenuator
Ans (b)
38. To move the cursor to the end of the document press
Ans : Ctrl + End
39. In Word Processing the red underline indicates
Ans : Spelling mistakes
40. The shortcut key to print documents is
Ans : Ctrl + P
41. First layer in the OSI reference model is
(a) Data link (b) Network (c) Physical (d) Application
Ans (c)
42. Viruses, Trojan horses and Worms are
(a) able to harm computer system
(b) unable to detect if affected on computer
(c) user-friendly applications
(d) harmless applications resident on computer
Ans (a)
43. Program threats are
(a) Trap doors (b) Trojan horse (c) Both (a) & (b
Ans (b)
44. Failure of passwords security due to exposure can result from
(a) Electronic monitoring (b) Visual (c) Both (a) & (b)
Ans (c)
45. Data security threats include
(a) Hardware failure (b) Privacy invasion
(c) Fraudulent manipulation of data (d) All of the above
Ans (b)
46. The bar which displays information about the current page number is
Ans : Status bar
47. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. are
(a) Task bar (b) Windows (c) Desktop (d) Icons
Ans (d)
48. Who invented the super-computer?
(a) P.T Farnsworth (b) J.R Whinfield
(c) J.H. Van Tassell (d) Charles Ginsberg
Ans (c)
49. Accessing records from a file directly without searching from the beginning of the file is
(a) Time sharing (b) Random
(c) Direct access (d) Access time (e) None of the above
Ans (c)
50. Time during which a job is processed by the computer is
(a) Delay time (b) Real time (c) Execution time
(d) Down time (e) None of the above
Ans (c)

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam. Solved Paper

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam. Solved Paper

Computer General Knowledge


1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a ___ wavy
underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel
your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or
space is considered ___
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and
columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or
more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to
erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
B manage the central processing unit (CPU).
C manage memory and storage.
D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans (D)
12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.
A CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
AnS (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
A GUIs
B Icons
C Menus
D Windows
Answer: C
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the
activities of multiple programs at the same time.
A Multitasking
B Streamlining
C Multiuser
D Simulcasting
Answer: A
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating
system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
A action.
B event.
C interrupt.
D activity.
Answer: C
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning
a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
A CPU
B slice of time
C stack
D event
Answer: B
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that
software applications interact with are known as:
A application programming interfaces (APIs).
B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
C device drivers.
D bootstrap loaders.
Answer: A
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
A point-and-click
B user-friendly
C command-driven
D Mac
Answer: C
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B peripheral device.
C utility program.
D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Answer: D
20. A spooler is a(n):
A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until
it prints out.
B print job.
C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print
job is completed.
Answer: C
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
A on a floppy disk.
B in the CPU.
C in a flash card.
D on the hard drive.
Answer: D
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it
can’t fit in RAM.
C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B
23. The definition of thrashing is:
A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
B insufficient hard disk space.
C too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Answer: B
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
A configuration.
B accessibility.
C authentication.
D logging in.
Answer: C
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is
referred to as the computer’s:
A CPU.
B platform.
C BIOS.
D CMOS.
Answer: B
27. The following message generally means:
A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
B the CD drive is not functioning.
C the BIOS is corrupted.
D there is a problem loading a device.
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that
takes place during the boot-up process?
A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check
configuration settings
B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check
configuration settings
C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check
configuration settings
D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load
operating system
Answer: B
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
A load the operating system into RAM.
B the power-on self-test.
C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
D load application programs.
Answer: D
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading
the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive
into RAM.
A BIOS
B API
C device driver
D supervisor program
Answer: A
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
A RAM.
B ROM.
C the CPU.
D the hard drive.
Answer: B
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and
operational is the ____________ process.
A configuration
B CMOS
C POST
D ROM
Answer: C
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:
A registry.
B API.
C CMOS.
D kernel.
Answer: D
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
A The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
B The video card and video memory are tested.
C The BIOS identification process occurs.
D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Answer: A
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:
A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to
virtual memory can be manually changed.
C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Answer: A
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s
contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all
of the following EXCEPT:
A files.
B folders.
D drives.
D systems.
Answer: D
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:
A windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
C more than one window can be open at a time.
D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Answer: A
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:
A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored
together for easy reference.
B Files can be generated from an application.
C Files are stored in RAM.
D Files should be organized in folders.
Answer: C
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:
A an open folder.
B the folder contains subfolders.
C a text file.
D a graphics file.
Answer: B
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates
of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________
view.
A List
B Thumbnails
C Details
D Icon
Answer: C

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RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

(Held on 7th june 2009)

Reasoning
Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these

2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient

3. Who is third to the G’s left?
(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D

4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV

English language
Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
6.
(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.
(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement

Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous



Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE
(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail

13.ASSURANCE
(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail

14. ACCESS
(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS
(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced

Maths/physics
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?

