R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2009

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008Public Administration : Solved Paper(Held on 7-1-2009)

1. Which of the following theories focuses on informal organization and participative management ?
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Scientific Management Theory
(C) Behavioural Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans : (A)

2. “Until administrative description reaches a higher level of sophistication, there is little reason to hope that rapid progress will be made towards the identification and verification of valid administrative principles.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Leonard White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following attempts to construct a theory of public organization in tune with consumer interests and individual preferences ?
(A) Development Administration Approach
(B) Public Choice Approach
(C) Co-optation Concept
(D) Behavioural Approach
Ans : (B)

4. Who theorized that ‘Every person has certain basic assumptions about other people’s attitude toward work and organization.’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Frederick Herzberg
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following has been termed as the biological parent of Public Administration ?
(A) Sociology
(B) Political Science
(C) Business Administration
(D) Psychology
Ans : (B)


6. The central theme of Comparative Public Administration is—
(A) Administrative structure
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Citizen-Administration Relations
(D) Leadership
Ans : (B)

7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Theme)
(a) Job Enrichment
(b) Mechanical Study of the Process
(c) Human Dimensions
(d) Social Equity Attitude
List-II (Thinker)
1. D. Waldo
2. W. F. Willoughby
3. F. Herzberg
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (A)

8. The most preferred perspective to distinguish public and private in administration is—
(A) Agency
(B) Interest
(C) Access
(D) Commitment
Ans : (B)

9. “Lack of courage to delegate properly and of knowledge how to do it is one of the most general causes of failure in organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Lyndall Urwick
(C) Paul H. Appleby
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans : (A)

10. Who was the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group 1963 ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Franc Marini
Ans : (C)

11. Politicisation of bureaucracy means—
(A) Responding to the will of the government of every complexion
(B) Sacrificing professional norms for party consideration
(C) Supporting party ideology
(D) Attending party assemblies
Ans : (B)

12. “In the past the man was first. In the future the system will be the first.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Marshall Dimock
(D) Leonard White
Ans : (B)

13. Rensis Likert’s System I is characterised by—
(A) Supportive Leadership
(B) Low Motivation
(C) Self Regulation
(D) Openness
Ans : (B)

14. The basic premise of New Public Management is—
(A) Governments as the primary agent of all social action
(B) Large governmental bureaucracies
(C) More flexible and open governments
(D) Paternal governments
Ans : (C)

15. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Direct Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Functional Authority
(d) Personal Authority
List-II
1. Seniority
2. Unbroken line between Issuer and Acceptor
3. An Intermediate Agency between Issuer and Acceptor
4. Intrinsic by special knowledge
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (C)

16. According to Mary Parker Follett, the principles of effective coordination are—
(a) Intellectual Ability
(b) Continuity
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Mutual Consultation
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

17. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has attacked—
(a) Notion of Unchanging Principles of Administration
(b) Human Emotions in Organization
(c) Narrowness of Values of Economy and Efficiency
(d) Inconsistencies in Methodology used in determining the principles
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)

18. Human Relations Theory believed that the people are—
(A) Economic Men
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Heterogeneous
(D) Atomistic
Ans : (C)

19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Substantive Coordination
(b) Internal Coordination
(c) Horizontal Coordination
(d) Procedural Coordination
List-II
1. Between Units in the same level
2. Between different units within the organisation
3. Generalised description of the behaviour and relationship of the members of the organization
4. Content of the organization’s activities
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

20. The linking process for interaction under systems approach does not include—
(A) Communication
(B) Delegation
(C) Balance
(D) Decision Making
Ans : (B)

21. “Work division is the foundation of organization, indeed, the reason for organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Mary Parker Follett
Ans : (C)

22. The semantic barrier to communication is not—
(A) Environment
(B) Distracting Noise
(C) Distance
(D) Poor Listening Habits
Ans : (C)

23. The Bills which can be introduced but cannot be considered without the prior recommendation of the President is—
(A) Money Bills under Article 110
(B) Financial Bills not consisting solely of matters specified in Article 110
(C) Ordinary Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
(D) Bills affecting taxes in which States are interested
Ans : (C)

24. New Public Administration shares this feature with Development Administration—
(A) Effective coordination
(B) Change orientation
(C) Temporal Dimension
(D) Ecological Perspective
Ans : (B)

25. “As long as the study of Public Administration is not comparative, claims for a science of Public Administration is rather hollow.” Who said it ?
(A) Fred Riggs
(B) Max Weber
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Ferrel Heady
Ans : (C)

26. In Britain the ‘Priestly formula’ relates to—
(A) Recruitment
(B) Promotion
(C) Pay
(D) Disciplinary Action
Ans : (B)

27. Whitley Council in UK is not a forum for—
(A) Discussion and Negotiation
(B) Ventilation of Grievances
(C) Settlement of Disputes on Service Conditions
(D) Settlement of Individual cases relating to Promotion & Disciplinary Action
Ans : (D)

28. “Neutral bureaucracy can be found only in a secular political culture.” Who said it ?
(A) M. E. Dimock
(B) Glenn Stahl
(C) G. A. Almond
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)

29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Monte Carlo
(b) Gambler
(c) Synetics
(d) Contract
List-II (Meaning)
1. Generation of Alternative Solutions
2. Narrow Form of Simulation
3. Formal Basis of Authority
4. To take Greater Risk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)

30. The most effective means of citizens’ control over administration is—
(A) Elections
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

