IRDA EXAM QUESTION PAPER
1 Insurance works on the principle of
a Trust
b Sharing
c Randomness
d All of the above
2 Insurance is legitimate
a when an adverse happening is likely
b When an adverse happening is unlikely
c When an adverse happening is certain
d In all the above three situations
3 Insurance benefits replace
a All physical losses, in full
b All physical losses, partly
c All monetary losses, in full
d The monetary losses, but only to some extent
4 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a People hesitate to buy life insurance because they are not aware of their needs
b People hesitate to buy life insurance because they prefer to enjoy the present
c Both the statements are correct
d Both the statements are wrong
5 Which is the right time for taking life insurance?
a When you are about to get married
b Soon after you have got married
c Just when you are joined a new job
d All the three ‘times’ are right
6 Retention of risk may be done conveniently by
a Large corporations
b Small companies
c Single individuals
d None of the three
7 A valuation is done by a life insurer because
a It is a statutory requirement
b It is necessary to be able to declare dividends to shareholders
c It tells the insurer how well it is managing the business
d All of the above
8 The reason for charging level premiums is
a Risk increases as age increases
b It is convenient to the policyholder
c It is convenient to the insurer
d All the above reasons
9 What does a premium depend upon?
a The place of worship visited by the person to be insured
b The state of health of the policyholder
c The decision of the underwriter
d The report of the agent
10 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a In group insurance, a single policy is issued covering many persons
b A master policy covers servants of a master
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
11 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the SA
b In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the term
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct
12 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?
a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct
13 Which of the following could be the basis of the cover in a group policy?
a Height of the life insured
b Age of the life insured
c Size of the insured’s family
d All the three above
14 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?
a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct
15 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Every plan of insurance is a combination of two basic plans
b The name given to a plan indicates the benefits available under the plan
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statement s above are wrong
16 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Underwriting is done only when there is a medical examination
b Medical examination is necessary before a policy can be issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
17 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The underwriter determines the premium to be charged
b The underwriter is an employee of the insurer
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
18 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he will accept at OR
b If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he may impose a lien
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
19 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The schedule of a policy is not altered after the policy is issued
b Changes in the terms of the policy are made through endorsements
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
20 The date of issue of the FPR indicates
a The date when the risk effectively begins
b The date when the next premium falls due
c The date when the policy will commence
d None of the above
21 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a In the case of SSS policies, renewal premium receipts are issued
b In the case of SSS policies, FPRs are issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
22 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Assignee is free from the assignor’s obligations under the policy
b A nomination is automatically cancelled when a loan is taken under the policy
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
23 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
24 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Foreclosure can be done only with the consent of the policyholder
b Foreclosure can be done only after informing the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
25 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Revivals are not done unless the entire outstanding premium is paid
b Revivals are not done unless the underwriter agrees
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
26 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Foreclosure action cannot be taken till a notice is served on the policyholder
b When a foreclosure action is taken, nothing is payable to the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
27 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
28 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a A presumption of death is not the same as proof of death
b Presumption of death allows inheritance of property
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
29 When does a claim arise under an insurance policy?
a Whenever the policyholder feels the need for money
b When the insured events happen
c When a premium is not paid
d Whenever any of the three things mentioned above happen
30 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Maturity claim cheques are paid to the trustees in a MWP Act case
b Maturity claim cheques are paid to the beneficiaries in a MWP Act case
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
31 If a claim is made in January 2007 under a policy, which commenced in May 2002, stating that the life insured had died in April 2004,
a Section 45 of the Act will not apply
b The claim can be treated as an early claim
c Foul play must be suspected
d All the three statements above are correct
32 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a A policy reported to be lost, may actually have been assigned
b A policy has no value after the payment of survival benefits
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
33 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The foreign exchange regulations apply if the life insured is a non-resident
b The foreign exchange regulations apply if the claimant is a non-resident
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
34 State which of the following statements is correct
a ULIPs provide for flexibility
b ULIPs are better than traditional policies
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong
35 State which of the following statements is correct
a In ULIPs, the offer bid spread is the difference between the two prices
b In ULIPs, the offer bid spread, will in some cases be zero
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong
36 State which of the following statements is correct
a In ULIPs the insurance cover must be a minimum multiple of the premium
b ULIPs can be surrendered after two years
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong
37 State which one of the following statements is correct
a Life insurance is the best savings scheme for all persons
b Life insurance is the best investment scheme for young persons
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
38 Which of the following statements is correct?
a An insurance agent has fixed working hours
b An insurance agent has to mark his attendance in office every day
c An insurance agent works according to his schedule
d An insurance agent cannot do any other work
39 State which one of the following statements is correct
a When vital information is not disclosed, the policyholder is benefited
b When a claim is repudiated, the agent’s trustworthiness is affected
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
40 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a The social sector is not only in the urban areas
b The social sector includes the unorganized sector
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
41 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a The Ombudsman’s authority is limited to claims matters only
b The Ombudsman is not a judicial authority
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
42 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a The tax provisions are the same for all kinds of savings
b The tax provisions are included in the Constitution
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
43 A proposal for SA of Rs. 10 lakhs with DAB for monthly mode under SSS.
Proposer had a previous policy of Rs. 5 lakhs with DAB. Proposal was
accepted with health extra of Rs. 2.75 per thousand SA premium for DAB Re 1 per
thousand. 5% extra for monthly mode. large SA rebate of Rs 2/- per thousand for
1 lakh and above. Tabular premium Rs. 48.20 maximum total SA on which DAB is allowed is Rs. 10/- lakhs.
Find monthly (SSS) premium, rounded off to the next higher rupee
a 4102
b 4121
c 4183
d 4195
44 Find out surrender value on the basis of following data (the answer to
be rounded off to the next lower rupee). SA Rs.30, 000 DOC- 15.6.1992,
Endowment with profit - 30 years
Due date of last premium paid 15-06-2007 mode half yearly
Accrued bonus Rs.750/- per thousand SA. SV factor 23%
a 3670
b 3765
c 8740
d None of these
45 A money back policy for SA. of Rs.50,000/- Matured after 25 years.
Survival benefits of 15% each had been paid at the end of 5th, 10th, 15th,
and 20th years. Bonus had accrued at Rs.965/- per Rs.1000/- SA. Interim bonus
@ Rs.25/- per thousand SA is payable. What is the maturity claim amount?
a 68250
b 69500
c 98250
d 99500
Correct Answers Practice Paper 6
1 d 16 d 31 d
2 a 17 c 32 a
3 d 18 b 33 c
4 c 19 c 34 a
5 d 20 a 35 c
6 a 21 b 36 a
7 d 22 d 37 d
8 d 23 d 38 c
9 c 24 b 39 b
10 a 25 d 40 c
11 c 26 a 41 b
12 c 27 d 42 d
13 b 28 c 43 b
14 c 29 b 44 c
15 a 30 a 45 b
Monday, January 18, 2010
All Exams Science Questions
All Exams Science Questions
1.The lense which is used in Photography is.......
Convex Lense
2.The Gas used for artificial ripening of green fruits?
Acetylene
3.Which is the rarest element?
Astatine
4.Magnetic field is measured by..........
Flux Meter
5.The working of a Rocket is based on the principle of ?
Newton's Law
6.The minimum volume of water is at a temperature of ......... Degree Celsius
4
7.Light emitted by sun reaches earth in about
8 minutes
8.Electricity was invented by
Michael Faraday
9.The human heart beat per minute at an average is
72
10.Time difference between IST and GMT is
5.30hrs
11.Which country built the first nuclear power station?
Russia
12.Plaster of Paris is made from
Gypsm
13.Meningitis is a disease which affects the
Brain
14.The year in which Pluto was discovered ?
1930
15.White Coal is
Hydro-Electricity
16.Purest crystalline form of Carbon
Diamond
17.Valcanisation was conducted by
Good Year
18.What is the melting point of Diamond?
4000 Degree Celsius
19.Which of the following is not a natural polymer ?
(a)Cellulose
(b)Plastic
(c)Rubber
(d)Silk
Answer:-(a)Cellulose
20.During Sleep
Blood Pressure is reduced
21.Filteration of wastes from the blood in human body is done by
Kidney
22.An astronant in an earth satellite will observe the sky as
Black
23.The virus of AIDS affects the growth of
T cells in Blood
24.Which of the following is a semi conductor ?
(a)Copper
(b)Germanium
(c)Silver
(d)Zirconium
Answer:-Germanium
25.A hole is made in a brass plate and it is heated , the size of the hole will
First increases and then decrease
26.Sugar can be tested in a Diabetic patient by
Benedict's test
27.The sex of a child before birth can be determined by
Amniocentesis
28.Plants growing in dark areas are called
Scatophyte
29.The resting time of heart during the interval of each compression is called
Diastol
30.'Utopia Planitia' is a place in which planet/satellite
Mars
31.The organism which have nervous system but do not have brain
Hydra
32.Antitoxins is used against Diptheria obtained from
Horse
33.The satellite which discovered the Ozon layer
Nimbus-7
34.Osteomalaria is caused due to the deficiency of which Vitamin ?
Vitamin D
35.The sea breeze and land breeze are caused by difference in
Heating of land and sea
36.The Red blood cells (RBC) is also called as
Erythrocyctes
37.Quinine is an alkaloid that cures which disease ?
