Monday, January 30, 2012
Sunday, January 29, 2012
Tuesday, January 24, 2012
UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2012
General Studies Paper – II
(a) List the Central Asian Republics and identify those of particular strategic and economic importance to India. Examine the opportunities and bottlenecks in enhancing relations with these countries.
Answer:
Central Asian Republics include Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan, Although all of them are important for India from the perspective of trade, security, energy security, civilisational link, but the ones particularly important are Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan and Tajikistan.
Kazakhstan is one of the fastest growing economies of Central Asia and a politically stable nation. India has signed civil nuclear agreement with Kazakhstan and agreed to give India a foothold in the oil rich Caspian through Satapayev block. Central Asian republics are important to India for its energy security (vast reserves of oil, gas and radioactive material), a potential market for its growing trade, strategically vital to safeguard India’s interest in Central Asia, West Asia and Africa. TAPI gas pipeline agreement signed recently involving Turkmenistan promises to address some of India’s energy needs through supply of natural gas. Central Asian Republic are also potential markets for export of Indian pharmaceuticals, IT services, entertainment services etc.
These nation are also part of regional groupings like SCO which will play crucial role in regional stability and prosperity in Asia and hence in the world.
On the flip side of it, some of these nations are not politically stable, lack vibrant democracy, and are marred by ethnic clashes which make it difficult for the businesses to operate. Lack of infrastructure and land connectivity also places obstacles in the smooth business activity. The same product that would take more than a month to reach these nations from India can be obtained within a week from China, Turkey or Europe. Terrorism emanating from the Central Asian region like from Fergana valley is another area of concern and challenge for India.
(b) Critically examine the security and strategic implications of the so-called ‘string of pearls’ theory for India.
Answer:
String of pearls theory refers to China building deep water ports in the Indian Ocean like Gwadar (Pakistan), Hambantota (Sri Lanka), Sittwe(Mayanmar), Chittagong (Bangladesh) as a part of the strategy to encircle India. China denies this and claims that it is not directed against any nation. It is rather for securing its energy supplies and sea routes for its trade.
Several western analysts including some Indian Defence analyst think otherwise and claim that it is part of China’s strategy to contain India in the event of any future conflict. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and a naval dominance of China or any other nation in Indian Ocean is certainly a security concern for India. String of pearls makes China India’s maritime neighbour and give the opportunity to China to have a two front situation against India in case of a conflict.
Strategically China’s growing indulgence with India’s neighbours like Sri Lanka or Bangladesh through these ports gives China an extra lever to use against India. It can be used both as soft and a hard power to gain strategic depth inside India’s neighbourhood.
India’s rise on the world stage is guided mostly by its economic might in terms of its rising GDP and share in world trade which depends largely on the sea routes through which the trade is conducted. Any dominance on the sea routes can be used against India’s growth and thus requires India to take cognizance of the String of Pearls strategy by china.
(c) “Compared to the South Asian Trade Area (SAFTA), the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation Free Trade Area (BIMSTEC FTA) seems to be more promising.” Critically evaluate.
Answer:
BIMSTEC was initiated with the goal to combine the 'Look West' policy of Thailand and ASEAN with the 'Look East' policy of India and South Asia. So it could be explained that BIMSTEC is a link between ASEAN and SAARC. BIMSTEC provides a unique link between South Asia and Southeast Asia bringing together 1.3 billion people - 21 percent of the world population.
Compared to south Asian free trade area (SAFTA), the BIMSTEC FTA seems to be more promising. A deeper economic integration process within South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) sometime suffers because of political tension between India and Pakistan. Such things are less likely to happen in case of BIMSTEC. It is believed that negotiation under the BIMSTEC umbrella will be easier than under SAFTA because all the BIMSTEC members are purely guided by economic interests rather than by political interests. Many countries in SAFTA have less favorable geographical location in terms of being land locked and thus have adverse affect on trade as compared to BIMSTEC nations. BIMSTEC being a link between South Asia and South East Asia also opens up vast opportunities for trade as compared to SAFTA which is limited to mainly South Asia.
When compared in terms of their economic structure, namely, value addition of services, industry, and agriculture sector, to gross domestic product (GDP), BIMSTEC nations have many similarities. Except in case of Thailand, the industrial sector constitutes roughly a fourth of GDP in all countries. All these economies are predominantly associated with service related activities. Although majority of the population still lives in rural areas, all of these nations are becoming increasingly urbanised. Geographical proximity along with similar economic profile indicates complementarities in consumption, production, and trading pattern. All these factors make BIMSTEC FTA more promising.
2. Answer any three of the following in about 150 words each: 15×3=36
(a) Subsequent to the Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) waiver in 2008, what are the agreements on nuclear energy that India has signed with different countries?
Answer:
Subsequent to NSG waiver India has signed Civil Nuclear Cooperation with nine nations and South Korea is the latest in the list. The NSG waiver ended nuclear apartheid of almost three decades for India where world declined to share any nuclear technology and resources with India even for non military purposes.
India has also incorporated enrichment and reprocessing agreements with several nations like Russia and France after the NSG waiver. Countries have guaranteed fuel supply to Indian nuclear reactors which were running much below their capacity due to lack of nuclear fuel.
India has also passed legislation on nuclear liabilities and is progressing towards ratifying Convention for Supplementary Convention which will bring India in line with the international regime and facilitate nuclear suppliers of other nations to do business with India.
(b) Trace the progress of India’s efforts for a joint counter-terrorism strategy with China. What are the likely implications of the recent Xinjiang violence on these efforts?
Answer:
India and China have completed two rounds of joint anti terrorism exercise in 2007 and 2008. Although the symbolic importance of these exercises is immense, both countries could explore cooperation in preventive measures particularly intelligence sharing; and hotline for critical situations to tackle the menace of terrorism. The two sides could consider maximizing their cooperation in the field of counter-terrorism and further consolidating strategic partnership between the two.
China’s Xinjiang problem is connected with the network of cross border and transnational terrorism. Xinjiang is a case in point of the ethno-religious separatist problem in the Xinjiang region.
