FCI Management Trainee Accounts Question Paper

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)


2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)


3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)


4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)


5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)


6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)


7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)


8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)


9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)


10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)


11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)


12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)


13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)


14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)


15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)


16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)


17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)


18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)


19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)


20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)


21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)


22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)
24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)


25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)


27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)
28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)
29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)


30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)
31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)
33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)
34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)


35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)
36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)


37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)
39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)
41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)
42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)
43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)


46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)


47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)


48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)


49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)


50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)

Vizag steel plant Management Trainee (MT)Exam 2009 paper

1 An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase,decrease,remains same,none)


2 Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment?(wl/4)


3 Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)


4 Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)


5 When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )


6 For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing,carburizing,neutral,none)


7. Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics


8. When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=?L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3


9.Product simplification does not mean??Product characterization
10 Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing? CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above
.
11. Concurrent engineering means? (Manufacturing, designing, both,none)


12. Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity-(process layout,line+process,functional layout)


13. 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
14 For which material is negative allowance provided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
15. What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)


16. What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
17. Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)18. Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)


19. What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
20. As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)


21. Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
22. A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)


23. A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)


24. Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing? (increases,decreases,no change)


25. Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
26. Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)


27. Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
28. Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)


29. EOQ=?


30 Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)


31. Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)


32. Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)


33. self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)


34 The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)


35. when steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)


36. In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)


37. Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )


38. Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton)


39. Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )


40. High speed centrifugal pump has _? (vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
41. Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_? (Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
42. When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_43. When entropy of a system increases_? (unavailable energy increases )
44. Rolling is a process widely used for_?
(I section,tubes)
45. Tool nomenclature_?
46. In francis turbine movement of steam?
47. For low power consumption _? (rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
47. Continuous chips occur in_? (High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
48. Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_? (fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)
49. In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_? (nitrogen,oxygen)
50. Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_? (corrosion)
51. Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_?
(decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
52. which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material? (Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)


53. When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified? (Endurance limit)
54. where is stress concentration maximum? (notches, stress reducing throughcuts)


55. Power transmitted through a belt drive_? P(T2-T1)
56. According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is (Wcr = Cπ2EI/l2)
57. During sensible heating, specific humidity_? (remains constant)
58. COP of a refrigerator is _? (greater than 1 )


59. The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_? (less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)60. The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_? (maximum,min)
61. for a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_? (∑ f(X),f(Y),f(Z)=0,∑M=0)


62. For a statically determinate set of forces- (there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)63. 1-2-3 analysis is used for_? (1.break even analysis, ??)
64. A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120???
65. A problem n determining time in a queue??


66. Energy equation for a laminar flow is _? (Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)67. Undercuts in welding occurs due to_? (low welding current,high welding current)


68. Work holding equipment in shearing??


69. At the centre of a nozzle _? (Mach no<1>=1;=1)

NTPC Technical ( control and instrumentation) EXAM PAPER 2008

(EXAM HELD ON 04-05-2008)

