Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Trained Graduate Teachers Exam Solved Paper

General Knowledge 

(Exam Held on 12-02-2011)

 


1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a) Kalinga Award          -     Popularization of Science
b) Barlong Award          -     Agriculture
c) David-Cohen Award   -     Literature
d) Pulitzer Prize         -     Progress in Religion     

2. Which of the following characters was not a part of Shakespearian plays?
a) Julius
b) Brutus
c) Potterd) Ariel

3. Which of the following international organizations is dedicated to the cause of wildlife conservation?
a) UNFPA
b) UNDP
c) UNESCO
d) WHO

 4. Human Rights Day is observed on :
a) 10 October
b) 9 May
c) 10 December
d) 18 February

5. Railway coaches are made in the largest number at Integral coach factory, situated in:
a) Kapurthala
b) Peramburc) Varanasi
d) Moradabad

6. Which of the following is not a necessary qualification for a state to become a member
of United Nationas Organization? It should :
a) be a sovereign state
b) be a peace loving state
c) be a willing to discharge responsibilities under the UNO charterd) guarantee human rights and freedom to its citizens

7. The imaginary line on the earth’s surface which closely follows 180^o meridian, is called :
a) International date time
b) Tropic of Cancer
c) Equator
d) Prime Meridian

8. ‘Loti’ is the currency of :
a) Burundi
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Lesotho

9. Which type of rocks are mainly found in the Himalayan ranges?
a) Sedimentary
b) Metamorphicc) Igneous
d) Granite

10. Water Lily is the national emblem of :
a) Denmark
b) Bangladesh
c) Italy
d) Luxemberg

11. Who is a famous ‘Sarangi’ player?
a) Vilayat Khan
b) Ustad Zakir Husian
c) Alauddin Khan
d) Ustad Binda Khan

12. Which of the following is not a dance/dance-drama associated with the state ‘Maharashtra’?:
a) Lezim
b) Lavani
c) Kathid) Dahi Kala

13. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
I.  Simon Commission                                   1. 1885
II. Quit India Movement                                  2. 1942
III. Formation of Indian National Congress        3. 1927
IV.Minto-Morley Reforms                               4. 1909
      Codes :
      I      II       III       IV
a)   3     2       1        4
b)   1     3       4        2
c)   4     3       2        1
d)   1     2       3        4


14.Commonwealth games in 2014 will be held in :
a) Edinburgh, Scotland
b) Ontario, Canada
c) Glasgow, Scotland
d) Abuja, Nigeria

15. United Kingdom’s Prime Minister since May, 2010 is :
a) Tony Blair
b) David Cameron
c) Gordon Brown
d) Edward Health

16. Which of the following two IIT’s started functioning in 2009?
a) Gandhinagar, Jodhpur
b) Ropar, Patna
c) Indore, Mandid) Bhubaneshwar, Hyderabad

17. Banking of cureves is done to provide :
a) Centripetal force
b) Centrifugal force
c) Centrifugal acceleration
d) Angular velocity

18. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
I.   Calomel                   1. Copper sulphate
II.  Blue vitriol                2. Calcium sulphate
III. Gypsum                   3. Mercurous chloride
IV. Normal salt              4. Sodium chloride
      Codes :
       I      II       III       IV
a)   1     2       3        4
b)   4     3       2        1
c)   3     2       1        4
d)   3     1       2        4


19. Which of the following have maximum calrofic value?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fatsc) Protiens
d) Vitamins

20. How many Fundamental Rights are there now guaranteed under the Constitution of India?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

 21. The reduction of voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as Assemblies is in :
a) Sixty-First Amendment 1989
b) Seventy-Third Amendment 1992
c) Sixty-Fourth Amendment 1990
d) Fifty-Ninth Amendment 1988

22. Jute is mainly grown in :
a) Tamil Nadu
b) West Bengal
c) Kerala
d) Himachal Pardesh

23. Delhi became the capital of India in :
a) 1910
b) 1911
c) 1916
d) 1923

24. Who amonst the following is the author of the book ‘My Country My Life’?
a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
b) Atal Behari Vajpayee
c) L.K.Advani
d) Shashi Tharoor

25. One-rupee currency notes bear the signature of :
a) The President of India
b) Prime Minister of India
c) Governor of Reserve bank
d) Indian Finance Secretary

26. Which of the following country won the FIFA World Cup, 2010?
a) Germany
b) South Africa
c) Brazil
d) Spain

27. Who among the following is Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
a) President
 b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister
d) Home Minister

28. B.C. Roy Award is given in the field of :
a) Journalism
b) Medicine
c) Music
d) Environment

29. Who among the following has been declared as Businessman of the decade?
a) Mukesh Ambani
b) Anil Amabani
c) Ratan Tata
d) Azim Premji

30. Who amongst the following has been named UNESCO’s National Ambassador?
a) Aishwarya Rai
b) Priyanka Choprac) Sharmila Tagore
d) Kajol

31. People have eyes of different colours, e.g. brown, black or blue, depending upon
the particular Pigment present in the :
a) Iris
b) Corena
c) Pupil
d) Choroid

32. Which of the following is known as the ‘red planet’ ?
a) Mercury
b) Mars
c) Jupiter
d) Saturn

33. The special Constitution position of Jammu & Kashmir is that :
a) It is not one of the States of the Indian Union
b) It is beyond the purview of the Indian Constituion
c) Indian laws do not apply to it
d) It has its own Constitution

34. The fundamental right which has been described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ” The heart
and soul of the Constitution” is the right to :
a) Equlaity
b) Property
c) Freedom of religion 
d) Constituional remedies

35. Fourth Estate is referred to :
a) Public Opinion
b) Chamber of Commerce
c) The Newspaperd) Political Parties

IBPS CLERKS CWE BANKING AWARENESS QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949

2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body

3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies

4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings

5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products

6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks

7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development

8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support

9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks

10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline

11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor


12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits

13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.

