Saturday, December 31, 2011
Thursday, December 22, 2011
Monday, December 19, 2011
Thursday, December 15, 2011
IAS Main Exam 2011 Solved General Studies Paper- I
General Studies Paper – I
1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each: 20x3=60
(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.
Answer:
Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.
Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.
These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc. so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.
(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.
Answer:
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.
The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.
Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.
Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.
(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.
Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.
Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.
Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.
Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.
(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.
Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.
The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.
Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.
The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.
Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:
1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act
2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit
3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board
4. Provision for more stringent punishments
5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators
6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies
2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?
Answer:
Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.
In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.
In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination, unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals, meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.
The upsurge showed that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in India.
Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.
(b) Evaluate the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives?
Answer:
Bharat Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education which was not well developed at that time. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.
All India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning, and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities. They wanted security for every human being; the essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned social distribution.
Their efforts led to several legislative reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.
Social and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of freedom struggle.
3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?
Answer:
NRLM is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY). It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable livelihood.
NRLM is based on three pillars
1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor
2. Building skills for the job market
3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs
NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging from the organised sector.
NRLM funds will be directly released to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise annual action plan. It will involve the Self Help Group in the implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India. These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.
(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?
Answer:
The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence in advertising.
The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design, Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.
ASCI is represented in all committees working on advertising content in every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work put in by this group of highly respected people that has given tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of self-regulation in the advertising.
In August 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code. This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more effective.
4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each. 12x5=60
(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.
Answer:
The Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction. The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of all employees.
The committee has suggested that an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer Service Committee.
The committee suggets that every board should ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for the small person to do banking transactions.
Emphasising on 'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and train for skills.
(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).
Answer:
It is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a family, a community, women and Children.
The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.
(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and safeguard public interest.
Till 1980, not much contribution was made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council, Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded by the NGT.
(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.
Answer:
Departmental Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the discussion on budget takes place.
Parliamentary Forums on the other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned. Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.
(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.
Answer:
Cash transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion, preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.
Cash transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is always been a challenge.
(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).
Answer:
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period. The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making, planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with new initiatives to reduce blindness.
5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each. 12x3=36
(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.
Answer:
The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.
The changed rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial. Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture.
The impact has been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.
(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.
Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the provisions of Indian Penal Code.
(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.
Answer:
Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas. Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement.
Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc as people move out due to following
(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home
(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.
(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.
(iv) New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where they work.
(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.
Answer:
Post Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.
A major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.
6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following: 5x3=15
(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.
Answer:
On 8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh.
(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha
Answer:
Bharat Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.
(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement
Answer:
The Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement, and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed acts of violence.
7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each: 5x6=30
(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.
Answer:
Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be commenced from November 2011.
(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?
Answer:
The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay commission.
(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.
Answer:
The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.
(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?
Answer:
Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.
(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.
Answer:
Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.
(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.
Answer:
CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.
8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each. 5x4=20
(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.
Answer:
Moatsu Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe Moatsu Mong.
The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun & fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local tribes unite in the Khan celebration.
(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:
(i) Bhand Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter.
(ii) Swang:
It is a popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.
(iii) Maach:
It is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.
(iv) Bhaona:
It is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of spectators a rare aesthetic experience.
(v) Mudiyettu:
It is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Lists.
(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of preservation and creativity.
(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?
Answer:
There are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.
(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.
Answer:
Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.
9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each: 5x5=25
(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.
Answer:
The Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest organic solid waste between 18-22 days.
(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.
Answer:
I would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly he/she can be taken for medical supervision.
(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.
Answer:
Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma. It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.
(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology
Answer:
Molecular breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and 99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional risk factors for breast cancer.
(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Answer:
UPSC has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes the various court orders and notifications on the web site and information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.
10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14
(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh
Answer:
Lieutenant Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.
(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar
Answer:
He was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the 19th generation of Dagar Tradition.
(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:
He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.
(d) P.R. Sreejesh
Answer:
P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.
(e) Nileema Mishra
Answer:
She is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.
(f) V.Tejeswini Bai
Answer:
Tejeswini is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.
(g) Aishwarya Narkar
Answer:
Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the
President of India.
Tuesday, December 13, 2011
KERALA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION FOREST GUARD EXAM PAPER
General English
(Exam Held On: 20-04-2011)
1. Italy is …………. European country.
(a)the
(b)an
(c)a
(d)no article2. Everyone had to show……….. ticket.
(a)his
(b)their
(c)our(d)ourself
3. He spoke to softly that we could not hear………..
(a)her
(b)them
(c)him
(d)us4. The crowd became very ………. When the winning goal was scored
(a)excite
(b)exciting
(c)excited
(d)excitedly5. She received us in a very ………. Manner.
(a)kind
(b)kindly(c)kindful
(d)kindest
6. He missed the bus and so go to work ………….
(a)lately
(b)late
(c)latest(d)lateful
7. The girl ……….. fainted
(a)has
(b)have(c)will
(d)was
8. I usually arrive at school at ten minutes …………. Nine
(a)to
(b)on(c)in
(d)during
9. He was cured ………….. cold
(a)with
(b)in
(c)from
(d)of
10. I am pleased ………….. my son’s progress in studies
(a)with
(b)of(c)from
(d)in
11. Won’t is the contracted form of …………….
(a)will not
(b)were not(c)would not
(d)was not
12. I smell something………….
(a)burn
(b)burning
(c)burnt(d)was burning
13. We …………… a very enjoyable holiday last summer.
(a)have
(b)have had
(c)has
(d)had
14. When George ……… twenty, John will be twenty five
(a)is
(b)was(c)were
(d)has
15. It is very cold today ……………?
(a)is today
(b)isn’t today
(c)is it
(d)isn’t it
16. He is a person …………… everyone admires
(a)who
(b)whom
(c)whose(d)which
17. We have had ………… wet days this week
(a)many
(b)little(c)much
(d)very little
18. The synonym of ‘jubilant’ is:
(a)exultant
(b)expectant(c)consultant
(d)extinct
19. Inadvertent means:
(a)negligent
(b)interesting(c)mindful
(d)involved
20. The antonym of ‘acquit’ is:
(a)condemn
(b)overwhelm(c)redeem
(d)alarm
Saturday, December 10, 2011
LIC HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED RECRUITMENT
LIC Housing Finance Limited (LICHFL)
(A Subsidery of LIC of India)
Bombay Life Building, 2nd Floor, 45/47 Veer Nariman Road, Mumbai-400001
Online Applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of Assistants in its various offices all over the country in LIC Housing Finance Limited:
Application Fee : A crossed bank DD of Rs. 300/- in favour of 'LIC HOUSING FINANCE LTD' payable at Mumbai.
How to Apply : Apply Online at LIC Housing website between 08/12/2011 to 24/12/2011.
