SSC DELHI EXAM GENERAL AWARENESS SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)

INTELLIGENCE BUREAU ACIO EXAM SOLVED PAPER ( EXAM HELD ON: 10-07-2011)

1. How many languages and dialects are spoken by people all over the world?
   
   1. 6,000
   2. 9,000
   3. 4,000
   4. 1,000
2. Approximately, how many people speak Chinese language?
   
   1. 1 billion
   2. 1 million
   3. 1 lakh
   4. 1 thousand
3. The language with the richest vocabulary is:
   
   1. Hindi
   2. French
   3. English
   4. German
4. English Language have more than ?? words:
   
   1. 4,50,000
   2. 45,000
   3. 4,500
   4. 450
5. The oldest Indian language is:
   
   1. Telugu
   2. Hindu
   3. Tamil
   4. Punjabi
6. Which book has been printed in the maximum number of languages and these scripts?
   
   1. The Bible
   2. Hiraka Sutra
   3. The Super Book
   4. None of these
7. The only religious book ever printed in a shorthand scripts is:
   
   1. The Ramayana
   2. The Mahabharata
   3. The bible
   4. Guru Granth Sahib
8. The oldest printed work in the world, which dates back to AD 868 is:
   
   1. The Bible
   2. The Hirake Sutra
   3. The Ramayana
   4. The Mahabharata
9. The largest book, the super book, is ?? and weight is ??
   
   1. 270 cm, 300 cm, 252 kg.
   2. 100 cm, 110 cm, 100 kg.
   3. 200 cm, 100 cm, 60 kg.
   4. None of these
10. Les Hommes de bonne volonté is the:
    
    1. Longest novel ever published
    2. Shortest novel every published
    3. The oldest novel
    4. None of these
11. The author of the play/book ?Ratnawali? is:
    
    1. Tulsidas
    2. Kalidas
    3. Harsha Vardhan
    4. Prem Chand
12. Which of the following in the book/play written by Maithili Sharan Gupt?
    
    1. Saket
    2. Satyartha Prakash
    3. Shakuntala
    4. Savitri
13. The book ?Satyartha Prakash? was written by:
    
    1. Swami Dayanand
    2. Swami Vivekanand
    3. Sarojini Naidu
    4. Kalidas
14. The play/book ?Shakuntala? was written by:
    
    1. Maithili Sharan gupt
    2. Swami Dayanand
    3. Kalidas
    4. Tulsidas
15. Which of the following is the author of ?Song of India, The?:
    
    1. Firdausi
    2. Sarojini Naidu
    3. Lala Lajpat Rai
    4. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
16. The author of the book ?Time machine? is:
    
    1. Lewis Carroll
    2. Robert Louis Stevenson
    3. Charles Lamb
    4. H.G. Wells
17. Which of the following book was written by Tulsidas:
    
    1. Vinay Patrika
    2. Ramcharitmanas
    3. Both (a) and (b)
    4. Yashodhara
18. The book ?Vish Vriksha? was written by:
    
    1. Bankimchandra Chatterjee
    2. Annie Basant
    3. Tulsidas
    4. Kalidas
19. The book ?We Indians? was written by:
    
    1. H.G. Wells
    2. Khushwant Singh
    3. James Jeans
    4. Thomas Moore
20. Which of he following is he author of play/book ?Yashodhara?:
    
    1. Maithili Sharan Gupt
    2. Khushwant Singh
    3. Bankimchandra Chatterjee
    4. Sarojini Naidu
21. Dhyan Chand was:
    
    1. A great hockey player
    2. Captained he Indian hockey team which won a gold medal in 1936 Berlin Olympics
    3. Scored 101 goals at the Olympic games and 300 goals in the international matches.
    4. All the statements are correct
22. Who developed the small pox vaccination?
    
    1. Eduard Jenner
    2. Alexander Fleming
    3. Albert Einstein
    4. None of these
23. Euclid was:
    
    1. Greek mathematician
    2. Contributor to the use of deductive principles of logic as the basis of geometry
    3. Propounded the geometrical theosems
    4. All the statements are correct
24. Fa-hien was:
    
    1. The first Buddhist pilgrim of China to visit India during the reign of Chandragupta Vikramaditya
    2. The discover of Puerto Rico and Jamaica
    3. The first Buddhist pilgrim of India to visit China
    4. None of these
25. Firdausi was:
    
    1. A person poet
    2. Well known for his epic ?Sharnama?
    3. Both are correct
    4. None of these
26. Who is also known as the ?Lady with the Lamp??
    
    1. Florence Nightingale
    2. Sarojini Naidu
    3. Rani Laxmibai
    4. Bachendri Pal
27. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit was:
    
    1. A German Physicist
    2. Developed the mercury thermometer in 1714
    3. Devised temperature scale
    4. All are correct
28. Galileo was an Italian astronomer who:
    
    1. Developed the telescope
    2. Discovered 4 satellites of Jupiter
    3. Discovered that the movement of the pendulum produces a regular time measurement.
    4. All are correct
29. Who is known as the father of English poetry?
    
    1. Geoffrey Chaucer
    2. John Milton
    3. John Keats
    4. None of these
30. The American General who led the revolt against the British & declared American independence was:
    
    1. George Washington
    2. Bill Clinton
    3. George Bush
    4. None of these
31. Marco Polo
    
    1. Discovered Greenland
    2. Traveled three China, India and other parts of Asia
    3. Traveled round the cape of Good Hope
    4. Discovered Canada
32. Who landed on the mainland of South America for the First time?
    