(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—
(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r

18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
is?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500

20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—
(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21

24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m

28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°

30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit

31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—
(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105

36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h

39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these

40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these

Ans:
1:D 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:B 6:B
7:C 8:A 9:B 10:C 11:A 12:B
13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:A 18:B
19:B 20:C 21:D 22::B 23:C 24:C
25:D 26:A 27:D 28:D 29:D 30:D
31:A 32:B 33:C 34:A 35:D 36:B
37:A 38:A 39:D 40:D 228 persons

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO 2010

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO 2010
1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.
A. 20
B. 75
C. 85
D. 99
Answer: C
2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B
3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B
4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B
5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B
7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B

12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B

16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A
25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.
Answer: D
27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS
Answer: B
28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B
29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
C. PGP
D. private and public keys
Answer: C
30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B
31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B
32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A
33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D
34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D
35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B
Fill in the Blank:

36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging
37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime
38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet
39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft
40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft
41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook
42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy
43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus
44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms
45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus
46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free
47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking
48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking
49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service
50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service
51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers
52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control
53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID
56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments
Matching:

57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D

58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E

Indian Bank Probationary Officer Exam., 2010

Indian Bank Probationary Officer Exam., 2010
(Held on 17-1-2010)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

1. We have accepted over two billion dollars from them yet it is been used to build hospital in the area—
(A) that is yet to use
(B) although it has been used
(C) not yet being used
(D) which will be used
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

2. People have respond in favour the government’s efforts to resolve the budget crisis—
(A) favourably responded
(B) response in favour of
(C) responded favourably to
(D) been responding favourably
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

3. Striking this deal will enable the company to expand its operations in Europe—
(A) strike this deal that
(B) to strike off this deal
(C) by striking this deal to
(D) this deal was struck which
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)


4. We admire they are taking this step despite the numerous risks involved—
(A) them to take
(B) them for taking
(C) that they have taken over
(D) how their taking of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

5. The management has been left with no option else to change the branch timings to avoid losing business.
(A) but to change
(B) except the change of
(C) unless it changes with
(D) other than the changing
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–20) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions—

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S. as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia.

Why should the sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with scepticism ? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short the world has not changed, it has just moved places.

The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008, policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there’s evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the underlying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China, where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective. Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in the first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly $ 1.1 trillion. Exuberance over a quick recovery–which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter–has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hindsight. But investors–who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far, and that the slightest bit of negative economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking steps to shut off the money. rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, “there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening.” And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years, Asia may be heading for another disheartening plunge.

6. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis ?
(1) Reluctance of Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus
(2) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies at high prices
(3) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2)
Ans : (D)

7. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places” ?
(A) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economics than on the US economy
(B) Economies has become interlinked on account of globalisation
(C) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(D) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy ?
(A) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(B) The government’s only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(C) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(D) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(E) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US
Ans : (B)

9. Why do experts predict that Asian policy makers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus ?
(1) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time
(2) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels
(3) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens
(A) None
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

10. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate ?
(A) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(B) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the U.S.
(C) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(D) The GDP of China was below expectations
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored ?
(1) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable
(2) The government has decided to tighten credit
(3) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures
(A) Only (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage ?
(A) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(B) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(C) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic principles
(D) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(E) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals
Ans : (C)

13. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics ?
(A) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(B) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(C) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(D) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
(1) All Asian economies are recovering at the same pace
(2) Experts are apprehensive about the state of Asian economies despite their recovery
(3) Developed countries should implement the same economies reforms as Asian ones
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative impact on the Asian stock markets ?
(1) Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries
(2) Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009
(3) Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank
(A) None
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–18) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

16. Fuel
(A) Petrol
(B) Stimulate
(C) Sustain
(D) Heat
(E) Charge
Ans : (B)

17. Flooded
(A) Surged
(B) Saturated
(C) Overflowed
(D) Deluge
(E) Overcome
Ans : (C)

18. Evaporated
(A) Dehydrated
(B) Melted
(C) Vaporised
(D) Vanished
(E) Dodged
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 19-20) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Buoyed
(A) Heavy
(B) Stifled
(C) Numbed
(D) Dull
(E) Abated
Ans : (E)

20. Sharp
(A) Blunt
(B) Incomplete
(C) Naive
(D) Indistinct
(E) Gradual
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of that part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (E).