14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit

15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee

16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures

17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization

18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances

19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals

20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks

21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions

22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory

23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.

24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement

25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations

26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month

27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts

28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance

29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice

30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.

31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution

32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits

33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs

34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly

35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis

36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)

37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.

38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management

39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan

40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products

41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance

42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing

43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan

45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate

46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.

47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit

48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package

49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance

50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments

51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit

52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects

53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers

54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans

55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company

56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services

57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards

58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal

59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC

60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT

61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting

62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity

63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC

64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182

65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account

66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above

67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee

68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%

69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR

70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.

71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee

72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor

73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15

74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI

75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555

76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note

77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan

78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these

79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits

81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.

82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)

83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.

84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one

85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC

86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks

87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.

88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit

89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI

90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit

91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control

92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system

93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate

94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969

95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank

96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent

97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government

98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate

99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores

100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad

Answers

1) d      2) c  3) d     4) d        5) d   6) c    7) b   8) d    9) a  10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d

IBPS CWE P.O. DESCRIPTIVE PAPER 2011QUESTIONS

A candidate sent questions asked in descriptive paper in CWE P.O.  2nd shift.
(Exam held on 18-09-2011) 


DESCRIPTIVE PAPER
1 Write a letter to your brother infoming him Importace of  Lokpal Bill .
2 wrire a letter to related authority informing him water shortage in your area
3 Write a letter to editor of newspaer for starting a series of cultural heritage in your state .

Essays
1 e-banking
2 emerging trends of Aviation Industry in India
3 Global world converting into global Village

Precis was relating to land acquisition and urbanisation

INDIAN BANK P.O. EXAM SOLVED PAPER

1. As we all know rise of the ‘BRICs’ has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise of the BRICs’ on global/other powerful economy/economies?
1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
2. It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are in ‘Swap
Agreement’ with various nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong globally? About-
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) Rs. 30,000 crore

3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present?
(A) 40%
(B) 49%
(C) 50%
(D) 64%
(E) 74%

4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 2008-09?
1. A target of Rs. 2•80 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector.
2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 1•5%.
3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also acceptable.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

5. As per the news in major financial newspapers a ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ is launched in Delhi and Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of Rs.………
(A) 15,000
(B) 20,000
(C) 25,000
(D) 30,000
(E) 50,000

6. As proposed in the Union Budget 2008-09 a ‘Risk Capital Fund’ is set up by the Govt. of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund?
(A) NABARD
(B) SIDBI
(C) ECGC
(D) RBI
(E) None of these

7. As per the Economic Survey 2007-08 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008, what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About-
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 21%
(E) 26%

8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 2008-09 the operating ratio of the railways has-
(A) Improved only by 0•5%
(B) Decreased by 0•5%
(C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 2007-08
(D) Reached at the level of 81%
(E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 2000-01

9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for the ‘Girl Child’. What is the name of the scheme?
(A) Raj Lakshmi
(B) Rani Bitia
(C) Dhan Lakshmi
(D) Aanandita
(E) None of these

10. The President of India recently signed the much-awaited notification for the implementation of the suggestions made by the ‘Delimitation Commission’. What will be the effect of this notification?
(A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined
(B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years’ time
(C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further
(D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of their origin. They will also be like Public Sector Banks
(E) None of these

11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now-
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 30
(E) 31

12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India?
1. CARE
2. CRISIL
3. ULIP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce ‘Plastic Currency Notes’. What is/are the benefits of ‘Plastic Notes’?
1. Their Shelf life will be longer.
2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices.
3. Printing will be cheaper.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

14. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to-
(A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
(B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets
(C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years
(D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank
(E) None of these

15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit infinancial sector?
(A) Credit cards
(B) Loan against gold from financial institute
(C) Debit cards
(D) Money lender
(E) None of these

16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee onfinancial sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee?
(A) Janki Raman
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) K. V. Kamath
(E) None of these

17. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry?
(A) Risk management
(B) Manpower planning
(C) Retirement benefits for the employees
(D) Corporate Governance
(E) None of these

18. What is meant by ‘Underwriting’ the term frequently used in financial sector?
(A) Under valuation of the assets
(B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee
(C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan
(D) The act of permission to float an IPO
(E) None of these

19. The government of India recently constituted the New Finance Commission (13th). What are its major functions? To decide-
1. The salary structure of the employees of the Central Government.
2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between states and Central Govt.
3. Rate of Income Tax and other taxes collected by the Union Govt.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

20. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which registered its victory in tri-series ODI matches against Australia played in March 2008?
(A) M.S. Dhoni
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) Sachin Tendulkar

21. Mr. Nicolas Sarkozy who was the chief guest during the Republic Day Function 2008 is the-
(A) President of Brazil
(B) Prime Minister of Brazil
(C) President of France
(D) Prime Minister of France
(E) Foreign Secretary of USA

22. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia after the General elections held there in February 2008?
(A) Boris Tadic
(B) Tomislav Nicolic
(C) Samak Sundaravej
(D) Novak Djokovic
(E) None of these

23. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the US-India Business Council is the CEO of which of the following Companies?
(A) Pepsi Co.
(B) Infosys
(C) Tata Consultancy Services
(D) NIIT
(E) None of these

24. Maria Sharapova won the Australian Open 2008 Women’s singles by defeating-
(A) Shahar Peer
(B) Kateryna Bondarenko
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) Ana Ivanovic

25. Saina Nehwal won the Seniors’ Championship match of which of the following games held in Goa in January 2008?
(A) Golf
(B) Tennis
(C) Table tennis
(D) Archery
(E) Badminton

26. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture ‘SPV’. What is the full form of ‘SPV’?
(A) Small Power Venture
(B) Special Purpose Vehicle
(C) Special Power Venture
(D) Small Purpose Vehicle
(E) None of these

27. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recently agreed to allow foreign direct investment in the field of mobile television services. Upto what extent FDI is allowed in this field?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 64%
(D) 70%
(E) 74%

28. As per the performance assessment data released by the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) in January 2008. Which of the following sectors registered a growth of 3.6 per cent?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Banking Sector
(C) Tourism Sector
(D) Aviation Services Sector
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which bring lot of disaster?
(A) Trade winds
(B) Hurricane
(C) Cirrus
(D) Stratus
(E) None of these

30. The Global Employment Trends Report 2008 published by the International Labour Organization has indicated that there may be increase in global unemployment. What according to them is/are the major reasons of this possibility?
1. Turmoil in Credit Markets all over the world.
2. Rise in oil prices in international market.
3. Civil unrest in some under and undeveloped nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these

31. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace?
1. These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation.
2. These banks wish to help Indian firms to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates.
3. These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3

32. Many economists, bankers and researchers in India often advocate that banks should equip themselves for new challenges. These challenges are in which of the following shapes/forms?
1. As Indian economy is getting increasingly integrated with the rest of the world the demand of the Corporate banking is likely to change in terms of size, composition of services and also the quality.
2. The growing foreign trade in India will have to be financed by the local banks.
3. Foreigners are habitual of the comforts provided by the technology. India has to do a lot in this reference.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

33. As per the reports published in the newspapers Indian Rupee is now fully accepted in Asian countries like, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia etc. What does it really mean?
1. Anybody from Asian country can purchase Indian Rupee and keep it in his/her bank account in his/her country without any restrictions.
2. Now people in these nations are not required to go for a double conversion first in dollar and then in rupee.
3. People travelling European/Asian countries can make their payments in rupee anywhere without any problem.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

34. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term?
(A) Credit wrap
(B) EMI
(C) Held to Maturity
(D) Exposure limit
(E) Diffusion

35. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions?
1. Providing subsidy to agriculture.
2. Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations.
3. Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

36. The Technology Mission on Cotton was launched during Xth plan. The scheme was designed to get increase in production of cotton by which of the following levels by the end of the plan?
(A) 100 lakh bales
(B) 150 lakh bales
(C) 175 lakh bales
(D) 200 lakh bales
(E) None of these

37. A National Development Fund was created by the Government of India a few years ago. What was the purpose of the fund?
1. Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and employment.
2. Capital investments in selected profitable PSEs to yield adequate returns.
3. To fund revision in pay structure of Central Government employees.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

38. Olympic 2008 are scheduled to be held in-
(A) Paris
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) None of these

39. The general elections took place in which of the following countries in March 2008?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) Sri Lanka

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Economic Nightmare of India’?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) K. Rajeshwar Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Jyoti Basu
(E) None of these

41. As per the targets for 11th plan educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of the following levels?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 9%

42. ‘Long Walk’ to Freedom’ is a book written by-
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) L. K. Advani
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Benazir Bhutto
(E) Nawaz Sheriff

43. India recently signed a pact with which of the following countries on solving the problems of Indian labour in that country?
(A) Iran
(B) UAE
(C) Malaysia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following countries is trying to launch a Satellite to study the sun?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) None of these

45. Jang Hyun Jong who was adjudged as the ‘Asian Hockey Player of the year’ is from-
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these

46. Who amongst the following is the winner of Padma Vibhushan Awards given away recently?
(A) Rahul Gandhi
(B) Priya Dutt
(C) Vinod Dua
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following films was adjudged ‘Best Film’ in 14th Star Screen Awards given away in January 2008?
(A) Om Shanti Om
(B) Guru
(C) Taare Zameen Par
(D) Jab We Met
(E) Chak De India

48. A meeting of the European Leaders was held in January 2008 at which of the following places to discuss ‘Global Economic Turmoil’?
(A) London
(B) New Delhi
(C) New York
(D) Tokyo
(E) Milan