Even after having such immense opportunities, India and China defense cooperation has been stalled due Chinese policy of stapled visa or denial of visa for Indian army officers from Jammu and Kashmir region and the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Bring out the importance of the Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference held in Dubai last year for Indian business.
Answer:
The 2010 SME Conference theme was Meet, discuss, start. Last year’s conference was designed to provide information and assistance to all sizes of small businesses, as well as to those from the government who work with them. The conference created opportunities for small business owners and entrepreneurs to network, build alliances, and learn about new products, services and trends. Relevant educational presentations provided participants with new strategies and tools that can be put into action.
The conference was important for Indian business because of following reasons
• Opportunities for SME
• Strategies to boost the business environment for SMEs
• Investments and financing SME growth
• Banking and financial service innovations for SMEs
• Technologies that can help SME growth
• Women Entrepreneur
Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference, offered great platform to small units to promote their brands, products and services, as well as to explore business opportunities in the Middle East and North African markets.
Besides giving a major impetus to networking activities with other visiting countries such as Pakistan, Mauritius, Nigeria and Vietnam, the event offered Indian SMEs the opportunity to acquaint themselves with the latest technologies in their industries and form alliances with international clients. Indian SMEs from sectors such as plastic, petrochemicals, garments and textiles, and art and handicrafts, among others gained from the participation at the expo.
(d) What are the salient features of the political and economic relationship between India and South Africa?
Answer:
South Africa has emerged as an important ally for India in recent times. Apart from having civilisational links and India’s close support during the apartheid movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s proximity with the cause South Africa is also a symbol of India’s engagement with the African people and society.
India and South Africa are part of IBSA and BRICS. IBSA represents south-south alliance while BRICS is concerned more with the economic cooperation among the member states. India and South Africa have given coordinated response in G20 and WTO. South Africa is an important destination for investment by the Inidan Business Community and a joint CEOs forum has been set up between the two nations to deepen economic cooperation and raise the level of bilateral trade.
The two nations have demanded reforms of the international institutions, given coordinated responses in the climate change negotiations with the developed nations. They coordinated and put a joint stand on the issue of Syria which provided a third alternative or a middle path in dealing with such issues of international intervention. The two nations also have a shared understanding of Iran’s nuclear issue.
3. Answer either of the following in about 250 words: 20
(a) “The causes and implications of the Jasmine Revolution and its spread are as much economic in nature as they are political.” Critically evaluate.
Answer:
The region of West Asia and North Africa is in a state of flux and going through a turbulent phase. The ripples that started in Tunisia from Jasmine revolution has spread far and wide. Many regimes like in Egypt and Libya have fallen since then while some have been truly shaken like in Syria, Behrain and Yemen.
The region shares some common economic and political characteristics that have resulted in this. These regimes have been more or less dictatorial in nature, giving minimum or no political liberties to its citizens. The freedom of speech, expression and movement has been restricted in past with no credible democracy. Elections were often rigged and constitutions manipulated to suit the ruling elite. The growing reach of media and social networking sites on the other hand opened the window for their people to peep into the outside free world. This raised their expectations from their own rulers and also provided a platform to organise protests against the regimes. Underlying ethnic and sect tensions against the regimes have also added fuel to the fire.
Economic reasons like high rate of unemployment among youth as in case of Tunisia, and low per capita income have also resulted in these revolts. The rulers in these nations have indulged in lavish life style and amassed treasures while the fellow citizens were starving and struggling with poor education, health and public utilities system. None of these nations had any proper higher education system which could ensure respectable jobs to its youth. Many countries like Bahrain and Saudi Arabia have distributed cash and benefits among its citizens since the start of Jasmine revolution but that does not address the systemic reforms that the people these nations are demanding.
(b) In the context of the ‘Euro-zone’ debt crisis, examine the proposed ‘six-pack’ solution. Do you think that this has a better chance of success than the earlier stability and growth pact?
Answer:
The six pack solution has been proposed for Euro Zone debt crisis which threatens to drag the world economy along with it into yet another full blown crisis. It is a set of legislative measures that gives European Commission the ability to impose sanctions on the eurozone countries that fail to control their debt and deficit. The rules are designed to prevent any future debt crisis of the present nature and thus give more sanctioning power to European Commission.
The European parliament will have the right to call finance ministers from countries that have been warned to hearings, while the European semester provides for the annual assessment of national budgets. Falsified debt and deficit statistics can lead to a fine of 0.2 per cent of gross domestic product. And countries will be obliged to act pre-emptively to maintain the health of economies threatened by imbalances such as a housing-bubble.
The legislation would discourage member states from evading their responsibilities to each other to ensure the stability of the eurozone. The rules would provide for enhanced monitoring and surveillance of imbalances like unemployment, credit growth and housing bubble etc. This would also give right signals to the financial markets about the seriousness of the EU and its resolve to handle any future debt crisis.
4. Answer any four of the following in about 150 words each: 12×4=48
(a) “As regards the increasing rates of melting of Arctic Sea ice, the interests of the Arctic Council nations may not coincide with those of the wider world”. Explain.
Answer:
The climate change has increased the rate of melting of the Arctic Sea Ice. This has increased the access of earlier hidden oil and gas resources. Many Arctic countries like Russia, Denmark, Canada and Iceland have rushed to claim their sovereignty over these resources. They see the climate change as an opportunity to exploit these hidden resources. They also provide new opportunities for fishing and shipping.
Wider world on the other hand is concerned about the increasing rate of melting of Arctic Ice as this can threaten existence of some species, disturb the water and ocean cycle, adversely affect global average temperature, and can also lead to loosing climate history stored in these ice sheets. This is a ecologically sensitive area and highly unregulated thus causes concerns for the world at large.
(b) Is there still a role for the concept of balance of power in contemporary international politics? Discuss.
Answer:
The balance of power in the contemporary international politics can be used not only in terms of one super power balancing the other or regional balance of power but also the balance between hard and soft power. The disintegration of USSR tilted the balance of power in favour of America but economic rise of China has started to threaten the numero uno position of USA.