31. The U.S. President’s principal staff agency in fiscal, legislative and administrative management is—
(A) Bureau of the Budget
(B) The Office of Management and Budget
(C) Department of the Treasury
(D) White House Office
Ans : (B)

32. Which of the following is not a feature of U.S. personnel system ?
(A) Competitive Service
(B) Lateral Entry
(C) Post-entry Training
(D) Rule of Three
Ans : (B)

33. Grants from Centre to the States are regulated by the following Articles of the Constitution—
(A) 268, 269, 270, 272
(B) 270, 271, 274
(C) 273, 275, 282
(D) 275, 282, 287
Ans : (A)

34. The expectancy theory of motivation depends upon the employee’s perception of the relationship between—
(A) Need, Performance and Achievement
(B) Effort, Performance and Reward
(C) Desire, Performance and Response
(D) Preference, Performance and Action
Ans : (B)

35. Who referred the interaction between politicians and administrators as ‘administrative politics’ ?
(A) Michael Murray
(B) Michael Crozier
(C) David Rosenblom
(D) Peter Self
Ans : (D)

36. The techniques applied in performance appraisal in U.S.A. are—
(a) Rating Scale
(b) Critical Incidents
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced Distribution
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

37. The political rights granted to the Civil Servants in France are—
(a) Right to become member of a political party
(b) Right to participate in political activities
(c) Right to criticise government’s policies
(d) Right to contest elections to any representative office
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

38. The functions performed by the then Secretary to the Governor-General before Independence are now performed by—
(A) Chief Secretary
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (C)

39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Economic Man
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Link Pin Concept
(d) Simulation
List-II
1. Trial and Error Approach to Complex Problems
2. Subordinate becomes a Member of the Superior’s Decision Unit
3. Optimum Decision
4. Graphic Method to see Alternative Solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)

40. In USA the authority to regulate the formation and dissolution of Federal Departments is vested in—
(A) President
(B) Congress
(C) Constitution
(D) President in consultation with the Secretary of State
Ans : (B)

41. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Zone of Acceptance
(b) Zone of Indifference
(c) Span of Attention
(d) Scalar chain
List-II
1. Graicunas
2. Henri Fayol
3. Herbert Simon
4. Chester Barnard
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following, according to Bruce Stone, is not a ‘Bottom-Up’ concept of accountability ?
(A) Parliamentary control
(B) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial Review
(C) Constituency Relationship
(D) Market
Ans : (B)

43. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Civil Service Commission
(b) Recruitment by Promotion
(c) Open Competition
(d) Centralised Recruitment
List-II
1. 1917
2. 1926
3. 1919
4. 1833
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

44. The concept of Citizens’ Charter as a means to greater accountability and openness was first introduced in 1991 in—
(A) USA
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following is not an informal training type ?
(A) Training by Communication
(B) Conference Method
(C) Departmental Training
(D) Syndicate Method
Ans : (D)

46. A grant for meeting an unexpected demand is called—
(A) Supplementary Grant
(B) Votes on Account
(C) Votes on Credit
(D) Exceptional Grant
Ans : (D)

47. “Budget is a document which is unstitched and reassembled by the Appropriation Committees of both the Houses.” This statement of Aaron Wildrasky applies to the budget of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)

48. The best check on bureaucratic power, according to Weber, lies with—
(A) Powerful Private Groups
(B) Strong Bureaucratic leadership
(C) Strong Parliament
(D) Superior Technical Knowledge of the Chief Executive
Ans : (D)

49. ‘If a society is not at all differentiated, if there are no specialists, if everyone can do everything.’ Riggs calls it a—
(A) Society
(B) Prismatic Society
(C) Diffracted Society
(D) Transitional Society
Ans : (B)

50. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Compromiser—poor decision maker
(B) Executive—good motivator
(C) Bureaucrat—control of situation by rules
(D) Developer—interest in harmony, avoids conflicts
Ans : (B)

51. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Books)
(a) The New Science of Management decision
(b) Organization and Innovation
(c) The Achieving Society
(d) Eupsychian Management
List-II (Author)
1. David McClelland
2. Abraham Maslow
3. Chris Argyris
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)

52. ‘The bureaucracy is a circle, which no one can escape, its hierarchy is a hierarchy of knowledge.’ Who said it ?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Blau and Scott
(D) T. Parsons
Ans : (B)

53. Which of the following is an area of Planning Commission ?
(A) Review of the Union and State Finances
(B) Maintaining Macro-economic Stability
(C) Public and Foreign Loans
(D) Suggesting Ways and Means to Restructure Public Finance
Ans : (A)

54. The advantages of a departmental undertaking are—
(a) Optimum Utilisation of Financial Resources
(b) Operational Flexibility
(c) High Degree of Accountability
(d) Autonomy in working
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)

55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Endo-prismatic
(b) Exo-prismatic
(c) Ortho prismatic
(d) Diffracted
List-II
1. Semi differentiated and malintegrated
2. Congruence of aspiration and reality
3. Impetus from outside
4. Internally generated movement towards diffraction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

56. The authority which can make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of India is—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (A)

57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Knowledge Worker
(b) Domination by Organization personality
(c) Action-centred Leadership Theory
(d) Organization as Bureaucracy
List-II (Thinkers)
1. John Adair
2. Max Weber
3. Chester Barnard
4. Peter Drucker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)

58. ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.’ This has been provided in—
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans : (D)

59. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) All India Services
(b) Classification of Civil Services
(c) Regulation of Recruitment and Conditions of Service
(d) General Policies Regarding all Central Services
List-II
1. Parliamentary Act
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Article 312
4. Civil Service Rules 1930
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (B)

60. “Increasing efficiency must begin with those higher ups. This is the essence of scientific management.” Who said it ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Louis Brandis
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Harrington Emerson
Ans : (D)

61. The conditions necessary to ensure that neutrality does not lead to a state of inertia and status-quo maintenance are—
(a) cultural or class congruence between Ruling group and Administrative elite
(b) absence of fundamental disagreement over social core values
(c) active participation in political process
(d) a shared belief system’s presence
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans : (D)

62. Rigg’s concept of development considers penetration as a factor of integration. Consider the following—
(a) The ability of the government to make and carry out decisions.
(b) People’s receptivity to law
(c) People’s will to participate
(d) People’s ability to participate
Which of the above is correct regarding penetration ?
Codes :
(A) (a)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)

63. Who recommended that the National Development Council should be given a constitutional status under Article 263 and renamed as National Economic and Development Council ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) P. J. Rajamannar Committee
(D) Chief Secretary’s Conference
Ans : (B)

64. What falls within the purview of consultation of Union Public Service Commission ?
(a) Direct Appointment
(b) Promotion and Transfer
(c) Pay and Service Conditions
(d) Classification and Training
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)

65. In a State the Chief Secretary acts as—
(a) Principal Adviser to the Governor
(b) Coordinating link in inter-State Disputes
(c) Secretary to the Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of all Planning and Development Coordination Committees
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)

66. Which of the following provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more States ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) 7th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 11th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)

67. Audit of State Government Accounts is a—
(A) State Subject
(B) Union Subject
(C) Subject on Concurrent List
(D) Subject of Fiscal Policy
Ans : (B)

68. The body that examines the expenditure of the Departments and questions the propriety of these expenditures is—
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Committee on Assurances
Ans : (C)

69. Reappropriation is permissible only—
(A) Between voted and charged items of expenditure
(B) Between different grants voted by the Lok Sabha
(C) Within the same grant only
(D) To meet any expenditure not already sanctioned by the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

70. It is a comprehensive account of the receipts and expenditure of the Government under various heads and sub-heads of the Budget—
(A) The Appropriation Account
(B) The Finance Account
(C) Economic Classification of the Budget
(D) Functional Classification of the Budget
Ans : (B)

71. Which of the following statements are true about Lokayukta in Rajasthan ?
(a) He is appointed by the Governor and is responsible to the legislature.
(b) His jurisdiction spans over Ministers, Members of State Legislature and higher Civil Servants.
(c) He considers the cases of corruption and mal administration.
(d) His job is confined to investigate allegations and not grievances.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)

72. Among the critical dimensions of the leadership situation the most important dimension, according to Fiedler, is—
(A) Position Power
(B) Task Structure
(C) Leader-Member Relations
(D) Least Preferred Co-worker
Ans : (D)

73. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Citizen’s Charter
(b) Right to Information
(c) Judicial Control
(d) Legislative Control
List-II
1. Total Quality Approach
2. Accountability for Decision
3. Transparency
4. Guarantee against Arbitrariness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)

74. Which one of the following is not a function of the Directorate ?
(A) Formulation of the Budget of the Department
(B) Inspection of the execution of work by Field Officers
(C) Rendering technical advice to the Minister/Secretary
(D) Coordination of interdepartmental functions
Ans : (A)

75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Injunction—Strong arm of equity
(B) Quo Warranto—Prevents illegal assumption of Public Office
(C) Prohibition—Issued against administrative authorities
(D) Habeas Corpus—The bulwark of individual liberty.
Ans : (C)

76. The recommendation to the Union Government for the grant of financial assistance to the States is made by—
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) The Finance Commission
(d) The Planning Commission
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

77. “It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy.” This statement has a reference to—
(A) Parliamentary System of the Government
(B) Article 40 of the Constitution
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following is not a corporation form ?
(A) Unit Trust of India
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Food Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)

79. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Development Council ?
(a) It symbolises a federal approach to planning.
(b) It was set up by a proposal of the Cabinet Secretariat in August 1952.
(c) It was reconstituted in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.
(d) The initiative to convene its meeting lies with the Planning Commission.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

80. For which form of Public Enterprise it is said that “It is a child of the State which grows into maturity as soon as it is born” ?
(A) Departmental Form
(B) Company Form
(C) Corporation Form
(D) Commission Form
Ans : (C)

81. Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment include—
(A) Three Tier Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for Women up to 1/3 seats
(D) Five Year term for PRIs
Ans : (B)

82. Which of the following is the Central Personnel Agency in India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Department of Personnel and Training
(D) Staff Selection Board
Ans : (C)

83. An urban body in the modern sense was first established in the year—
(A) 1660
(B) 1687
(C) 1951
(D) 1992
Ans : (B)

84. It is not created by an act of State or Union Legislature—
(A) Municipal Corporation
(B) Notified Area Committee
(C) Town Area Committee
(D) Cantonment Board
Ans : (B)

85. The Central Council of Local Government—
(a) is an advisory body.
(b) is constituted under Article 263
(c) Consists of Union Minister for Urban Development and State Ministers for Local Self Government
(d) Controls the Central financial assistance to local bodies
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