49. Castro Sibling is the new President of-
(A) Romania
(B) Cuba
(C) Israel
(D) Venezuela
(E) None of these

50. Kosovo declared itself independent from which of the following countries?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Croatia
(C) Serbia
(D) Russia
(E) None of these

Answers:

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D) According to Economic Survey 2007-08, the percentage growth in bank credit is 21.5%. 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (E) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (E) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (E) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (E) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (E) 48. (A) 49. (E) 50. (E)

UPPSC GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

General Studies

1. Which one of the following regions of India is highly affected by soil erosion ?
(A) Malwa Palteau
(B) U. P. Tarai
(C) Andhra Coast
(D) Chambal Valley

2. Which one of the following four Foreign Banks operating in India, has the largest number of branches in the country ?
(A) City Bank
(B) BNP Paribus Bank
(C) Standard Chartered Bank
(D) HSBC

3. The Mandal Commission whose suggestions have given rise to unabated controversy, was constituted by—
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Vishwa Nath Pratap Singh

4. Recently Pt. Bhimsen Joshi, the renowned classical singer, has been awarded—
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Kalidas Samman
(C) Padma Bhushan
(D) Padma Shri

5. Match the following : Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) Gold
(b) Coal
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
1. Khetri
2. Kolar
3. Kudremukh
4. Jharia
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 4 1 3

6. Select the State from amongst the following, with the maximum number of wild-life sanctuaries.
(National Park and Sanctuaries)
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

7. The National Environment Engineering Institute is located in—
(A) Cuttack
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Nagpur
(D) Ranchi

8. Name the Governor of Reserve Bank of India who also became Finance Minister—
(A) H. M. Patel
(B) C. D. Desmukh
(C) C. Subramaniam
(D) Sachin Chaudhari

9. The winner of Booker Prize for the year 2008 was—
(A) Amitav Ghosh
(B) Arvind Adiga
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Sebastian Berry

10. The G-8 group of countries includes—
(A) Britain, China, Germany and Japan
(B) Britain, Japan, South Africa and USA
(C) Britain, France, China and Russia
(D) Britain, Canada, Germany and Italy

11. From the list given below, select the one which is declared a ‘‘World Heritage Site’’.
(A) Corbett National Park
(B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(C) Rajaji National Park
(D) Gir Forest

12. Cardamom hills lie along the border of—
(A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(D) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

13. Damodar is a tributory of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Region)
(a) Badam Pahar
(b) Kodarma
(c) Masabani
(d) Rava


List-II (Mineral)

1. Copper
2. Iron ore
3. Petroleum
4. Mica
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 4 1 3

15. From the list given below, name the T. V. channel which will cover Engineering and Technology subjects :
(A) Vigyan Darshan
(B) Eklavya
(C) Parivartan
(D) Avishkar

16. The population of a town is 17,71,561. If it had been increasing at 10% per annum, its population 6 years ago was—
(A) 13,31,000
(B) 12,10,000
(C) 11,00,000
(D) 10,00,000

17. If an electric train is moving from North to South, in which direction will smoke from the engine go ?
(A) South-East
(B) North-East
(C) No smoke
(D) South-North

18. Find the missing number in the following figure :


(A) 139
(B) 81
(C) 121
(D) 93

19. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I (States)
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal
List-II (Governors)
1. G. K. Gandhi
2. S. C. Jamir
3. R. L. Bhatia
4. N. D. Tiwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 4 1

20. Before being elected as US President Barack Obama was Senator from—
(A) Colorado
(B) Florida
(C) Georgia
(D) Illinois

21. If ‘PRINT’ is coded as ‘RUMSZ’, then the code for ‘‘DRINK’’ will be—
(A) FUMSP
(B) FUMSQ
(C) GUMSR
(D) GUMSP

22. The missing number in
0, 4, 18, 48, 100, ………
(A) 170
(B) 180
(C) 196
(D) 216

23. In the following sequence of boxes, the values of X and Y are—


(A) X = f, Y = 200
(B) X = f, Y = 250
(C) X = g, Y = 290
(D) X = g, Y = 343



24. The value of x in the equation is—
(A) 42
(B) 35
(C) 21
(D) 27

25. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%

26. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 6 : 5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years ?
(A) 7 : 6
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 8 : 7
(D) 9 : 8

27. A room is 12 metre long, 9 metre broad and 8 metre high. The length of the longest bamboo pole that can be placed in it will be—
(A) 17 metre
(B) 16 metre
(C) 15 metre
(D) 14 metre

28. In the circle below- AB = 16 cms, OC = 6 cms then the radius of the circle is—
(A) 6 cms
(B) 8.5 cms
(C) 10 cms
(D) 12.5 cms

29. A train starts from station A with some passengers. At station B 10% of the passengers get down and 100 passengers get in. At station C 50% get dwon and 25 get in. At station D 50% get down and 50 get in making the total number of passengers 200. The number of passengers who boarded the train at station A was—
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700

30. In the above figure, the circle represents ‘‘the powerful’’, the square represents ‘‘the rich’’, and the triangle represents ‘‘the leaders’’. How many are with all the three characteristics ?