Several example of balance of power in international politics is seen. USA uses Israel as a tool to balance power in West Asia. NAM during the cold war era was used by developing countries to balance the relationship between two superpowers. The doctrine that neighbour’s neighbour is a friend is seen in several situations like China having all weather friendship with Pakistan to balance India. Chinese allege that USA is using its neighbours to contain the rise of China.
The growing economic prowess of emerging economies like India, China, Brazil and South Africa is being used in international forums like G20 or WTO to balance the developed nations. Thus the concept is very much alive even though it might have weakened a bit in the interconnected globalized world with supra national organisations like United Nations playing a key role in international politics.
(c) “Strategic interests seem to be replacing commercial interests for the host country with regard to Cam Ranh bay.” Amplify.
Answer:
Vietnam opened its Cam Ranh Bay after eight years of its closure. The bay is in the northeast of Ho Chi Minh City. It is one of the best deepwater shelters in Southeast Asia. Ships can stop here for refuelling or repair. It enjoys a geo strategic significance as it is located near to key shipping lanes in the South China Sea. China’s aggressive policy in the South China Sea also led to this decision by Vietnam.
The Bay has been strategically crucial for great powers like Russia, Japan, France and USA in the history. Vietnam had not opened it after Russian withdrawal in 2002 but the recent claims by China seems to have led Vietnam to take this step. Opening of the Bay for the navies of many nations will indirectly strengthen Vietnam’s claim and right in the South China Sea and weaken Chinese position.
(d) To what extent has the withdrawal of al-Shabab from Mogadishu given peace a real chance in Somalia? Assess.
Answer:
Al-Shabab has withdrawn from most parts of the capital of Somalia but its fighters still control some areas, including Deynile. The Islamist group withdrew after a government offensive to retake the city and clear the way for foreign aid destined for drought and famine victims. African Union troops has helped push back the rebels.
Al-Shabab once controlled nearly all of Mogadishu and still controls large swaths of central and southern Somalia. The group has tightly controlled the delivery of aid to famine victims in its territory, and has banned access for many international aid agencies. Thus its withdrawal provides real opportunity for peace but it also depends on how this opportunity is utilised by the Somalis government.
Al-Shabab on the other hand has claimed that the retreat was a strategic move and it will remain nearby and continue its effort to topple the United Nations-backed government.
(e) On a Formula-one (F-1) racing car track, information to drivers is generally signalled through the standardized use of flags of different colours. Describe the meaning associated with any six of the flags listed below:
(i) White Flag
Answer:
When the white flag is waved by the race marshals, it means the drivers should immediately slow down, as it indicates the presence of a safety car, ambulance or towing truck ahead, on the track. In this situation, overtaking is strictly prohibited.
(ii) Black Flag
Answer:
Once a race marshal waves the black flag and it attaches the race number to the car to it that means the driver is disqualified for the ongoing race. After seeing the black flag, a driver must enter the pits within the next lap and report immediately to the Clerk of the Course.
(iii) Yellow Flag
Answer:
Indicates danger ahead and overtaking is prohibited. A single waved yellow flag means slow down, a double waved yellow warns that the driver must be prepared to stop if necessary.
(iv) Blue Flag
Answer:
Shown to a driver to indicate that a faster car is behind him and trying to overtake. Shown both to lapped cars and those racing. A lapped car must allow the faster car past after seeing a maximum of three blue flags or risk being penalised.
(v) Black and White Flag divided diagonally
Answer:
Shown with car number to indicate a warning for unsportsmanlike behaviour. A black flag may follow if the driver takes no heed of the warning.
(vi) Chequered Flag
Answer:
This shows that the race has ended. Shown first to the winner, and then to every car to cross the line behind them.
(vii) Yellow and Red Striped Flag
Answer:
The track is slippery. This usually warns of oil or water on the track.
5. Comment on any thirteen of the following in about 50 words each: 5×13=65
(a) International Year of Chemistry
Answer:
The United Nations declared 2011 to be the International Year of Chemistry. The year 2011 marks the 100th anniversary of the founding of the International Association of Chemical Societies, as well as the year Madame Marie Curie won the Nobel Prize – which celebrates the contributions of women to science. The Year hopes to promote the appreciation of chemistry in meeting world needs and the future development of chemistry.
(b) The scourge of e-waste
Answer:
e-waste constitutes of used, obsolete, and end of life cycle electronics product which if disposed in an unscientific manner can lead to pollution of air, water and soil. Acid bath, land fill and burning are used for the disposal of e-waste leading to pollution through heavy metals (like cadmium, mercury, and nickel) poly vinyl chloride and poly chlorinated biphenyl. e-waste is from developed countries is being dumped to developing countries causing large scale health hazards.
(c) Designer poultry eggs
Answer:
Designer eggs are for beauty conscious consumers, as well as persons affected with diabetes and heart-disease. It will be bacteria-free, rich in protein and high on calorific value. The designer eggs are produced through a scientific method adopted for nurturing the layer with the right feed so that they lay high quality eggs. The composition of the feed leads to the desired composition of the eggs.
(d) INSPIRE programme of the Department of Science and Technology
Answer:
Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE)" is an innovative programme sponsored and managed by the Department of Science & Technology for attraction of talent to Science. The basic objective of INSPIRE is to communicate to the youth of the country the excitements of creative pursuit of science, attract talent to the study of science at an early age and thus build the required critical human resource pool for strengthening and expanding the Science & Technology system and R&D base.
(e) The Kessler syndrome with reference to space debris
Answer:
The Kessler Syndrome is a future scenario when the amount of space junk reaches a high enough density that each collision will produce sufficient fragments that generate a slow cascade effect; producing more collisions and debris, eventually causing our species to become incapable of launching space craft. It was first proposed in 1978 by Donald J. Kessler when debris that accumulates in space is increasing faster than what debris falls out of orbit and burns up.
(f) Omega-3 fatty acids in our food
Answer:
Omega-3 fatty acids are polyunsaturated fats found naturally in oily fish, nuts, seeds, and leafy green vegetables. Omega-3 fatty acids are thought to protect against heart disease, inflammation, and certain types of cancer, diabetes, Alzheimer’s disease, and macular degeneration (a leading cause of vision loss). Omega-3 fatty acids are critical for proper brain development and neurological function in developing babies, too.