    1. Discovered Greenland
    2. Landed on the mainland of south America
    3. Discovered the sea route from Europe to India.
    4. None of these
33. Who was first to sail sound the strait, reached the Philippines and named the Pacific Ocean?
    
    1. Ferdinand Magelion
    2. Jacques Carter
    3. William Janszoom
    4. Vasco da Gama
34. Who discovered Australia?
    
    1. Eric the Red
    2. Leif Ericsson
    3. William Janszoom
    4. None of these
35. Who located the magnetic pole?
    
    1. Sir James Clark
    2. Rear Admiral
    3. Sir John Ross
    4. All the above
36. Who was first to reach the South Pole?
    
    1. Rear Admiral
    2. Capt. Amundsen
    3. Capt. R. E. Scett
    4. Sir Edmund Hillary
37. Who was the first to cross the Antarctic?
    
    1. Sir Vivian Fuchs & sir Edmund Hillary
    2. Maj. Yuri Gagarin and Maj. Gherman Titor
    3. Capt. R. E. Scott
    4. All of these
38. Who were the first to journey into space?
    
    1. Maj. Yori Gagarin and maj. Gherman Titor from Russia
    2. Comm. Grissom and Col john Glenn from America
    3. Both are correct
    4. None of these
39. Who was the first man to ?Walk? in space?
    
    1. Col. Leonor from Russia
    2. Major White from America
    3. Both of these
    4. None of these
40. Who were the first to circle the moon?
    
    1. Frank boreman, Bill Anders and Jim Lovell
    2. Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin
    3. Charles Conrad and Alan Bean
    4. None of these
41. ?Arena? is the special name for playground of:
    
    1. Cricket
    2. Lawn Tennis
    3. Wrestling
    4. Skating
42. The national sport of Canada is:
    
    1. Tennis and cricket
    2. Lacrosse
    3. Judo
    4. Rugby and Football
43. Badminton is the national sport at:
    
    1. Malaysia
    2. Scotland
    3. China
    4. Former soviet Union
44. Where is the Vallabhbhai Patel stadium located?
    
    1. Kolkata
    2. Mumbai
    3. Chennai
    4. Delhi
45. Where is the sports stadium, Green Park, located?
    
    1. Kanpur
    2. Jamshedpur
    3. Cuttack
    4. Patiala
46. For which of the following disciplines in Nobel Prize awarded?
    
    1. Physics and chemistry
    2. Physiology or Medicine
    3. Literature, Peace and Economics
    4. All the above
47. On which date is Nobel Prize awarded?
    
    1. December 10
    2. January 10
    3. April 10
    4. July 10
48. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, awarded the Noble Prize in:
    
    1. Physics
    2. Economics
    3. Chemistry
    4. (a) and (c)
49. The committee of the Norwegian Parliament awards the prize for:
    
    1. Economics
    2. Peace
    3. Medicine
    4. Literature
50. Dr. Linus Carl Pauling is the only person to have won two Nobel Prizes individually for:
    
    1. Chemistry in 1954, peace prize in 1962
    2. Peace prize in 1954, Chemistry in 1962
    3. Physics in 154, Medicine in 1962
    4. Medicine in 1954, Physics in 1962

Answers

1. b	2. a	3. c	4. a	5. c
6. a	7. c	8. b	9. a	10. a
11. c	12. a	13. a	14. c	15. b
16. d	17. c	18. a	19. b	20. a
21. d	22. a	23. d	24. a	25. c
26. a	27. d	28. d	29. a	30. a
31. b	32. b	33. a	34. c	35. d
36. b	37. a	38. c	39. c	40. a
41. c	42. b	43. a	44. b	45. a
46. d	47. a	48. d	49. b	50. a

Essay writing Topics:(Not more than 400 words)

 

1)Emergency Trends in india

2)Security threats in India

3)Cultural Diversity In India

S.S.C. (C.P.O.) Sub-Inspectors Exam., 2011

English Comprehension 

(Held on 28-8-2011)

Directions—(Q. 1–5) In these questions, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle (●) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

1. The political candidate talked (A) / as if she has already been elected (B) / to the presidency. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (B)

2. The way to increase the production of the food (A) / is to bring more land (B) / under cultivation. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (A)

3. The girls watched intently (A) / as the model applied her make-up (B) / with a practiced hand. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (C)

4. If he is a millionaire (A) / he would help (B) / the millennium project. (C) No Error. (D)
Ans : (A)

5. The Prime Minister along with his Cabinet colleagues (A) / have been welcomed by the Chief Minister (B) / at a formal ceremony. (C) No Error (D)
Ans : (B)


Directions–(Q. 6–10) In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle (●) in the Answer Sheet.

6. I am exhausted, let’s …… a day.
(A) call it
(B) call at
(C) call off
(D) call in
Ans : (A)

7. The worker used …… to patch up the hole in the wall.
(A) Sand
(B) Cement
(C) Soil
(D) Grass
Ans : (B)

8. She made her stepson her ……to her large fortune.
(A) Hare
(B) Heir
(C) Hair
(D) Here
Ans : (B)

9. The stewardess showed the passenger …….
(A) When to start travelling
(B) Where to land the plane
(C) How to fasten the seat belt
(D) How to judge the altitude of the plane
Ans : (C)

10. Many people reported …… a noise in the night.
(A) To hear
(B) Having heard
(C) To have heard
(D) Been hearing
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 11–15) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.