86. The Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats in India are mentioned in the Article—
(A) 243 B
(B) 243 D
(C) 243 G
(D) 243 W
Ans : (C)

87. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Miniature District
(b) King-pin of Revenue Administration
(c) Unit for Revenue and Criminal Administration
(d) First Line Supervisor in the chain of Revenue Administration
List-II
1. Sub Division
2. Kanungo
3. Tehsil
4. Patwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)

88. Gram Sabha has been called “Embodiment of Direct Democracy” by—
(A) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) L. M. Singhvi Committee
Ans : (D)

89. The transitional area, smaller urban area, larger urban area are differentiated on the basis of—
(a) population and its density
(b) level of per capita income
(c) revenue generated for local administration
(d) percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

90. With the advent of development administration, the Collector has emerged as—
(A) Symbol of State Power
(B) Head of General Administration
(C) Coordinator of Development Programmes
(D) Executive Head of Development Programmes
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 91–100) The following consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

91. Assertion (A) : The study of Public Administration lacks cross cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognised as science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend the national frontiers and national experiences.
Ans : (C)

92. Assertion (A) : The Contingency approach and the Transactional approach, both are mutually complementary and quite interrelated.
Reason (R) : Unlike the Contingency models, which concentrate only on the problems confronting the leader in dealing with a small group, Transactional approaches also analyse the leader’s subordinates and the problems confronting them.
Ans : (B)

93. Assertion (A) : Like any social science, Public Administration has its own corpus of methodologies.
Reason (R) : Public Administrationists are aware that the central methodologies of the ‘mother discipline’ usually are irrelevant of practising Public Administration.
Ans : (A)

94. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations Theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relations.
Reason (R) : Richard Franke and James Kaul concluded that the human relations were not the reason behind worker’s efficiency.
Ans : (C)

95. Assertion (A) : The Government has no power to regulate, through an appropriate legislation, the recruitment to civil services.
Reason (R) : The Constitution provides for the establishment of an impartial and independent Union Public Service Commission for recruiting civil servants in India.
Ans : (D)

96. Assertion (A) : In the open model, what is good for the individual is also good for the society.
Reason (R) : Open model of organization, like the closed model, is an ideal type.
Ans : (B)

97. Assertion (A) : Individuals and organizations over invest in information.
Reason (R) : Information intensive decisions have a greater organizational acceptance and smoother implementation.
Ans : (A)

98. Assertion (A) : The first principle of democratic governance is that the rulers should be accountable to the people.
Reason (R) : Transparency and accountability in governance depend on citizens easy access to reliable information and data.
Ans : (B)

99. Assertion (A) : The ‘disadvantaged’ states perceive that they have been punished for the better performance, whereas the ‘laggard’ states continue to be rewarded.
Reason (R) : The Finance Commission has the constitutional responsibility to provide succour to the underdeveloped States.
Ans : (B)

100. Assertion (A) : The bureaucracy and the political leadership can achieve the goals by working closely and harmoniously.
Reason (R) : If political leadership represents the input functions of a political system, the output function is performed by the administration.
Ans : (A)

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008(Held on 11-01-2009)Public Administration : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)

61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)

62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)

64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)

66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)

67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)

68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)

69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)

70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)

71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)

73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)

75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)

76. ‘Efficiency record’ method for determining the merit for promotion is practised in—
(A) The USA
(B) France
(C) The UK
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

77. “Officials make work for each other.” This is said by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Parkinson
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (C)

78. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration started functioning at Mussoorie from—
(A) June 12, 1959
(B) Sept. 13, 1959
(C) Sept. 1, 1959
(D) February 12, 1959
Ans : (C)

79. In the USA, the ‘spoils system’ was discarded in favour of the ‘merit principle’ by the followings Act—
(A) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(B) Pendleton Act, 1883
(C) Hatch Act, 1939
(D) Civil Service Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

80. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Ans : (C)

81. ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans : (A)

82. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Ans : (B)

83. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Ans : (D)

84. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term ‘Cabinet’ mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans : (C)

85. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Ans : (D)

86. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Ans : (D)

87. Who among the following said that, “Company form of public enterprise is a fraud on the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) Chhagla Commission
(C) Ashok Chanda
(D) Morarjee Desai
Ans : (C)

88. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Ans : (D)

89. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (C)

90. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Ans : (C)

91. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

92. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Ans : (C)

93. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Ans : (D)

94. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Ans : (C)

95. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Ans : (D)

96. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Ans : (C)

97. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Ans : (A)

98. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Ans : (B)

99. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Ans : (D)

100. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans : (B)

101. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. Who among the following is known as ‘the father of local selfgovernment’ in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (C)

103. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Ans : (C)

104. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Ans : (B)

105. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the—
(A) Union List of the VII Schedule
(B) State List of the VII Schedule
(C) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

106. Which among of the following is not considered as part of the Civil Society ?
(A) Non-Government Organisations
(B) Caste associations
(C) Legislature
(D) Family
Ans : (C)

107. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Ans : (C)

108. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state’s requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state’s tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Ans : (D)

109. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj bodies seeks to ensure—
(A) Economic welfare of women and children
(B) Gender parity in rural society
(C) Participation of women in public life
(D) Empowerment of women as an individual
Ans : (C)

110. Mayor-in-Council form of government means—
(A) Cabinet form of government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of government at the municipal level
(C) Making Mayor unaccountable to his colleagues
(D) Presidential form of government at the municipal level
Ans : (A)

111. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Ans : (C)

112. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by—
(A) District Board
(B) State Legislature
(C) Governor
(D) Municipal Council
Ans : (B)

113. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

114. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct about civil society organisations ?
(A) They are sovereign bodies
(B) They are voluntary but nonprofit-making agencies
(C) They work in close proximity with people
(D) They create awareness; educate and sensitise people on common issues and act as catalysts of social change
Ans : (A)

116. The ‘Recall’ provision to remove the elected office-bearers from the local self-government institution has been executed in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

117. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Ans : (C)

118. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

119. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Ans : (A)

120. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Ans : (D)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 9-3-2008)Public Administration : Solved Paper

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :—
List-I (District)
(a) Udham Singh Nagar
(b) Tehri Garhwal
(c) Chamoli
(d) Champawat
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Champawat
2. Gopeshwar
3. Rudrapur
4. New Tehri
5. Bagheswar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 5 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 3 5 1

2. The person for the office of the Chief Secretary in a State is chosen :
1. from among the I.A.S. Officers.
2. by a Selection Board
3. by the Chief Minister
4. by the Union Home Minister.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 only

3. The functions of the Chief Secretary include :
(A) to exercise control over the whole Secretariat
(B) to advise the Chief Minister on all matters
(C) to act as a spokesman of the State Government
(D) All of the above

4. Which one of the following statements about Audit in India is not correct ?
(A) It is a means of legislative control
(B) It is part of internal control over administration
(C) C and A.G. heads its organization
(D) C and A.G’s powers are determined by the Parliament

5. Who of the following has said about the Planning Commission “…… The Planning Commission has, in some measures, earned the reputation of being a parallel Cabinet and, sometimes, a super cabinet” ?
(A) Ashok Chandra
(B) D.R. Gadgil
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission

6. The C and AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of :
(A) Municipal institutions
(B) State Governments
(C) Government Companies
(D) Central Government

7. Functions of the National Development Council include :
1. considering important issues of national security.
2. prescribing guidelines for preparation of the national plan.
3. assessing the resources required for implementation of the plan.
4. recommending measures necessary for achieving plan objectives.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

8. The Committee on subordinate legislation ensures that :
(A) the rules and orders do not have any intention to impose taxes
(B) legislation does not involve any expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) jurisdiction of the judiciary is not barred
(D) there is no delay in laying the legislation before the house

9. The Union Executive consists of the :
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Administration ?
(A) Legacy of the Past
(B) Welfare and Liberal Administration
(C) Despotic Administration
(D) Decentralized Administration

11. Disciplinary Officer for personnel of Group ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the Central Government is :
(A) Secretary of the concerned Department
(B) President of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Minister of the concerned Department

12. Which of the following organization are under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India ?
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Department of official language
4. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

13. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) : UPSC is an independent organization.
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

14. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Five Year Plans in India are approved by the National Development Council.
Reason (R) : Each and every State Chief Minister is the member of the Standing Committee of the National Development Council.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Being the Principal Law Officer of the Government of India, the Attorney General
1. gives advice to the President of India on all important legal matters.
2. attend meetings of the Parliament on important issues.
3. votes in the Lok Sabha on important legal matters.
4. represents the government in the courts on very important legal matters.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

16. Given below are different stages in problem solving :
1. Collection of relevant information
2. Identification of the problem.
3. Analysis of the information.
4. Development of alternatives.
5. Evaluation of choices.
Select the correct sequences of the above from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 4, 5, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 4, 1, 5, 3 and 2

17. Formal Communication usually flows in :
(A) six directions
(B) four directions
(C) three directions
(D) nine directions

18. Which one of the following is not correct among the assumptions made by a Theory ‘Y’ leader ?
(A) Expenditure of energy is undesirable.
(B) Self-direction and self-control is desirable.
(C) Self-actualization is a motivating force.
(D) Working conditions conducive for acceptance of responsibilities are desirable.

19. The book ‘Prismatic Society Revisited’ has been authored by :
(A) Robert A. Dahl
(B) Robert A. Merton
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) G.M. Gaus

20. Arrange the various phases of evolution of Public Administration in chronological order :
1. Politics–Administration Dichotomy
2. Crises of Identify.
3. Search for Universal Principles.
4. Era of Challenge.
5. Public Policy Perspective.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 2
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 3

21. Which of the following are the British legacies ?
1. Planning Commission.
2. District Administration.
3. Civil Services.
4. Ministerial Resposibility.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

22. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic application of law.”
The above definition has been given by :
(A) L. D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

23. Which of the following are the three aspects of Science of Public Administration discussed mainly in Kautilya’s Arthashastra ?
1. Principles of Public Administration
2. Principles of Financial Administration
3. Machinery of Government
4. Personnel Management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

24. Who of the following described recruitment as the “Corner stone of whole personnel administration” ?
(A) Glenn O. Stahl
(B) L. D. White
(C) F. A. Nigro
(D) None of the above

25. The President of India addresses his letter of resignation, when wanting to do so, to the :
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

26. The Mayor of a City Corporation in Uttarakhand :
(A) is elected directly by people
(B) is elected from among themselves by Corporators
(C) is elected by its Executive Committee
(D) is the nominee of the majority party in the Corporation