1. expression for ?(n): u(n)-u(n-1)/ u(n-1)-u(n+1)/ u(n)+u(n+1)/…
2. numerical on a photodiode: to calculate the responsively/sensitivity when a specified no of incident photons cause a specified no of electron generation.
3. for a radioactive sample which decays to 12.5% of its initial value in x days, the half life is given by..
4. connect two 1? resistors in series, then connect two 1H inductors across one of the resistors such that the ckt looks like a 1? resistor in series with a ?-section of a resistor and two inductors. With the series resistance on the i/p side, calc the transfer function of this ckt
5. AC signal conditioning is used for inductive and capacitive/resistive/piezoelectric transducers/all of the above.
6. lower useful input limit of a transducer is determined by
7. air-cored inductors are used for low frequency/high frequency/equal frequency operations.
8. given 4 pole-zero plots identify which one corresponds to the driving point impedance of a series resonant ckt.
9. given four unit-circle plots identify the one corresponding to a bandpass filter.
10. the sequence (2,3,4,3) is circularly even/circularly odd/circularly zero/both circularly even and odd.
11. z-transform of 3n u(n).
12. match the following with their characteristics: LED/LCD/nixie tube/optical fibre.
13. a 4 kHz signal is sampled at thrice the Nyquist rate and sent through a channel with error ?1%. Calc the bandwidth of the channel.
14. given an op-amp ckt obtain an expression for o/p voltage.
15. no. of encirclements made about the origin of the nyquist plot of the open loop TF:1/[(s-1)(s+2)(s+3)].
16. given a two port network in the form of a T find o/p admittance in terms of y-parameters.
17. for a repeater in a PCM cable identify the correct sequence of actions amongst threshold/equalization/etc.
18. o/p of a delta modulator when a ramp input is fed to it.
19. steady state error with ramp i/p for a type-0 system.
20. creeping occurs in energy meters bcoz.
21. ultrasonic method of flow measurement cannot be used in liquids with air bubbles/has less attenuation in air compared to liquid-identify the false statement (if any) among these.
22. major cause of losses in a fibre optic cable: dispersion/total internal refraction/presence of core and cladding/
23. which layer in the OSI model is concerned with printer buffering,etc: network/session/transport/
24. given some function F(j?) calc its inverse CTFT.
25. relation between laplace and z-transform: s=z/ s=ln z/ s=( ln z/T) /
26. maxm and minm probability error among ASK,PSK,FSK,DPSK etc
27. which of the following is a non linear modulation scheme: PAM/QAM/PCM/
28. match the following functions: e-t , e-t + et, sin(?t) with causal and stable system, causal and unstable system, etc.
29. given a ckt with a 50 ? resistor in series between two voltage sources of 10 V and 5 V magnitude calc power delivered by 5 V source.
30. laplace transform of e-3tu(t)+e2tu(-t).
31. which photodetector has output affected by own intrinsic noise: PN/APD/PIN/all.
32. inverse laplace transform of 1/s2[d/ds(e-3s/s)]
33. when I mode is added to proportional control system stability increases/ decreases/ steady state performance deteriorates/damping increases.
34. reset control is another name for integral/derivative/proportional/. Control.
35. time response of system having transfer function 625/(s2+25) will be of the form
36. given some transfer function calc the peak response time.
37. the nyquist sampling rate of the function [sin(at)/t]2 will be
38. the feedback topology that results in increased i/p and o/p impedance is current series/voltage series/current shunt voltage shunt.
39. numerical on cardiac output calculation given heart rate and volume per beat.
40. in an ECG instrumentation amplifier the differential gain is provided by 1st stage/2nd stage/mismatched resistors/output stage.
41. repeat ques 40 above for the classic 3-op amp instrum amplifier.
42. EMG signals are of the order of mV/V/?V/
43. computer assisted tomography is used for
44. numerical on electrostatic instrument, to calculate deflection given spring constant, torque etc.
45. to prevent loading of a ckt i/p impedance of a CRO should bee high/low/inductive/capacitive.
46. addition of a zero to a 2nd order underdamped system results in increase/decrease of rise time and increase/decrease of peak overshoot.
47. for PI ctrl we obtain improved bandwidth/improved steady state performance/ worsened steady state performance/
48. SNR of normal AM system is comparable/3 dB lower/3 dB higher/6 dB lower over DSB-SC and SSB system.
49. which is an effective measure of the noise related performance of an amplifier: SNR/noise ratio/thermal noise/shot noise.
50. given baseband signal freq and carrier freq calc which of the freq given will not be present for conventional AM.
51. distinction between FM and PM at high frequencies.
52. which of these has the least propagation delay RTL/ECL/I2L/CMOS.
53 switching speed of CMOS is affected/unaffected by changes in supply voltage.
54. which of these provides a measure of heart rate P/QRS complex/T/none of these.
55. given a ckt of a logarithmic amplifier you had to identify what ckt was it.
56. JFET can operate in depletion/enhancement/both/none of the above modes.