11. Stringent
(A) Flexible
(B) Inflexible
(C) Staunch
(D) Tough
Ans : (B)

12. Deliberately
(A) Spontaneously
(B) Inadvertently
(C) Intentionally
(D) Naturally
Ans : (C)

13. Flaunt
(A) Cut
(B) Deceive
(C) Exhibit
(D) Blame
Ans : (C)

14. Subjugate
(A) Capitulate
(B) Conquer
(C) Strike
(D) Confuse
Ans : (B)

15. Behaviour
(A) Conduct
(B) Blessing
(C) Character
(D) Response
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 16–20) In these questions, choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

16. Impede
(A) Obstruct
(B) Advance
(C) Linger
(D) Guarantee
Ans : (B)

17. Perilous
(A) Carefree
(B) Impetuous
(C) Safe
(D) Impure
Ans : (C)

18. Brittle
(A) Weak
(B) Strong
(C) Fragile
(D) Bright
Ans : (A)

19. Callous
(A) Rude
(B) Insensitive
(C) Indifferent
(D) Sympathetic
Ans : (A)

20. Dishevelled
(A) Composed
(B) Tidy
(C) Confident
(D) Jovial
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 21–25) In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/Phrase Printed in Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

21. He and his friend are sailing in the same boat.
(A) Sailing together in the same boat
(B) Sharing the financial and social condition
(C) Being in the same difficult situation
(D) Getting rid of the difficult situation
Ans : (C)

22. To be successful in Today’s world, we require the gift of the gab.
(A) Ability to speak well
(B) Good interpersonal skills
(C) Divine help and guidance
(D) A fierce competitive spirit
Ans : (A)

23. Winter was so bad that the nomadic tribesmen found it difficult to keep the wolf from the door.
(A) Hunt wild animals
(B) Escape starvation
(C) Get woollen clothes
(D) Walk on ice
Ans : (B)

24. There is no soft option to the crisis now.
(A) Popular opinion
(B) Popular solution
(C) Easy and agreeable option
(D) Difficult choice
Ans : (C)

25. The teacher’s announcement to conduct a snap test came as a bolt from the blue to many students.
(A) Imaginary
(B) Unexpected
(C) Forbidden
(D) Heavenly
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 26–30) In these questions, A part of the sentence is bold part of which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at (A), (B) and (C) below which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

26. He work hard will succeed.
(A) Who will work hard
(B) Who will be working hard
(C) Who works hard
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

27. It is high time you started revising your lessons.
(A) Start
(B) Had started
(C) Will start
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)

28. With these extra people you can work easily with this job.
(A) Deal
(B) Improve
(C) Cope
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

29. I visited my aunt just before a week.
(A) A week before
(B) A week earlier
(C) A week ago
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

30. Foreigners often come a cross with serious difficulties in studying English.
(A) Have to come across with
(B) Come cross with
(C) Come across
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 31–35) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

31. The study of insects—
(A) Anthropology
(B) Zoology
(C) Etymology
(D) Entomology
Ans : (D)

32. List of issues to be discussed at a meeting—
(A) Schedule
(B) Agenda
(C) Time-table
(D) Plan
Ans : (B)

33. Speed of an object in one direction—
(A) Pace
(B) Tempo
(C) Velodrome
(D) Velocity
Ans : (D)

34. The place where public, government or historical records are kept—
(A) Coffer
(B) Pantry
(C) Archives
(D) Scullery
Ans : (C)

35. Theft of another person’s writings or ideas and passing them off as one’s own—
(A) Plagiarism
(B) Burglary
(C) Piracy
(D) Pilferage
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 36–40) In these questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

36. (A) Embarass
(B) Embarrass
(C) Embaras
(D) Embarras
Ans : (A)

37. (A) Separetion
(B) Seperation
(C) Seperetion
(D) Separation
Ans : (D)

38. (A) Discrepancy
(B) Descrepancy
(C) Discripancy
(D) Discrepansy
Ans : (A)

39. (A) Adviceable
(B) Advicable
(C) Advisable
(D) Adviseable
Ans : (C)

40. (A) Millenium
(B) Millennium
(C) Milennium
(D) Milenium
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

PASSAGE
(Questions No. 41–50)
Martin Luther King, Jr., was born Michael Luther King, Jr., …41… his grandfather had his name …42… to Martin. Martin Luther attended segregated public schools in Georgia, …43… from high school at the age of fifteen; he received the B.A. degree in 1948 …44… Morehouse college, a distinguished Negro institution of Atlanta from which both his father and grandfather had graduated. After three years of …45… study at Crozer Theological Seminary in Pennsylvania where he was elected president of a …46… white senior class, he was awarded the B.D. in 1951. …47… a fellowship won at Ebenezer he enrolled in graduate studies at Boston University, completing his residence …48… the doctorate in 1953 and receiving the degree in 1955. In Boston he …49… and married Coretta Scott, a young woman of …50… intellectual and artistic attainments.

41. (A) And
(B) So
(C) Since
(D) But
Ans : (A)

42. (A) Given
(B) Changed
(C) Become
(D) Made
Ans : (B)

43. (A) Graduating
(B) Finishing
(C) Graduated
(D) Finished
Ans : (C)

44. (A) In
(B) From
(C) By
(D) With
Ans : (B)

45. (A) Theological
(B) Intellectual
(C) Educational
(D) Psychological
Ans : (A)

46. (A) Predetermined
(B) Predominantly
(C) Significantly
(D) Somewhat
Ans : (B)

47. (A) From
(B) By
(C) With
(D) Through
Ans : (C)

48. (A) For
(B) Of
(C) About
(D) To
Ans : (A)

49. (A) Saw
(B) Eloped
(C) Met
(D) Watched
Ans : (C)

50. (A) Common
(B) Particular
(C) Uncommon
(D) General
Ans : (C)

Combined Recruitment For Asstt. Grade III in General/Technical & Accountant Cadres FCI, 2012