(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8

31. The missing number in the following series :
4, 8, 9, 27, 16, 64, ……, 125 is—
(A) 90
(B) 35
(C) 25
(D) 20

32. If x–1 – 1 is divided by x – 1, then the quotient is—

33. In the above diagram, three circles represent businessmen, politicians and the educated respectively. The intersections of the circles give us the numbered space. No. 7 refers to—
(A) Some politicians are educated businessmen
(B) Some educated are businessmen
(C) Some educated are politicians
(D) Some businessmen are politicians

34. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Temples)
(a) Dashavtar Temple
(b) Baba Somnath Temple
(c) Shringi Rishi Temple
(d) Varah Bhagwan Temple
List-II (Districts)
1. Etah
2. Farrukhabad
3. Deoria
4. Lalitpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

35. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Centre)
(a) Aonla
(b) Modinagar
(c) Barabanki
(d) Kanpur
List-II (Industry)
1. Polyfibre
2. Fertilizer
3. Rubber
4. Explosives
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1

36. Match List-I with List-II and choose your correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I
(a) Munshi Insha Alla Khan
(b) Babu Devki Nandan Khatri
(c) Pt. Pratap Narain Misra
(d) Jai Shankar Prasad
List-II
1. Hathi Hamir
2. Kankal
3. Kajar ki Kothri
4. Udaibhan Charit
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4

37. Arrange the following four districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order with regard to Scheduled Tribes population as per 2001 Census. Choose your correct answer with the help of given codes :
1. Sharavasti
2. Balrampur
3. Bahraich
4. Kheri
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 4, 3, 2 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 2, 4, 1 and 3

38. Folk drama ‘‘Rahula’’ is associated with one of the following regions of U. P. ?
(A) Eastern Region
(B) Western Region
(C) Central Region
(D) Bundelkhand Region 39. The U. P. Financial Corporation does not finance—
(A) The acquisition of permanent assets
(B) Tourism related industries
(C) Long-term working capital requirements
(D) Handloom industries

40. Amir Khusrau played a pioneering role in the development of—
(A) Brij Bhasha
(B) Awadhi
(C) Khari Boli
(D) Bhojpuri

41. Which one of the following crop cycles is considered most suitable for Eastern U. P. ?
(A) Rice/Maize-Wheat
(B) Maize-Potato-Moong
(C) Maize-Rape-Wheat
(D) Cotton-Wheat-Moong

42. Every year a fair is held at the tomb of famous Sufi saint Haji Waris Ali Shah at—
(A) Fatehpur Sikri
(B) Kaliar
(C) Deva Shareef
(D) Garhmukteshwar

43. The functions of the Department of Culture set up to look after the historical, ancient and artistic wealth of UP do not include—
(A) Its preservation and exhibition
(B) Its publication
(C) Its documentation
(D) Its sale

44. Consider the following as objectives of the New Science and Technology Policy, 2003 and state which is/are correctly stated, with the help of codes given below :
1. Optimal utilisation of existing physical and knowledge resources.
2. Development of innovative technologies.
3. Development of system and technologies for mitigation and management of natural hazards.
4. Management of intellectual property.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) All the four

45. Which of the following are the main objective(s) of the Sharda Sahayak Command Development Project ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. To increase agricultural production.
II. To change the land use pattern through multiple cropping.
III. To improve land management.
Codes :
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) All the above three

46. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I (Ancient Janpads of U. P.)
(a) Kuru
(b) Panchal
(c) Koshal
(d) Vats
List-II (Capitals)
1. Saket
2. Kaushambi
3. Ahichchatra
4. Indraprastha
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1

47. Hydrogen gas can be conveniently used as a fuel for running vehicles it is absorbed at very low temperature by a substance only to be released at the temperature generated by the exhaust. What is that substance found in India ?
(A) Hydrites
(B) Coals
(C) Soap stone
(D) Resins

48. Radar is used mainly for—
(A) Detecting objects by using light waves
(B) Reflecting sound waves to detect objects
(C) Determining the presence and location of objects with radio waves
(D) Tracking rain bearing clouds

49. The globally programmed ‘‘Human Genome Project’’ deals with—
(A) Establishment of a society of super-humans
(B) Identifiction of races based on apartheid
(C) Genetic improvement of human races
(D) Identification and mapping of human genes and gene sequence

50. Which one of the following is the bioethically non-controversial source of stem cells as an alternative to the highly controversial embryonic stem cells ?
(A) Bone marrow-derived stem cells
(B) Amniotic fluid derived stem cells
(C) Blood of foetus
(D) Blood of babies

51. The Minamata disease of Japan in 1953 was caused by eating fish contaminated by—
(A) Nickel
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Cadmium

52. Identify a non-CSIR Institute situated at Lucknow in U. P.—
(A) I. I. S. R.
(B) N. B. R. I.
(C) C-MAP
(D) I. T. R. C.