(g) Difference between ‘spin-drying’ and ‘tumble-drying’ technology with reference to drying of washed clothes
Answer:
Spin drying technology for drying washed clothes saves time as the high speed and RPM (revolutions per minute) allows the clothes to get rid of water quickly due to centrifugal force. Tumble drying technology on the other hand works mainly on the heated air being passed through the clothes to dry them up. Heat and not spinning speed is used to dry the clothes through this technology.
(h) The admonishing population of vultures
Answer:
The vulture population has been declining which was a cause of concern. Use of diclofenac with the cattle population is partly responsible for this decline. Bombay Natural History Society has taken up conservation and awareness efforts which have positively impacted the vulture population. Vulture breeding centres are set up in Pinjore(Haryana), Rani forest (Assam) to arrest the declining population. The slender billed, white backed vultures are among the endangered species.
(i) ‘Arsenic-bug’ and the significance of its discovery
Answer:
NASA-supported researchers have discovered the first known microorganism on Earth able to thrive and reproduce using the toxic chemical arsenic. The microorganism, which lives in California's Mono Lake, substitutes arsenic for phosphorus in the backbone of its DNA and other cellular components. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and sulfur are the six basic building blocks of all known forms of life on Earth. This finding will alter biology textbooks and expand the scope of the search for life beyond Earth.
(j) F-22 ‘Raptor’ aircraft
Answer:
Developed by Lockheed Martin/Boeing, the F-22A Raptor is a supersonic, dual-engine fighter jet. The F-22 is designed for stealth, supercruise speed and super-agility.
It is a fifth generation aircraft. . It has additional capabilities that include ground attack, electronic warfare, and signals intelligence roles. It lost the Indian bid to Eurofighter and French Rafale recently.
(k) ‘Concentrated’ solar energy and’ photovoltaic’ solar energy
Answer:
Concentrating solar power (CSP) technologies use mirrors to reflect and concentrate sunlight onto receivers that collect the solar energy and convert it to heat. This thermal energy can then be used to produce electricity via a steam turbine or heat engine driving a generator.Photovoltaic solar energy is method of converting solar energy into electrical energy using photovoltaic cells having semiconductors that exhibit photoelectric effects. Photovoltaic cells could use any of the semiconductors like silicon, selenium, gallium.
(l) Analog hybrid and IP systems in CCTV technology
Answer:
Monitoring and surveillance applications were traditionally done by analog CCTV technology. Analog CCTV systems are generally maintenance intensive, offer no remote accessibility, and are notoriously difficult to integrate with other systems. IP systems in CCTV technology gets rid of these obstacles. It provides ease of use, advanced search capabilities, simultaneous record and playback, no image degradation, improved compression and storage, and integration potential. IP CCTV technology allows us to take advantage of many new technologies like LAN, Broadband, VPN etc.
(m) Various applications of Kevlar
Answer:
Originally developed as a replacement for steel in radial tires, Kevlar is now used in a wide range of applications. The Kevlar tire technology has been applied to aeroplane, car, racing vehicle and truck tires. Some components of Kevlar are used in an array of rackets, such as tennis, badminton and squash rackets. Canoes and kayaks were also improved when Kevlar technology was applied there.
(n) Differences between Compact Disc (CD), Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) and Blu-ray Disc.
Answer:
The Compact Disc is an optical disc used to store digital data. A DVD is an optical disc storage media format, developed by Philips, Sony, Toshiba, and Panasonic. DVDs offer higher storage capacity than Compact Discs while having the same dimensions. Blu-ray Disc is an optical disc storage medium designed to supersede the DVD format. The plastic disc is 120 mm in diameter and 1.2 mm thick, the same size as DVDs and CDs. Blu-ray Discs contain 25 GB per layer. Blue ray gets its name from the blue laser used to read the data. It allows information to be stored at a greater density as compared to red laser being used in DVD.
6. Comment on the following in about 50 words each: 5×5=25
(a) Functions of the World Customs Organisation (WCO)
Answer:
The World Customs Organization is the only intergovernmental organisation exclusively focused on Customs matters. WCO is recognised as the voice of the global Customs community. It works in the areas covering the development of global standards, the simplification and harmonisation of Customs procedures, trade supply chain security, the facilitation of international trade, the enhancement of Customs enforcement and compliance activities, anti-counterfeiting and piracy initiatives, public-private partnerships, integrity promotion, and sustainable global Customs capacity building programmes.
(b) Success of international intervention of Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast)
Answer:
UN Security council had authorised the intervention in Cote d’Ivoire to end the standoff created by the Gbagbo who had refused to give power after defeat in Presidential elections. UN peacekeeping French forces intervened and the intervention in Côte d'Ivoire worked. Within a week, former president Laurent Gbagbo, who had refused to accept defeat in an election and plunged his country into a steadily escalating spiral of violence and repression, was in custody, and within two weeks the majority of his forces had surrendered or rallied to the new President's side.
(c) Strategic adopted by Colombia to eliminate its drug cartels
Answer:
Columbia has adopted a comprehensive strategy to eliminate drug cartels which involves reducing or eliminating corruption from the police force, judiciary and all the drug enforcement agencies. Several operations involving undercover agents were also undertaken to expose the financial network used by the drug mafia for money laundering. Columbia is also making international efforts to have a coordinated response to the menace of drug trafficking.
(d) World Food Programme (WFP) of the United Nations (UN)
Answer:
WFP is the United Nations frontline agency in the fight against global hunger. WFP is the food aid arm of the United Nations system. Food aid is one of the many instruments that can help to promote food security. The policies governing the use of World Food Programme food aid is oriented towards the objective of eradicating hunger and poverty. The ultimate objective of food aid is the elimination of the need for food aid.
(e) Sculpture of the broken chair in front of the UN building at Geneva
Answer:
Sculpture of the broken chair symbolises opposition to land mines and cluster bombs, and acts as a reminder to politicians and others visiting Geneva. The sculpture was erected by Handicap International and is a work by the Swiss artist Daniel Berset.