For further information and online submission of application, please visit http://www.epostonline.in/Forms/LIC20111205/Index.aspx
(A Subsidery of LIC of India)
Bombay Life Building, 2nd Floor, 45/47 Veer Nariman Road, Mumbai-400001
Online Applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of Assistants in its various offices all over the country in LIC Housing Finance Limited:
- Assistant : 132 posts, Age : 21-35 years as on 01/12/2011, Qualification : Graduate in any discipline with minimum 50% marks and Candidates should have knowledge of Computer Operations., Pay Scale : Rs.7400 – 16965
Application Fee : A crossed bank DD of Rs. 300/- in favour of 'LIC HOUSING FINANCE LTD' payable at Mumbai.
How to Apply : Apply Online at LIC Housing website between 08/12/2011 to 24/12/2011.
For further information and online submission of application, please visit http://www.epostonline.in/Forms/LIC20111205/Index.aspx
Thursday, December 8, 2011
APPSC JUNIOR LECTURERS EXAM COMMERCE SOLVED PAPER (EXAM HELD ON: 03-12-2011)
1.World Trade Organisation came into existence on
Ans : 1-1-1995
2. The form of departmentation often used in the sales function is
Ans: By Territory
3. which of the following statements reflects the relation between line and staff ?
Ans : Line is operational, staff is advisory
4. The tendency to disperse decision making authority in an organised structure is called
Ans: Decentralisation
5. A firm producing that output at which the marginal cost curve intersects with the marginal revenue curve from down, is known as
Ans: Equilibrium firm
6.What is the main purpose of Internal communication ?
Ans: Information
7. IDPL unit prepares key formulations of drugs. Hundreds of drug firms are established which take key formulations from IDPL. The IDPL comes under
Ans: Genetic Industry
8. Integration and synchronisation of group efforts in the organisation to achieve organisational goals is called
Ans: Co-ordination
9. which one is the main purpose of Management Information System?
Ans: Assess and distribute information
10. Organisational technique of control cane be differentiated into
Ans: Feedback and feed forward
11. How are committees useful as a technique of co-ordination ?
Ans: All of these
12. One of the following was not an objective of Industrial Policy 1991
Ans: To attain self reliance through import substitution
13. Vertical integration is resorted in case
Ans: Financial optima is smaller than managerial optima
14. The job of controlling is carried out by
Ans: All managerial staff
15. Curiosity, manipulation, power, security and status are examples of
Ans: Secondary motives
16. One of the factors below does not determine the size of the unit:
Ans: Level of satisfaction among workers
17. One of the following is not a force which determines the optimum size of the unit :
Ans: Profitability forces
18. The inner state activating and channelling behaviour towards goals is called
Ans: Motive
19. Expectancy theory of motivation was brought out by
Ans: Vroom
20. McClellans's Needs theory explains needs for _____________, affiliation and power.
Ans: Achievement
21. Herzberg's theory consists of __________ and motivational factors.
Ans: Hygiene
22. Theories of leadership include, Trait, Behavioural and
Ans : Situational
23. Likert's four systems of leadership re Exploitative and benevolent Authoritative, Consultative, and
Ans Democratic
24. Situational leadership theory focuses on
Ans: Followers
25. "Ubiquities" and 'Antiquities' are the terms used in the location theory propounded by
Ans: Alfred Weber
26. The concept of "Growth Centres" has been recommended by the
Ans: Sivaraman Committee
27. In group meetings, there will be two phases of inertia, then ______ periods followed by a flurry of activities.
Ans: Transition
28. Coordination an execution of task will be better in
Ans: Small group
29. Most common group decision making technique used is
Ans: Brainstorming
30. The formula for measuring net labour turnover is
Ans: NLT = Total replacements / Average workforce * 100
31. Industrial Disputes Act envisages compulsory adjudication of industrial disputes when
Ans: Government decides by way of reference
32. Among the several methods of settlement of disputes, the best one is
Ans: Collective bargaining
33. The workers participation rate indicates the percentage of
Ans: Total main workers plus marginal workers in the total population
34. India adopted the code of 'discipline' in the year
Ans: 1958
35. The Systems approach to industrial relations was given by
Ans: Dunlop
36. Outsourcing of business operations by MNCs has led to
Ans: Loss in the bargaining strength of labour
37. NEGP refers to
Ans: National Employment Guarantee Programme
38.Who publishes the 'Rural Labour Enquiry Reports' ?
Ans: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour
39. One of the statements given below is true. Pick it up.
Ans: Workers participation in management is possible in unorganized labour
40. EAS refers to
Ans: Employment Assurance Scheme
41. Government of India implemented two schemes to remove the unemployment of youth. They are
Ans : TRYSEM and PMRY
42. One of the following does not come under unorganized labour:
Ans: Handicraft workers
43. Industrial relations is used to describe the nature of relationship between
Ans: Government and industry { Actual answer is Employers, Employees, Government }
44. Labour - Management relations is the Constitutional guarantee in one of the following countries. Which one is it ?
Ans: Japan
45. Collective bargaining is
Ans: A peace treaty between two parties in continual conflicts
46. The bargaining between all the trade unions of workers in the same inustry through their federal organisations and the employers federation is
Ans : Multiple employer bargaining
47. Demand for labour is dependent on one of the following :
Ans: Demand for products made by labour
48. The three-man tripartite committee set up in 1954 is
Ans: Steering Committee on Wages
49. NCL refers to
Ans: National Commission on Labour { Refer Question number 81}
50. ILC refers to
Ans: Indian Labour Conference
51. The main objective of labour legislation is to
Ans : All of these
52. Social security legislation acts include
Ans: Employees State Insurance Act, Employees Provident Fund Act, Payment of Gratuity Act
53. One of the statements given below is incorrect. Pick it up.
Ans: ESI Act is not applicable to private sector employees
54. The other name for unfair labour practice is
Ans: Unfair Labour Victimisation
55. Which of the following is not a measure of efficiency ?
Ans: Capital Employed
56. A group of firms, carrying on similar types of activity is called
Ans: Industry
57. Which of the following is an example for industry's goods ?
Ans: Rice
58. SAIL was established in 1973 as a
Ans: Multi Unit Enterprise
59. A firm, in which existing condition of technique and organising ability, has the lowest average cost of production per unit is called
Ans: Optimum sized firm
60. A small change in sales results in disproportionate change in EBIT, other things being equal, is called
Ans: Operating leverage
61. Clientele effect is relatively more associated with
Ans: Dividend decision
62. Which one of the following is not a motive for holding cash ?
Ans : Profit motive
63. _______ model is an approach that provides for cost-efficient cash balances.