57. when a BJT operates in saturation the junctions are fwd biased/reverse biased/
58. BIBO stability criterion implies that poles are within/outside/on the unit circle.
59. for faithful amplification of low amplitude signals the cut-off/active/saturation regions of a transistor is used.
60. lissajous pattern of a signal rotates 36 times per minute. if the oscillator frequency is 560 kHz then the unknown freq is
61. % resolution of a 10 bit ADC.
62. to obtain 10 mV resolution on 5 V range how many bit DAC is to be used..
63. why is LCD preferred to LED.
64. how will 0.6973 be displayed on 10 V range of a 4 digit multimeter.
65. which of the following cannot be used for an automatic feedback temp ctrl system thermocouple/thermometer/thermistor/IC sensor.
66. y(n)=x(-n+3) is an example of a linear/non linear and shift variant/invariant system.
67. the falling body method is used to determine viscosity/humidity/.
68. which of these methods of viscosity measurement gives greatest accuracy falling body method/rotating cylinder method/both/
69. some question on gas chromatography
70.a device having a rotor with 3 Y-connected coils and a stator is likely to be a synchro/RVDT/control transformer/
71. in a twisted ring counter the initial count is 1000. after the 4th clock pulse its state will be.
72. a 240 kHz signal is given into a 3 bit binary ripple counter. The lowest o/p freq obtainable is.
73. for parity bit checking which of the following gates can be used XOR/NAND/OR/XNOR.
74. why is a BJT called so..
75. identify the expression for gauge factor of a strain gauge among the given options.
76. in a semiconductor strain gauge as tensile strain is applied what changes take place in the n and p areas..
77. how does a radioactive level gauging system work
78. a capacitive transducer measuring level works on the principle of change in distance between plates/change in dielectric strength/
79. for maximum power transfer in an AC circuit the condition to be satisfied is ZL+ZS=0/XL+XS=0/none of these/.where l and s refers to load and source resp.
80. find the transfer function from a block diagram.
81. synchronous ctrs are preferred to asynchronous ctrs bcoz they are faster/glitches at the output can be avoided/both/none of these.
82. the lissajous figure formed on an oscilloscope looks like the English figure of 8. if the vertical channel input is 1 kHz the horizontal input freq is.
83. IE=IC for a transistor in saturation/cutoff/active/both saturation and active regions.
84. reproducibility of measurements is called accuracy/precision/linearity/none of these.
85. which of these is not strictly a static characteristic accuracy/precision/tolerance/linearity.
86. the shunt coil in a Q meter has resistance of the order of m?/?/k?/..
87. for measuring inductance of high Q coils the bridge used is Maxwell-wien/Schering/
88. which of these measures inductance in terms of capacitance Maxwell and hay/Maxwell and Schering/hay and Schering/
89. in a flip-flop with preset and clear inputs both are applied simultaneously/clear is cleared when preset is applied/preset is cleared when clear is applied/.
90. what happens when the RET instruction is encountered by 8085
91. a 1024*8 memory chip needs how many address lines
92. what happens when the PUSH instruction is encountered by 8051.
93. in FM relation between no of sidebands w.r.t. modulating freq
94. numerical on DPSK.
95. a multiplexer accepts input data and provides one output all the time/one output at a time/many outputs at a time/many outputs all the time.
96. pulse modulation is essentially a process of multiplexing/.
97. wave shape is altered by clipper/clamper/voltage doubler/amplifier.
98. 4 signals of frequencies 100,100,200 and 400 Hz are sampled at nyquist rate and sent through TDM on a channel.the bandwidth of the channel is
99. superposition can be applied to a ckt with initial conditions/non-linear ckt/
100. Kelvin’s double bridge is used for the measurement of
101. Which of these is not an active transducer thermocouple/solar cell/RTD/none of these.
102. oscillator using positive feedback has gain of 0/?/undefined value/
103. Wien bridge oscillator should initially have closed loop gain >3/<3/=3/
104. Some question on gain margin and phase shift of a system.
105. Fourier series expansion of even function has sine terms only/cosine terms only/no odd harmonics/
106. full wave rectifier gives clean dc o/p/dc o/p with small ripple/positive half and inverted negative half of i/p as o/p.
107. Which of these values of ? gives damped oscillations: 0/1/1.6/0.6
108. for a transformer of ratio 1:a and excited by a source V with impedances Z1 and Z2 on the primary and secondary side value of a for maxm power transfer should be..
109. Fourier transform of cos(?0t) is
110. at t=0 the step response of a 1st order system is.
111. 555 can be used as a monostable/astable/freq dividing ckt/all of these.
112. in a PT when the secondary is open ckted with the primary excited what will happen.
113. if a system is marginally stable then the nature of oscillations will be
114. linear encoders mostly use straight binary/BCD/gray code.
115. for an accelerometer working in displacement mode the ratio of forcing freq to natural freq should be..