7. Why each of the following been in the news recently? (each answer in a sentence or two only); 2×10=20
(a) Tiangong – 1
Answer:
It is a Chinese space laboratory module,and is an experimental testbed to demonstrate the rendezvous and docking capabilities needed to support a space station complex.
(b) K-computer
Answer:
It is a supercomputer produced by Fujitsu at the RIKEN Advanced Institute for Computational Science campus in Kobe, Japan. The K computer is based on distributed memory architecture.
(c) Gliese 581 g
Answer:
It is a hypothetical extrasolar planet of the red dwarf star Gliese 581, in the constellation of Libra. It is the sixth planet discovered in the Gliese 581 planetary system and the fourth in order of increasing distance from the star.
(d) MABEL robot
Answer:
It is believed to be the world’s fastest bipedal robot with knees. It is built with funding from the National Science Foundation and the Defence Advanced Research Projects Agency, USA.
(e) Operation Shady Rat
Answer:
It is referred to the series of cyber attacks starting from mid 2006. It is characterized by McAfee as a five year targeted operation by one specific actor. It refers to targeting of several athletic organisations around the time of Summer 2008 Olympics.
(f) SAGA-220
Answer:
It is the fastest super computer of India developed by ISRO. Its speed is 220 teraflops.
(g) Billion Acts of Green
Answer:
The goal of Billion Acts of Green campaign is to reach a billion acts of environmental service and advocacy before Rio +20 to be held in 2012.
(h) L’Aquila earthquake
Answer:
Six scientists have been accused for manslaughter over the 2009 L’Aquila earthquake. Prosecutors allege the defendants gave a falsely reassuring statement before the quake after studying hundreds of tremors that had shaken the city.
(i) OPERA detector at Gran Sasso
Answer:
Oscillation Project with Emulsion-Racking Apparatus is an experiment to detect neutrinos. OPERA researchers have observed muon neutrinos travelling apparently at faster than the speed of light.
(j) Saturn’s Titan
Answer:
Titan is the largest moon of Saturn and the second largest moon in the solar system. It is the only natural satellite known to have a dense atmosphere.
8. Why have the following been in the news recently? (each answer in a sentence or two only): 2×5=10
(a) ‘News International’ newspaper
Answer:
News International is the UK arm of Murdoch's global News Corp empire and publishes four British newspapers: the Times, the Sunday Times, the Sun and the News of the World, as well as the weekly Times Literary Supplement.
(b) Mustafa Abdul-Jalil
Answer:
He is the Chairman of the National Transitional Council of Libya, and as such serves as head of state in Libya's caretaker government which was formed as a result of the 2011 Libyan civil war.
(c) Abel Kirui
Answer:
Kenya's Abel Kirui is a marathon runner who retained his world championships title in emphatic fashion, recording the largest winning margin in championship history.
(d) Natalie Portman
Answer:
She is a hollywood actress who has won the Oscar for the best actress for her performance in the movie Black Swan.
(e) Nawaf Salam
Answer:
He is a Lebanese diplomat, academic, and jurist. He is currently serving as Lebanon's Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the United Nations in New York.
9. (a) List the requisites of a good table:
Present the following in a suitable tabular form: 5
In 1980 out of a total of 1750 workers of a factory, 1200 were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 1985 the number of union workers increased to 1580 of which 1290 were men. On the other hand the number of non-union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were men. In 1990 there were 1800 employees who belonged to the union and 50 who did not belong to the union. Of all the employees in 1990, 300 were women of which only 8 did not belong to the union.
Answer:
| Male | Female | |||
| Union | Non Union | Union | Non Union | |
| 1980 | 1175 | 375 | 25 | 175 |
| 1985 | 1290 | 180 | 290 | 28 |
| 1990 | 1508 | 42 | 292 | 8 |
| Marks | No. Of Students |
| 50-55 | 6 |
| 55-60 | 10 |
| 60-65 | 22 |
| 65-70 | 30 |
| 70-75 | 16 |
| 75-80 | 12 |
| 80-100 | 15 |
| No. of tablets | No. of Persons cured |
| 4-8 | 11 |
| 8-12 | 13 |
| 12-16 | 16 |
| 16-20 | 14 |
| 20-24 | ? |
| 24-28 | 9 |
| 28-32 | 17 |
| 32-36 | 6 |
| 36-40 | 4 |
Answer:
| No. of tablets | Middle Point | No. of Persons cured | Product |
| 4-8 | 6 | 11 | 66 |
| 8-12 | 10 | 13 | 130 |
| 12-16 | 14 | 16 | 224 |
| 16-20 | 18 | 14 | 252 |
| 20-24 | 22 | x | 22x |
| 24-28 | 26 | 9 | 234 |
| 28-32 | 30 | 17 | 510 |
| 32-36 | 34 | 6 | 204 |
| 36-40 | 38 | 4 | 152 |
| 1772+22x/90+x = 19.9 |
| 1772 +22x = 1791 + 19.9x |
| 2.1x = 19 |
| x = 9 |
| Life time (hours) | No. of tubes |
| 300-399 | 14 |
| 400-499 | 46 |
| 500-599 | 58 |
| 600-699 | 76 |
| 700-799 | 68 |
| 800-899 | 62 |
| 900-999 | 48 |
| 1000-1099 | 22 |
| 1100-1199 | 6 |
(i) Relative frequency of sixth class.