SSC FCI Paper Held 5 Feb 2012 Second Sitting

Combined Recruitment For Asstt. Grade III in General/Technical & Accountant Cadres FCI, 2012

SSC FCI Paper Held 5 Feb 2012 Second Sitting 2

Combined Recruitment For Asstt. Grade III in General/Technical & Accountant Cadres FCI, 2012

SSC FCI Paper Held 5 Feb 2012 First Sitting 3

Combined Recruitment For Asstt. Grade III in General/Technical & Accountant Cadres FCI, 2012

SSC FCI Paper Held 5 Feb 2012 First Sitting 2

Combined Recruitment For Asstt. Grade III in General/Technical & Accountant Cadres FCI, 2012

SSC FCI Paper Held on 5 Feb 2012 (First Sitting - 1)

SAIL Management Trainee Exam Paper 2010

1. If ‘JANTA’ is coded as ‘26’ and DEPOSIT as ‘52’. How can be the code number for ‘JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME’?
1. 265276
2. 265213
3. 265287
4. 2652104
2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded?
1. NZESZR
2. LZESZT
3. LZCQZR
4. NBESBT
3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE
1. DGEF
2. EFGD
3. EGFD
4. GFDE
4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ?
1. Train : Car
2. Bruise : Fall
3. Television : Dial
4. Locusts : Holocaust
5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to
1. arms
2. face
3. body
4. nerves

Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions.
Statements:
1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards.
2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom.
3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo.
4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess.

6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo
1. Sudhir
2. Pappu
3. Sham
4. Ram
8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest?
1. Sudha
2. Mugdha
3. Madhubala
4. Data inadequate
10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by an odd number?
8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 ? 3 8 9 4 $ 5 9
1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as:
1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country’s economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.

11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy.
12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years.
13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India.

Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit.
(3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) if both I and II are implicit.
14. STATEMENT:
“Use chlorine tablets for drinking water.” A notice by municipal authority.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.
15. STATEMENT:
If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a great achievement in the field of education
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools.
II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly.
16. STATEMENT:
Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. These types of news are always in headlines.
II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital.

17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2
18. mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n
1. mmmm
2. nnnn
3. mnmn
4. nmnm

Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events ‘R’ and ‘S’. You have to read both the events ‘R’ and ‘S’ and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘R’ and ‘S’ are true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Give answer as:
1. If ‘R’ is the effect and ‘S’ is its immediate principal cause.
2. If ‘R’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘S’ is its effect.
3. If ‘R’ is its effect but ‘S’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If ‘S’ is an effect but ‘R’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
5. None of these
19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days.
Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price.
20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months.
Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer.

Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part.

21. ‘DCBA’ is related to ‘ZYXW’ in the same way as ‘HGFE’ is related to
1. RSTU
2. VUTS
3. STVU
4. UVST
22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
1. 41
2. 65
3. 56
4. 60
23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown
2. Cap
3. Tie
4. Coat

Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second letter of the so formed new word.
24. SPECULATION
1. A
2. D
3. L
4. P
25. Which does not cope with others in the following?
1. navigator
2. sailor
3. pilot
4. narrator

Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
5. if both I and II follow
26. STATEMENTS:
1. No table is chair.
2. Some chairs are stools.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tables are not stools.
II. Some stools are not tables.
27. STATEMENTS:
1. All magazines are books.
2. No book is novel.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. No novel is book.
II. No magazine is novel.
28. STATEMENTS:
1. Some tulips are roses.
2. Some roses are daffodils.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tulips are roses.
II. All roses are tulips.

Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer as:
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged?
STATEMENT:
I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it ‘O’ was staged.
II. There is a gap of one day between N and O.
30. In a certain code language “Pit Lit Nit” means “Red Paint Shirt”. What is the code for “Paint”?
STATEMENT:
I. In that code language “Nit Lit Rit Bit” means “Wash Red Paint Now”.
II. In that code language “Jit Cit Pit” means “Shirt is Dirty”.

31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ?
1. 24732
2. 23782
3. 27772
4. 27872
5. None of these

32.
1.

2.

3.
4

5.

33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ?
1. 10495
2. 10365
3. 10685
4. 10915
5. 10725

34.

1. 325
2. 75
3. 65
4. 13
5. 31

35. % of 1250 99
1. 784
2. 729
3. 576
4. 676
5. 841

36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is
1. 99999
2. 99990
3. 99909
4. 99099
5. None of these

37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is
1. 2 : 25
2. 4 : 5
3. 25 : 2
4. 5 : 4
5. None of these

38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is
1. 3 : 28
2. 5 : 14
3. 14 : 5
4. 28 : 3
5. None of these

39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is
1. 5 : 6
2. 7 : 8
3. 2 : 3
4. 9 : 17
5. None of these

40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is
1. 40 years
2. 45 years
3. 50 years
4. 55 years
5. None of these

41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two vessels are mixed together, then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 5 : 3
4. 3 : 5
5. None of these

42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs. 850 is
1. Rs. 19.40
2. Rs. 9.80
3. Rs. 10.20
4. Rs. 10.80
5. None of these

43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
1. does not change
2. decreases by 2%
3. increases by 4%
4. decreases by 4%
5. None of these

44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily money receipts are then increased by
1. 8%
2. 10%
2. 12%
4. 50%
5. None of these

45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by
1.

2. 10 %
2. 11%
4.