Ans: Baumol model
64. 'Factoring' as a financial service is associated with
Ans: Account Receivable
65. In a JIT environment, the flow of goods is controlled by
Ans: Pull approach
66. A firm in which lower level of current assets is supporting a given level of output is pursuing
Ans: Aggressive working capital policy
67. A policy that involves matching of assets and liability maturity is called
Ans: Hedging policy
68. The ratio that measures the ability of the firm to make committed payments is called
Ans: Debt service coverage ratio
69. Break-even point and margin of safety can be determined by using
Ans: P/V ratio
70. HMT Ltd. is an example of a/an
Ans: Industry
71. One of the following is not a measure of size. Identify.
Ans: Profit
72. Which of the following has government ownership, control and participation in business decisions as an essential feature?
Ans: Public sector organization
73.The concept of joint sector was introduced by Govt. of India on the recommendations of
Ans : Dutt Committee
74. Indian Railways is an example for
Ans: Departmental Undertaking
75. A company in which not less than 51 percent of paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or State Government or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments is a
Ans: Government Company
76. The process of withdrawing one's stake either in full or part by the government is called
Ans: Disinvestment
77. Changes in technology illustrate
Ans: Cyclical changes or Seasonal changes
78. Internal dis-economies of scale happen
Ans: When an increase in the scale of production leads to a higher cost per unit
79. The disguised unemployment refers to
Ans: more persons employed for a job which a few can accomplish
80. The credit for forming the first industrial union in 1918 goes to
Ans: B.P. Wadia
81. Prime benefit accruing to the employees are usually
Ans: Fringe benefits
82. The report of the first National Commission on Labour was submitted in
Ans: 1969
83. During the recent Period nearly 50 percent of GDP is being contributed by
Ans: Services factor
84.The pace of employment growth in the manufacturing sector during the post-reform period has
Ans: increased from 2.06% to 3.0%
85. There is a consistent decline in the mode of employment in
Ans: Regular employment
86. The ratio that indicates what proportion of Earning Per Share has been used for paying dividend is called
Ans: Payout ratio
87. Return of Investment (ROI) is a
Ans: Performance criterion
88. The Liquidity Ratio is satisfactory when it is
Ans: 1 : 1
89. 'Core Working Capital' is more or less of a
Ans: Fixed nature
90. Yield on share is equal to
Ans: DPS/Market price of share * 100
91. The earning power of the company depends upon
Ans: Net profit to capital turnover ratio
92. Cash flow in capital budgeting decision means
Ans: PAT + Depreciation
93. One of the following is not a source of funds. Which is that?
Ans. Decrease in deferred payment liabilities
94. In capital budgeting decisions, the time value of money is considered in case of
Ans: NPV
95. Cost of capital serves as __________ rate for capital investment.
Ans: Cut-off
96. According to traditional approach the cost of capital is affected by
Ans: Debt equity mix
97. Substitution of home-made leverage into corporate leverage is highlighted in capital structure theory of
Ans: Modigliani and Miller
98. Trading on equity implies a ______ debt equity ratio.
Ans: High
99. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by
Ans: William Sharpe
100. Depreciation is included in costs in case of
Ans: Average rate of return
101. Operating profit meas
Ans: Profit before interest and tax
102. Bird-in-hand theory of dividend was advocated by
Ans: Gorden and Lintner
103. The financial transaction wherein an investor purchases a security only for the dividend and sells it after receiving the same is called
Ans: Dividend stripping
104. Projects which compete with each other in capital investment decisions are called
Ans: Mutually exclusive projects
105. Which one of the following is not a capital budgeting decision ?
Ans: Investment in current assets
Ans : 1-1-1995
2. The form of departmentation often used in the sales function is
Ans: By Territory
3. which of the following statements reflects the relation between line and staff ?
Ans : Line is operational, staff is advisory
4. The tendency to disperse decision making authority in an organised structure is called
Ans: Decentralisation
5. A firm producing that output at which the marginal cost curve intersects with the marginal revenue curve from down, is known as
Ans: Equilibrium firm
6.What is the main purpose of Internal communication ?
Ans: Information
7. IDPL unit prepares key formulations of drugs. Hundreds of drug firms are established which take key formulations from IDPL. The IDPL comes under
Ans: Genetic Industry
8. Integration and synchronisation of group efforts in the organisation to achieve organisational goals is called
Ans: Co-ordination
9. which one is the main purpose of Management Information System?
Ans: Assess and distribute information
10. Organisational technique of control cane be differentiated into
Ans: Feedback and feed forward
11. How are committees useful as a technique of co-ordination ?
Ans: All of these
12. One of the following was not an objective of Industrial Policy 1991
Ans: To attain self reliance through import substitution
13. Vertical integration is resorted in case
Ans: Financial optima is smaller than managerial optima
14. The job of controlling is carried out by
Ans: All managerial staff
15. Curiosity, manipulation, power, security and status are examples of
Ans: Secondary motives
16. One of the factors below does not determine the size of the unit:
Ans: Level of satisfaction among workers
17. One of the following is not a force which determines the optimum size of the unit :
Ans: Profitability forces
18. The inner state activating and channelling behaviour towards goals is called
Ans: Motive
19. Expectancy theory of motivation was brought out by
Ans: Vroom
20. McClellans's Needs theory explains needs for _____________, affiliation and power.
Ans: Achievement
21. Herzberg's theory consists of __________ and motivational factors.
Ans: Hygiene
22. Theories of leadership include, Trait, Behavioural and
Ans : Situational
23. Likert's four systems of leadership re Exploitative and benevolent Authoritative, Consultative, and
Ans Democratic
24. Situational leadership theory focuses on
Ans: Followers
25. "Ubiquities" and 'Antiquities' are the terms used in the location theory propounded by
Ans: Alfred Weber
26. The concept of "Growth Centres" has been recommended by the
Ans: Sivaraman Committee
27. In group meetings, there will be two phases of inertia, then ______ periods followed by a flurry of activities.
Ans: Transition
28. Coordination an execution of task will be better in
Ans: Small group
29. Most common group decision making technique used is
Ans: Brainstorming
30. The formula for measuring net labour turnover is
Ans: NLT = Total replacements / Average workforce * 100
31. Industrial Disputes Act envisages compulsory adjudication of industrial disputes when
Ans: Government decides by way of reference
32. Among the several methods of settlement of disputes, the best one is
Ans: Collective bargaining
33. The workers participation rate indicates the percentage of
Ans: Total main workers plus marginal workers in the total population
34. India adopted the code of 'discipline' in the year
Ans: 1958
35. The Systems approach to industrial relations was given by
Ans: Dunlop
36. Outsourcing of business operations by MNCs has led to
Ans: Loss in the bargaining strength of labour
37. NEGP refers to
Ans: National Employment Guarantee Programme
38.Who publishes the 'Rural Labour Enquiry Reports' ?