Answer: See Answer table below
Relative frequency of sixth class is = Frequency of that class/ Total frequency = 62/ 400 = 0.155 = 15.5%
(ii) Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours = 29.5% from table below
(iii) Percentage of tubes whose life time is greater than or equal to 900 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life time is greater than or equal to 900 hours = 19% from table below
(iv) Percentage of tubes whose life time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours = (Less than 1000 hours – Less than 500 hours) / 400 = (372 – 60)/ 400 = 312/400 = 78%
| Life time | Less than | Cumulative Fr | Percentage | More than | Cumulative Fr | Percentage | No. of tubes |
| 299.5-399.5 | 399.5 | 14 | 3.50% | 299.5 | 400.00 | 100.00% | 14 |
| 399.5-499.5 | 499.5 | 60.00 | 15.00% | 399.5 | 386.00 | 96.50% | 46 |
| 499.5-599.5 | 599.5 | 118.00 | 29.50% | 499.5 | 340.00 | 85.00% | 58 |
| 599.5-699.5 | 699.5 | 194.00 | 48.50% | 599.5 | 282.00 | 70.50% | 76 |
| 699.5-799.5 | 799.5 | 262.00 | 65.50% | 699.5 | 206.00 | 51.50% | 68 |
| 799.5-899.5 | 899.5 | 324.00 | 81.00% | 799.5 | 138.00 | 34.50% | 62 |
| 899.5-999.5 | 999.5 | 372.00 | 93.00% | 899.5 | 76.00 | 19.00% | 48 |
| 999.5-1099.5 | 1099.5 | 394.00 | 98.50% | 999.5 | 28.00 | 7.00% | 22 |
| 1099.5-1199.5 | 1199.5 | 400.00 | 100.00% | 1099.50 | 6.00 | 1.50% | 6 |
10. (a) A car travels 25 km at 25 kph, 25 km at 50 kph, and 25 km at 75 kph. Find the average speed of the car for the entire journey.
Answer:
| Distance in km | Speed in kph | Time taken in hr = Distance/ Speed | |
| 25 | 25 | 1.00 | |
| 25 | 50 | 0.50 | |
| 25 | 75 | 0.33 | |
| Total | 75 | 1.83 | |
| Average Speed in kph | Total Distance/ Total Time | 40.91 |
Answer:
Incorrect Total = 200*50 = 10000
Correct Total = 10000 + (192-92) + (88-8) = 10180
Correct Mean = 10180/ 200 = 50.9
(c) Students were asked how long it took them to walk to school on a particular morning. A cumulative frequency distribution was formed.
| Time taken (minutes) | c.f. |
| <5 | 28 |
| <10 | 45 |
| <15 | 81 |
| <20 | 143 |
| <25 | 280 |
| <30 | 349 |
| <35 | 374 |
| <40 | 395 |
| <45 | 400 |
(ii) Estimate how many students took less than 18 minutes.
(ii) 6% of students took x minutes or longer. Find x. 6
(d) An investor buys ` 1200 worth of shares in a company each month. During the first five months he bought the shares at a price of ` 10, ` 12, ` 15, ` 20 and ` 24 per share. After 5 months, what is the average price paid for the shares by him? 4
Answer:
Number of shares in first month = 1200/10 = 120
Number of shares in second month = 1200/12 = 100
Number of shares in third month = 1200/15 = 80
Number of shares in fourth month = 1200/20 = 60
Number of shares in fifth month = 1200/24 = 50
Total number of shares = 410
Total money spent = 1200*5 = 6000
Average price for shares = 6000/ 410 = 14.6
Saturday, January 14, 2012
Public Administration Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as "the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)
3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)
5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)
6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)
7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)
8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)
9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)
10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)
11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)
12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)
13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)
14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)
16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)
17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)
19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)
21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)
22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)
23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)
24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)
26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)
27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)
30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)
31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)
32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)
34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)
36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)
38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)
39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)
42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)
43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)
44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)
45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)
47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)
48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)
49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)
51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)
52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)
53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)
55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)
56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)
57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)
58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)
59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)
60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)
62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)
63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)
64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)
65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)
66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)
67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)
68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)
69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)
70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)
71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)
72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)
73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)
74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)
75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)
Monday, January 2, 2012
Assam Public Service Commission’s Combined Competitive (Pre) Exam 2009
GENERAL STUDIES
(EXAM HELD ON: 11.12.2011)
(A) anticipatory bail
(B) quashing the order of Un administrative authority
(C) an order of freedom of speech
(D) production of person before the court
Ans: (D)
2. Drip irrigation is mostly practised in India especially for
(A) tea and coffee
(B) rice
(C) wheat
(D) vegetables (Rabi crops)
Ans: (D)
3. Grey Revolution is associated with
(A) production of cement
(B) commercial production of eggs
(C) productions of sweets
(D) steel production
Ans: (A)
4. The mass of an iron piece when gets rusted
(A) may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D) remain same
Ans: (B)
5. The purest form of gold is
(A) 18 carat
(B) 22 carat
(C) 24 carat
(D) 28 carat
Ans: (C)
6. The National Flood Control Programme (NFCP) for flood control in India was launched in the year
(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
Ans: (B)
7. The Integrated Wasteland Development Programme (IWDP) is sponsored by
(A) NABARD
(B) Government of India
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) UNO
Ans: (B)
8. In which Indian State is the hill station Kodaikanal situated?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Rajasthan
Ans: (C)
9. Which is the longest river in Asia?
(A) River Surama
(B) River Ob
(C) River Ganga
(D) River Brahmaputra
Ans: (B)
10. What is the percentage of oxygen in the earth's crust?
(A) 92
(B) 50
(C) 61
(D) 45
Ans: (D)
11. Name the country which is known as the 'Land of Morning Calm'.
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) Indonesia
(D) Canada
Ans: (B)
12. What is the precise time taken by the earth for one rotation?
(A) 24 hr
(B) 24 hr 30 min
(C) 23 hr 56 min 4.09 sec
(D) 24 hr 5 min 5.02 sec
Ans: (C)
13. The total area of Assam is
(A) 80645 km2
(B) 78438 km2
(C) 79012 km2
(D) 77901 km2
Ans: (B)
14. The largest continent in the world is
(A) Europe
(B) North America
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans: (C)
15. Assam State enjoys
(A) tropical climate
(B) hot climate
(C) warm climate
(D) cold climate
Ans: (A)
16. Terai zone is situated at Assam's
(A) North zone
(B) East zone
(C) South zone
(D) West zone
Ans: (B)
17. The National Park of Assam where the rare white-winged duck (Deohanh) is found is
(A) Nameri
(B) Dibru Saikhowa
(C) Manas
(D) Orang
Ans: (A)