5. 15%
46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is
1. Rs. 4.50
2. Rs. 5
3. Rs. 5.50
4. Rs. 8
5. None of these

47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The age of teacher is
1. 37 years
2. 39 years
3. 33 years
4. 47 years
5. None of these

48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. The age of the new girl is
1. 16.4 yrs
2. 10 yrs
3. 12 yrs
4. 16 yrs
5. 20 yrs

49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is
1. 146.2 cm
3. 147 cm
3. 145 cm
4. 146 cm
5. 148 cm

50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was
1. Rs. 260
2. Rs. 262.50
3. Rs. 290
4. Rs. 292.50
5. None of these

Answers : 

 First Part 1-5: 4,3,3,4,4,Second Part 6-10: 2,2,1,1,2, Third Part 11-15: 1,3,5,5,5, Fourth Part 16-20: 5,4,2,1,3, Fifth Part 21-25: 2,2,1,3,4 Sixth Part 26-30: 2,5,4,4,4, Seventh Part 31-35: 3,2,4,4,2, Eight Part 36-40: 2,3,2,4,1,Ninth Part 41-45: 2,3,4,1,4,Tenth Part  46-50: 2,4,2,4,4

CLAT Previous Paper

Instructions—(Q. 1—7) The following questions are based on the passage. Read each statement and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the answer sheet.

If the  temperature of a gas is decreased sufficiently, a stage will be reached when the speed of movement of the molecules is so reduced that it becomes close enough to exert attractive forces on each other. These forces differ from the forces that hold the atoms together in a molecule,, but they are also electrical. In fact, they result from the attraction between the positively charged nucleus of one atom and the negatively charged orbital electrons of atom in neighbouring molecules such forces are called molecular forces (or Vander Waals forces, after the discoverer.).
At that point in the process of reducing the temperature of a gas when the attractive forces between the molecules are sufficient to make the gas is said to have become a liquid.
In contrast to solids, however, the molecules of a liquid are still able to slide over one another, so that the bulk is able to adopt the shape of its container.
Some of the more rapid molecules at the surface of a liquid are able to overcome the molecular forces of their neighbouring molecules and escape from the liquid into the gas above it; this process is called evaporation. As it is the fastest moving molecules that escape, that is the molecules with the greatest energy, the average energy of the remaining molecules will be reduced, and hence ‘le effect of evaporation is to cause a
liquid.

As a result of the continual escape of molecules from he surface of a liquid, the gas above it will contain a certain number of molecules of the liquid. This number will depend on the temperature and the chemical composition of the liquid. However, for a particular liquid at a particular temperature, the average number of molecules escaping from the surface will always be the same, arid the pressure these molecules exert, is called the vapour pressure of the Liquid.
(A) If the idea is stated in the passage;
(B) If the idea contradicts the contents of the passage;
(C) If the idea is riot explicitly stated in the passage., but can be deduced from its contents;
(D) If the idea cannot be deduced from its content.
1. As the fast-moving molecules of a gas are released into a liquid, evaporation takes place.
2. irrespective of the chemical com position of the gas, equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure always contain the same number of molecules.
3. Vapour pressure is the total pres sure exerted by the molecules of a gas on the surface of a liquid below it.

4.Evaporation increases as the surface area of a liquid increases.

5.There is no relation between the reduction of temperature of a gas and the attraction between its molecules.
6. The vapour pressure of a liquid is dependent on the number of molecules escaped from it during evaporation.
7. If evaporation can be checked totally, the temperature of a liquid will remain constant.

Instructions (Q. 8-24) Each question below, some portion of which is bold, has four alternatives marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). If the bold part is incorrect in grammar, usage or sentence construction as required in standard written English, choose the alternative which better replaces it. If correct and no change is required, then write the letter (D) in the appropriate place on the answer sheet.
8. I request your favour of granting me three days leave
(A) Yours favour of
(B) The favour of your
(C) The favour of yours
(D) No change
9. I have to look to the word in the dictionary
(A) Look over
(B) Look about
(C) Look up
(D) No change

10. Over-exercise is injurious to health
(A) Injurious for health
(B) Injurious in health
(C) Injurious to health
(D) No change
11. Life is as like, a dream
(A) Like
(B) As it were
(C)  As if
(D) No change
12. Nobody trusts a man addicted in drinking
(A) To drinking
(B) Drinking
(C) To drink
(D) No change
13. Generally, the well-to-do person does not realize the misery of the poor?
(A) An well-to-do
(B) Well-to-do
(C) A well-to-do
(D) No change
14. I congratulated him on his success in the examination?

(A) For his
(B) At his
(C) In his
(D) No change
15. He could not fulfill the task during his time
(A) Fulifil
(B) Fulfil
(C) Fulifill
(D) No chang
e
16. My colleague is senior to me with respect to service—
(A) In respect of
(B) In respect to
(C) Regarding to
(D) No change
17. Hardly a hundred people were present at the meeting—
(A) Hundred people were
(B) A hundred people was
(C) Hundred peoples were
(D) No change
18. Dr. Bose was not at home when I called at him—
(A) Called upon
(B) Called on
(C) Called for
(D) No change
19. Last night the burglars broke through his shop—
(A) Broke into
(B) Broke up
(C)Broke
(D) No change
20. Many a one-year-course is run by the institute—
(A) An one-year course
(B) An one-year course are
(C) An one-year courses are
(D) No change
21. Like the works of many authors, the literary work of James Joyce has been both condemned as trash and praised as great literature—
(A) Like that of many other novelists
(B) Unlike other novelists
(C) Like many other novelists
(D) No change
22. Seeing the headmaster entering the class-room, the football was quickly hidden by the students—
(A) The headmaster entering the class-room being seen by the students, they quickly hid the football
(B) When the students saw the headmaster, they quickly hid the football
(C) Having seen the headmaster entering the class-room, the foot ball was quickly hidden by the students.
(D) After the headmaster was being seen entering the class room, the students quickly hid the football
23.No sooner was the meeting started when the members announced that they will leave the meeting—
(A) Had the meeting started when the members had announced that they would
(B) Than the meeting had started that the members announced that they will
(C) Had the meeting started than the members announced that the)’ would
(D) No change