ECIL GET 2010 ECE STREAM PAPER

1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A
b) 3A
c) 5A
d) 7A
2.For the Delta‐ Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms
b) 2/3 ohms
c) 3/2 ohms
d) 3 ohms
3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms
b) V=10V, R=3 ohms
c) V=15V, R= 2ohms
d) V=15V, R=3 ohms
4.The current I in a series R‐L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R‐L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree
b) is in‐phase with v
c) leads v by 45
d) lags v by 90
5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms
b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms
c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms
d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms
6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX
b) Z = R
c) Z = jX
d) Z = R –jX
7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (‐2t/RC)
b) V/R e^ (‐t/RC)
c) V/2R e^ (‐2t/RC)
d) V/2R e^ (‐t/RC)
8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0
b) LC
c) R/L
d) RC
9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟‐15
b) 2 ∟15
c) √2∟‐15
d) √2∟15
10.The Y‐parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two‐port given network is
a) [2 ‐1 ‐1 2]
b) [2 1 ‐1 2]
c) [1 ‐2 ‐1 2]
d) [2 1 1 2]
11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16
b) 25
c) 100
d) 125
12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,4,6,8,3
c) 5,6,8,3
d) 4,6,7,3
13.The Y‐parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 ‐1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms
b) 1/√2 ohms
c) 1 ohms
d) 2 ohms
14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) ‐10 V
b) ‐1 V
c) 0V
d) 10 V
15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R‐j(wL/√2) ohms
b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms
c) R‐j√2wL ohms
d) R‐j√2wL ohms
16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n‐channel enhancement MOSFET
b) an n‐channel depletion MOSFET
c) an p‐channel depletion MOSFET
d) an p‐channel JFET
17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3
b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3
c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3
d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}
18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P‐type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V‐s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N‐type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V‐s
b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V‐s
c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V‐s
d) µn = 600 cm^2/V‐s
19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor
b) direct semiconductor
c) degenerate semiconductor
d) indirect semiconductor
20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect
b) avalanche breakdown
c) impact ionization
d) excess heating of the junction.
21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51
b) 49
c) 1
d) 0.02
22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode
b) Schottky diode
c) photo diode
d) Tunnel diode
23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P‐N junction of band‐gap energy 1.2 eV, (En ‐ Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV
b) less than 1.2eV
c) equal to 1.1eV
d) equal to 0.7eV
24.In a P‐well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N‐type semiconductor and is used to build P‐channel MOSFET
b) P‐type semiconductor and is used to build P‐channel MOSFET
c) N‐type semiconductor and is used to build N‐channel MOSFET
d) P‐type semiconductor and is used to build N‐channel MOSFET
25.In a MOS capacitor with n‐type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = ‐0.41 V and the flat‐band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) ‐0.82 V
b) ‐0.41 V
c) 0.41 V
d) 0.82
Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.
27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA
b) 0V and 0 mA
c) ‐2V and 0.7 mA
d) 4V and 1.3 mA
28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter
29.Inside a 741 op‐amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier
b) level shifter
c) class‐A power amplifier
d) class‐AB power amplifier
30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA
31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier
b) output impedance of the amplifier
c) distortion in the amplifier
d) gain of the amplifier
32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0
b) r∏
c) gm
d) β
33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass‐band and stop‐band?
a) Chebyshev type I
b) Bessel
c) Chebyshev type II
d) Elliptic
34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1
b) ‐1
c) ‐1.02
d) 1.02
35.Assume the op‐amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak‐to‐peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave
b) square wave
c) pulse train
d) triangular wave
36.In a common source amplifier, the mid‐band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz
b) 15 MHz
c) 150 MHz
d) 1.5 GHz
37.An op‐amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000,CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op‐amp is
a) 14 V
b) 24 V
c) ‐6 V
d) ‐8 V
38.The op‐amp in the circuit in given figure has a non‐zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt
b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt
c) –V
d) +V
39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty‐cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2
b) increases by a factor of 1.44
c) remains constant
d) decreases by a factor of 1.44
40.Assume the op‐amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi
b) 4 Vi
c) 9 Vi
d) 10 Vi
41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Yˉ + Z)(Xˉ + Zˉ)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZˉ+YˉZ
b) XˉYZˉ+XZ+XˉYˉ
c) XˉYZˉ+XZ+YZ
d) XYZ+XˉYˉ
42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = BˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCˉ
b) F = BˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCˉD
c) F = ABˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCˉ
d) F = BˉDˉ+CDˉ+ABCD
43.The Boolean function F = AˉDˉ+BˉD can be realized by one of the following figures
44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) AˉBˉ+BˉCˉ+AC
b) ABˉ+BˉCˉ+ACˉ
c) ABˉ+BˉC+AC
d) AˉBˉ+BˉC+AˉC
45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip‐flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip‐flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip‐flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip‐flop are level triggered.
46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