53. Select with the help of the codes given below, the components of Green Revolution :
1. High yielding variety seeds
2. Irrigation
3. Rural Electrification
4. Rural roads and marketing
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) All the four

54. Which one of the following forms an irreversible complex with haemoglobin of the blood ?
(A) Carbon di-oxide
(B) Pure Nitrogen gas
(C) Carbon-mono-oxide
(D) A mixture of carbon dioxide and helium

55. Given :
1. Blood cells
2. Bone cells
3. Hair strands
4. Saliva
Samples taken for DNA testing in criminal investigation can be—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. The 21st Winter Olympics is going to be held in—
(A) Moscow
(B) Oslo
(C) Vacouver
(D) Ottawa

57. The winner of 121st Durand Cup, 2008 was—
(A) Churchill Brothers
(B) J. C. T. Mills
(C) Mahindra United
(D) Sporting Club de Goa

58. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Abhinav Bindra—Shooting
(B) Michael Phelps—Swimming
(C) Maria Sharapova—Badminton
(D) Mohammad Asif—Cricket

59. How many gold medals Michael Phelps won in Beijing Olympics ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8

60. In 2010 FIFA 19thWorld Cup Football Tournament will be held in—
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) South Africa
(D) Spain

61. India is developing Cryogenic Technology. Which Country/Agency from amongst the following does not possess this technology ?
(A) European Space Agency
(B) Brazil
(C) United States of America (USA)
(D) Japan

62. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Shenzhou-7, the Chinese spacecraft ?
A) It was manned by four astronauts
(B) It was launched by a LongMarch 2F rocket
(C) It was for the first time that the Chinese astronauts performed spacewalk
(D) The astronauts returned safely to earth

63. India won Junior Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, held in July 2008 in Hyderabd, by defeating which country in the final ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Pakistan
(C) Japan
(D) China

64. The winner of U. S. Open 2008, Women’s Singles, was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Elena Dementieva
(C) Jalena Jankovic
(D) Serena Williams

65. In 2008 Sachin Tendulkar broke the recored of Brian Lara for most runs in Test Cricket, while playing against Australia in—
(A) Bangalore Test
(B) Mohali Test
(C) Nagpur Test
(D) New Delhi Test

66. ‘‘The Himalayan Mountaineering Institute’’ is located at—
(A) Uttarkashi
(B) Dehradun
(C) Darjeeling
(D) Shillong

67. The mascot of the 19th Commonwealth Games, to be held in 2010 in New Delhi, is—
(A) Shera
(B) Chital
(C) Cheetah
(D) Bhaloo

68. Who has been given the ‘‘Cricketer of the year Award’’ by the ICC in September 2008 ?
(A) D. Steyn
(B) G. Smith
(C) S. Chanderpaul
(D) S. Tendulkar

69. The winner of the World Junior Badminton Championship, held in Pune in October-November 2008, was—
(A) Gurusai Dutt
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Sayako Sato
(D) Shixian Wang

70. Among the following greenhouse gases, which does not cause ozone pollution in troposphere ?
(A) Methane
(B) Carbon mono-oxide
(C) Nitrogen oxides (NOX)
(D) Water vapours

71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
(a) Stethoscope
(b) Sphygno-manometer
(c) Caratometer
(d) Lux meter
List-II
1. To measure intensity of light
2. To check purity of gold
3. To hear heart sound
4. To measure blood pressure
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

72. ‘‘Radioactive dating’’ is a technique which can be used to measure—
(A) The age of rocks
(B) Composition of rocks
(C) Colour of rocks
(D) Weight of rocks

73. ‘Euro norms’ are meant for—
(A) Regulating vehicular speed
(B) Classifying size of the vehicle
(C) Regulating vehicular emission of harmful gases
(D) Specifying power of the engine

74. The disease caused by swelling of the membrane over spinal cord and brain is—
(A) Leukaemia
(B) Paralysis
(C) Sclerosis
(D) Meningitis

75. Which of the following statements are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. ‘‘Athletic’s foot’’ is a disease caused by virus.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3

76. The ‘Ring of Fire’ is associated with—
1. Earthquake
2. Volcanoes
3. Pacific Ocean
4. Forest Fires
Choose your answer with the help of codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

77. When does heart rest ?
(A) Never
(B) While sleeping
(C) Between two beats
(D) While doing yoga

78. If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a few hours, the room temperature—
(A) Will decrease
(B) Will increase
(C) Will remain the same
(D) Will decrease only in the area in the vicinity of the refrigerator

79. Match the pollutants with their long-term effects with the help of the given code : Pollutants
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Oxides of Nitrogen
(c) Soil particles
(d) Lead
Effects
1. Damage to lever and kidney
2. Cancer
3. Ailments related to breathing
4. Central nervous system
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2

80. Electric motors operating at low voltages tend to burn out because—
(A) They draw more current which is inversely proportional to the voltage
(B) They draw more current which is inversely proportional to the square root of the voltage
(C) They draw heat proportional to v2
(D) Low voltage sets in electrical discharge

81. Which one of the following sites has yielded the cultural remains from Neolithic to Harappan period ?
(A) Amri
(B) Mehrgarh
(C) Kotdiji
(D) Kalibangan

82. Mother of Gautam Buddha belonged to which dynasty ?
(A) Shakya dynasty
(B) Maya dynasty
(C) Lichchavi dynasty
(D) Koliya dynasty

83. Who became the first follower of Mahavira ?
(A) Jamalis
(B) Yashoda
(C) Aanojja
(D) Trishala

84. Which one of the following Buddhist texts speaks of the ‘‘Sixteen Mahajanapadas’’ ?
(A) Anguttar Nikaya
(B) Majjhim Nikaya
(C) Khuddaka Nikaya
(D) Digha Nikaya

85. Earliest evidence of rice cultivation in the Ganga valley has been found at—
(A) Lahuradeva
(B) Senuwar
(C) Sohgaura
(D) Kaushambi