18. What is the name of the new island emrging out of the Bay of Bengal?
(A) Sonali
(B) Dhan Khuli
(C) Purbasa
(D) Uttara
Ans: (C)
19. Which of the following is related to international trade?
(A) EXIM
(B) IIP
(C) FPO
(D) TQM
Ans: (A)
20. Of the total geographical area of Assam the total area under forest is
(A) 33 p.c
(B) 22 p.c
(C) 28 p.c
(D) 19 p.c
Ans: (B)
21. World's largest producer of gold is
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) USA
(C) South Africa
(D) Canada
Ans:
22. When was Mizoram converted into a Union Territory?
(A) 1969
(B) 1972
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Ans: (B)
23. Which is the world's longest railway line?
(A) Trans-Siberian line
(B) Texas Railway line
(C) Trans-Austin line
(D) Trans-American line
Ans: (A)
24. For a healthy adult Indian, the Body Mass Index (BMI) Should be in the range of
(A) 11.51 - 18
(B) 18.5 - 24.9
(C) 25-30
(D) None of the Above
Ans: (B)
25. Black hole is an object to be found
(A) at the bottom of oceans
(B) in the sky
(C) inside a current –carrying conductor
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
26. Minimum velocity required by a body to escape earth’s gravitation (escape velocity) is
(A) 9.5 km/s
(B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 13 km/s
(D) 24.25 km/s
Ans: (B)
27. Which one of the following is not an operating system of computers?
(A) Sun 05
(B) BSD
(C) GNEXT/Linux
(D) Windows NT
Ans: (A)
28. Which is the largest moon in the solar system?
(A) Ganymede
(B) Titan
(C) Lo
(D) Callisto
Ans: (A)
29. Pacemaker is implanted in heart when one of the following is defective
(A) SA node
(B) AV node
(C) Purkinje fibre
(D) Bundle of His
Ans: (A)
30. When a person is undergoing prolonged fasting, his/her urine will contain abnormal quantity of
(A) fat
(B) ketone
(C) amino acid
(D) glucose
Ans: (B)
31. Science of improving human race is
(A) eugenics
(B) epigenesis
(C) epistasis
(D) euthenics
Ans: (A)
32. A photon will have less energy, if its
(A) amplitude is higher
(B) frequency is higher
(C) wavelength is longer
(D) wavelength is shorter
Ans: (C)
33. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is mainly a mixture of
(A) propane and butane
(B) butane and isobutane
(C) propane and isobutane
(D) propane and tetralin
Ans: (A)
34. One of the elements of direct democracy is
(A) refrendum
(B) equality
(C) free and fair election
(D) universal adult franchise
Ans: (A)
35. 'Purna Swaraj' resolution of the Congress was adopted on
(A) 26th January, 1930
(B) 26th January, 1931
(C) 26th January, 1929
(D) 26th January, 1932
Ans: (A)
36. Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Legislative Council
(D) District Council
Ans: (A)
37. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India on the basis of the recommendation of
(A) S.V. Singh Committee
(B) Swaran Singh Committee
(C) C. Hanumantha Rao Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
38. In the formal sense, Panchayati Raj was established in Assam in the year
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans:
39. The Planning Commission in India was established by
(A) an act of the Parliament
(B) the Constitution of India
(C) resolution of the Central Government
(D) presidential order
Ans: (C)
40. Which of the following methods is not provided by the Citizenship Act, 1955 to acquire Indian citizenship?
(A) By birth
(B) By descent
(C) By registration
(D) By exercising right to vote
Ans: (D)
41. Which of the following types of budgeting is followed in India?
(A) Plural budgeting
(B) Cash budgeting
(C) performance budgeting
(D) Surplus budgeting
Ans: (C)
42. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the independence of the Union Public Service Commission?
(A) Article 323
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 326
Ans: (A)
43. Which of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India relates to languages?
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) 10th Schedule
Ans: (B)
44. The French philosopher Rousseau belonged to the
(A) eighteenth century
(B) sixteenth century
(C) fifteenth century
(D) seventeenth century
Ans: (A)
45. Which of the following can initiate the process of impeachment of the President of India?
(A) Any House of the Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha alone
(C) The Rajya Sabha alone
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: (A)
46. Which of the following is not a part of the financial management?
(A) Preparation of the budget
(B) Approval of the budget by the Cabinet
(C) Execution and rendering of accounts
(D) Audit and accounts of public expenditure
Ans: (C)
47. Under the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994, the quorum for the meeting of the Gram panchayat is
(A) one-half of the total number of members
(B) one-half of the total number of members present
(C) one-third of the total number of members
(D) one-third of the total number of members present
Ans: (C)
48. Who initiated the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Lajpat Rai
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Maulana Azad
Ans: (C)
49. The Indus Valley Cilvilization belongs to the
(A) Palaeolithic Age
(B) Mesolithic Age
(C) Neolithic Age
(D) Chalcolithic Age
Ans: (D)
50. Who among the following was the first to visit India?
(A) Huen Tsang
(B) I-Tsing
(C) Fa-Hien
(D) Megasthenes
Ans: (D)
51. Ahalya Bai was distinguished
(A) Maratha leader
(B) Rajput leader
(C) Sikh leader
(D) Mughal leader
Ans: (A)
52. During which period did the East India Company begin to build up its territorial power in India?
(A) Beginning of the 18th century
(B) Last quarter of the 17th century
(C) Middle of the 18th century
(D) First quarter of the 19th century
Ans: (C)
53. What is the date of the Third Battle of Panipat?
(A) AD 1551
(B) AD 1661
(C) AD 1761
(D) AD 1861
Ans: (C)
54. Which Act transferred power from the Company to the Crown in India?
(A) Act of 1861
(B) Act of 1892
(C) Act of 1858
(D) Act of 1853
Ans: (C)
55. The first railway line in India was laid in
(A) 1852
(B) 1853
(C) 1857
(D) 1885
Ans: (B)
56. The slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' was given by
(A) Chandrashekhar Azad
(B) Muhammad Iqbal
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (B)
57. Which of the following events can be ascribed to the year 1919?
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Permanent Settlement of Bengal
(D) Subsidiary Alliance
Ans: (A)
58. In 1826, the Treaty of Yandaboo was sigried by which the British practically occupied Assam from the Burmese, In which year was Burma annexed by the British?