Malaria
38.Boiling point of water in the Farenheat scale is
212 Degree
39.The most essential component of a refrigerator is
Compressure
40.The planet which is often called the earth twin is
Venus
41.What does C.N.G. stands for
Compressed Natural Gas
42."Which sphere is known as ""Chemosphere"" ?"
Ozonosphere
43.Magnesite is
Magnesium Carbonate
44.Which of the follwing is known as Ramanujan Numeral
1729
45.Normal Blood Pressure of man is
80/120 mm HG
46.The deficiency of Iron in man may result in
Anaemia
47.The largest gland in Human body is
Liver
48.Fossils are usually found in
Sedimenary Rock
49.Acetyl Salicilic Acid is commonly known as
Aspirin
50.Which is known as white coal
Hydro Electricty
1.The lense which is used in Photography is.......
Convex Lense
2.The Gas used for artificial ripening of green fruits?
Acetylene
3.Which is the rarest element?
Astatine
4.Magnetic field is measured by..........
Flux Meter
5.The working of a Rocket is based on the principle of ?
Newton's Law
6.The minimum volume of water is at a temperature of ......... Degree Celsius
4
7.Light emitted by sun reaches earth in about
8 minutes
8.Electricity was invented by
Michael Faraday
9.The human heart beat per minute at an average is
72
10.Time difference between IST and GMT is
5.30hrs
11.Which country built the first nuclear power station?
Russia
12.Plaster of Paris is made from
Gypsm
13.Meningitis is a disease which affects the
Brain
14.The year in which Pluto was discovered ?
1930
15.White Coal is
Hydro-Electricity
16.Purest crystalline form of Carbon
Diamond
17.Valcanisation was conducted by
Good Year
18.What is the melting point of Diamond?
4000 Degree Celsius
19.Which of the following is not a natural polymer ?
(a)Cellulose
(b)Plastic
(c)Rubber
(d)Silk
Answer:-(a)Cellulose
20.During Sleep
Blood Pressure is reduced
21.Filteration of wastes from the blood in human body is done by
Kidney
22.An astronant in an earth satellite will observe the sky as
Black
23.The virus of AIDS affects the growth of
T cells in Blood
24.Which of the following is a semi conductor ?
(a)Copper
(b)Germanium
(c)Silver
(d)Zirconium
Answer:-Germanium
25.A hole is made in a brass plate and it is heated , the size of the hole will
First increases and then decrease
26.Sugar can be tested in a Diabetic patient by
Benedict's test
27.The sex of a child before birth can be determined by
Amniocentesis
28.Plants growing in dark areas are called
Scatophyte
29.The resting time of heart during the interval of each compression is called
Diastol
30.'Utopia Planitia' is a place in which planet/satellite
Mars
31.The organism which have nervous system but do not have brain
Hydra
32.Antitoxins is used against Diptheria obtained from
Horse
33.The satellite which discovered the Ozon layer
Nimbus-7
34.Osteomalaria is caused due to the deficiency of which Vitamin ?
Vitamin D
35.The sea breeze and land breeze are caused by difference in
Heating of land and sea
36.The Red blood cells (RBC) is also called as
Erythrocyctes
37.Quinine is an alkaloid that cures which disease ?
Malaria
38.Boiling point of water in the Farenheat scale is
212 Degree
39.The most essential component of a refrigerator is
Compressure
40.The planet which is often called the earth twin is
Venus
41.What does C.N.G. stands for
Compressed Natural Gas
42."Which sphere is known as ""Chemosphere"" ?"
Ozonosphere
43.Magnesite is
Magnesium Carbonate
44.Which of the follwing is known as Ramanujan Numeral
1729
45.Normal Blood Pressure of man is
80/120 mm HG
46.The deficiency of Iron in man may result in
Anaemia
47.The largest gland in Human body is
Liver
48.Fossils are usually found in
Sedimenary Rock
49.Acetyl Salicilic Acid is commonly known as
Aspirin
50.Which is known as white coal
Hydro Electricty
SBI MANAGEMENT EXECUTIVE EXAM
SBI MANAGEMENT EXECUTIVE EXAM
Sample Question Paper for Marketing and Financial Awareness for candidates appearing for the State Bank of India (SBI) Management Executive Recruitment Exam.
1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) IMF
(D) It is known by its name
2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1920
(C) 1928
(D) 1947
3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Chanakya
(C) Machiavelli
(D) None of these
8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) ICICI
9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money
(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these
10.Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour?
(A) The length of time involved in the buying process
(B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity
(C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit
(D) The complexity of an order
12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process?
(A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation
13. Needs differ from wants because:
(A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs
(B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants
(C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future
(D) Needs and wants are exactly the same
14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Love
(C) Security
(D) Physiological
15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form?
(A) The choice set
(B) The awareness set
(C) The total set
(D) The pre-evaluation set
16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as:
(A) A primary reference group.
(B) A tertiary reference group.
(C) A secondary reference group.
(D) A non-reference group.
17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase?
(A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good
(B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product
(C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product
(D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier
18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit?
(A) Supplier
(B) Gatekeeper
(C) Decision maker
(D) User
19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit?
(A) User
(B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Buyer
20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System?
(A) Marketing research
(B) Decision support system
(C) Production monitoring system
(D) None of these
FINANCIAL AWARENESS
(A) 1975
(B) 1947
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia
(C) J. S. Mathur
(D) Sushma Nath
3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for.
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s Education
(D) Development of Rural India
4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All
5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?
(1) It does not accept deposits.
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(3) Lack of human interface.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?
(1) Better human resource management
(2) Adequate capital to support risks
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of these
10.The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:
(A) Government of India
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
(A) Union Government
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Supreme Court
13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of
(A) IDA
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) IFC
14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
(A) 1999
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
18.In India, income tax is levied by
(A) Union Government
(B) State Governments
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) RBI
19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
(A) National Bank
(B) Cooperative Bank
(C) Scheduled Bank
(D) Unscheduled Bank
Sample Question Paper for Marketing and Financial Awareness for candidates appearing for the State Bank of India (SBI) Management Executive Recruitment Exam.
1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) IMF
(D) It is known by its name
2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1920
(C) 1928
(D) 1947
3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Chanakya
(C) Machiavelli
(D) None of these
8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) ICICI
9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money
(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these
10.Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour?
(A) The length of time involved in the buying process
(B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity
(C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit
(D) The complexity of an order
12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process?
(A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation
13. Needs differ from wants because:
(A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs
(B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants
(C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future
(D) Needs and wants are exactly the same
14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Love
(C) Security
(D) Physiological
15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form?
(A) The choice set
(B) The awareness set
(C) The total set
(D) The pre-evaluation set
16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as:
(A) A primary reference group.
(B) A tertiary reference group.
(C) A secondary reference group.
(D) A non-reference group.
17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase?
(A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good
(B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product
(C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product
(D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier
18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit?
(A) Supplier
(B) Gatekeeper
(C) Decision maker
(D) User
19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit?
(A) User
(B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Buyer
20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System?
(A) Marketing research
(B) Decision support system
(C) Production monitoring system
(D) None of these
FINANCIAL AWARENESS
(A) 1975
(B) 1947
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia
(C) J. S. Mathur
(D) Sushma Nath
3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for.
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s Education
(D) Development of Rural India
4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All
5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?
(1) It does not accept deposits.
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(3) Lack of human interface.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?
(1) Better human resource management
(2) Adequate capital to support risks
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of these
10.The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:
(A) Government of India
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
(A) Union Government
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Supreme Court
13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of
(A) IDA
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) IFC
14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
(A) 1999
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
18.In India, income tax is levied by
(A) Union Government
(B) State Governments
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) RBI
19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
(A) National Bank
(B) Cooperative Bank
(C) Scheduled Bank
(D) Unscheduled Bank
EPFO EXAM 2007
EPFO EXAM 2007
Directions – (Q.1-25) what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
1. 215.5 x 21? = 2112
(a) 2.18
(b) -17.5
(c) 6.5
(d) 5.5
2. 182x26÷91=?
(a) 52
(b) 25
(c) 65
(d) 39
3. 7100-? +41x25= 7225
(a) 7226
(b) 5000
(c) 7000
(d) 1000
4.
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these
5. 10.0001+9.9999-8.9995 =?
(a) 10.9995
(b) 9.0005
(c) 11.0001
(d) 11.0001
(e) None of these
6.
of
of 256 = ?
(a) 16
(b) 32
(c) 64
(d) 48
(e) None of these
7. 1470÷21÷14=?
(a) 7
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 14
(e) None of these
8. 152
(a) 19
(b) 7
(c) 18
(d) 8
(e) None of these
9. 64
(a) 81
(b) 49
(c) 64
(d) 16
(e) None of these
10. 801.75-93.25
(a) 5668
(b) 56.75
(c) 566.8
(d) 55.25
(e) None of these
11. 350% of ? = 700
(a) 2
(b) 100
(c) 350
(d) 200
(e) None of these
12.
(a) 240.5124
(b) 243.5025
(c) 243.5125
(d) 240.5025
(e) None of these
13.