24. She would have been much more impressive compared to any one speaker instead of dull subject she had chosen—
(A) Impressed than any speaker except for the dull subject of her choice
(B) Impressive than any other speaker, but for the dull subject she had chosen
(C) Impressive among all other speakers, had it not been for the dull subject she chose
(D) No change
lnstructions—(Q. 25—29) Read the passage carefully and answer in the space provided for it on the Answer Sheet.
He was a deeply subtle man, I know by now. With such natures it is usually a waste of efforts to fence the only way to speak face-to-face is to be direct. I said that It had been wailing for news of the Nobel Prize and that I was very sorry. He stared at me, and nodded. He didn’t pretend not to mind. He said something to the effect that it would be good to have. Then, quite suddenly, he had a grim chuckle and launched into an anecdote, possible apocryphal and certainly slanderous, about another unsuccessful candidate — not English speaking — who had been ‘bucking for’ the prize for years and years. He had left nothing to change. He had known all the rights boys (in Frost’s demonology, this probably meant some of the ‘enemies’). He had been told that it was in the bag. The day of the election, he had champagne out on the table. He was waiting for the telephone to ring. There was a long wait. A longer wait. At last the telephone did ring. He hadn’t got it. He was told the name of the winner. It is impossible, he cried. It is impossible. It is impossible. That was all he could think of, Frost said, cheering himself up with malice. But it had happened.
After that, he was quite guy. He talked about England. He was sensitive to his audience. So that I was left under the impression that he had been a lifelong Anglophile. When I read his letters and his remarks about ‘the British’ (a term he wouldn’t have used to me) I wasn’t surprised about something, but I was by those. May be, as I have suggested, he had some to think better of us. He was enthusiastic about the common language that was essential thing. Then he spoke about what he called the locative in art. Art which meant anything to him was locative, rooted in a place, in the singularities of a place. We had a bit of an argument. Temperamentally, I said, I was on his side. But locative art needs know ledge and patience to understand that was why cosmopolitan art < abstract art < travelled further and gagster. One didn’t have to know or anything to read, say, Kafka or Hemingway. They had travelled round the world to an extent that Jane Austen or forester never would Frost would have it. The greatest locative art transcended everything. It was organic, and no other art could be. He still had immense stamina for argument, or rather for his oblique interpretation of ideas. He would have gone on talking long after our hosts returned.

25. The author was very sorry that—
(A) The news of the Nobel Prize never reached Frost
(B) Frost rejected the Nobel Prize
(C) Frost did not get the Nobel  Prize
(D) None of the above
26. “He didn’t pretend not to mind”, this means
(A) He did mind
(B) He did not mind
(C) He had mixed feelings
(D) He showed no feeling
27. “That was all he could think of, Frost said, cheering up with malice”. Here ‘he’ refers to—
(A) Frost
(B) The author
(C) The unsuccessful
(D) None of these
28. The author was left under theimpression that Frost had been—
(A) A great admirer of English
(B) Detested English
(C) An avid reader of Englishworks
(D) Collecting English works
29. “The greatest locative art transcended everything.” We can infer from the passage that—
(A) Kafka’s or Hemingway’s was locative art
(B) Jane Austen’s was locative art
(C) Frost’s was locative art
(D) Frost believed that none of these was locative art
Instructions—(Q. 30—34) Read the following passage carefully, and answer the questions give it on the Answer Sheet.
A blanket ban on defection will weaken, rather than strengthen democracy, in whose nimieties being sought to de-imposed. Granted political defiance is increasingly less an act of ideological defiance than one of the pure opportunism. Granted also that it is illogical to allow one third of the party to split but not a lesser number. Yet, for all its flaws, the current law recognizes and respects one fundamental principle The right to dissent. Democracy is about showing the door to one who dares to disagree. Democracy is about granting her the right to dissent from within the fold. In a household context, it would be akin to a father throwing out his rebellious. How would a democratic father deal with this situation ? He would allow the daughter to roister her protest, knowing fully well that not to do so would stifle the youngster’s intellectual growth and turn her into a malcontent.
The need to foster a democratic spirit is all the more in a political party which derives its legitimacy from participation in democratic elections. Indeed like charity, democracy must begin at home. A political party that is intolerant to internal dissent can hardly be expected to be liberal and democratic in its external con duct. To tell a legislator that he owes to his party, which has facilitated his election, never to disagree with it, is the equivalent of asking that he remain forever in bondage. To do so is to journey back to the feudal age, when a servant who rebelled against the master, would be called a ‘namak haram’. Take the case of a party that asks for votes on one ideological platform but switches course once it forms a government. What is the sanctity of the party’s whip issued in such a situation ? Should the conscientious MP vote as ordered or should she defy the whip ? It has to be the latter and there can be no two views on this. Now is it valid to argue that differences can be aired in private but must not translate into a vote. For voting is the ultimate expression of a person’s conscience.
30. According to the passage, a political party which does not tolerate arty internal dissent—
(A) Is doomed to disintegrate in the long run
(B) Maintains strict discipline and survives in the long run
(C) Is a boon to the democratic traditions and principles
(D) Is unlikely to be liberal and democratic in its external conduct
31. Which of the following is expres sed as a characteristic of the feudal age in the passage?
(A) Extending the family values to the political arena
(B) Changing the ideological platform once in government
(C) Any disobedience of the people in power is to be treated as treachery
(D) Telling the legislator that he got elected because of the party
32. In which of the following matters does the author appreciate the
existing law with regard to defection ?•
(A) Individual member’s freedom to express opinion different from the party line
(B) A total prohibition on joining another party for personal party
(C) Entering election fray with out affiliation to any political party
(D) A political party to be liberal and democratic both in its inter nal and external conduct
33. According to the passage, political defection is increasingly taking place—
(A) More on ideological grounds
(B) To strength the democratic process
(C) As a result of basic conceptual differences
(D) As a matter of pure opportunism
34. The author has equated the party’s stand to tell legislator never to disagree with it, with
(A) Charity
(B) Feudal age
(C) Democracy
(D) Turpitude
Instructions—(Q. 35-40) Given below are the words with different spellings. Select the one which you consider to be correctly spelled and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the Answer Sheet.
35. (A) Annihilate
(B) Annihielate
(C) Annihilete
(D) Aniluilate
36. (A) Numismatic
(B) Numesmatic
(C) Neumismatic
(D) Neumesmatic
37. (A) Neumonia
(B) Neumonea
(C) Pneumonea
(D) Pneumonia
38. (A) Weary
(B) Wearie
(C) Weery
(D) Weerie
39. (A) Flamboyant
(B) Flambuoyent
(C) Flamebuoyant
(D)Flemboyat