Ans: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour
39. One of the statements given below is true. Pick it up.
Ans: Workers participation in management is possible in unorganized labour
40. EAS refers to
Ans: Employment Assurance Scheme
41. Government of India implemented two schemes to remove the unemployment of youth. They are
Ans : TRYSEM and PMRY
42. One of the following does not come under unorganized labour:
Ans: Handicraft workers
43. Industrial relations is used to describe the nature of relationship between
Ans: Government and industry { Actual answer is Employers, Employees, Government }
44. Labour - Management relations is the Constitutional guarantee in one of the following countries. Which one is it ?
Ans: Japan
45. Collective bargaining is
Ans: A peace treaty between two parties in continual conflicts
46. The bargaining between all the trade unions of workers in the same inustry through their federal organisations and the employers federation is
Ans : Multiple employer bargaining
47. Demand for labour is dependent on one of the following :
Ans: Demand for products made by labour
48. The three-man tripartite committee set up in 1954 is
Ans: Steering Committee on Wages
49. NCL refers to
Ans: National Commission on Labour { Refer Question number 81}
50. ILC refers to
Ans: Indian Labour Conference
51. The main objective of labour legislation is to
Ans : All of these
52. Social security legislation acts include
Ans: Employees State Insurance Act, Employees Provident Fund Act, Payment of Gratuity Act
53. One of the statements given below is incorrect. Pick it up.
Ans: ESI Act is not applicable to private sector employees
54. The other name for unfair labour practice is
Ans: Unfair Labour Victimisation
55. Which of the following is not a measure of efficiency ?
Ans: Capital Employed
56. A group of firms, carrying on similar types of activity is called
Ans: Industry
57. Which of the following is an example for industry's goods ?
Ans: Rice
58. SAIL was established in 1973 as a
Ans: Multi Unit Enterprise
59. A firm, in which existing condition of technique and organising ability, has the lowest average cost of production per unit is called
Ans: Optimum sized firm
60. A small change in sales results in disproportionate change in EBIT, other things being equal, is called
Ans: Operating leverage
61. Clientele effect is relatively more associated with
Ans: Dividend decision
62. Which one of the following is not a motive for holding cash ?
Ans : Profit motive
63. _______ model is an approach that provides for cost-efficient cash balances.
Ans: Baumol model
64. 'Factoring' as a financial service is associated with
Ans: Account Receivable
65. In a JIT environment, the flow of goods is controlled by
Ans: Pull approach
66. A firm in which lower level of current assets is supporting a given level of output is pursuing
Ans: Aggressive working capital policy
67. A policy that involves matching of assets and liability maturity is called
Ans: Hedging policy
68. The ratio that measures the ability of the firm to make committed payments is called
Ans: Debt service coverage ratio
69. Break-even point and margin of safety can be determined by using
Ans: P/V ratio
70. HMT Ltd. is an example of a/an
Ans: Industry
71. One of the following is not a measure of size. Identify.
Ans: Profit
72. Which of the following has government ownership, control and participation in business decisions as an essential feature?
Ans: Public sector organization
73.The concept of joint sector was introduced by Govt. of India on the recommendations of
Ans : Dutt Committee
74. Indian Railways is an example for
Ans: Departmental Undertaking
75. A company in which not less than 51 percent of paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or State Government or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments is a
Ans: Government Company
76. The process of withdrawing one's stake either in full or part by the government is called
Ans: Disinvestment
77. Changes in technology illustrate
Ans: Cyclical changes or Seasonal changes
78. Internal dis-economies of scale happen
Ans: When an increase in the scale of production leads to a higher cost per unit
79. The disguised unemployment refers to
Ans: more persons employed for a job which a few can accomplish
80. The credit for forming the first industrial union in 1918 goes to
Ans: B.P. Wadia
81. Prime benefit accruing to the employees are usually
Ans: Fringe benefits
82. The report of the first National Commission on Labour was submitted in
Ans: 1969
83. During the recent Period nearly 50 percent of GDP is being contributed by
Ans: Services factor
84.The pace of employment growth in the manufacturing sector during the post-reform period has
Ans: increased from 2.06% to 3.0%
85. There is a consistent decline in the mode of employment in
Ans: Regular employment
86. The ratio that indicates what proportion of Earning Per Share has been used for paying dividend is called
Ans: Payout ratio
87. Return of Investment (ROI) is a
Ans: Performance criterion
88. The Liquidity Ratio is satisfactory when it is
Ans: 1 : 1
89. 'Core Working Capital' is more or less of a
Ans: Fixed nature
90. Yield on share is equal to
Ans: DPS/Market price of share * 100
91. The earning power of the company depends upon
Ans: Net profit to capital turnover ratio
92. Cash flow in capital budgeting decision means
Ans: PAT + Depreciation
93. One of the following is not a source of funds. Which is that?
Ans. Decrease in deferred payment liabilities
94. In capital budgeting decisions, the time value of money is considered in case of
Ans: NPV
95. Cost of capital serves as __________ rate for capital investment.
Ans: Cut-off
96. According to traditional approach the cost of capital is affected by
Ans: Debt equity mix
97. Substitution of home-made leverage into corporate leverage is highlighted in capital structure theory of
Ans: Modigliani and Miller
98. Trading on equity implies a ______ debt equity ratio.
Ans: High
99. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by
Ans: William Sharpe
100. Depreciation is included in costs in case of
Ans: Average rate of return
101. Operating profit meas
Ans: Profit before interest and tax
102. Bird-in-hand theory of dividend was advocated by
Ans: Gorden and Lintner
103. The financial transaction wherein an investor purchases a security only for the dividend and sells it after receiving the same is called
Ans: Dividend stripping
104. Projects which compete with each other in capital investment decisions are called
Ans: Mutually exclusive projects
105. Which one of the following is not a capital budgeting decision ?
Ans: Investment in current assets
IBPS Probationary Officers Written Exam., 2011
Computer Knowledge
(Held on 18-9-2011)
1. Computer uses the……….number system to store data and perform calculations.
(A) binary
(B) octal
(C) decimal
(D) hexadecimal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is–
(A) Memory-only
(B) Write-only
(C) Once-only
(D) Run-only
(E) Read-only
Ans : (E)
3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document ?
(A) CTRL+A
(B) ALT+F5
(C) SHIFT+A
(D) CTRL+K
(E) CTRL+H
Ans : (A)
4. ……….are 'attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
(A) Phishing
(B) Computer viruses
(C) Spyware scams
(D) Viruses
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)
5. Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of–
(A) control
(B) output
(C) processing
(D) feedback
(E) input
Ans : (E)
6. A Web site's main page is called its–
(A) Home Page
(B) Browser Page
(C) Search Page
(D) Bookmark
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is–
(A) multiprogramming
(B) multitasking
(C) time-sharing
(D) multiprocessing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as–
(A) an ASCII code
(B) a magnetic tape
(C) an OCR scanner
(D) a bar code
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, click the button and then point to AutoFit Contents.