(A) 1837
(B) 1826
(C) 1864
(D) 1891
Ans:
59. Who wrote 'Vande Matram'?
(A) Muhammad Iqbal
(B) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans: (C)
60. The earliest historical dynasty of Assam was that of the
(A) Palas
(B) Varmans
(C) Narakas
(D) Salastambhas
Ans: (B)
61. The first tea company established in Assam was
(A) Jorhat Tea Company
(B) Assam Company
(C) Assam-Bengal Tea Company
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
62. The Indian National Congress was founded during the viceroyalty of
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Amherst
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans: (B)
63. 'Do or Die' was the slogan during
(A) the Swadeshi Movement
(B) the Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) the Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) the Quit India Movement
Ans: (D)
64. Which of the following Land Settlement Systems was followed in Assam?
(A) Ryotwari
(B) Zamindari
(C) Mahalwari
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
65. A. O. Hume was a
(A) scientist
(B) social worker
(C) civil servant
(D) military commander
Ans: (C)
66. The capital of British India was shifted to Delhi in the year
(A) 1908
(B) 1911
(C) 1937
(D) 1947
Ans: (B)
67. Indian National Army was headed by
(A) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(B) General Cariappa
(C) A. G. Khan
(D) M. N. Roy
Ans: (A)
68. The Swadeshi Movement started during
(A) Anti Bengal Partition Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
69. If the deepest parts of the ocean are about 10 kilometers and the radius of the earth is about 6400 kilometers, then the depth of the ocean would represent what percentage of the earth's radius?
(A) Less than 1%
(B) About 5%
(C) About 10%
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
70. How are latitude and Iongitilde lines drawn on a globe of the earth?
(A) Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator
(B) Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the equator
(C) Latitude lines arc parallel and longitude linea meet at the poles
(D) longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the poles
Ans: (C)
71. Which radioactive isotope is most useful for nuclear power generation?
(A) Uranium-238
(B) Uranium-235
(C) Carbon-14
(D) Rubidium-87
Ans: (A)
72. The third most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
(A) argon
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) helium
(D) hydrogen
Ans: (A)
73. Where is the headquarters of WTO?
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) Paris
Ans: (B)
74. Who authored the book, India from Midnight to Millennium?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Mira Nair
(C) Sashi Tharoor
(D) Arun Jaitley
Ans: (C)
75. The first regular census in India was carried out in the year
(A) 1861
(B) 1881
(C) 1901
(D) 1911
Ans: (B)
76. Who was the first Secretary-General of UNO?
(A) Dag Harnrnarakjcld
(B) U Thant
(C) Trygve Lie
(D) Javier Perez de Cuellar
Ans: (C)
77. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research is Located at
(A) Trombay
(B) Kalpakkam
(C) Tarapore
(D) Jaduguda
Ans: (B)
78. The Bhakra Dam is located in
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (A)
79. Which planet takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Jupiter
Ans:
80. Who chairs the Planning Commission in India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
81. Sanjukta Panigrahi was the popular exponent of which Indian clasaical dance form?
(A) Kathak
(B) Kathllkali
(C) Bharat Natyam
(D) Odissi
Ans: (D)
82. Swine flu is caused by
(A) bacteria
(B) virus
(C) protozoa
(D) fungi
Ans: (B)
83. How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha from Assam?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 6
Ans: (A)
84. The States which have common boundaries with Bangladesh are
(A) Bihar, West Bengal, Tripura, Assam
(B) Manipur, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal
(C) West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mijoram
(D) Manlpur, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
Ans: (C)
85. The average gradient of the Brahamaputra within Assam is
(A) 18 cm/km
(B) 20 cm/km
(C) 13 cm/km
(D) 10 cm/km
Ans:
86. Find the odd pair out,
(A) Dheer beel : Dhubri district
(B) Khamrenga beel : kamrup (M)
(C) Tamranga beel : Bongaigaon district
(D) Mer beel : Jorhat district
Ans:
87. Clouded leopard and capped langur are important animals of
(A) Manas National Park
(B) Nameri Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Boronodi Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans:
88. The slogan of the Commonwealth Games-2010 held in New Delhi was
(A) Get out and play
(B) Come here and play
(C) Come out and play
(D) Jiyo Utho Badho
Ans: (C)
89. The per capita income of Assam been calculated to be as
(A) Rs. 14,500
(B) Rs. 11,600
(C) Rs. 10,200
(D) Rs. 8,300
Ans:
90. The National Highway 1 connects
(A) New Delhi and Mumbai
(B) Kolkata and Amritsar
(C) Jammu and New Delhi
(D) Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram
Ans:
91. Which one of the following States is not touched by Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Mizoram
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (D)
92. The famous fort sonar killa is located at
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Bikaner
Ans: (B)
93. Which one of the following is not a tributary to the Indus?
(A) Beas
(B) Chambal
(C) Chenab
(D) Ravi
Ans: (B)
94. Sardar Sarobar Dam is constructed on river
(A) Sutlej
(B) Saraswati
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari
Ans: (C)
95. Bermuda Triangle is located in
(A) Caribbean Sea
(B) Gulf of Mexico
(C) Gulf of Guinea
(D) Persian Gulf
Ans: (A)
96. Waterloo is located in
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Switzerland
Ans: (A)
97. The vast grassland of Australia is known as
(A) Prairie
(B) Steppe
(C) Veld
(D) Down
Ans: (D)
98. Which Strait divides Europe from Africa?
(A) Bosporus
(B) Bering
(C) Dover
(D) Gibraltar
Ans: (D)
99. Who Was awarded the Man of the Series in Cricket World Cup, 2011?
(A) M. S. Dhoni
(B) Tilakratne Dilshan
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Kurnara Sangakara
Ans: (C)
100. First Indian to win the gold medal in men's singles tennis at the Asian Games was
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Rohan Bopanna
(C) Somdev Dev varman
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi
Ans: (C)