27. A Directorate :
1. is office of the executive head of a department.
2. functions directly under the Minister.
3. performs line functions.
4. also acts as a staff agency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Central Secretariat is a think tank and treasure house of vital information.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat carries out a comprehensive and detailed scrutiny of every issue.
Select correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. The four bases of organization as identified by Luther Gullick are :
(A) Planning, Organising, Coordinating, Controlling
(B) Objective, People, Plan, Action
(C) Plead, Persuade, Order, Punish
(D) Purpose, Process, Persons, Place

30. ‘Authority’ and ‘Responsibility’ are governed by the :
(A) Principle of coincidence
(B) Principle of correspondence
(C) Principle of compulsion
(D) Principle of co-ordination

31. ‘Span of Control’ depends upon
1. centralized system of authority
2. type of work to be supervised
3. competence of the supervisor
4. techniques of supervision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

32. Hierarchy :
1. facilitates delegation of authority
2. establishes superior–subordinate relationships
3. acts as a channel of communication
4. facilitates operation of gang plank
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

33. A formal organization :
1. is a structure of authority
2. is a division of functions
3. consists of individuals
4. reflects social and psychological relationships
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

34. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ emphasizes upon one master.
Reason (R) : In complex government organizations ‘Unity of Command’ becomes easy. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

35. Decentralization :
1. improves administrative efficiency
2. reduces stress of responsibilities at the headquarter.
3. provides for involvement of insiders in organizational functioning.
4. is responsible for cost-escalation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

36. The traditional theory of Authority has been opposed by :
1. Max Weber
2. C.I. Bernard
3. H. Simon
4. Mooney and Reiley
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

37. The ‘Line’ agencies :
1. perform functions according to organizational objectives.
2. have authority to take decisions and enforce them.
3. involve insiders of the organization
4. keep outsiders away from the system.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

38. Which of the following statements about ‘Delegation of authority’ are correct ?
1. It should be made to an individual.
2. It should be properly planned.
3. It should be backed by adequate resources.
4. It can be conditional.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

39. Human Relations Theory of Organization focusses on the :
1. individual
2. physical structure
3. functional structure
4. social relationships
5. spirit of participation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Weber’s bureaucratic model has been characterised by his critics as :
1. a machine theory
2. a closed system model
3. suitable for changing environment
4. suitable for creative jobs
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

41. Which of the following types of leadership were delineated by Max-Weber ?
1. Charismatic
2. Traditional
3. Religious
4. Legal-rational
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

42. Which one of the following is not an intrinsic factor of job satisfaction as per the Hygiene Theory of Motivation ?
(A) Achievement
(B) Advancement
(C) Opportunities for growth
(D) Job Security

43. Fredrick Herzbgerg’s Theory of Motivation has listed some elements which are related to job content. Their number is :
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

44. Factors responsible for bounded rationality include :
1. dynamic nature of objectives
2. imperfect information
3. imcompetence for analysis
4. time constraints
5. personal values
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

45. Factors taken into consideration while using ‘motivation’ as a function of management include :
1. goal
2. physiological deficiency
3. psychological need
4. technique to be used
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

46. “A communication that cannot be understood can have no authority.” The above statement is attributed
to :
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) C.I. Bernard
(C) Millet
(D) Peter Drucker

47. The aspects of organizational communication include :
1. internal communication
2. external communication
3. inter-personal communication
4. intra-personal communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

48. Which one of the following is not a stage in Simon’s model of decision making ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Design
(C) Choice
(D) Participation

49. Which one of the following as qualities of leadership, as mentioned by Barnard is correct ?
(A) Vitality and Endurance
(B) Decisiveness
(C) Persuasiveness and Responsibility
(D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following statements about Decision-making is not correct ?
(A) Every decision is based upon two premises
(B) A factual premise cannot be disproved
(C) A value premise can be tested
(D) Ends and means have their importance

51. Theory ‘Y’ is connected with :
(A) Democratic leadership style
(B) Autocratic leadership style
(C) Laissez-faire leadership style
(D) None of the above

52. Who of the following developed Contingency Theory of Leadership ?
(A) Fred E. Feidler
(B) Likert
(C) Simon
(D) Robert Dahl

53. Robert T. Goelembioski has considered as transitional incident to :
(A) Private Administration
(B) Public Administration
(C) Neo Public Administration
(D) New Public Administration

54. Who of the following did not criticise Politics-administration dichotomy of Woodrow Wilson ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Marshall E. Dimock
(D) Nicholas Henry

55. Which one of the following statements is correct about New Public Administration ?
(A) It believes in Science of Public Administration
(B) It focusses on Social Administration
(C) It gives priority to the study of structural aspect of organization
(D) It believes in collective decision-making

56. Third phase (1938–1947) of the development of Public Administration is marked by :
1. emphasis on the practical study of Public Administration.
2. emphasis on human behaviour in an organization.
3. doubt regarding non-universality of the principles of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) only 3
(D) 2 and 3

57. Who of the following differentiated Politics and Administration by saying that ‘Politics has to do policies or expression of the State will’ and ‘Administration has to do with the execution of the policies’ ?
(A) Peter Self
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Frank Goodnow
(D) Dwight Waldo

58. New Public Administration lays emphasis on :
(A) relevance, values, democracy and change
(B) relevance, values, equity and change
(C) relevance, values, efficiency and change
(D) relevance, efficiency, equity and change

