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Friday, February 10, 2012

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009


PART–I
General Knowledge  
(Exam Held on 7-3-2010)

1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Ans : (D)

2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (A)

3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
Ans : (B)

4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
Ans : (C)

5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
Ans : (B)


6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Anglo-Indian Community
(D) Parsi Community
Ans : (C)

7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age of—
(A) 58 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
Ans : (D)

8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly
(B) The State Cabinet
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Governor
Ans : (D)

9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu is related with—
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker under Article 105 of the Constitution
Ans : (C)

10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission
Ans : (A)

11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution
Ans : (A)

12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by—
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ?
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti
Ans : (B)

14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for—
(A) Words Words Words
(B) Wide Word Words
(C) World Wide Web
(D) When Where Why
Ans : (C)

15. To which of the following companies, the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
(B) TISCO
(C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

16. The Article of the Indian Constitution which automatically become suspended on Proclamation of Emergency is—
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
Ans : (B)

17. Which State in India implemented the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

18. In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’ ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
Ans : (B)

19. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’ takes place ?
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Inter-State Council
Ans : (A)

20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

21. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal
Ans : (B)

22. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (D)

23. In which of the following cases constitutionality of the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

24. How many times the emergency has been proclaimed in India on the ground of internal disturbance ?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Never
Ans : (A)

25. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India ?
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) Never
Ans : (D)

26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Governor of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
Ans : (C)

27. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged State of the Indian Territory ?
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (B)

28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament may admit a new State in the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1
(B) In Article 2
(C) In Article 3
(D) In Article 4
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State policy under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work
(C) Promotion of international peace and security
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor children upto fourteen years of age
Ans : (D)

30. The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San- Francisco on—
(A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
(C) January 26, 1946
(D) December 30, 1941
Ans : (A)

31. Where the head office of the United Nations is situated ?
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) The Hague
Ans : (C)

32. How many members are in the Security Council ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 15
Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following Article of United Nations Charter is related to the procedure of voting ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

34. Which one of the following is not one of the principal organ of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) International Labour Organization
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (C)

35. Two official languages of the United Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi
(B) English and German
(C) English and Urdu
(D) English and French
Ans : (D)

36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been taken from which one of the following ?
(A) The Constitution of Ireland
(B) The Constitution of United States of America
(C) The Constitution of Australia
(D) The Constitution of Canada
Ans : (A)

37. P’s passport was cancelled by the authority without giving him any reasonable opportunity of being heard which was mandatory. In such case—
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the authority has no obligation to act fairly
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in interest of security of India, no one can challenge the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued
Ans : (A)

38. The maximum period of continuation of emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is—
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
Ans : (A)

39. Which one of the following Schedule was added in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI
(C) Schedule XI
(D) Schedule IX
Ans : (C)

40. The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in—
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5)
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 126
Ans : (A)

41. Participation of workers in management of industries is provided under Indian Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A
(B) In Article 48 A
(C) In Article 43 A
(D) In Article 45
Ans : (C)

42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution by—
(A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (A)

43. Socialist and secular words were added in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 48th Amendment
Ans : (B)

44. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is not related to the environmental protection ?
(A) Article 48 A
(B) Article 51 A(i)
(C) Article 51 A(g)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans : (B)

45. In International Court of Justice, there are—
(A) President and 15 other members
(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : (D)

46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
(C) 14th July
(D) 26th November
Ans : (B)

47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Paris
Ans : (C)

48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
Ans : (C)

50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (D)

Thursday, February 9, 2012

ISRO PURCHASE & STORES OFFICER QUESTION PAPERS

Purchase and Stores Officer 2007 2008

ISRO ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER QUESTION PAPERS

Administrative Officer 2007 2008

ISRO PURCHASE & STORES OFFICER QUESTION PAPERS

Accounts Officer 2007 2008




 

SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of MECHANICAL Old Question Papers

Mechanical 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of Electronics Old Question Papers

Electronics 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of COMPUTER SCIENCE Old Question Papers

Computer Science 2007 2008 2009






 
 

ISRO Assistant and Junior Personal Assistant Old Question Papers

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of ELECTRONICS Old Question Papers

Electronics 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011

ISRO SCIENTISTS/ENGINEERS 'SC' in the diciplines of MECHANICAL Old Question Papers