(A) Fit to Form
(B) Format
(C) Autosize
(D) Contents
(E) AutoFit
Ans : (E)
10. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends ?
(A) It is not unethical, because it is legal.
(B) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.
(C) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.
(D) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.
(E) It is not unethical-anyone can access a computer
Ans : (C)
11. Reusable optical storage will typica1ly have the acronym–
(A) CO
(B) DVD
(C) ROM
(D) RW
(E) ROS
Ans : (D)
12. The most common type of storage devices are–
(A) persistent
(B) optical
(C) magnetic
(D) flash
(E) steel
Ans : (D)
13. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be–
(A) distributed
(B) free
(C) centralized
(D) open source
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a–
(A) hacker
(B) analyst
(C) instant messenger
(D) programmer
(E) spammer
Ans : (A)
15. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is–
(A) dragging
(B) dropping
(C) right-clicking
(D) shift-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click–
(A) UPPERCASE
(B) UPPER ALL
(C) CAPS LOCK
(D) Lock Upper
(E) Large Size
Ans : (A)
17. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a–
(A) tab
(B) cell
(C) box
(D) range
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. You can keep your personal files / folders in–
(A) My folder
(B) My Documents
(C) My Files
(D) My Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. In Word you can force a page break–
(A) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(B) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter
(C) By using the Insert/Section Break
(D) By changing the font size of your document
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. A DVD is an example of a(n) –
(A) hard disk
(B) optical disc
(C) output device
(D) solid-state storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. The default view in Excel is……….view.
(A) Work
(B) Auto
(C) Normal
(D) Roman
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer is called–
(A) downloading
(B) uploading
(C) FTP
(D) JPEC
(E) downsizing
Ans : (A)
23. ……….is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(A) End
(B) Staft
(C) Turnoff
(D) Restart
(E) Reboot
Ans : (B)
25. The contents of……….are lost when the computer turns off.
(A) storage
(B) input
(C) output
(D) memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off–
(A) RAM
(B) Motherboard
(C) Secondary storage device
(D) Primary storage device
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other computers is a(n) –
(A) supercomputer
(B) minicomputer
(C) laptop
(D) server
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. The……….folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
(A) Drafts
(B) Outbox
(C) Address Book
(D) Sent Items
(E) Inbox
Ans : (B)
29. Grouping and processing all of a firm's transactions at one time is called–
(A) a database management system
(B) batch processing
(C) a real-time system
(D) an on-line system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. The……….enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window.
(A) tab box
(B) pop-up helper
(C) tab row
(D) address bar
(E) Esc key
Ans : (C)
31. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards ?
(A) BUS
(B) CPU
(C) USB
(D) MIDI
(E) MINI
Ans : (C)
32. You can……….a search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results.
(A) refine
(B) expand
(C) load
(D) query
(E) slowdown
Ans : (A)
33. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(A) RAM
(B) Floppy
(C) CPU
(D) CO-ROM
(E) ROM
Ans : (E)
34. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel ?
(A) Name box
(B) Row Headings
(C) Formula bar
(D) Task pane
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel over telephone lines is called a–
(A) red wire
(B) blue cord
(C) tower
(D) modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
36. Video processors consist of……….and………., which store and process images.
(A) CPU and VGA
(B) CPU and memory
(C) VGA and memory
(D) VGI and DVI
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. If you want to connect to your own computer through the Internet from another location, you can use–
(A) e-mail
(B) FTP
(C) instant message
(D) Telnet
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. To reload a Web page, press the……….button.
(A) Redo
(B) Reload
(C) Restore
(D) Ctrl
(E) Refresh
Ans : (E)
39. This first step in the transaction processing cycle captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website–
(A) Document and report generation
(B) Database maintenance
(C) Transaction processing startup
(D) Data Entry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. A(n) ……….is a special visual and audio effect applied in Power-point to text or content.
(A) animation
(B) flash
(C) wipe
(D) dissolve
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. When the pointer is positioned on a……….it is shaped like a hand.
(A) grammar error
(B) Formatting error
(C) Screen Tip
(D) Spelling error
(E) hyperlink
Ans : (E)
42. Personal computers can be connected together to form a–
(A) server
(B) supercomputer
(C) network
(D) enterprise
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
43. A……….is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
(A) blog
(B) hit
(C) link
(D) view
(E) success
Ans : (E)
44. ……….are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control words
(B) Control structures
(C) Reserved words
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
45. Mobile Commerce is best described as–
(A) The use of Kiosks in marketing
(B) Transporting products
(C) Buying and selling goods/services through wireless handheld devices
(D) Using notebook PC's in marketing
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
46. Which of, the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information–
(A) floppy diskette
(B) hard disk
(C) permanent disk
(D) optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. The computer abbreviation KB usually means–
(A) Key Block
(B) Kernel Boot
(C) Key Byte
(D) Kit Bit
(E) Kilo Byte
Ans : (E)
48. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called?
(A) Configuration
(B) Download
(C) Storage
(D) Upload
(E) Installation
Ans : (D)
49. In Excel……….allows users to bring together copies of work-books that other users have worked on independently.
(A) Copying
(B) Merging
(C) Pasting
(D) Compiling
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
50. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
(A) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large, amount of data and information
(B) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
(C) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(D) An of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Saturday, December 3, 2011
IBPS CWE GENERAL AWARENESS MODEL PAPER
1. Lucas Papadesmos became the new Prime Minister of which of the following countries in November 2011?
1) Spain
2) Italy
3) Greece
4) Belgium
5) None of these
2. Which Indian city hosted the World Economic Forum's (WEF) Indian Economic Summit in November 2011?
1) Mumbai
2) New Delhi
3) Chennai
4) Bangalore
5) Hyderabad
3. Moshe Katsav has been sentenced to seven years in prison on the charges of sexual harassment and obstruction of justice. He was the 8th President of whi-ch of the following countries?
1) Iran
2) Israel
3) Syria
4) Sudan
5) Germany
4. Which former Australian cricketer's autobiography is titled 'Fierce Focus'?
1) Allan Border
2) Shane Warne
3) Steve Waugh
4) Greg Chappell
5) Adam Gilchrist
5. Which of the following teams lifted the Beighton Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) IOC
2) ONGC
3) Air India
4) Railways
5) None of these
6. Who became the first batsman in Test cricket history to score four centuries in successful fourth innings run chases in November 2011?