59. ‘Public Administration is the Art and Science of Management as applied to affairs of the State.’ Who of the following said this ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) L.D. White
(C) Frank Marini
(D) Dwight Waldo

60. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of law.” Who of the following has said this ?
(A) L.D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

61. About the significance of Public Administration who of the following said “The Administrative process is universal” ?
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) H. Finer
(D) D. Waldo

62. “Public Administration is characterized by red-tape while Private Administration is free from it.” The statement was made by :
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Josia Stamp

63. The Minnobrook Conference held in 1988 laid emphasis on :
1. Leadership
2. Constitutional and Legal perspective
3. Policy perspective
4. Social equity and change
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

64. The Conference on New Public Administration in 1960s was held under the patronage of :
(A) Robert T. Golembiewaski
(B) Frank Marini
(C) Fredrickson
(D) Dwight Waldo

65. Consider the following :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is crosscultural and cross-national in character.
Reason (R) : Its goal became unattainable.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Correct :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

66. Ecological approach undertakes studies of :
1. dynamics of interaction
2. political environment
3. social realities
4. influence of administrative system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

67. Which of the following decisionmaking approach is usually advocated by the Policy makers for urban community development in India ?
(A) Mixed approach
(B) Public choice approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Participative approach

68. Who of the following scholar/scholars point out that bureaucratic responsibility has to be seen in terms of accountability and ethical behaviour ?
(A) Fesler and Kettle
(B) Rosen
(C) Romzek and Dubnick
(D) Mohit Bhattacharya

69. Civil Servants are trained through :
1. foundation courses
2. on the job programmes
3. field exposures
4. refresher programmes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

70. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on the recommendation of :
(A) First Pay Commission
(B) Second Pay Commission
(C) Third Pay Commission
(D) Fourth Pay Commission

71. Which one of the following reports laid down the traditional concept of Civil Service neutrality in Britain ?
(A) Masterman Committee Report
(B) Hoover Commission Report
(C) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(D) Fulton Committee Report

72. The country which practices position classification in Civil Service is :
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) Germany

73. The final work of the Union Public Service Commission in recruitment process is :
(A) Selection
(B) Appointment
(C) Certification
(D) Placement

74. Which one of the following countries permits the right to strike to Civil Servants ?
(A) U.K.
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) U.S.A.

75. Which one of the following illustrates the nature of traditional concept of Civil Service Neutrality ?
(A) Committed
(B) Positive minded
(C) Non-Partisan
(D) Impartial

76. Which one of the following Committee/Commission was associated during British rule with the Civil Services in India ?
(A) Wheeler Commission
(B) Maxwell Committee
(C) Risley Commission
(D) Islington Commission

77. Which of the following statements about Neutrality of Civil Service are correct ?
1. The Civil servants should remain non-political.
2. It developed as a tradition in the U.S.A.
3. The demand for committed bureaucracy has created confusion.
4. The developing countries bureaucracy remained depoliticised.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

78. The advantages of rank classification include :
1. it introduces an element of flexibility.
2. it is more suitable for generalist cadre.
3. it helps in applying the principle of equal pay for equal work.
4. it facilitates matching job requirements with incumbents’s qualifications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following about position classification is not correct ?
(A) It is also known as duties classification.
(B) It is concerned with the person holding the position.
(C) Position acts as the basic unit.
(D) It helps in developing common practices.

80. The correct sequence of the process adopted in recruitment is :
(A) Advertisement, Selection, Appointment, Probation
(B) Advertisement, Selection, Probation, Training.
(C) Advertisement, Appointment, Training, Probation.
(D) Advertisement, Selection, Posting, Probation.

81. The Separation of Accounts and Audit took place in India in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1961
(C) 1976
(D) 1990

82. Which one of the following about Accounts is not correct ?
(A) They are statements of facts relating to money.
(B) They are recored to show transactions.
(C) They reveal the financial condition of the organisation.
(D) The cannot be manipulated.

83. Preparation of performance budget was introduced in India on the recommendation of :
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Appleby Report
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

84. To enhance legislative literacy and administrative responsibility, the budget system should accept :
(A) Zero Based Budgeting
(B) P.P.B.S.
(C) Performance Budgeting
(D) Professional Scrutiny by experts

85. Which one of the following statements about Budget is not correct ?
(A) It is a policy document
(B) It is merely a tool of resource mobilisation
(C) It is a tool of planning and control
(D) It is a statement of income and expenditure

86. Which one of the following is not a part of the Execution of Budget ?
(A) Release of grants
(B) Feedback on expenditure
(C) Audit of expenditure
(D) Reappropriation, when required

87. Audit :
1. is a means of legislative control.
2. is usually regulatory in nature.
3. is concerned with the propriety of expenditure.
4. can be performance related.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

88. The stages involved in the enactment of the Budget include :
1. Presentation
2. Voting on demands for grants
3. General discussion
4. Passing of Financial Bills
5. Passing of Appropriation Bill
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above five stages ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5 and 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 5, 4 and 3

89. Non-votable items of expenditure, by the Parliament, include :
1. emoluments and allowances of the President.
2. emoluments and allowances of Vice-President.
3. salary and allowances of C and A.G.
4. salary and allowances of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

90. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year :
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1925
(D) 1926

91. In the process of passing the budget, which one of the following is not in the purview of the Legislature?
(A) Give assent to the demand
(B) Reduce the demand
(C) Refuse the demand
(D) Increase and demand