(a) 13
(b) 13
(c) 12
(d) 13
(e) None of these
14. 83293-7946-150 = ?
(a) 3683
(b) 73847
(c) 75197
(d) 75097
(e) None of these
15. 10% of 25% of 800 = ?
(a) 20
(b) 2
(c) 40
(d) 4
(e) None of these
16.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
(e) None of these
17. 57.75 ÷7 = ?% of 20
(a) 35.25
(b) 40.25
(c) 42.25
(d) 41.25
(e) None of these
18.
(a) 568
(b) 676
(c) 576
(d) 560
(e) None of these
19. 19.30 x 1.7 +13.46 = ?
(a) 46.72
(b) 46.27
(c) 292.588
(d) 46.77
(e) None of these
20. 5625 ÷ 75 +
= ?
(a) 441
(b) 400
(c) 361
(d) 484
(e) None of these
21. 25% of 980 + ?% of 355 = 529
(a) 80
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
(e) None of these
22.
(a) 81
(b) 54
(c) 108
(d) 162
(e) None of these
23.
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) None of these
24. 33
% of 1260 + 80% of 755 = ?
(a) 976
(b) 1024
(c) 1048
(d) 952
(e) None of these
25.
(0.25)2 + (0.15)2 = ?
(a) 0.0085
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.085
(d) 0.625
(e) None of these
26. The amount of simple interest accrued on a principal amount of Rs. 25,000 in 7 years is Rs. 21,000. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
27. Inlet ‘1’ and ‘2’ together can fill a tank in 18 hours. Inlet ‘2’ can fill the tank on its own in 24 hours. In how many hours can inlet ‘1’ alone fill the tank?
(a) 48 hrs.
(b) 72 hrs.
(c) 60 hrs.
(d) 84 hrs.
(e) None of these
28. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
1
, 3, 4
,?, 8
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these
29. If the length of a rectangular field is 48 meters more than its breadth and the perimeter of the field is 800 meters, what is the area of the field in square meters?
(a) 39424
(b) 40000
(c) 31376
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
30. If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are increased by 33
% and 66
% respectively, the fraction becomes
, what was the original fraction?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
31. In a class of 72 children, children are seated in rows and columns in such a way that the number of children in each row is 12.5% more than the number of children in each column. How many children are these in each row?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 18
(e) None of these
32. In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out that wrong number.
1, 2, 2, 4, 8, 64, 256
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 64
(d) 256
(e) None of these
33. The perimeter of a square and a rectangle is the same. If the rectangle is 12 cms. by 10 cms., then by what percentage is the area of square more than that of the rectangle?
(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 1
(d)
(e) None of these
34. What will be the compound interest earned on an amount of Rs. 8,000 @20% p.a. in two years?
(a) Rs. 10,520
(b) Rs. 11,240
(c) Rs. 10,360
(d) Rs. 11,080
(e) None of these
35. Mr. Ahuja gave 30% of his money to his wife, half of the remaining to his daughter and the rest was to distributed among his five sons equally. If each son received Rs.14,000, what was the total amount he had?
(a) Rs. 2, 00,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 1,75,000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
36. If the following fractions are arranged in the ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth from the top?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
37. How much time will a 270 meter long train running at a speed of 360 meters per second take to cross a platform of equal length?
(a) 1.5 seconds
(b) 1.2 seconds
(c) 1.8 seconds
(d) 2.1 seconds
(e) None of these
38. First class train fare from Banglore to Hyderabad is Rs. 7,415 and Second class train fare for the same is Rs. 5,932. What is the ratio of Second class to First class fare?
(a) 5 : 16
(b) 4 : 33
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 41
(e) None of these
39. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
16, 24, 12, ?, 9, 13.5
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 21
(d) 18
(e) None of these
40. If the remainder obtained by subtracting a number from its own square is 4 times the number, what is the number?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
41. The sum of ages of members (children and their parents) of a family is 360 years. If the sum of the ages of the children in the family is 240 years, what is the ratio of the ages of the husband to the wife?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
42. When a person distributed sweets among a gathering of people, each person got 7 sweets and 14 sweets remained undistributed. If two more people had joined the gathering, no sweet would have remained undistributed. How many people had gathered?
(a) 70
(b) 56
(c) 63
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
43. If 4x + 6y = 32 and 4x – 2y = 4, then what is the value of 8y?
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 42
(e) None of these
44. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
239.99 ÷ 8.0001 x 9.99 = ?
(a) 240
(b) 300
(c) 360
(d) 480
(e) 420
45. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out that wrong number.
8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83
(a) 21
(b) 63
(c) 32
(d) 83
(e) 47
46. What is the circumference in centimeters of a circle whose are is 49
square centimeters?
(a) 28
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 21
(e) None of these
47. The average of eight numbers taken together is 12. Two of these numbers are 0 and the remaining numbers are equal. What is the value of the non-zero number?
(a) 16
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 18
(e) None of these
48. A Compact Disc Player when sold for Rs. 13,600, incurred a loss of 15%. At what price should it have been be sold to make a profit of 35% on the cost?
(a) Rs. 5,600
(b) Rs. 21,600
(c) Rs. 20,400
(d) Rs. 4,800
(e) None of these
49. What will be the cost of tiling the floor @ Rs. 38 per square meter, if the hall is of a square shape and has a perimeter of 400 meters?
(a) 19,000
(b) 57,000
(c) 38,000
(d) 9,500
(e) None of these
50. London time is five and a half hours behind Delhi time. What time is it in London if it is 02:35 in Delhi?
(a) 21:05
(b) 08:05
(c) 21:35
(d) 07:05
(e) None of these
Answers
1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (b), 4. (e), 5. (c), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (a), 10. (e)
11. (d), 12. (c) , 13. (b), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (e), 17. (d), 18. (d), 19. (b), 20. (a)
21. (a), 22. (c), 23. (d), 24. (b), 25. (c), 26. (e), 27. (b), 28. (c), 29. (a), 30. (e)
31. (b), 32. (c), 33. (e), 34. (e), 35. (a), 36. (c), 37. (a), 38. (c), 39. (d), 40. (e)
41. (d), 42. (d), 43. (e), 44. (b), 45. (e), 46. (b), 47. (a), 48. (b), 49. (e), 50. (b)
Directions – (Q.1-25) what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
1. 215.5 x 21? = 2112
(a) 2.18
(b) -17.5
(c) 6.5
(d) 5.5
2. 182x26÷91=?
(a) 52
(b) 25
(c) 65
(d) 39
3. 7100-? +41x25= 7225
(a) 7226
(b) 5000
(c) 7000
(d) 1000
4.
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these
5. 10.0001+9.9999-8.9995 =?
(a) 10.9995
(b) 9.0005
(c) 11.0001
(d) 11.0001
(e) None of these
6.
of
of 256 = ?
(a) 16
(b) 32
(c) 64
(d) 48
(e) None of these
7. 1470÷21÷14=?
(a) 7
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 14
(e) None of these
8. 152
(a) 19
(b) 7
(c) 18
(d) 8
(e) None of these
9. 64
(a) 81
(b) 49
(c) 64
(d) 16
(e) None of these
10. 801.75-93.25
(a) 5668
(b) 56.75
(c) 566.8
(d) 55.25
(e) None of these
11. 350% of ? = 700
(a) 2
(b) 100
(c) 350
(d) 200
(e) None of these
12.
(a) 240.5124
(b) 243.5025
(c) 243.5125
(d) 240.5025
(e) None of these
13.
(a) 13
(b) 13
(c) 12
(d) 13
(e) None of these
14. 83293-7946-150 = ?
(a) 3683
(b) 73847
(c) 75197
(d) 75097
(e) None of these
15. 10% of 25% of 800 = ?
(a) 20
(b) 2
(c) 40
(d) 4
(e) None of these
16.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
(e) None of these
17. 57.75 ÷7 = ?% of 20
(a) 35.25
(b) 40.25
(c) 42.25
(d) 41.25
(e) None of these
18.
(a) 568
(b) 676
(c) 576
(d) 560
(e) None of these
19. 19.30 x 1.7 +13.46 = ?
(a) 46.72
(b) 46.27
(c) 292.588
(d) 46.77
(e) None of these
20. 5625 ÷ 75 +
= ?
(a) 441
(b) 400
(c) 361
(d) 484
(e) None of these
21. 25% of 980 + ?% of 355 = 529
(a) 80
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
(e) None of these
22.
(a) 81
(b) 54
(c) 108
(d) 162
(e) None of these
23.
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) None of these
24. 33
% of 1260 + 80% of 755 = ?
(a) 976
(b) 1024
(c) 1048
(d) 952
(e) None of these
25.
(0.25)2 + (0.15)2 = ?
(a) 0.0085
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.085
(d) 0.625
(e) None of these
26. The amount of simple interest accrued on a principal amount of Rs. 25,000 in 7 years is Rs. 21,000. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
27. Inlet ‘1’ and ‘2’ together can fill a tank in 18 hours. Inlet ‘2’ can fill the tank on its own in 24 hours. In how many hours can inlet ‘1’ alone fill the tank?
(a) 48 hrs.
(b) 72 hrs.
(c) 60 hrs.
(d) 84 hrs.