40.    (A) Referigerator
(B) Refrigerator
(C) Referigrator
(D)Refrigrator

Answers

1 A

2 C

3 C

4 D

5 B

6 C

7 D

8 B

9 C

10 D

11 A

12 C

13 C

14 D

15 D

16 A

17 D

18 B

19 A

20 D

21 A

22 B

23 C

24 C

25 A

26 A

27 B

28 A

29 A

30 D

31 C

32 A

33 D

34 D

35 A

36 A

37 D

38 A

39 A

40 B

Prathama Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011

General Knowledge 

(Held on 25-9-2011)

1. Who amongst the following is a Classic Russian author and had written famous book ‘Anna Karenina’ ?

(A) Anton Chekhov
(B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) Maxim Gorky
(D) Vladimir Nabokav
(E) Boris Pasternak
Ans : (B)

2. What is the full form of the letter ‘D’ in the abbreviation ‘MPLADS’ which was recently in news ?
(A) Damaging
(B) Decorating
(C) Development
(D) Dealing
(E) Delimitation
Ans : (C)

3. The World Bank has given a US $ 1 billion loan to clean which of the following rivers in India ?
(A) Narmada
(B) Krishna
(C) Ganga
(D) Jhelum
(E) Beas
Ans : (C)


4. India is a member of which of the following group of countries ?
(A) OPEC
(B) NATO
(C) European Union
(D) Least Developed countries
(E) BRICS
Ans : (E)

5. Prime Minister of India was recently on a visit to Ethiopia and Tanzania. This means he visited two—
(A) European countries
(B) African countries
(C) Asian countries
(D) American countries
(E) Middle East countries
Ans : (B)

6. The 34th National Games were organized in which of the following States ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Assam
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat
(E) Jharkhand
Ans : (E)

7. Who among the following has taken over as Union Minister of Railways ?
(A) Dinesh Trivedi
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) Kamal Nath
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) Anand Sharma
Ans : (A)

8. India recently decided to provide US $ 500 million to which of the following nations in its neighbourhood to help it in its redevelopment projects as the country is trying to come up after a long civil war and control of UN peace keeping forces ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Nepal
(E) Bhutan
Ans : (C)

9. As per the amendments made in the Right to Education Act, now free-education will be available to the children upto Standard—
(A) 4th
(B) 6th
(C) 8th
(D) 10th
(E) 12th
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following State Govts. signed a historical pact on Gorkhaland Administration a few months back ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Assam
(E) Manipur
Ans : (C)

11. NATO recently attacked and bombarded which of the following countries as it wanted to control violence between the Govt. of that country and a group of protestors ?
(A) Russia
(B) Iran
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Libya
Ans : (E)

12. India’s population is approximately—
(A) 1 billion
(B) 1•5 billion
(C) 1•75 billion
(D) 1•21 billion
(E) 1•6 billion
Ans : (D)

13. Who amongst the following is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha at present ?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Meira Kumar
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Sushma Swaraj
(E) Sonia Gandhi
Ans : (B)

14. India recently resumed Foreign Ministerial level talks with which of the following countries which was suspended sometimes back due to deadlock on certain crucial issues ?
(A) USA
(B) Bangladesh
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) Sri Lanka
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following was the issue which was discussed in a specially convened session of the Parliament on August 27, 2011 ?
(A) Land Acquisition Amendment Bill
(B) Constitutional Reforms Bill
(C) Women’s Reservation Bill
(D) Anti Commercial Violence Bill
(E) Lok Pal Bill after its redrafting
Ans : (E)

16. ‘Dhanush’ is an indigenously developed by India—
(A) Missile
(B) Sub-marine
(C) Patton tank
(D) Fighter plane
(E) Passenger aircraft
Ans : (A)

17. Islam Karimov who was on a visit to India is the President of—
(A) Iraq
(B) Iran
(C) Ethiopia
(D) Tanzania
(E) Uzbekistan
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following is the name of a missile developed by India ?
(A) Dhruva
(B) USHA
(C) Vivian
(D) Trishul
(E) PADMA
Ans : (D)

19. Who among the following is not a Cricket Player ?
(A) Ashish Nehra
(B) James Anderson
(C) Shivnarine Chanderpaul
(D) Jade Dernbach
(E) Vishwanathan Anand
Ans : (E)