1) Hashim Amla
2) Graeme Smith
3) Ricky Ponting
4) Rahul Dravid
5) Sachin Tendulkar
7. Who was reelected as the Presid-ent of Liberia in November 2011?
1) Joseph Boakai
2) Gyude Bryant
3) William Tolbert
4) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
5) None of these
8. Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh addressed the People's Majlis recently. It is the Parliament of which of the following countries?
1) Iraq
2) Maldives
3) Lebanon
4) UAE
5) Saudi Arabia
9. Which country lifted the inaugural Sultan of Johor Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) Malaysia
2) Australia
3) India
4) South Korea
5) None of these
10. Which country test fired Jericho, a ballistic missile, in November 2011?
1) Pakistan
2) Israel
3) Iran
4) Iraq
5) None of these
11. Who is the winner of the National Premier Women's chess championship that was held in Chennai in November 2011?
1) Mary Ann Gomes
2) Eesha Karavade
3) Tania Sachdev
4) Nisha Mohota
5) Padmini Rout
12. Who is the first player to take 500 catches in Test cricket?
1) Rahul Dravid
2) Adam Gilchrist
3) Mark Boucher
4) Kumar Sangakkara
5) None of these
13. Joe Frazier died of liver cancer. In which of the following sports did he excel?
1) Golf
2) Boxing
3) Squash
4) Snooker
5) Weightlifting
14. Which city hosted the 23rd annual meeting of the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) in November 2011?
1) Canberra
2) Singapore
3) Seoul
4) Bangkok
5) Honolulu
15. Which of the following statements about the South Asian Association for Regional Coope-ration (SAARC) is/are true?
1) SAARC was started in 1985 with headquarters in Kathmandu.
2) It is dedicated to economic, technological, social and cultural development emphasizing collective self reliance.
3) Mohamed Nasheed is the present chairman of SAARC.
4) The 17th SAARC Summit was held in Addu city, Maldives in November 2011.
5) All the above are correct.
16. ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL), the overseas arm of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, has signed an agreement to take a 25 per cent stake in Satpayev oil block. In which country is Satpayev block located?
1) Russia
2) Mongolia
3) Ukraine
4) Kazakhstan
5) Kyrgyzstan
17. Which state became the first in the country to achieve total financial inclusion in September 2011? (Each household in the state has at least one bank account)
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Kerala
3) Karnataka
4) Manipur
5) Assam
18. DVC, NHPC, PGCIL and NTPC are the four public sector undertakings working in which of the following sectors?
1) Coal
2) Telecom
3) Power
4) Textiles
5) None of these
19. Who is the author of the book "India and Global Financial Crisis: Managing Money and Finance"?
1) P. Chidambaram
2) Pranab Mukherjee
3) C.Rangarajan
4) Y.V.Reddy
5) Bimal Jalan
20. What is the full form of NFSM?
1) National Food Security Mechanism
2) New Food Security Mechanism
3) National Food Security Mission
4) National Farmers Security Mechanism
5) None of these
21. India is not a member of which of the following organizations?
1) BRICS
2) IBSA
3) SAARC
4) OPEC
5) The Commonwealth
22. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
1) Rice
2) Wheat
3) Sorghum
4) Bajra
5) Ragi
23. What per cent of foreign direct investment (FDI) is allowed in apiculture (beekeeping) under controlled conditions?
1) 20%
2) 26%
3) 100%
4) 49%
5) None of these
24. The FDI limit in FM radio has been increased from the existing 20% to?
1) 26%
2) 51%
3) 49%
4) 100%
5) None of these
25. Which is the largest producer and the consumer of tea in the world?
1) Brazil
2) India
3) Indonesia
4) Pakistan
5) Vietnam
26. Which state has the highest number of operational special economic zones in India?
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Karnataka
3) Maharashtra
4) Kerala
5) Andhra Pradesh
27. Which of the following has become the first public sector company to introduce Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) for its employees?
1) NMDC
2) IOC
3) NALCO
4) NTPC
5) ONGC
28. Which of the following groups can be called financially excluded people?
1) Urban slum dwellers
2) Marginal farmers
3) Landless laborers
4) Unorganized sector employees
5) All the above
29. In which year was the Bank of Calcutta established?
1) 1802
2) 1805
3) 1806
4) 1809
5) 1800
30. Which of the following stock exchanges was initially known as "The Native Share & Stock Brokers Association"?
1) Bombay
2) Madras
3) Jaipur
4) Cochin
5) Uttar Pradesh
31. Who among the following served as the Finance Minister before becoming the President of India?
1) N.Sanjeeva Reddy
2) Pratibha Patil
3) R.Venkatraman
4) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
5) S.Radhakrishnan
32. Which bank has recently launched 'Everywhere Teller Machine' service in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh? (ETM allows debit card holders to withdraw upto Rs.1000 in cash per day from a Point of Sale terminal at select merchant outlets.)
1) ICICI Bank
2) Axis Bank
3) SBI
4) SBH
5) HDFC Bank
33. The Hindustan Copper Limited will develop an underground copper-ore mine at Malanjkhand with an investment of Rs.1,856 crore. In which state is this mine located?
1) Rajasthan
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Jharkhand
4) Orissa
5) Bihar
34. Alok Prasad is the Chief Executive Officer of which of the following industry associations?
1) ASSOCHAM
2) FICCI
3) MFIN
4) NASSCOM
5) None of these
35. Who is the chairman of the Wor-king Group on Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR) appointed by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Deepak Mohanty
2) Bimal Jalan
3) Usha Thorat
4) R.V.Gupta
5) None of these
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (5) 15. (5) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (5) 27. (3) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1)
1) Spain
2) Italy
3) Greece
4) Belgium
5) None of these
2. Which Indian city hosted the World Economic Forum's (WEF) Indian Economic Summit in November 2011?
1) Mumbai
2) New Delhi
3) Chennai
4) Bangalore
5) Hyderabad
3. Moshe Katsav has been sentenced to seven years in prison on the charges of sexual harassment and obstruction of justice. He was the 8th President of whi-ch of the following countries?
1) Iran
2) Israel
3) Syria
4) Sudan
5) Germany
4. Which former Australian cricketer's autobiography is titled 'Fierce Focus'?
1) Allan Border
2) Shane Warne
3) Steve Waugh
4) Greg Chappell
5) Adam Gilchrist
5. Which of the following teams lifted the Beighton Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) IOC
2) ONGC
3) Air India
4) Railways
5) None of these
6. Who became the first batsman in Test cricket history to score four centuries in successful fourth innings run chases in November 2011?
1) Hashim Amla
2) Graeme Smith
3) Ricky Ponting
4) Rahul Dravid
5) Sachin Tendulkar
7. Who was reelected as the Presid-ent of Liberia in November 2011?
1) Joseph Boakai
2) Gyude Bryant
3) William Tolbert
4) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
5) None of these
8. Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh addressed the People's Majlis recently. It is the Parliament of which of the following countries?