86. Name the Pala King who founded the Vikramshila University—
(A) Dharmapala
(B) Devapala
(C) Ramapala
(D) Gopala

87. In which of the following conditions wet clothes will dry earliest?
(A) 100% RH, 60°C temperature
(B) 100% RH, 20°C temperature
(C) 20% RH, 20°C temperature
(D) 20% RH, 60°C temperature

88. Which rock-shelter in India bears largest number of paintings ?
(A) Ghagharia
(B) Bhimbetka
(C) Lekhahia
(D) Adamgarh

89. In which battle did Mohammad Ghori defeat Jaichand ?
(A) Battle of Tarain (1191 AD)
(B) Battle of Tarain (1192 AD)
(C) Battle of Chandawar (1194 AD)
(D) Battle of Kannauj (1194 AD)

90. Which medieval Indian ruler started the system of ‘‘Patta’’ and ‘‘Qabuliyat’’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Akbar

91. In whose reign was the ‘‘Treaty of Chittor’’ signed between the Mughals and Rana of Mewar ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jehangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb

92. In the Vedic period, which animal was known as ‘‘Aghanya’’ ?
(A) Bull
(B) Sheep
(C) Cow
(D) Elephant

93. Who among the following British Officers lost their lives at Lucknow ?
1. General John Nicholson
2. General Neill
3. Major General Havelock
4. Sir Henry Lawrence
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

94. ‘‘Jiatrang Movement’’ started in—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Tripura
(C) Manipur
(D) Mizoram

95. Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association founded in 1928 ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Delhi
(C) Allahabad
(D) Lahore

96. Who addressed Gandhiji as the ‘‘Father of the Nation’’ for the first time ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

97. The Ghadar Party was formed in—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) England
(D) United States of America

98. Arrange the following in chronological order. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Non-Cooperation Movement
2. Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Khilafat Movement
4. Quit India Movement
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1

99. In which of the following sessions of Indian National Congress. Mahatma Gandhi had said, ‘‘Gandhi may die but Gandhism will remain forever.’’?
(A) Ramgarh Session, 1940
(B) Lahore Session, 1929
(C) Calcutta Session, 1928
(D) Karachi Session, 1931

100. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review—
(A) the relations between the President and the Prime Minister
(B) the relations between the Legislature and the Executive
(C) the relations between the Executive and the Judiciary
(D) The relations between the Union and the States

101. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘Soul’ of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

102. The Supreme Court of India is a ‘Court of Record’. It implies that—
(A) It has to keep a record of its decisions
(B) All its decisions have evidentiary value and cannot be questioned in any court
(C) It has the power to punish for its contempt
(D) No appeal can be made against its decisions

103. We have a system of Judicial Review in—
(A) Indian only
(B) U. K. only
(C) U. S. A. only
(D) Both in India and U. S. A.

104. Under which Article of Indian Constitution, President of India enjoys power to withhold his assent on any Bill ?
(A) Article 63
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 109
(D) Article 111

105. Which one of the following States had the lowest per capita income at current prices in the year 2004-05 ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh

106. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) was launched initially in 200 districts. In the budget for 2007-08, it was proposed to extend it to—
(A) 280 districts
(B) 300 districts
(C) 310 districts
(D) 330 districts

107. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : There has been a growing demand for review of Centre-State relationship. Reason (R) : The States have no adequate resources to take up developmental projects. In the light of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

108. Among the services sector, which has the highest share in India’s GDP in 2006 ?
(A) Trade, Hotels, Transport and Communications
(B) Finance, Insurance, Real estate and Business Services
(C) Community, social and personal services
(D) Construction of buildings

109. According to the Approach Paper of the 11th Five Year Plan, with the achievement of targeted growth rate and population growing at 1•5 per cent per annum, the real income of the average Indian would double in—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years

110. Indian Economy has witnessed highest growth rate in GDP in the year—
(A) 2003-04
(B) 2004-05
(C) 2005-06
(D) 2006-07

111. Savings ratio in India at present (2006-07) stands at—
(A) between 20 to 25 per cent of GDP
(B) between 25 to 30 per cent of GDP
(C) between 30 to 32 per cent of GDP
(D) above 32 per cent of GDP

112. HAL is related to manufacturing of—
(A) Telecommunication equipments
(B) Aircrafts
(C) Space missiles
(D) War missiles

113. Which one of the following is not the problem of Small Scale Industries (SSIs) ?
(A) Finances
(B) Marketing
(C) Raw materials
(D) Strikes and lockouts

114. The concept of ‘‘Navratna’’ is associated with—
(A) selected categories of technical manpower
(B) selected export-oriented units
(C) selected food-processing industries
(D) selected Public Sector Enterprises

115. Market in gilt-edged is related to trade in—
(A) metals
(B) debentures
(C) Government Securities
(D) Arms

116. Black soil of India is highly suited for the production of—
(A) Cotton crop
(B) Paddy crop
(C) Sugarcane crop
(D) Wheat crop

117. Which one of the following is evergreen fruit plant ?
(A) Apple
(B) Almond
(C) Peach
(D) Loquat

118. Which one of the following is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Pea
(C) Rice
(D) Spinach

119. Which one of the following agriculture practices is ecofriendly ?
(A) Cultivation of high yielding varieties
(B) Growing plants in glass houses
(C) Shifting cultivation
(D) Organic farming