a) increases the propagation delay
b) increases the power consumption
c) prevents saturation of the output transistor
d) keeps the transistor in cutoff region
47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM
b) EPROM
c) EEPROM
d) PLA
48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter
b) Ring counter
c) Ripple counter
d) Up‐down counter
49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register
b) 8 bit register
c) 16 bit register
d) 32 bit register
50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory
51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n]
b) x[n‐1]
c) x[n] – x[n‐1]
d) 0.5(x[n‐1] + x[n])
52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4))
b) x[n] = u[n] + u[‐n]
c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n‐4k]‐∂[n‐1‐4k]} where k = ‐∞to ∞
d) x(t) = e^ (‐1+j)t
53. If the input‐output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = ‐∞ to 2t
a) linear, time‐invariant and unstable
b) linear, non‐causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non‐causal, time invariant and unstable
54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system
55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function
56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1‐e^cs)/s)
b) A((1‐e^cs)/s)
c) A((1‐e^‐cs)/s)
d) –A((1‐e^‐cs)/s)
57. If X(z) is the z‐transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2
b) |z| < 2
c) 0.5<|z|<2
d) the entire z‐plane
58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other
b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w
c) a constant and τg is proportional to w
d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w
59. A signal m(t), band‐limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut‐off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz
b) 40kHz
c) 57 kHz
d) 77 kHz
60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5
b) 0.5 and √5
c) 0.5 and 5
d) 2 and √5
62. The time required for the response of a linear time‐variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time
b) peak time
c) rise time
d) decay time
63. The signal flow graph of the given network is
64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10
b) ‐2 and 10
c) 10 and 2
d) 2 and ‐10
65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) ‐0.5
b) ‐2.5
c) ‐3.5
d) ‐5.5
66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is
67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t)
of the system is
69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for
0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270
b) 0 and 180
c) 90 and 270
d) 90 and 180
70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure
71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is
a) 0
b) 0.25
c) 0.5
d) 1
73. If a single‐tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W
b) 10W
c) 12W
d) 15W
74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency
b) crystal oscillator
c) narrow band IF filter
d) narrow band filter at RF stage
75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type
b) quantizer type
c) number of levels of the quantizer
d) sampling rate
76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM‐DSB‐SC signal
a) Ratio detector
b) Foster‐Seeley discriminator
c) Product demodulator
d) Balanced‐slpoe detector
77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
b) A cos2πfct, ‐ A sinπfct
c) ‐ A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct
78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter
b) phase‐locked loop
c) envelope detector
d) product demodulator
79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0
b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1
c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2
d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4
80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one‐sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0)
b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0)
c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0)
d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)
81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t‐T), 0<=t<=T
b) –p(T‐t), 0<=t<=T
c) p(t‐T), 0<=t<=T
d) p(T‐t), 0<=t<=T
82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA
b) FDMA
c) TDMA
d) MC‐CDMA
83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel
b) 16 users per channel
c) 8 users per channel
d) 4 users per channel
84. If Rx(τ) is the auto‐correlation function of a zero‐mean wide‐sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(‐τ)
b) Rx(τ) = ‐Rx(‐τ)
c) σx^2 = Rx(0)
d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)
85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X‐EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X
b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2
c) 3EX^3 – E^3X
d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2
86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼
b) 1
c) 7/4
d) 2
87. A channel has a signal‐to‐noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps
b) 1200 bps
c) 4800 bps
d) 7200 bps
88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0
b) 1
c) XZ
d) YZ
89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0
b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds
c) ∫s A X dS = ‐∫v (del X A)dv
d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds
90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = ‐ ∂B/∂t
b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t
c) del.D = ρv
d) del.B = 0
91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
92. The skin depth of a non‐magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^‐1 is
a) 0.0015 mm
b) 0.015 mm
c) 0.15 mm
d) 1.5 mm
93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m
b) 20π/3 rad/m
c) 20π rad/m
d) 2π *10^5 rad/m
94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms
b) 75√2 ohms
c) 120 ohms
d) 150 ohms
95. A two‐port network characterized by the S‐parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90 0.9 L90 0.2 L0] Is
a) both reciprocal and lossless
b) reciprocal, but not lossless
c) lossless, but not reciprocal
d) neither reciprocal nor lossless
96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz
b) 3 GHz
c) 6 GHz
d) 9 GHz
97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z‐axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0
b) y=0
c) z=0
d) ø=45
98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction
99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 1.64
d) 2
100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.