(e) None of these
28. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
1
, 3, 4
,?, 8
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these
29. If the length of a rectangular field is 48 meters more than its breadth and the perimeter of the field is 800 meters, what is the area of the field in square meters?
(a) 39424
(b) 40000
(c) 31376
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
30. If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are increased by 33
% and 66
% respectively, the fraction becomes
, what was the original fraction?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) None of these
31. In a class of 72 children, children are seated in rows and columns in such a way that the number of children in each row is 12.5% more than the number of children in each column. How many children are these in each row?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 18
(e) None of these
32. In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out that wrong number.
1, 2, 2, 4, 8, 64, 256
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 64
(d) 256
(e) None of these
33. The perimeter of a square and a rectangle is the same. If the rectangle is 12 cms. by 10 cms., then by what percentage is the area of square more than that of the rectangle?
(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 1
(d)
(e) None of these
34. What will be the compound interest earned on an amount of Rs. 8,000 @20% p.a. in two years?
(a) Rs. 10,520
(b) Rs. 11,240
(c) Rs. 10,360
(d) Rs. 11,080
(e) None of these
35. Mr. Ahuja gave 30% of his money to his wife, half of the remaining to his daughter and the rest was to distributed among his five sons equally. If each son received Rs.14,000, what was the total amount he had?
(a) Rs. 2, 00,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 1,75,000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
36. If the following fractions are arranged in the ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth from the top?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
37. How much time will a 270 meter long train running at a speed of 360 meters per second take to cross a platform of equal length?
(a) 1.5 seconds
(b) 1.2 seconds
(c) 1.8 seconds
(d) 2.1 seconds
(e) None of these
38. First class train fare from Banglore to Hyderabad is Rs. 7,415 and Second class train fare for the same is Rs. 5,932. What is the ratio of Second class to First class fare?
(a) 5 : 16
(b) 4 : 33
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 41
(e) None of these
39. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
16, 24, 12, ?, 9, 13.5
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 21
(d) 18
(e) None of these
40. If the remainder obtained by subtracting a number from its own square is 4 times the number, what is the number?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
41. The sum of ages of members (children and their parents) of a family is 360 years. If the sum of the ages of the children in the family is 240 years, what is the ratio of the ages of the husband to the wife?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
42. When a person distributed sweets among a gathering of people, each person got 7 sweets and 14 sweets remained undistributed. If two more people had joined the gathering, no sweet would have remained undistributed. How many people had gathered?
(a) 70
(b) 56
(c) 63
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
43. If 4x + 6y = 32 and 4x – 2y = 4, then what is the value of 8y?
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 42
(e) None of these
44. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
239.99 ÷ 8.0001 x 9.99 = ?
(a) 240
(b) 300
(c) 360
(d) 480
(e) 420
45. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out that wrong number.
8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83
(a) 21
(b) 63
(c) 32
(d) 83
(e) 47
46. What is the circumference in centimeters of a circle whose are is 49
square centimeters?
(a) 28
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 21
(e) None of these
47. The average of eight numbers taken together is 12. Two of these numbers are 0 and the remaining numbers are equal. What is the value of the non-zero number?
(a) 16
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 18
(e) None of these
48. A Compact Disc Player when sold for Rs. 13,600, incurred a loss of 15%. At what price should it have been be sold to make a profit of 35% on the cost?
(a) Rs. 5,600
(b) Rs. 21,600
(c) Rs. 20,400
(d) Rs. 4,800
(e) None of these
49. What will be the cost of tiling the floor @ Rs. 38 per square meter, if the hall is of a square shape and has a perimeter of 400 meters?
(a) 19,000
(b) 57,000
(c) 38,000
(d) 9,500
(e) None of these
50. London time is five and a half hours behind Delhi time. What time is it in London if it is 02:35 in Delhi?
(a) 21:05
(b) 08:05
(c) 21:35
(d) 07:05
(e) None of these
Answers
1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (b), 4. (e), 5. (c), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (a), 10. (e)
11. (d), 12. (c) , 13. (b), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (e), 17. (d), 18. (d), 19. (b), 20. (a)
21. (a), 22. (c), 23. (d), 24. (b), 25. (c), 26. (e), 27. (b), 28. (c), 29. (a), 30. (e)
31. (b), 32. (c), 33. (e), 34. (e), 35. (a), 36. (c), 37. (a), 38. (c), 39. (d), 40. (e)
41. (d), 42. (d), 43. (e), 44. (b), 45. (e), 46. (b), 47. (a), 48. (b), 49. (e), 50. (b)
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Assistant Programmers
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is going to recruit 18 Assistant Programmers as advertised in 2009. The jobs are meant for engineers who have experience in programming.
According for UPSC:
Desirable: Knowledge of programming in C, C++, OR visual C++ and in Oracle, Relational Data Base Management System to experience on RISC based Computer Systems under UNIX or UNIX-like Operating Systems/WINDOWS Networking or WINDOWS environment.
Duties: The Assistant programmers, Central Bureau of Investigation will be responsible for: Development and implementation of systems. Responsible for day-to-day operation of the computer set up at the Branches/Units. Refreshing/Replication of data from Branch to Regional Office Server. Database backup and restoration of CBI Projects. Local Area Network Management. Maintenance of Oracle Database Server. Liaison or coordination between Regional and Head Office Server. Security Administration of Systems and Network
Based on the skill set demanded by CBI we have prepared extensive material to help you prepare for the exam.
We are providing study material to prepare for the exam. The notes will help you prepare for recruitment even if it is based on Interview only. Here is what all we cover.
Internet Security
DBMS
Networking
Business Systems
C Language
C++ Language
Data Structures
Visual Basic
Java Programming
UNIX and Shell Programming
Computer Engineering
Micro Processors etc.
According for UPSC:
Desirable: Knowledge of programming in C, C++, OR visual C++ and in Oracle, Relational Data Base Management System to experience on RISC based Computer Systems under UNIX or UNIX-like Operating Systems/WINDOWS Networking or WINDOWS environment.
Duties: The Assistant programmers, Central Bureau of Investigation will be responsible for: Development and implementation of systems. Responsible for day-to-day operation of the computer set up at the Branches/Units. Refreshing/Replication of data from Branch to Regional Office Server. Database backup and restoration of CBI Projects. Local Area Network Management. Maintenance of Oracle Database Server. Liaison or coordination between Regional and Head Office Server. Security Administration of Systems and Network
Based on the skill set demanded by CBI we have prepared extensive material to help you prepare for the exam.
We are providing study material to prepare for the exam. The notes will help you prepare for recruitment even if it is based on Interview only. Here is what all we cover.
Internet Security
DBMS
Networking
Business Systems
C Language
C++ Language
Data Structures
Visual Basic
Java Programming
UNIX and Shell Programming
Computer Engineering
Micro Processors etc.
Corporation Bank Probationary Officer Exam
Corporation Bank Probationary Officer Exam 2007 General Awareness on Socio-Economic Developments
1.
Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of –
(a) Italy
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) South Africa
(e) Britain
2.
Justice A.R.Lakshmanan’s name was recently in news as he has taken over as the-
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chairman of the 18th Law Commission
(c) Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(e) None of these
3.
Which of the following was the name of the space shuttle which brought Sunita Williams and few others on the earth recently?
(a) California
(b) Mir Space
(c) Boston Marathon
(d) Edwards
(e) Atlantis
4.
The Government of India recently announced a special Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana so that States can better their Agricultural output and performance. The size of the package is around –
(a) Rs. 20,000 crore
(b) Rs. 25,000 crore
(c) Rs. 30,000 crore
(d) Rs. 35,000 crore
(e) Rs. 40,000 crore
5.
Which of the following organizations/agencies has recently floated a Private Equity (PE) Fund with an initial corpus of Rs. 100 crore to help its client to further expand their business activities?
(a) NABARD
(b) SIDBI
(c) ECGC
(d) IDBI Bank
(e) None of these
6.
Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its educational portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Infosys
(c) Wipro
(d) TCS
(e) None of these
7.
Which of the following monuments of India is now one of the Seven New Wonders of the World?
(a) Mughal Garden of the Rashtrapati Bhawan
(b) Dal Lake of Srinagar
(c) Gol Gumbaj of Bijapur
(d) Victoria Memorial of Kolkata
(e) Taj Mahal
8.
The Indian Navy recently commissioned its new Warship ‘INS Jalashwa’. The ship is acquired from-
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) Germany
(e) U.S.A
9.
Which of the following activities does not form a part of the functions of a well established Banking Company?
(a) Liquidity Management
(b) Forex Management
(c) Outsourcing Back room operators
(d) Enhancing/Forecasting/Monitoring cash flow
(e) Frequency Modulation of Delivery channels
10.
A steeprise in the share prices of which of the following Group of Companies recently has made its Chairman India’s first only trillionire?
(a) Aditya Birla Group of Companies
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Tata Group of Companies
(d) Wipro
(e) None of these
11.
Which of the following events is not associated with the game of Tennis?
(a) French Open
(b) Australian Open
(c) US Open
(d) Formula Renault V-6
(e) Wimbledon
12.
Which of the following organizations has celebrated recently its silver jublie?
(a) ECGC
(b) State Bank of India
(c) SIDBI
(d) SEBI
(e) NABARD
13.
Who among the following cricketers completed 15,000 runs in ODIs?