1) Iraq
2) Maldives
3) Lebanon
4) UAE
5) Saudi Arabia
9. Which country lifted the inaugural Sultan of Johor Cup hockey tournament in November 2011?
1) Malaysia
2) Australia
3) India
4) South Korea
5) None of these
10. Which country test fired Jericho, a ballistic missile, in November 2011?
1) Pakistan
2) Israel
3) Iran
4) Iraq
5) None of these
11. Who is the winner of the National Premier Women's chess championship that was held in Chennai in November 2011?
1) Mary Ann Gomes
2) Eesha Karavade
3) Tania Sachdev
4) Nisha Mohota
5) Padmini Rout
12. Who is the first player to take 500 catches in Test cricket?
1) Rahul Dravid
2) Adam Gilchrist
3) Mark Boucher
4) Kumar Sangakkara
5) None of these
13. Joe Frazier died of liver cancer. In which of the following sports did he excel?
1) Golf
2) Boxing
3) Squash
4) Snooker
5) Weightlifting
14. Which city hosted the 23rd annual meeting of the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) in November 2011?
1) Canberra
2) Singapore
3) Seoul
4) Bangkok
5) Honolulu
15. Which of the following statements about the South Asian Association for Regional Coope-ration (SAARC) is/are true?
1) SAARC was started in 1985 with headquarters in Kathmandu.
2) It is dedicated to economic, technological, social and cultural development emphasizing collective self reliance.
3) Mohamed Nasheed is the present chairman of SAARC.
4) The 17th SAARC Summit was held in Addu city, Maldives in November 2011.
5) All the above are correct.
16. ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL), the overseas arm of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, has signed an agreement to take a 25 per cent stake in Satpayev oil block. In which country is Satpayev block located?
1) Russia
2) Mongolia
3) Ukraine
4) Kazakhstan
5) Kyrgyzstan
17. Which state became the first in the country to achieve total financial inclusion in September 2011? (Each household in the state has at least one bank account)
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Kerala
3) Karnataka
4) Manipur
5) Assam
18. DVC, NHPC, PGCIL and NTPC are the four public sector undertakings working in which of the following sectors?
1) Coal
2) Telecom
3) Power
4) Textiles
5) None of these
19. Who is the author of the book "India and Global Financial Crisis: Managing Money and Finance"?
1) P. Chidambaram
2) Pranab Mukherjee
3) C.Rangarajan
4) Y.V.Reddy
5) Bimal Jalan
20. What is the full form of NFSM?
1) National Food Security Mechanism
2) New Food Security Mechanism
3) National Food Security Mission
4) National Farmers Security Mechanism
5) None of these
21. India is not a member of which of the following organizations?
1) BRICS
2) IBSA
3) SAARC
4) OPEC
5) The Commonwealth
22. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
1) Rice
2) Wheat
3) Sorghum
4) Bajra
5) Ragi
23. What per cent of foreign direct investment (FDI) is allowed in apiculture (beekeeping) under controlled conditions?
1) 20%
2) 26%
3) 100%
4) 49%
5) None of these
24. The FDI limit in FM radio has been increased from the existing 20% to?
1) 26%
2) 51%
3) 49%
4) 100%
5) None of these
25. Which is the largest producer and the consumer of tea in the world?
1) Brazil
2) India
3) Indonesia
4) Pakistan
5) Vietnam
26. Which state has the highest number of operational special economic zones in India?
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Karnataka
3) Maharashtra
4) Kerala
5) Andhra Pradesh
27. Which of the following has become the first public sector company to introduce Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) for its employees?
1) NMDC
2) IOC
3) NALCO
4) NTPC
5) ONGC
28. Which of the following groups can be called financially excluded people?
1) Urban slum dwellers
2) Marginal farmers
3) Landless laborers
4) Unorganized sector employees
5) All the above
29. In which year was the Bank of Calcutta established?
1) 1802
2) 1805
3) 1806
4) 1809
5) 1800
30. Which of the following stock exchanges was initially known as "The Native Share & Stock Brokers Association"?
1) Bombay
2) Madras
3) Jaipur
4) Cochin
5) Uttar Pradesh
31. Who among the following served as the Finance Minister before becoming the President of India?
1) N.Sanjeeva Reddy
2) Pratibha Patil
3) R.Venkatraman
4) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
5) S.Radhakrishnan
32. Which bank has recently launched 'Everywhere Teller Machine' service in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh? (ETM allows debit card holders to withdraw upto Rs.1000 in cash per day from a Point of Sale terminal at select merchant outlets.)
1) ICICI Bank
2) Axis Bank
3) SBI
4) SBH
5) HDFC Bank
33. The Hindustan Copper Limited will develop an underground copper-ore mine at Malanjkhand with an investment of Rs.1,856 crore. In which state is this mine located?
1) Rajasthan
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Jharkhand
4) Orissa
5) Bihar
34. Alok Prasad is the Chief Executive Officer of which of the following industry associations?
1) ASSOCHAM
2) FICCI
3) MFIN
4) NASSCOM
5) None of these
35. Who is the chairman of the Wor-king Group on Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR) appointed by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Deepak Mohanty
2) Bimal Jalan
3) Usha Thorat
4) R.V.Gupta
5) None of these
ANSWERS:
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (5) 15. (5) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (5) 27. (3) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1)
Friday, December 2, 2011
Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper
English Language
(Held on 12-6-2011)
Directions– (Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
In a village by the Ganges, there once lived a Brahmin. He was a religious and God-fearing man. He earned his living by performing prayers in other people's home. One day the Brahmin was called to the neighbouring village to perform some ceremony. In return for his services, he received a goat as a present.
The Brahmin was very pleased and he set off for home with a goat on his shoulders, he thought to himself, "this was a generous family, to have given me a goat. My wife and children will be very pleased. As he walked down the path to his village he did not notice that he was being followed by three thieves. "We have to get that plump goat" said the first thief. It will make a great dinner for us," said the second thief. "We need to think of a plan fast," said the third. The three thieves then decided to fool the Brahmin.
The first thief approached the Brahmin saying "Dear Brahmin, you are a holy man, Why are you carrying a dirty dog on your shoulders ?" "A dirty dog," can't you see that it is a poor little goat. Are you blind ?" said the Brahmin angrily. The first thief laughed and walked away.
The Brahmin looked at the goat, indeed it was a goat, and so he resumed his journey homeward. A little further down the path, the Brahmin came across the second thief. The second thief said in astonishment, "You are a holy man, why are you carrying a dead calf on your shoulders”? The Brahmin was furious, "This is a live goat and not a dead calf."