Bihar Public Service Commission Management Solved questions

1. The proper system for education is:
(a) The present examination-system
(b) The examination-system with books
(c) Semester system
(d) Objective question paper
Ans. (c)
2. Hypothesis can not be stated in:
(a) Null and question form terms
(b) Declarative terms
(c) General terms.
(d) Directional terms
Ans. (c)
3. Satellite communication works through:
(a) Radar
(b) Transponder
(c) Receptor
(d) Transmitter
Ans. (b)
4. Computer can:
(a) Process both quantitative and qualitative information
(b) Store huge information
(c) Process information and fast accurately
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Informal communication network with in the organization is known as:
(a) Grape vine communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Mass communication
(d) Interpersonal communication
Ans. (a)
6. Linear programming models solve problems dealing with:
(a) Relatives and absolutes
(b) Routes and mixes
(c) Dispersions and similarities
(d) Rupees and percentages
Ans. (b)
7. Hierarchy has been described as the Scalar process by:
(a) L. D. White
(b) P. H. Appleby
(c) Mooney and Reilley
(d) Gullick and Urwick
Ans. (d)
8. Henry Fayol supports the:
(a) Humanistic approach
(b) Mechanistic approach
(c) Organic approach
(d) Scientific approach
Ans. (b)
9. The main focus of Human Relations theory is on:
(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Individual
(d) Participatory decision making
Ans. (c)
10. Environment is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relations
(c) People
(d) Situational variables
Ans. (d)
11. An organization principle based upon divisions of Labour is called:
(a) Line organization
(b) Functional organization
(c) Informal organization
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
12. In the organization, authority flows in a vertical line:
(a) From the top downward
(b) From the bottom upward
(c) Both ways downward and upward
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
13. Match the following:
A. Advisory function 1. Staff executives
B. Manpower development 2. Directing
C. Guiding function 3. Line executives
D. Managerial authority 4. Staffing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
14. Dorwin Cartwright and Alvin Zander identified the following two variables:
(i) Employee-oriented
(ii) Production-oriented
(iii) Goal-oriented
(iv) Group -oriented
The correct code is:
(a) (i) and (U)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
15. Quantitative techniques used to solve business problems are called:
(a) operations management
(b) operation science
(c) operation research
(d) management operation
Ans. (c)
16. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and harmony between workers and managers.
Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
17. Assertion (A): According to Taylor, one of the best way of doing each task leads to increase in productivity in organization.
Reason (R): It was the management’s responsibility alone to find out this one of the best way.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
18. Which of the following creates time utility?
(a) Farmer
(b) Carpenter
(c) Trader
(d) Driver
Ans. (c)
19. Match the following:
A. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 1. Income elasticity of demand
B. Responsiveness of demand to change in tastes 2. Price elasticity of demand
C. Responsiveness of demand to change in income 3. Cross elasticity of demand
D. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 4. Taste elasticity of demand
of related goods.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (d)
20. Assertion (A): The theory and hypotheses of Argyris suggest no relationship between personal development of the individual and the organizational situation.
Reason (R): The principles and characteristics of a formal organization, in the opinion of Argyris, are incongruent to the needs of adult human beings.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
21. Management by objectives is implemented in an organization by stages, one such stage action planning, includes:
I. Assigning responsibilities for achieving objectives
II. Choosing strategies appropriate to the objectives
III. Allocating resources for achieving objectives
IV. Scheduling specific activities to achieve maximum resource utilization
Identify from th following combinations the correct sequence in which the action planning stages are implemented
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, III, IV, I
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) II, I, III, IV
Ans. (d)
22. What is BIS?
(a) Business Information System
(b) Business of Industrial Sale
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c))
23. Match List-I (Activity) with List-Il (Associated organization) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Mutual fund 1. Stock exchange