(a) Rahul Dravid
(b) Ricky Ponting
(c) Brian Lara
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
(e) Sourav Ganguly
14.
Which of the following State Governments has set up a committee to consider the claim of the Gujjar community to be included in the list of scheduled tribes?
(a) Punjab
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana
(e) Rajasthan
15.
With the purpose of raising capital in the share market, the first public issue of share of the company to the investors is called…………..
(a) Initial public proposal
(b) Inclusive proposal
(c) Mutual fund
(d) Haze fund
(e) None of these
16.
Who among the following chess players won the GM Open Championship, organized recently in Luxembourg?
(a) Vishwanath Anand
(b) Koneru Humpy
(c) K.Shashikaran
(d) P.Harikrishna
(e) None of these
17.
Which of the following events took place on July 21, 1969, which termed as ‘universal wonder’ in the human history?
(a) Landing of Appolo-II on moon
(b) Invention of atom bomb
(c) Invention of Super computer
(d) Heart transplant
(e) None of these
18.
Which of the following pairs of countries is the largest arms as per data issued by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, Sweden?
(a) India-China
(b) China-Pakistan
(c) India-Pakistan
(d) Iran-China
(e) None of these
19.
Recently, Francisco Totty of Italy announced his retirement from international matches. Francisco Totty is a famous player of …………..
(a) Lawn Tennis
(b) Football
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
(e) Golf
20.
Finance Minister of India, recently, expressed his concern over the falt in production of food grains in India.
What has been the approximate quantity of food production during the last few years?
(a) 100 million tonnes
(b) 150 million tonnes
(c) 200 million tonnes
(d) 250 million tonnes
(e) 300 million tonnes
21.
What approximate amount of help has Mayawati sought from the Center to expedite the development of backward areas of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Rs. 50,000 crore
(b) Rs. 60,000 crore
(c) Rs. 70,000 crore
(d) Rs. 80,000 crore
(e) Rs. 1,00,000 crore
22.
Charges of corruption against the Chief Justice were dismissed and termination of his service was cancelled by the Supreme Court of which of the following countries/
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) Iran
(e) None of these
23.
What percentage of rural income is obtained from agricultural activities of the country as per data given to press by the Union Finance Minister in an interview?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 43%
(e) 53%
24.
In which of the following States, the Government of India is planning to set up a ‘National Institute of Handloom Technology’?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these
25.
‘Novartis’ a Swiss based firm is operating in India in big way- Novartis has its business in which of the following sectors in India?
(a) Textile
(b) Diamond Mining
(c) Pharma
(d) Paper Newsprint
(e) Steel and Iron
ANSWERS:
1. (e), 2. (b), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b), 6. (a), 7. (e), 8. (e), 9. (e), 10. (b)
11. (d), 12. (e), 13. (d), 14. (e), 15. (a), 16. (b), 17. (a), 18. (a), 19. (b), 20. (c)
21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (a), 24. (e), 25. (c)
1.
Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of –
(a) Italy
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) South Africa
(e) Britain
2.
Justice A.R.Lakshmanan’s name was recently in news as he has taken over as the-
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chairman of the 18th Law Commission
(c) Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(e) None of these
3.
Which of the following was the name of the space shuttle which brought Sunita Williams and few others on the earth recently?
(a) California
(b) Mir Space
(c) Boston Marathon
(d) Edwards
(e) Atlantis
4.
The Government of India recently announced a special Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana so that States can better their Agricultural output and performance. The size of the package is around –
(a) Rs. 20,000 crore
(b) Rs. 25,000 crore
(c) Rs. 30,000 crore
(d) Rs. 35,000 crore
(e) Rs. 40,000 crore
5.
Which of the following organizations/agencies has recently floated a Private Equity (PE) Fund with an initial corpus of Rs. 100 crore to help its client to further expand their business activities?
(a) NABARD
(b) SIDBI
(c) ECGC
(d) IDBI Bank
(e) None of these
6.
Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its educational portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Infosys
(c) Wipro
(d) TCS
(e) None of these
7.
Which of the following monuments of India is now one of the Seven New Wonders of the World?
(a) Mughal Garden of the Rashtrapati Bhawan
(b) Dal Lake of Srinagar
(c) Gol Gumbaj of Bijapur
(d) Victoria Memorial of Kolkata
(e) Taj Mahal
8.
The Indian Navy recently commissioned its new Warship ‘INS Jalashwa’. The ship is acquired from-
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) Germany
(e) U.S.A
9.
Which of the following activities does not form a part of the functions of a well established Banking Company?
(a) Liquidity Management
(b) Forex Management
(c) Outsourcing Back room operators
(d) Enhancing/Forecasting/Monitoring cash flow
(e) Frequency Modulation of Delivery channels
10.
A steeprise in the share prices of which of the following Group of Companies recently has made its Chairman India’s first only trillionire?
(a) Aditya Birla Group of Companies
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Tata Group of Companies
(d) Wipro
(e) None of these
11.
Which of the following events is not associated with the game of Tennis?
(a) French Open
(b) Australian Open
(c) US Open
(d) Formula Renault V-6
(e) Wimbledon
12.
Which of the following organizations has celebrated recently its silver jublie?
(a) ECGC
(b) State Bank of India
(c) SIDBI
(d) SEBI
(e) NABARD
13.
Who among the following cricketers completed 15,000 runs in ODIs?
(a) Rahul Dravid
(b) Ricky Ponting
(c) Brian Lara
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
(e) Sourav Ganguly
14.
Which of the following State Governments has set up a committee to consider the claim of the Gujjar community to be included in the list of scheduled tribes?
(a) Punjab
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana
(e) Rajasthan
15.
With the purpose of raising capital in the share market, the first public issue of share of the company to the investors is called…………..
(a) Initial public proposal
(b) Inclusive proposal
(c) Mutual fund
(d) Haze fund
(e) None of these
16.
Who among the following chess players won the GM Open Championship, organized recently in Luxembourg?
(a) Vishwanath Anand
(b) Koneru Humpy
(c) K.Shashikaran
(d) P.Harikrishna
(e) None of these
17.
Which of the following events took place on July 21, 1969, which termed as ‘universal wonder’ in the human history?
(a) Landing of Appolo-II on moon
(b) Invention of atom bomb
(c) Invention of Super computer
(d) Heart transplant
(e) None of these
18.
Which of the following pairs of countries is the largest arms as per data issued by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, Sweden?
(a) India-China
(b) China-Pakistan
(c) India-Pakistan
(d) Iran-China
(e) None of these
19.
Recently, Francisco Totty of Italy announced his retirement from international matches. Francisco Totty is a famous player of …………..
(a) Lawn Tennis
(b) Football
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
(e) Golf
20.
Finance Minister of India, recently, expressed his concern over the falt in production of food grains in India.
What has been the approximate quantity of food production during the last few years?
(a) 100 million tonnes
(b) 150 million tonnes
(c) 200 million tonnes
(d) 250 million tonnes
(e) 300 million tonnes
21.
What approximate amount of help has Mayawati sought from the Center to expedite the development of backward areas of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Rs. 50,000 crore
(b) Rs. 60,000 crore
(c) Rs. 70,000 crore
(d) Rs. 80,000 crore
(e) Rs. 1,00,000 crore
22.
Charges of corruption against the Chief Justice were dismissed and termination of his service was cancelled by the Supreme Court of which of the following countries/
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) Iran
(e) None of these
23.
What percentage of rural income is obtained from agricultural activities of the country as per data given to press by the Union Finance Minister in an interview?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 43%
(e) 53%
24.
In which of the following States, the Government of India is planning to set up a ‘National Institute of Handloom Technology’?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these
25.
‘Novartis’ a Swiss based firm is operating in India in big way- Novartis has its business in which of the following sectors in India?
(a) Textile
(b) Diamond Mining
(c) Pharma
(d) Paper Newsprint
(e) Steel and Iron
ANSWERS:
1. (e), 2. (b), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b), 6. (a), 7. (e), 8. (e), 9. (e), 10. (b)
11. (d), 12. (e), 13. (d), 14. (e), 15. (a), 16. (b), 17. (a), 18. (a), 19. (b), 20. (c)
21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (a), 24. (e), 25. (c)
Friday, January 15, 2010
Mental Ability Questions
Mental Ability
1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
37. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
38. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
39. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
47. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
49. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
37. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
38. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
39. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
47. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
49. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) Assistant Manager Exam., 2008
General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) Assistant Manager Exam., 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 10-08-2008)
1. The foreign trade policy announced in the year 2004 was announced for a period of—
(A) two years
(B) three years
(C) four years
(D) five years
(E) ten years
Ans : (D)
2. As per reports in the newspapers the Indian Rupee is appreciating these days. What does it really mean it ?
(1) The value of the Rupee has gone up. It is now 110 paise and not 100 paise.
(2) The exchange rate of Rupee has gone up.
(3) Now we can purchase more in one Rupee which was not possible earlier.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. As per newspaper reports the inflation in India and China was at very high level . In such a situation the central Banks of these countries are required to follow—
(A) a more liberal credit policy
(B) a very tight credit policy
(C) create an atmosphere of easy liquidity in the market.