92. The studies of Comparative Public Administration came to decline because :
(A) they were involved in trivialities
(B) they exhibited arrogance of developed countries
(C) they indulged in comparison of cultures
(D) they were over shadowed by Fred Riggs

93. Which one of the following is not included in the types of leadership, as distinguished by M.P. Follett ?
(A) Leadership of position
(B) Leadership of personality
(C) Leadership of learning
(D) Leadership of function

94. The Comparative Administration Group (CAG) in U.S.A. was formed in the year :
(A) 1959
(B) 1960
(C) 1961
(D) 1962

95. Advantages of ‘Right to Information’ as a means of Citizens’ control over administration include :
1. Administration becomes more accountable to people.
2. It increases the gap between administration and people.
3. It reduces chances of abuse of authority.
4. It reduces scope for corruption in administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

96. Who of the following said :
‘I always consider the question time in the House is one of the finest examples of Democracy ?’
(A) E. Attlee
(B) W. Wilson
(C) Churchill
(D) Chamberlin

97. Which one of the following is the tool of Executive Control over Public Administration ?
(A) Civil Service Code
(B) Budget
(C) Hierarchical system
(D) All of the above

98. The subject of ‘Ensuring transparency and Right to Information’ was included in the agenda of the Chief Ministers’ Conference in the year :
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1998
(D) 2002

99. The mechanisms for citizen’s control over administration include :
1. Ombudsman system
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. General elections
4. Pressure Groups
5. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

100. Administrative organisations are mainly responsible to :
1. Legislature
2. Judiciary
3. Citizens
4. Media
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

101. Which one of the following is the example of executive control over administration ?
(A) Rules of financial transactions framed by Finance ministry for agencies responsible for expenditure
(B) Issue of ordinance by the President of India
(C) Audit by C and G
(D) Approval of Budget proposals by the President of India.

102. Which one of the following is under the control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions ?
(A) National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Joint Consultative Machinery
(D) All the above

103. What is the number of membership including President of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation of Parliament ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 22
(D) 30

104. The rules and regulations framed by the administrative authorities can be declared illegal by the courts :
(A) If they violate the limitation inherent in the parent Act
(B) If they violate the provisions of the constitution
(C) If the parent Act violates the provisions of the constitution
(D) In all above conditions

105. The corruption has increased manifold because :
1. There is a close nexus among the politicians, bureaucrates and criminals.
2. The cost of getting scotfree is very high.
3. Reduced fear of punishment.
4. Involvement of higher officials in the corruption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

106. The tools of legislative control over administration are :
1. debates and discussions in the House.
2. censure motion against the government.
3. no confidence motion against the government.
4. consideration and passage of budget by the House.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

107. Which one of the following statements about the Cabinet Secretary is not correct ?
(A) He is head of the Civil Service
(B) He interacts directly with the bureaucracy in the ministries
(C) He acts as a deity in the annual conference of Chief Secretaries
(D) He presides over the meeting of Secretaries in the Central Government

108. Under the Indian Constitution, the CAG is :
(A) responsible only to the Executive head
(B) responsible to both Parliament and Executive
(C) responsible only to Parliament
(D) independent of both Parliament and the Executive

109. Which of the following is/are not mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Collective responsibility
3. Resignation of Ministers
4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

110. Assessment of the implementation of national plan from time to time is the function of :
(A) Programme Evaluation Organisation
(B) National Sample Survey Organisation
(C) Union Finance Commission
(D) Union Ministry of Programme Implementation

111. A large number of cases against officials in the courts pertain to :
(A) error of procedure
(B) lack of jurisdiction
(C) error of facts
(D) abuse of discretion

112. Which of the following organization in the centre basically operate as staff agencies ?
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Directorate General of supplies and Disposal
4. Planning Commission of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

113. Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
1. is appointed by the President
2. submits his report to the Parliament
3. controls the financial system of the country
4. upholds the Constitution in respect of financial administration
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

114. Which of the following about President of India are correct ?
1. He/She should not be a member of the Parliament.
2. He/She is a constituent part of Parliament.
3. He/She should be eligible for election as a Lok Sabha member.
4. He/She is directly elected by the people.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

115. The Civil Service in India :
1. is governed by the norm of anonymity.
2. is not accountable to the Parliament.
3. is protected by the Minister concerned in all kinds of acts.
4. remains accountable to the Minister concerned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

116. The relationship between political executive and permanent executive is based on :
(A) ability of Minister
(B) capability of Civil Servant
(C) mutual respect and confidence between Ministers and Civil Servants
(D) All of the above

117. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The Constitution authorises the Parliament to create a new All-India Service.
Reason (R) : Rajya Sabha takes a decision on the basis of recommendation of Lok Sabha in this regard.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

118. The system of open competition as the method of recruitment to Indian Civil Services was introduced
by the :
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Regulatory Act of 1773
(D) Charter Act of 1754

119. Which of the following departments in the Uttarakhand Government have a Directorate under it ?
1. Education
2. Health
3. Home
4. Agriculture
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

120. The Police force of a district maintains law and order under the general supervision of :
(A) Home Minister of the State
(B) Law Minister of the State
(C) Collector and Magistrate of the District
(D) S.P. of the district

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (*) All the options given in the question are correct. The committee on subordinate legislation performs all the four function. It appears that the question is incomplete as the ‘codes’ are not given below.
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C)
46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B)
56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (B)
86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (D) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (C)
116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (C)