The Brahmin had barely walked some distance when the third thief came running waving his arm towards the Brahmin "Drop that donkey at once, If people see you carrying a donkey on your shoulders, what will they think of you ?" By now the Brahmin was very confused. Three different people had told him that he was carrying an animal other than a goat. Something must be wrong he thought. "This is not a goat; this must be some monster that keeps changing its form." The terrified Brahmin threw the goat and ran home as fast as he could.
The three thieves had a great laugh. They had succeeded in their plan. They picked up the goat and left. How foolish the Brahmin had been to have believed them.
1. Why did the Brahmin let go off the goat ?
(A) He believed the first thief
(B) He believed the second thief
(C) He believed the third thief
(D) He thought the goat was a monster
(E) He did not want the goat
Ans : (D)
2. How did the Brahmin get the goat ?
(A) He bought it from the market
(B) He stole it from the three thieves
(C) It was given to him as a present
(D) He found the lost goat while on his way home
(E) He took it on loan
Ans : (C)
3. The thieves were following the Brahmin because-
(A) he was carrying a nice plump goat
(B) they wanted his blessings
(C) they did not know the way to the village
(D) he was a rich man
(E) he was unknown to them
Ans : (A)
4. How did the Brahmin earn his living ?
(A) By selling goats
(B) By performing prayer's
(C) By making sacrifices
(D) By donations
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. The various forms taken by the goat were-
(A) Form of a dirty dog
(B) Form of a dead calf
(C) Form of a donkey
(D) All (A), (B) and (C)
(E) Only (A) and (B)
Ans : (D)
6. Why was the Brahmin confused ?
(A) He noticed three different people following him to his village
(B) His wife was upset to see him with the plump goat
(C) He was surprised that the goat could take so many different forms
(D) Three different people told him he was carrying an animal other than a goat
(E) He lost his way to the village after performing the ceremony
Ans : (D)
Directions–(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. Resumed
(A) Started
(B) Commenced
(C) Continued
(D) Changed
(E) Directed
Ans : (C)
8. Generous
(A) Kind
(B) Rich
(C) Selfish
(D) Liberal
(E) Fortunate
Ans : (A)
Directions– (Q.9 and 10) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Plump
(A) Hungry
(B) Thin
(C) Stout
(D) Pampered
(E) Innocent
Ans : (C)
10. Terrified
(A) Baffled
(B) Alarmed
(C) Confused
(D) Scared
(E) Fearless
Ans : (D)
Directions–(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether 1here is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e., 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
11. The bus waiting (A) / for all the passengers (B) / to enter (C) / before it took off. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)
12. Daily prayer and meditation (A) / is the keys (B) / to a peaceful (C) / and happy life. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)
13. The fruit vendor (A) / would rather (B) / let the fruit get spoiling than (C) / sell them for a lesser price. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)
14. The police making (A) / everyone leave (B) / the building premises (C) / immediately. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)
15. Mother and I (A) / generally go to the store (B) / and pick up food items (C) / for the charitable. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions–(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
16. You will have to undergo a ………………….of tests before the interview.
(A) large
(B) series
(C) design
(D) booklet
(E) delegation
Ans : (B)
17. If you………………….fast, we will reach on time.
(A) journey
(B) travel
(C) walk
(D) talk
(E) react
Ans : (C)
18. The boy was curious to know what was ………………….the parcel.
(A) into
(B) with
(C) in
(D) beyond
(E) within
Ans : (C)
19. For every school going child, studying is a………………….
(A) skill
(B) success
(C) achievement
(D) luxury
(E) priority
Ans : (E)
20. The Board members could not arrive at a ………………….regarding the employee.
(A) judgement
(B) progress
(C) policy
(D) consensus
(E) action
Ans : (D)
Directions–(Q. 21–25) In each question below four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (E) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.
21. (A) Dimention
(B) Enlighten
(C) Canvass
(D) Unfortunate
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)
22. (A) Raging
(B) Extensive
(C) Priviledge
(D) Exorbitant
(E) All Correct
Ans : (C)
23. (A) Respectable
(B) Excessive
(C) Lament
(D) Manupilate
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)
24. (A) Presentable
(B) Commodity
(C) Exept
(D) Rebate
(E) All Correct
Ans : (C)
25. (A) Continuos
(B) Mourn
(C) Leisure
(D) Rampant
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)
Directions–(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) So the Sun retired behind a cloud, and the Wind began to blow hard upon the traveller.
(b) The Sun and the Wind were disputing who was stronger amongst them.
(c) But the harder he blew the more closely the traveller wrapped his coat around him.
(d) Then the Sun came out and shone in all his glory upon the traveller, who soon found it too hot to walk with his coat on.
(e) Suddenly they saw a traveller walking down the road, and the Sun said, "I see a way to settle our dispute"
(f) Whichever of us can cause the traveller below to take off his coat shall be regarded as the stronger one.
26. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (C)
27. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (d)
(B) (b)
(C) (e)
(D) (c)
(E) (a)
Ans : (E)
28. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (a)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)
29. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (e)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (a)
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (a)
(C) (f)
(D) (e)
(E) (c)
Ans : (D)
Directions–(Q. 31–40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once upon a time, there lived a pair of geese and a tortoise and the three were the best of friends. One day they were faced by a huge drought and the lake in which they lived was ...(31)... up. They ...(32)... to leave the lake and look for new lake, but the tortoise could not ...(33)... So, the geese thought of a ...(34)..., whereby, the tortoise would have to hold a piece of stick by its mouth which would be ...(35)... by the two geese. The only condition was that the tortoise should not. speak or it would ...(36) ...from the stick to his death.
The tortoise agreed to be ...(37) ….
But on seeing this strange ...(38)..., people on the way started laughing at the tortoise. Unable to control his ...(39)..., he spoke aloud "What are they ...(40)... about ?" and so he fell to his death.
31. (A) rising
(B) vaporising
(C) soaring
(D) soaking
(E) drying
Ans : (E)
32. (A) advised
(B) confided
(C) decided
(D) thought
(E) suggested
Ans : (C)
33. (A) understand
(B) swim
(C) fly
(D) talk
(E) think
Ans : (C)
34. (A) magic
(B) plan
(C) game
(D) plot
(E) trick
Ans : (E)
35. (A) agreed
(B) manufactured
(C) designed
(D) carried
(E) produced
Ans : (D)
36. (A) balance
(B) choke
(C) fall
(D) slipped
(E) hang
Ans : (C)
37. (A) disciplined
(B) rescued
(C) flew
(D) good
(E) silent
Ans : (B)
38. (A) bargain
(B) arrangement
(C) friendship
(D) matrix
(E) object
Ans : (B)
39. (A) excitement
(B) grip
(C) curiosity
(D) destiny
(E) devotion
Ans : (C)
40. (A) looking
(B) talking
(C) thinking
(D) pointing
(E) laughing
Ans : (E)
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