(D) raise the limits of personal and corporate income taxes.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. The US Federal Reserve had recently reduced the interest rates by 150 basis points in the last few months. This was done because—
(A) US was going into recession.
(B) Inflation was high in countries like India and China hence a correction in economic policies by all the countries was needed.
(C) Euro had become more attractive currency, hence US wanted to save dollars from further depreciation.
(D) Iraq had bacome a very lucrative destination for foreign investment . US does not want it to happen.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. The Stock market index of London Stock Market is referred as—
(A) Sensex
(B) Footsie (FTSE)
(C) NIFTY
(D) Bullish
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. As we all know Ministry of Finance every year prepare Union Budget and present it to the parliament . Which of the following is / are the elements of the Union Budget ?
(1) Estimates of revenue and capital receipts.
(2) Ways and MeAns : to raise the revenue.
(3) Estimates of expenditure.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following is NOT used as raw material for production of nuclear power?
(A) Uranium
(B) Barylium
(C) Zirconium
(D) Sodium
(E) All these are used
Ans : (A)
8. As per figure released recently, the GDP growth in the last two years has been in the range of—
(A) 6%–7%
(B) 7%–8%
(C) 8%–9%
(D) 9%–9.5%
(E) 10%–11%
Ans : (D)
9. Sri Lankan Monitoring Mission (SLMM) has Nordic Monitors from five nations. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(A) India
(B) Sweden
(C) Norway
(D) Denmark
(E) Iceland
Ans : (A)
10.Many a times we read a term in financial newspaper GDR. What is the full form of the same?
(A) Gross Domestic Revenue
(B) Global Domestic Ratio
(C) Global Depository Receipts
(D) Gross Depository Revenue
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. The Govt. of India has fixed some targets for various programmes for the entire plan period/or a part of it. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Bharat Nirman Programme?
(1) The plan envisages irrigation of 10 million hectares additional land.
(2) It is planned that about six hundred km. of new roads will be developed every month.
(3) About 1000 new telephone connections will be given to rural areas every month so that by the end of the plan all villages in India are brought under telephone services network.
(A) Only (1) is true
(B) Only (2) is true
(C) Only (3) is true
(D) All (1), (2) & (3) are true
(E) None is true
Ans : (A)
12. Who played the role of the Hockey coach in the Film 'Chak De India' for which he was given the award for Best Actor?
(A) Shahrukh Khan
(B) Abhishek Bachchan
(C) Aaamir Khan
(D) Salman Khan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with which of the following countries which says they will create a "Multi Polar Order" based on the rule of law, sovereign equality and non-interference in internal affairs of States?
(A) USA
(B) Nepal
(C) China
(D) Britain
(E) Russia
Ans : (E)
14. Recently one Indian cricket player has become the sixth batsman to earn 10000 runs in Test Crickets. The name of the player is—
(A) Virendra Sehwag
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Sourav Ganguly
(D) Anil Kumble
(E) Rahul Dravid
Ans : (E)
15. Yousuf Raza Gillani who was elected the Prime Minister of Pakistan is from which political parties?
(A) Jamiat-e-Ulema Islami
(B) Pakistan People's Party
(C) Awami National Party
(D) Muslim League
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. As per the Govt. Notifications / Advertisements given in various newspapers the wheat procurement this year was of a record of 210 lakh MTs. Which of the following was/were the contributory factors in such a record making procurement?
(1) Minimum support price was keep as Rs. 1,500/- per quintal.
(2) Wheat was also procured from non-traditional State like Gujrat and Maharashtra
(3) State Govt. were also involved actively in the Scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
17. Very often we read in newspapers that some sports persons have to go for a Dope Test after their performance in the field. Why Dope Test is conducted ?
(1) To know the general health of the sports person
(2) To know the sugar level of their blood
(3) To detect whether they have taken any performance inhancing drugs
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Badminton
(C) Tennis
(D) Chess
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Hint : Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of Football.
19. As per the newspaper reports some economically developed states onlt hold about 60% of the total 'Demat Accounts in India. A Demat Account is—
(A) an acount which is opened by the people of the lower income groups of the society.
(B) an account in which trading of the shares is done.
(C) an account which can be opened only by minors.
(D) an account which can be operated by big corporate houses and are mainly business accounts like current accounts.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Federal Reserve is the Financial Organization of the—
(A) USA
(B) Britain
(C) France
(D) Japan
(E) Germany
Ans : (A)
21. Which of the following organization is known as Market Regulator in India?
(A) IBA
(B) SEBI
(C) AMFI
(D) NSDL
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following phenomenon occurred /surfaced recently associated with the economy of USA has put a catastrophic influence on the economy of the World?
(A) Increase in the oil prices
(B) High level of inflation
(C) Huge and mounting expenditure due to attack on Iraq by USA and allied forces.
(D) Sub-prime Crisis
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on changing various ratio/rates frequently. Why this is done?
(1) To keep inflation under control.
(2) To ensure that Indian Rupee does not loose its market value.
(3) To ensure that Banks do not earn huge profits at the cost of public money.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which of the following is true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(1) It is applicable only in 100 rural districts.
(2) It gives a guaranteed employment of 100 days to all those who are eligible for the same and are also willing to take it.
(3) This Act is applicable only for men between the age of 21-65. Women do not get the benefit of the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. Many times we here about SEZ in newspapers/magazines. What is the full form of SEZ?
(A) Small Economic Zone
(B) Social Economic Zone
(C) Special Enforcewment Zone
(D) Service & Economic Zone
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 10-08-2008)
1. The foreign trade policy announced in the year 2004 was announced for a period of—
(A) two years
(B) three years
(C) four years
(D) five years
(E) ten years
Ans : (D)
2. As per reports in the newspapers the Indian Rupee is appreciating these days. What does it really mean it ?
(1) The value of the Rupee has gone up. It is now 110 paise and not 100 paise.
(2) The exchange rate of Rupee has gone up.
(3) Now we can purchase more in one Rupee which was not possible earlier.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. As per newspaper reports the inflation in India and China was at very high level . In such a situation the central Banks of these countries are required to follow—
(A) a more liberal credit policy
(B) a very tight credit policy
(C) create an atmosphere of easy liquidity in the market.
(D) raise the limits of personal and corporate income taxes.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. The US Federal Reserve had recently reduced the interest rates by 150 basis points in the last few months. This was done because—
(A) US was going into recession.
(B) Inflation was high in countries like India and China hence a correction in economic policies by all the countries was needed.
(C) Euro had become more attractive currency, hence US wanted to save dollars from further depreciation.
(D) Iraq had bacome a very lucrative destination for foreign investment . US does not want it to happen.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. The Stock market index of London Stock Market is referred as—
(A) Sensex
(B) Footsie (FTSE)
(C) NIFTY
(D) Bullish
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. As we all know Ministry of Finance every year prepare Union Budget and present it to the parliament . Which of the following is / are the elements of the Union Budget ?
(1) Estimates of revenue and capital receipts.
(2) Ways and MeAns : to raise the revenue.
(3) Estimates of expenditure.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following is NOT used as raw material for production of nuclear power?
(A) Uranium
(B) Barylium
(C) Zirconium
(D) Sodium
(E) All these are used
Ans : (A)
8. As per figure released recently, the GDP growth in the last two years has been in the range of—
(A) 6%–7%
(B) 7%–8%
(C) 8%–9%
(D) 9%–9.5%
(E) 10%–11%
Ans : (D)
9. Sri Lankan Monitoring Mission (SLMM) has Nordic Monitors from five nations. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(A) India
(B) Sweden
(C) Norway
(D) Denmark
(E) Iceland
Ans : (A)
10.Many a times we read a term in financial newspaper GDR. What is the full form of the same?
(A) Gross Domestic Revenue
(B) Global Domestic Ratio
(C) Global Depository Receipts
(D) Gross Depository Revenue
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. The Govt. of India has fixed some targets for various programmes for the entire plan period/or a part of it. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Bharat Nirman Programme?
(1) The plan envisages irrigation of 10 million hectares additional land.
(2) It is planned that about six hundred km. of new roads will be developed every month.
(3) About 1000 new telephone connections will be given to rural areas every month so that by the end of the plan all villages in India are brought under telephone services network.
(A) Only (1) is true
(B) Only (2) is true
(C) Only (3) is true
(D) All (1), (2) & (3) are true
(E) None is true
Ans : (A)
12. Who played the role of the Hockey coach in the Film 'Chak De India' for which he was given the award for Best Actor?
(A) Shahrukh Khan
(B) Abhishek Bachchan
(C) Aaamir Khan
(D) Salman Khan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with which of the following countries which says they will create a "Multi Polar Order" based on the rule of law, sovereign equality and non-interference in internal affairs of States?
(A) USA
(B) Nepal
(C) China
(D) Britain
(E) Russia
Ans : (E)
14. Recently one Indian cricket player has become the sixth batsman to earn 10000 runs in Test Crickets. The name of the player is—
(A) Virendra Sehwag
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Sourav Ganguly
(D) Anil Kumble
(E) Rahul Dravid
Ans : (E)
15. Yousuf Raza Gillani who was elected the Prime Minister of Pakistan is from which political parties?
(A) Jamiat-e-Ulema Islami
(B) Pakistan People's Party
(C) Awami National Party
(D) Muslim League
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. As per the Govt. Notifications / Advertisements given in various newspapers the wheat procurement this year was of a record of 210 lakh MTs. Which of the following was/were the contributory factors in such a record making procurement?