20. The 11th Five Year Plan will be over in—
(A) December 2011
(B) January 2012
(C) March 2012
(D) December 2012
(E) March 2013
Ans : (C)

21. Who amongst the following is a well known name in the field of Banking in India ?
(A) H. R. Bharadwaj
(B) S. Y. Qureshi
(C) Yusuf Pathan
(D) D. Subbarao
(E) Ashok Gehlot
Ans : (D)

22. Who among the following is not a Chief Minister of a State at present ?
(A) Tarun Gogoi
(B) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(C) N. Rangaswamy
(D) Raman Singh
(E) Arjun Munda
Ans : (B)

23. Mamta Banerjee belongs to which political party ?
(A) Congress
(B) CPM (I)
(C) BJP
(D) Trinamool Congress
(E) BSP
Ans : (D)

24. Who among the following was given Lifetime Achievement Award in 12th IIFA Awards Ceremony held in Toronto in June 2011 ?
(A) Asha Bhonsle
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Rajesh Khanna
(E) Hema Malini
Ans : (A)

25. Asian Cup Women’s Boxing Tournament was organized in May 2011 in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) Malaysia
Ans : (B)

26. Which of the following States won the National Hockey Championship 2011 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Kerala
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following is an ore of a metal ?
(A) Bauxite
(B) Lime Stone
(C) Sulphur
(D) Menthol
(E) Camphor
Ans : (A)

28. The 43rd Jnanpith Award was given to whom among the following ?
(A) S. L. Bhyrappa
(B) Vishwanath Prasad Tiwari
(C) O. N. V. Kurup
(D) Javed Akhtar
(E) Malti Joshi
Ans : (C)

29. Who among the following is a famous Chess Player ?
(A) Koneru Humpy
(B) Pargat Singh
(C) Baichung Bhutia
(D) Ajit Pal Singh
(E) Ishant Sharma
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following is the full form of ‘CBS’ as used in banking system ?
(A) Corporate Business Strategies
(B) Core Banking Solution
(C) Common Banking Strategies
(D) Common Business Strategies
(E) Corporate Banking Solution
Ans : (B)

31. Which of the following is the name of a Private Sector Bank in India ?
(A) Dena Bank
(B) Syndicate Bank
(C) IDBI Bank
(D) Corporation Bank
(E) South Indian Bank
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking and Finance ?
(A) Accrued interest
(B) Assimilation
(C) Deviance
(D) Diffusion
(E) Stagnant population
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following is not a Public Sector Unit ?
(A) Mishra Dhatu Nigam
(B) Hindalco Industries
(C) Bharat Bhari Udyog Nigam
(D) Container Corporation of India
(E) Hindustan Organic Chemicals
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Back hand
(B) Volley
(C) Follow on
(D) Jockey
(E) Deuce
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the following books is written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) The God of Small Things
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) The Glass Palace
(D) The Namesake
(E) A Fine Balance
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following is grown as a Spice used in daily cooking and also to be used as a quick remedy of many common ailments ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Turmeric
(C) Jatropha
(D) Cactus
(E) Fern
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following prizes / awards is given by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Kalinga Award
(B) Pulitzer Prize
(C) Padma Bhushan
(D) Jamanalal Bajaj Award
(E) Saraswati Samman
Ans : (D)

38. Which of the following is grown as a vegetable ?
(A) Groundnut
(B) Cotton seed
(C) Custard apple
(D) Radish
(E) Castor
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Irani Cup
(B) Duleep Trophy
(C) Rovers Cup
(D) Agha Khan Cup
(E) Ranji Trophy
Ans : (D)

40. ‘Kathakali’ is a form of dance drama originated in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Manipur
Ans : (A)

41. Who among the following was a famous Scientist of Indian origin and was awarded Nobel Prize during his life time ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Meghnad Saha
(C) Jagdish Chandra Basu
(D) Birbal Sahni
(E) Homi Bhabha
Ans : (A)

42. Which of the following agencies/organizations is closely associated with the functioning of the banking and finance companies in India ?
(A) UNESCO
(B) WTO
(C) SEBI
(D) UGC
(E) CBFC
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following is not a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Japan
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following is called the upper House of the Parliament in India ?
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) Office of the President of India
(C) The Union Cabinet
(D) Office of the Prime Minister of India
(E) The Rajya Sabha
Ans : (E)

45. What is the full form of ‘KYC’ as used in banking world ?
(A) Keep Your Credibility
(B) Know Your Credibility
(C) Know Your Clients
(D) Keep Your Customer
(E) Know Your Customer
Ans : (E)

46. Which of the following is the name of a bank having offices and branches in India ?
(A) Kotak Mahindra
(B) NCL
(C) Wipro
(D) DLF
(E) GAIL
Ans : (A)

47. Which of the following is a software and allied services company functioning in India ?
(A) NTPC
(B) SAIL
(C) AXIS
(D) Infosys
(E) Ambuja
Ans : (D)

48. What is full form of ‘NGO’ a term we listen very often these days ?
(A) National Growth and Opportunities
(B) Non-Governmental Organisation
(C) New Growth & Organisation
(D) Not Growing Organisation
(E) Net Growing Options
Ans : (B)

49. Nirupama Rao is appointed new Ambassador of India to—
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) USA
(E) China
Ans : (D)

50. Financial Inclusion does not include which of the following ?
(A) Having a bank account
(B) Micro credit during emergency
(C) Free registration of business enterprises
(D) Access to all kinds of commercial/personal loans
(E) Access to credit/debit cards
Ans : (C)