B. Public issue of capital 2. Assets management company
C. Forward trading 3. Merchant banking
D. Option pricing 4. Forex market
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following are the methods of market new issues of securities?
I. Listing of securities
II. Jobbers and brokers
III. Private placement of securities
IV. Privileged subscriptions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Ans. (c)
25. SEBI was established in:
(a) 1993
(b) 1992
(c) 1988
(d) 1990
Ans. (c)
26. Increase in net RBI credit for central government represents:
(a) Budgetary Deficit
(b) Revenue Deficit
(c) Fiscal Deficit
(d) Monetized Deficit
Ans. (d)
27. The famous book “The Philosophy of Management” was written by:
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Oliver Scheldon
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) Urwick
Ans. (b)
28. Arrange the following ingredients of communication process in the proper order:
1. Message
2. Receiver
3. Encoder
4. Channel
5. Decoder
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans. (c)
29. Marginal Revenue will be negative if the demand is:
(a) Relatively elastic
(b) Unitary elastic
(c) Relatively inelastic
(d) Perfectly elastic
Ans. (c)
30. Price control; is one of the monopoly regulations which is most advantageous for:
(a) The producer
(b) The consumer
(c) The government
(d) The seller
Ans. (b)
31. Which one of the following is considered as the first principle of organization?
(a) Delegation
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Unity of command
(d) Supervision
Ans. (b)
32. Find the odd one out:
(a) Human relations theory
(b) Informal functioning
(c) Humanistic theory
(d) Structural theory
Ans. (d)
33. The real aim of production is:
(a) To create material goods
(b) To eliminate poverty
(c) To satisfy people’s wants
(d) To provide basic necessities.
Ans. (c)
34. At the point of inflexion, the marginal utility is:
(a) Increasing
(c) Maximum
(b) Decreasing
(d) Negative
Ans. (c)
35. “Production” may be defined as an act of:
(a) Creating utility
(b) Earning profit
(c) Destroying utility
(d) Providing services
Ans. (a)
36. The Scientific Management stressed upon:
1. Rationality
2. Specialization
3. Technical Competence
4. Predictability
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
37. Arrange the Maslow’s Need Hierarchy in the descending order:
1. Social
2. Self-Actualization
3. Physiological
4. Ego
5. Security
(a) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
Ans. (d)
38. According to which theory, leadership is multi dimensional?
(a) Behavioural Theory
(b) Situational Theory
(c) Trait Theory
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
39. Which of the following according to Hertzberg are not the motivators?
1. Responsibility
2. Recognition
3. Interpersonal relations
4. Work itself
Ans. (c)
40. The practice of placing a candidate at the right job is:
(a) Selection
(b) Placement
(c) Interview
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
41. Selection process in any organization is usually proceeded by the preparation of:
(a) Human resources audit
(b) Operations audit
(c) Human resources inventory
(d) Human resources accounting
Ans. (c)
42. A written statement of the main duties and responsibilities which a particular job entails is called:
(a) Job analysis
(b) Job specification
(c) Job description
(d) Job evaluation
Ans. (c)
43. Partnership is a form of business organization in which business debts can be recovered from:
(a) The managing partners
(b) MI the managers and partners
(c) The firm and the managers
(d) The firm and all the partners
Ans. (d)
44. The main objective of Stock Exchange is to:
(a) Provide facilities for speculation
(b) Safeguard the interest of investors
(c) Help in the capital formation in the country
(d) Provide a ready market for securities
Ans. (b)
45. Contango charge is paid by a:
(a) Bull speculator to bear speculator
(b) Bear speculator to bull speculator
(c) Lame duck to bull speculator
(d) Bull to lane duck speculator
Ans. (a)
46. MRTP Act came into force in:
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1980
Ans. (
47. Dumping is an example of:
(a) Monopolistic practice in international trade
(b) Monopoly in international trade
(c) Oligopoly in international trade
(d) Perfect competition in international trade
Ans. (a)
48. A critical activity is defined as one whose:
(a) Total float is zero
(b) Free float is zero
(c) Duration is the longest
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
49.‘t’ Distribution was discovered by:
(a) Karl Pearson
(b) Fisher
(c) Laplace
(d) Gosset
Ans. (d)
50. Scheduled bank is that bank which is:
(a) Nationalized
(b) Not nationalized
(c) Bared at foreign country
(d) Include in the second schedule of RBI
Ans. (d)