(1) Minimum support price was keep as Rs. 1,500/- per quintal.
(2) Wheat was also procured from non-traditional State like Gujrat and Maharashtra
(3) State Govt. were also involved actively in the Scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
17. Very often we read in newspapers that some sports persons have to go for a Dope Test after their performance in the field. Why Dope Test is conducted ?
(1) To know the general health of the sports person
(2) To know the sugar level of their blood
(3) To detect whether they have taken any performance inhancing drugs
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Badminton
(C) Tennis
(D) Chess
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Hint : Santosh Trophy is associated with the game of Football.
19. As per the newspaper reports some economically developed states onlt hold about 60% of the total 'Demat Accounts in India. A Demat Account is—
(A) an acount which is opened by the people of the lower income groups of the society.
(B) an account in which trading of the shares is done.
(C) an account which can be opened only by minors.
(D) an account which can be operated by big corporate houses and are mainly business accounts like current accounts.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Federal Reserve is the Financial Organization of the—
(A) USA
(B) Britain
(C) France
(D) Japan
(E) Germany
Ans : (A)
21. Which of the following organization is known as Market Regulator in India?
(A) IBA
(B) SEBI
(C) AMFI
(D) NSDL
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following phenomenon occurred /surfaced recently associated with the economy of USA has put a catastrophic influence on the economy of the World?
(A) Increase in the oil prices
(B) High level of inflation
(C) Huge and mounting expenditure due to attack on Iraq by USA and allied forces.
(D) Sub-prime Crisis
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on changing various ratio/rates frequently. Why this is done?
(1) To keep inflation under control.
(2) To ensure that Indian Rupee does not loose its market value.
(3) To ensure that Banks do not earn huge profits at the cost of public money.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which of the following is true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(1) It is applicable only in 100 rural districts.
(2) It gives a guaranteed employment of 100 days to all those who are eligible for the same and are also willing to take it.
(3) This Act is applicable only for men between the age of 21-65. Women do not get the benefit of the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. Many times we here about SEZ in newspapers/magazines. What is the full form of SEZ?
(A) Small Economic Zone
(B) Social Economic Zone
(C) Special Enforcewment Zone
(D) Service & Economic Zone
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar (A.S.M) Exam., 2009
R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar (A.S.M) Exam., 2009 : Solved Paper
(Held on 30-8-2009)
1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ?
(A) Muktasar
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)
2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ?
(A) Heat is absorbed
B) Heat is released
(C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ?
(A) Zenon
(B) Argon
(C) Helium
(D) Chlorine
Ans : (D)
4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ?
(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ?
(A) 30°C
(B) 27°C
(C) 300°C
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)
7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ?
(A) Mysore
(B) Kanchipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)
8. Tripitik is the scripture of—
(A) Jain religion
(B) Hindu religion
(C) Buddhishtha religion
(D) Muslim religion
Ans : (C)
9. Who is the author of ‘Adhe-Adhure’ ?
(A) Mohan Rakesh
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Nirala
(D) Pant
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 43rd
(C) 44th
(D) 39th
Ans : (A)
11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Anand
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mysore
Ans : (D)
12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ?
(A) Nonviolence
(B) Violence
(C) Triratna
(D) Truth
Ans : (A)
13. Light-year measures which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of light
(B) Mass
(C) Time
(D) Distance
Ans : (D)
14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethylene
(D) Acetylene
Ans : (C)
15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ?
(A) Aravind Ghosh
(B) P. C. Banerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Paul
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad
Ans : (A)
16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Jahangir
Ans : (D)
17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 18–21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below :
18. EWE
(A) Calf
(B) Female sheep
(C) Deer
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Buffalo
(A) Calf
(B) Baby box
(C) Baby bison
(D) Baby cow
Ans : (C)
20. Veneration—
(A) Esteem
(B) High respect
(C) Devotion
(D) Worship
Ans : (B)
21. Vicious—
(A) Remorseless
(B) Ferocious
(C) Kind
(D) Wicked
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 22–25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question :
22. Bizarre
(A) Colourful
(B) Odd
(C) Insipid
(D) Smart
Ans : (B)
23. Innuendo
(A) Narration
(B) Insinuation
(C) Insist
(D) Insutale
Ans : (B)
24. Salutary
(A) Welcome
(B) Discharge
(C) Promoting
(D) Remove
Ans : (C)
25. Fictile
(A) Fiction
(B) Moulded
(C) Fictitious
(D) Smooth
Ans : (B)
26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as—
(A) Soft ice
(B) Dry ice
(C) White ice
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called—
(A) Latent heat of vaporisation
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of sublimation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ?
(i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily.
(ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct
(D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct
Ans : (D)
29. The product ‘Fair and Lovely’ is related to—
(A) WIPRO
(B) I.T.C.
(C) P & G
(D) H.U.L.
Ans : (D)
30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ?
(i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management.
(ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government’s, should adopt the same entrance standard.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct
(D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct
Ans : (B)
31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (D)
32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is—
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (D)
33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which—
(A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around
(B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around
(C) There is low pressure all around
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
34. The ‘Ocean of Storms’ is the name given to—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) A waterless area on moon surface
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. The capital of Pallavas was—
(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
Ans : (B)
36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (C)
37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ?
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 60%
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. What determines the sex of a child ?
(A) Chromosomes of the father
(B) Chromosomes of the mother
(C) RH factor of the parents
(D) Blood group of the father
Ans : (A)
39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are—
(A) Indian and Roman
(B) Indian and Egyptian
(C) Greek and Roman
(D) Indian and Greek
Ans : (D)
40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ?
(A) HP
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) IBM
Ans : (D)
41. The first summit of SAARC was held at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dhaka
Ans : (D)
42. The wire of flash bulb is made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver
Ans : (C)
43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called—
(A) Isochors
(B) Isothermals
(C) V.T.P. Curves
(D) Isocurves
Ans : (B)
44. Project Tiger was launched in—
(A) 1973
(B) 1976
(C) 1978
(D) 1983
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement.
45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ?
(A) None
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)
46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)—
(A) (17, 21, 29)
(B) (31, 37, 49)
(C) (13, 15, 23)
(D) (41, 43, 47)
Ans : (D)
Directions—What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 …?…
(A) 2456415
(B) 2235675
(C) 2980565
(D) 2714985
Ans : (D)
48. If ‘VEHEMENT’ is written as ‘VEHETNEM’ then in that code how will you code ‘MOURNFUL’ ?
(A) MOURLUFN
(B) MOUNULFR
(C) OURMNFUL
(D) URNFULMO
Ans : (A)
49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ?
(A) Gratify
(B) Avarice
(C) Accessory
(D) Amend
Ans : (C)
50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Praduman
(B) Janaki
(C) Shreshtha
(D) Chhama
Ans : (D)
51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 27
Ans : (B)
52. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780
(B) 8354
(C) 4892
(D) 3478
Ans : (B)
53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) K
Ans : (D)
54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than three
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.
55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ?
(A) Ignorance
(B) Knowledge
(C) Author
(D) Teacher
Ans : (A)
56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?
(A) Signal
(B) Vehicle
(C) Motion
(D) Lane
Ans : (A)
57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses
(A) Leave
(B) Permit
(C) Agency
(D) Policy
Ans : (D)
58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ?
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 17
Ans : (B)
59. Pick out the odd in the following—
(A) Ashok—Assam
(B) Poonam—Punjab
(C) Gyanendra—Gujarat
(D) Anjana—Rajasthan
Ans : (D)
60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ?
(A) 45
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 40
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ?
(A) 13•5
(B) 4•5
(C) 16•5
(D) 7•5
Ans : (D)
62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555
(A) 606
(B) 646
(C) 586
(D) 716
Ans : (C)
63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is—
(A) 32976
(B) 32679
(C) 32769
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 13
Ans : (C)
65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ……… cm.
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8
Ans : (D)
67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20
Ans : (D)
68. What is the meaning of beckoned ?
(A) Summon by sign or gesture
(B) Did not signal
(C) Did not call
(D) Invite
Ans : (A)
69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find the number of coins of each value.
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 700
(D) 600
Ans : (D)
70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 240
Ans : (A)
71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is—
(A) 41
(B) 51
(C) 61
(D) 42
Ans : (A)
72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ?
(A) 700
(B) 650
(C) 720
(D) 750
Ans : (C)
73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is—
(A) 40458
(B) 34058
(C) 43058
(D) 40358
Ans : (D)
74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37•50, find the no. of days he was absent—
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word ?
75. Quixotic
(A) Visionary
(B) Whimsical
(C) Realistic
(D) Foolish
Ans : (C)
76. Rabid
(A) Mad
(B) Normal
(C) Furious
(D) Fanatical
Ans : (B)
77. Scurrilous
(A) Inoffensive
(B) Vulgar
(C) Insulting
(D) Coarse
Ans : (A)
78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ?
(A) 483
(B) 766
(C) 674
(D) 598
Ans : (D)
79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 1
(D) 25
Ans : (C)
80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the following colours refracts the most ?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Orange
(D) Green
Ans : (A)
81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460. What is that number ?