120. The word ‘‘Actuaries’’ is related to—
(A) Banking
(B) Insurance
(C) Share-market
(D) None of the above

121. Capital Market means—
(A) share market
(B) commodity market
(C) money market
(D) All of the above

122. Sarnath Stambh was built by—
(A) Harshwardhan
(B) Ashok
(C) Gautam Buddha
(D) Kanishka

123. This is related to the culture of dance—
(A) Khyal and Baj Lucknow
(B) Banarsi Raj
(C) Rampur Darbar
(D) Agra Gharana

124. ‘Karagam’ a religious folk-dance is associated with—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka

125. The propounder of Yog Philosophy is—
(A) Patanjali
(B) Yogi Gorakhnath
(C) Swami Ramdev
(D) Shankaracharya

126. Which States of India have derived maximum benefits from green revolution ?
(A) Bihar, West Bengal and Assam
(B) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Punjab, Haryana & Wastern U. P.
(D) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala

127. In which of the following years, foodgrain production had a negative growth-rate ?
(A) 2001-02
(B) 2003-04
(C) 2004-05
(D) 2005-06

128. In which of the years given below, growth-rate of Indian exports was highest ?
(A) 2002-03
(B) 2003-04
(C) 2004-05
(D) 2005-06

129. In the year 2004-05, following groups had important share in India’s imports :
1. Fuel
2. Capital goods
3. Gold and silver
4. Chemicals
Arrange the aforesaid items in descending order in terms of their percentage share and choose your answer with the help of given codes :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

130. During the period 1991-92, the decadal growth of population (in percentage terms) was lowest in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh

131. Who among the following has been conferred with Forbes Lifetime Achievement Award, 2008 ?
(A) Ratan Tata
(B) Lakshmi Mittal
(C) B. K. Birla
(D) Bill Gates

132. During 2004-05, which one of the following had the highest share in India’s exports ?
(A) Agriculture and allied products
(B) Ores and minerals
(C) Manufactured goods
(D) Petroleum products

133. Consider following statements as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Uttar Pradesh has the largest concentration of India’s population. Reason (R) : It is also the most densely populated State of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and(R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

134. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) There has been continuous decline of sex-ratio since 1901 onwards
(B) Highest sex-ratio is observed during the Census of 1901
(C) Lowest sex-ratio has been recorded during the Census of 2001
(D) Maximum decline in the sex-ratio has been recorded during the decade of 1991-2001

135. Arrange the following States of India is descending order of their population-size and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Maharashtra
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 3, 2, 4, 1
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4

136. Which of the following statements are true about the Rajasthan Desert ? Use the codes given below to select the correct answer :
1. It is the most densely populated desert of the world.
2. It is about 10,000 years old mainly caused by excessive human interference.
3. Here only 40 to 60 per cent of the area is suitable for farming.
4. The increase in net sown area has adversely affected the coverage of grazing lands.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

137. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Maharashtra is the most urbanised State of the country.
2. Urban growth along the coast is converting the area into a concrete jungle.
3. From Mumbai to Ahmedabad, the largest megalopolis of the country is in the offing.
4. Cities are full of slums and highly polluted.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

138. Among the following places which one gets the least rainfall ?
(A) Bikaner
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Leh

139. Which one of the following races is correctly matched ?
(A) Hemites—Uganda
(B) Semites—Malaysia
(C) Sakai—Sudan
(D) Bushman—Botswana

140. In India, the two most urbanised States are—
(A) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
(C) Goa and Mizoram
(D) Gujarat and Karnataka

141. More than one-fourth of India’s urban population lives in the two States of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh

142. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Copenhagen—Denmark
(B) Berlin—Germany
(C) Paris—France
(D) Oslo—Norway

143. The equator passes through—
(A) Ca6meroon
(B) Costa Rica
(C) Kenya
(D) Venezuela

144. Which one of the following ports is not located on the eastern coast of India ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Kandla
(C) Paradwip
(D) Tuticorin

145. According to Census 2001,the percentage of urban population in India, is—
(A) 27.3
(B) 27.8
(C) 28.3
(D) 28.8

146. According to Census 2001, which one of the following States has the highest literacy ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) West Bangal

147. Which one of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappah system
(D) Vindhyan System

148. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : Inland waterways are not well developed in India. Reason (R) : Most parts of India receive rainfall only for four months in a year. Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

149. The Asteroids are small celestial bodies in the solar system which are found between the planets—
(A) Mercury and Venus
(B) Mars and Jupiter
(C) Jupiter and Saturn
(D) Neptune and Saturn

150. Bisrampur is famous for the mining of—
(A) Copper ore
(B) Iron ore
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

Answers:

1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C) 51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (C) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (A) 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (D) 101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (B) 106. (D) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D) 111. (D) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (D) 115. (C) 116. (A) 117. (D) 118. (D) 119. (D) 120. (B) 121. (A) 122. (B) 123. (C) 124. (B) 125. (A) 126. (C) 127. (C) 128. (C) 129. (A) 130. (C) 131. (B) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (A) 137. (C) 138. (D) 139. (D) 140. (C) 141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (C)

MPSC Livestock Development Officer Screening Test 2011 Key