21. Arranging such a large amount (A) /of funds now will be a problem why (B) / banks are usually not open (C) /so early in the morning. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. He had telephoned yesterday to (A) /ask how much of the youth (B) /who attend our classes would be (C) /interested in working for a textile company. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

23. Though he has promoted to (A) / the bank’s board as a director (B) / he continues to carry out (C) / all his current responsibilities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

24. The Board’s decision has provided (A) / employees with the opportunity (B) / to acquire upto 100 (C) / shares by the company. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

25. If the manufacturing sector continues (A) / to grow at the same rate for (B) / the next few months, I think it (C) / has a high growth rate this year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

26. The government is working (A) / out a new system to compensate (B) / those companies to sell (C) / products below the market price. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

27. The success of the (A) / government sponsor job guarantee programme (B) / has resulted in a (C) / drastic drop in poverty. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

28. We were forced into react (A) / as no organisation can (B) / afford to adhere to (C) / these outdated regulations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

29. We had extensively discussions (A) / with the participants and (B) / obtained their feedback (C) / regarding our new services. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

30. Their failure to inspect (A) / our factories is a (B) / clear indications that our (C) / license will not be renewed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

31. Though these programmes have proved (A) to be extremely (B) effective (C) they do have certain drawbacks. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

32. According to these estimates (A) our profitable (B) margin (C) will be higher if we adopt (D) this approach. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

33. In order to confront (A) the threat (B) of global warming it is imperative (C) that we work altogether. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

34. Any failure (A) to complicit (B) with these fundamental (C) regulations will result in a fine. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

35. Every organization needs to be proactive (A) in devising (B) stratergies (C) to ensure the retention (D) in staff. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. However if this happens it will cause problems for the elderly who mainly use cheques.
2. The use of cheques has fallen dramatically in the past few years.
3. Thus cheques may be phased out gradually making sure that the needs of all consumers including the elderly are met.
4. This is because more and more consumers are transferring money electronically by direct debit or credit cards.
5. Without cheques they are likely to keep large amounts of cash in their homes making them vulnerable to theft.
6. British banks have thus voted to phase cheques out in favour of these more modern payment methods.

36. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 1
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The World Diabetes Congress has determined that India has the largest number of diabetics in the world. Apart from the loss of productivity, the …(41)… burden is alarming – $ 2.8 billion annually. Sedentary jobs, …(42)… of electronic entertainment, changing diet patterns and …(43)… dependence on automobiles have driven the activity …(44)… of Indians’ lives especially in cities.

The …(45)… is, therefore, to make people physically …(46)… and requires interventions which imapct a large …(47)… of the population. Admittedly physical activity is a …(48)… of choice and is strongly driven by …(49)… preferences. But policymaking needs to shift to …(50)… moderate levels of physical activity in the daily lives of people. One way to accomplish this is to create walkable communities that give residents a variety of destinations within walking distance.

41. (A) economic
(B) finance
(C) subsidy
(D) physical
(E) health
Ans : (B)

42. (A) broadcast
(B) spread
(C) prevalent
(D) expand
(E) widespread
Ans : (E)

43. (A) totally
(B) entirely
(C) grown
(D) mutual
(E) increasing
Ans : (E)

44. (A) most
(B) out
(C) from
(D) through
(E) outside
Ans : (B)

45. (A) ultimatum
(B) hazard
(C) sensitivity
(D) challenge
(E) dispute
Ans : (A)

46. (A) equip
(B) built
(C) active
(D) trained
(E) qualified
Ans : (C)

47. (A) section
(B) scale
(C) degree
(D) per cent
(E) piece
Ans : (A)

48. (A) want
(B) matter
(C) scarcity
(D) right
(E) lack
Ans : (B)

49. (A) showing
(B) given
(C) special
(D) personal
(E) individually
Ans : (D)

50. (A) pursuit
(B) indulge
(C) introduce
(D) insist
(E) attract
Ans : (C)