(A) 109
(B) 112
(C) 111
(D) 115
Ans : (B)
82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59% of this number ?
(A) 900
(B) 420
(C) 885
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
83. A–B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then, what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S – T ?
(A) Son
(B) Daughter
(C) Sister
(D) Wife
Ans : (C)
84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of the following dynasties ?
(A) Rashtrakoot
(B) Pallav
(C) Pala
(D) Chola
Ans : (A)
85. But for the Surgeon’s skill, the patient ……… died.
(A) may have
(B) must have
(C) should have
(D) would have
Ans : (D)
86. I want to see the Principal, …… I have something to tell him urgently.
(A) so
(B) for
(C) since
(D) and
Ans : (C)
87. I wasn’t really listening and didn’t ……… what he said.
(A) catch
(B) receive
(C) accept
(D) take
Ans : (A)
88. The first division of Congress took place in—
(A) Surat
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)
89. What is ginger ?
(A) Flower
(B) Root
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)
90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ?
(A) Udaigiri
(B) Dhauli
(C) Balasore
(D) Barabaki
Ans : (B)
91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the following places of Orissa ?
(A) Beharampur
(B) Sunabeda
(C) Koraput
(D) Sambalpur
Ans : (C)
(Held on 30-8-2009)
1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ?
(A) Muktasar
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)
2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ?
(A) Heat is absorbed
B) Heat is released
(C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ?
(A) Zenon
(B) Argon
(C) Helium
(D) Chlorine
Ans : (D)
4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ?
(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ?
(A) 30°C
(B) 27°C
(C) 300°C
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)
7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ?
(A) Mysore
(B) Kanchipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)
8. Tripitik is the scripture of—
(A) Jain religion
(B) Hindu religion
(C) Buddhishtha religion
(D) Muslim religion
Ans : (C)
9. Who is the author of ‘Adhe-Adhure’ ?
(A) Mohan Rakesh
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Nirala
(D) Pant
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 43rd
(C) 44th
(D) 39th
Ans : (A)
11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Anand
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mysore
Ans : (D)
12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ?
(A) Nonviolence
(B) Violence
(C) Triratna
(D) Truth
Ans : (A)
13. Light-year measures which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of light
(B) Mass
(C) Time
(D) Distance
Ans : (D)
14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethylene
(D) Acetylene
Ans : (C)
15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ?
(A) Aravind Ghosh
(B) P. C. Banerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Paul
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad
Ans : (A)
16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Jahangir
Ans : (D)
17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 18–21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below :
18. EWE
(A) Calf
(B) Female sheep
(C) Deer
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Buffalo
(A) Calf
(B) Baby box
(C) Baby bison
(D) Baby cow
Ans : (C)
20. Veneration—
(A) Esteem
(B) High respect
(C) Devotion
(D) Worship
Ans : (B)
21. Vicious—
(A) Remorseless
(B) Ferocious
(C) Kind
(D) Wicked
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 22–25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question :
22. Bizarre
(A) Colourful
(B) Odd
(C) Insipid
(D) Smart
Ans : (B)
23. Innuendo
(A) Narration
(B) Insinuation
(C) Insist
(D) Insutale
Ans : (B)
24. Salutary
(A) Welcome
(B) Discharge
(C) Promoting
(D) Remove
Ans : (C)
25. Fictile
(A) Fiction
(B) Moulded
(C) Fictitious
(D) Smooth
Ans : (B)
26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as—
(A) Soft ice
(B) Dry ice
(C) White ice
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called—
(A) Latent heat of vaporisation
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of sublimation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ?
(i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily.
(ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct
(D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct
Ans : (D)
29. The product ‘Fair and Lovely’ is related to—
(A) WIPRO
(B) I.T.C.
(C) P & G
(D) H.U.L.
Ans : (D)
30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ?
(i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management.
(ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government’s, should adopt the same entrance standard.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct
(D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct
Ans : (B)
31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (D)
32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is—
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (D)
33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which—
(A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around
(B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around
(C) There is low pressure all around
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
34. The ‘Ocean of Storms’ is the name given to—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) A waterless area on moon surface
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. The capital of Pallavas was—
(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
Ans : (B)
36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (C)
37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ?
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 60%
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. What determines the sex of a child ?
(A) Chromosomes of the father
(B) Chromosomes of the mother
(C) RH factor of the parents
(D) Blood group of the father
Ans : (A)
39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are—
(A) Indian and Roman
(B) Indian and Egyptian
(C) Greek and Roman
(D) Indian and Greek
Ans : (D)
40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ?
(A) HP
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) IBM
Ans : (D)
41. The first summit of SAARC was held at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dhaka
Ans : (D)
42. The wire of flash bulb is made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver
Ans : (C)
43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called—
(A) Isochors
(B) Isothermals
(C) V.T.P. Curves
(D) Isocurves
Ans : (B)
44. Project Tiger was launched in—
(A) 1973
(B) 1976
(C) 1978
(D) 1983
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement.
45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ?
(A) None
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)
46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)—
(A) (17, 21, 29)
(B) (31, 37, 49)
(C) (13, 15, 23)
(D) (41, 43, 47)
Ans : (D)
Directions—What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 …?…
(A) 2456415
(B) 2235675
(C) 2980565
(D) 2714985
Ans : (D)
48. If ‘VEHEMENT’ is written as ‘VEHETNEM’ then in that code how will you code ‘MOURNFUL’ ?
(A) MOURLUFN
(B) MOUNULFR
(C) OURMNFUL
(D) URNFULMO
Ans : (A)
49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ?
(A) Gratify
(B) Avarice
(C) Accessory
(D) Amend
Ans : (C)
50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Praduman
(B) Janaki
(C) Shreshtha
(D) Chhama
Ans : (D)
51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 27
Ans : (B)
52. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780
(B) 8354
(C) 4892
(D) 3478
Ans : (B)
53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) K
Ans : (D)
54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than three
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.
55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ?
(A) Ignorance
(B) Knowledge
(C) Author
(D) Teacher
Ans : (A)
56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?
(A) Signal
(B) Vehicle
(C) Motion
(D) Lane
Ans : (A)
57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses
(A) Leave
(B) Permit
(C) Agency
(D) Policy
Ans : (D)
58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ?
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 17
Ans : (B)
59. Pick out the odd in the following—
(A) Ashok—Assam
(B) Poonam—Punjab
(C) Gyanendra—Gujarat
(D) Anjana—Rajasthan
Ans : (D)
60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ?
(A) 45
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 40
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ?
(A) 13•5
(B) 4•5
(C) 16•5
(D) 7•5
Ans : (D)
62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555
(A) 606
(B) 646
(C) 586
(D) 716
Ans : (C)
63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is—
(A) 32976
(B) 32679
(C) 32769
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 13
Ans : (C)
65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ……… cm.
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8
Ans : (D)
67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20
Ans : (D)
68. What is the meaning of beckoned ?
(A) Summon by sign or gesture
(B) Did not signal
(C) Did not call
(D) Invite
Ans : (A)
69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find the number of coins of each value.
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 700
(D) 600
Ans : (D)
70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 240
Ans : (A)
71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is—
(A) 41
(B) 51
(C) 61
(D) 42
Ans : (A)
72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ?
(A) 700
(B) 650
(C) 720
(D) 750
Ans : (C)
73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is—
(A) 40458
(B) 34058
(C) 43058
(D) 40358
Ans : (D)
74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37•50, find the no. of days he was absent—
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word ?
75. Quixotic
(A) Visionary
(B) Whimsical
(C) Realistic
(D) Foolish
Ans : (C)
76. Rabid
(A) Mad
(B) Normal
(C) Furious
(D) Fanatical
Ans : (B)
77. Scurrilous
(A) Inoffensive
(B) Vulgar
(C) Insulting
(D) Coarse
Ans : (A)
78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ?
(A) 483
(B) 766
(C) 674
(D) 598
Ans : (D)
79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 1
(D) 25
Ans : (C)
80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the following colours refracts the most ?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Orange
(D) Green
Ans : (A)
81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460. What is that number ?
(A) 109
(B) 112
(C) 111
(D) 115
Ans : (B)
82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59% of this number ?
(A) 900
(B) 420
(C) 885
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
83. A–B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then, what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S – T ?
(A) Son
(B) Daughter
(C) Sister
(D) Wife
Ans : (C)
84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of the following dynasties ?
(A) Rashtrakoot
(B) Pallav
(C) Pala
(D) Chola
Ans : (A)
85. But for the Surgeon’s skill, the patient ……… died.
(A) may have
(B) must have
(C) should have
(D) would have
Ans : (D)
86. I want to see the Principal, …… I have something to tell him urgently.
(A) so
(B) for
(C) since
(D) and
Ans : (C)
87. I wasn’t really listening and didn’t ……… what he said.
(A) catch
(B) receive
(C) accept
(D) take
Ans : (A)
88. The first division of Congress took place in—
(A) Surat
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)
89. What is ginger ?
(A) Flower
(B) Root
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)
90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ?
(A) Udaigiri
(B) Dhauli
(C) Balasore
(D) Barabaki
Ans : (B)
91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the following places of Orissa ?
(A) Beharampur
(B) Sunabeda
(C) Koraput
(D) Sambalpur
Ans : (C)
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