Mechanical 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011











Wednesday, February 8, 2012

2011 – UPSC Civil Services Exam – Mains Question Papers

  1. Essay
  2. General Studies Paper I
  3. General Studies Paper II
  4. English Language Compulsory
  5. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Assamese
  6. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Bengali
  7. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Bodo
  8. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Dogri
  9. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Gujarati
  10. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Hindi
  11. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Kannada
  12. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Kashmiri
  13. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Maithili
  14. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Manipuri
  15. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Malayalam
  16. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Marathi
  17. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Nepali
  18. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Oriya
  19. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Punjabi
  20. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Sanskrit
  21. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Tamil
  22. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Telugu
  23. Indian Languages – Compulsory – Urdu
  24. Optional Subjects – Agriculture Paper I
  25. Optional Subjects – Agriculture Paper II
  26. Optional Subjects – Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science Paper I
  27. Optional Subjects – Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science Paper II
  28. Optional Subjects – Anthropology Paper I
  29. Optional Subjects – Anthropology Paper II
  30. Optional Subjects – Botany Paper I
  31. Optional Subjects – Botany Paper II
  32. Optional Subjects – Chemistry Paper I
  33. Optional Subjects – Chemistry Paper II
  34. Optional Subjects – Civil Engineering Paper I
  35. Optional Subjects – Civil Engineering Paper II
  36. Optional Subjects – Commerce and Accountancy Paper I
  37. Optional Subjects – Commerce and Accountancy Paper II
  38. Optional Subjects – Economics Paper I
  39. Optional Subjects – Economics Paper II
  40. Optional Subjects – Electrical Engineering Paper I
  41. Optional Subjects – Electrical Engineering Paper II
  42. Optional Subjects – Geography Paper I
  43. Optional Subjects – Geography Paper II
  44. Optional Subjects – Geology Paper I
  45. Optional Subjects – Geology Paper II
  46. Optional Subjects – History Paper I
  47. Optional Subjects – History Paper II
  48. Optional Subjects – Law Paper I
  49. Optional Subjects – Law Paper II
  50. Optional Subjects – Management Paper I
  51. Optional Subjects – Management Paper II
  52. Optional Subjects – Mathematics Paper I
  53. Optional Subjects – Mathematics Paper II
  54. Optional Subjects – Mechanical Engineering Paper I
  55. Optional Subjects – Mechanical Engineering Paper II
  56. Optional Subjects – Medical Science Paper I
  57. Optional Subjects – Medical Science Paper II
  58. Optional Subjects – Philosophy Paper I
  59. Optional Subjects – Philosophy Paper II
  60. Optional Subjects – Physics Paper I
  61. Optional Subjects – Physics Paper II
  62. Optional Subjects – Political Science and International Relations Paper I
  63. Optional Subjects – Political Science and International Relations Paper II
  64. Optional Subjects – Psychology Paper I
  65. Optional Subjects – Psychology Paper II
  66. Optional Subjects – Public Administration Paper I
  67. Optional Subjects – Public Administration Paper II
  68. Optional Subjects – Sociology Paper I
  69. Optional Subjects – Sociology Paper II
  70. Optional Subjects – Statistics Paper I
  71. Optional Subjects – Statistics Paper II
  72. Optional Subjects – Zoology Paper I
  73. Optional Subjects – Zoology Paper II
  74. Literature Subjects – Arabic Paper I
  75. Literature Subjects – Arabic Paper II
  76. Literature Subjects – Assamese Paper I
  77. Literature Subjects – Assamese Paper II
  78. Literature Subjects – Bengali Paper I
  79. Literature Subjects – Bengali Paper II
  80. Literature Subjects – Bodo Paper I
  81. Literature Subjects – Bodo Paper II
  82. Literature Subjects – Dogri Paper I
  83. Literature Subjects – Dogri Paper II
  84. Literature Subjects – English Paper I
  85. Literature Subjects – English Paper II
  86. Literature Subjects – French Paper I
  87. Literature Subjects – French Paper II
  88. Literature Subjects – German Paper I
  89. Literature Subjects – German Paper II
  90. Literature Subjects – Gujarati Paper I
  91. Literature Subjects – Gujarati Paper II
  92. Literature Subjects – Hindi Paper I
  93. Literature Subjects – Hindi Paper II
  94. Literature Subjects – Kannada Paper I
  95. Literature Subjects – Kannada Paper II
  96. Literature Subjects – Kashmiri Paper I
  97. Literature Subjects – Kashmiri Paper II
  98. Literature Subjects – Manipuri Paper I
  99. Literature Subjects – Manipuri Paper II
  100. Literature Subjects – Maithili Paper I
  101. Literature Subjects – Maithili Paper II
  102. Literature Subjects – Malayalam Paper I
  103. Literature Subjects – Malayalam Paper II
  104. Literature Subjects – Marathi Paper I
  105. Literature Subjects – Marathi Paper II
  106. Literature Subjects – Oriya Paper I
  107. Literature Subjects – Oriya Paper II
  108. Literature Subjects – Pali Paper I
  109. Literature Subjects – Pali Paper II
  110. Literature Subjects – Persian Paper I
  111. Literature Subjects – Persian Paper II
  112. Literature Subjects – Punjabi Paper I
  113. Literature Subjects – Punjabi Paper II
  114. Literature Subjects – Russian Paper I
  115. Literature Subjects – Russian Paper II
  116. Literature Subjects – Sanskrit Paper I
  117. Literature Subjects – Sanskrit Paper II
  118. Literature Subjects – Santali Paper I
  119. Literature Subjects – Santali Paper II
  120. Literature Subjects – Tamil Paper I
  121. Literature Subjects – Tamil Paper II
  122. Literature Subjects – Telugu Paper I
  123. Literature Subjects – Telugu Paper II
  124. Literature Subjects – Urdu Paper I
  125. Literature Subjects – Urdu Paper II

Saturday, February 4, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES NOTIFICATION 2012


India's top most exam, Civil Services Examination, is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) every year to select the best candidates into the top level administration of India. The dates of the Civil Services Examination-2012 have been announced  by the UPSC. 


IMPORTANT DATES:
  • Date of Notification:-- 4th February, 2012
  • Last Date for Applying:-- 5th March, 2012
  • Date of Civil Services Preliminary Test, 2012:-- 20th May 2012; 1 Day
  • Date of Civil Services Mains Test, 2012:-- From 5th October 2012; 21 Days

Notification-Civil Services Examination 2012