MPPSC Exam Solved Paper 2011

Public Administration

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)

61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)

62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)

64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)

66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)

67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)

68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)

69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)

70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)

71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)

73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)

75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)

76. ‘Efficiency record’ method for determining the merit for promotion is practised in—
(A) The USA
(B) France
(C) The UK
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

77. “Officials make work for each other.” This is said by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Parkinson
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (C)

78. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration started functioning at Mussoorie from—
(A) June 12, 1959
(B) Sept. 13, 1959
(C) Sept. 1, 1959
(D) February 12, 1959
Ans : (C)

79. In the USA, the ‘spoils system’ was discarded in favour of the ‘merit principle’ by the followings Act—
(A) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(B) Pendleton Act, 1883
(C) Hatch Act, 1939
(D) Civil Service Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

80. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Ans : (C)

81. ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans : (A)

82. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Ans : (B)

83. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Ans : (D)

84. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term ‘Cabinet’ mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans : (C)

85. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Ans : (D)

86. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Ans : (D)

87. Who among the following said that, “Company form of public enterprise is a fraud on the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) Chhagla Commission
(C) Ashok Chanda
(D) Morarjee Desai
Ans : (C)

88. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Ans : (D)

89. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (C)

90. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Ans : (C)

91. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

92. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Ans : (C)

93. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Ans : (D)

94. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Ans : (C)

95. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Ans : (D)

96. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Ans : (C)

97. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Ans : (A)

98. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Ans : (B)

99. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Ans : (D)

100. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans : (B)

101. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. Who among the following is known as ‘the father of local selfgovernment’ in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (C)

103. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Ans : (C)

104. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Ans : (B)

105. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the—
(A) Union List of the VII Schedule
(B) State List of the VII Schedule
(C) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

106. Which among of the following is not considered as part of the Civil Society ?
(A) Non-Government Organisations
(B) Caste associations
(C) Legislature
(D) Family
Ans : (C)

107. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Ans : (C)

108. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state’s requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state’s tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Ans : (D)

109. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj bodies seeks to ensure—
(A) Economic welfare of women and children
(B) Gender parity in rural society
(C) Participation of women in public life
(D) Empowerment of women as an individual
Ans : (C)

110. Mayor-in-Council form of government means—
(A) Cabinet form of government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of government at the municipal level
(C) Making Mayor unaccountable to his colleagues
(D) Presidential form of government at the municipal level
Ans : (A)

111. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Ans : (C)

112. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by—
(A) District Board
(B) State Legislature
(C) Governor
(D) Municipal Council
Ans : (B)

113. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

114. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct about civil society organisations ?
(A) They are sovereign bodies
(B) They are voluntary but nonprofit-making agencies
(C) They work in close proximity with people
(D) They create awareness; educate and sensitise people on common issues and act as catalysts of social change
Ans : (A)

116. The ‘Recall’ provision to remove the elected office-bearers from the local self-government institution has been executed in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

117. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Ans : (C)

118. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

119. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Ans : (A)

120. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Ans : (D)

Uttar Pradesh PSC Solved Question Paper 2011

General Studies

1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at—
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak
Ans : (C)
2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist
Ans : (B)
3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena
Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta
Ans : (A)
5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena
Ans : (B)
9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh
Ans : (C)
10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal
Ans : (B)
12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (C)
13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I
Ans : (B)
14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans : (A)
15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh
Ans : (B)
17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (D)
18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery
Ans : (D)
19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans : (A)
21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—
(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (A)
22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (B)
23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference
Ans : (C)
24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (A)
25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale
Ans : (A)
26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Ans : (C)
27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange
Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
Ans : (C)
29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi
Ans : (A)
31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal
Ans : (D)
32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)
34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 “a car which has brake but no engine” ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose
Ans : (A)
35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal
Ans : (B)
36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague
Ans : (C)
38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947
Ans : (C)
39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas
Ans : (B)
41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho
Ans : (C)
43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi
Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander
Ans : (C)
46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’ to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (A)
49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand
Ans : (B)
50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya
Ans : (B)
53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India
Ans : (A)
54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087
Ans : (A)
55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada
Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI
Ans : (D)
58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006
Ans : (C)
61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)
62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974
Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992
64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka
Ans : (B)
65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933
Ans : (D)
66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931
Ans : (B)
70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)
71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore
Ans : (D)
72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)
73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)
74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)
75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman
Ans : (D)
76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China
Ans : (A)
77. The Equator passes through—
(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela
Ans : (B)
78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas
Ans : (A)
79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : Incorrect Options
80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat
Ans : (D)
81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter
Ans : (C)
82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia
Ans : (C)
83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla
Ans : (B)
84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B)
86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari
Ans : (C)
88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits
Ans : (A)
90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests
Ans : (A)
91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum
Ans : (D)
92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau
Ans : (A)
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995
Ans : (C)
94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad
Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota
Ans : (A)
96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA
Ans : (C)
97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009
Ans : (C)
98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai
Ans : (C)
99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte
Ans : (B)
100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B)
101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal
Ans : (B)
102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar
Ans : (D)
103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader
Ans : (B)
104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri
Ans : (B)
105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan
Ans : (B)
106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg
Ans : (D)
107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni
Ans : (D)
109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (D)
111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)
112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball
Ans : (D)
113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting
Ans : (D)
114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath
Ans : (C)
115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE
Ans : (B)
116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (B)
117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping
Ans : (D)
118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut
Ans : (A)
119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar
Ans : (A)
120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt
Ans : (C)
121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar
Ans : (B)
122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut
Ans : (B)
123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum
Ans : (A)
125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
126. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans : (B)
129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank
Ans : (C)
130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air
Ans : (A)
131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement
Ans : (B)
132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva
Ans : (B)
133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade
Ans : (A)
134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy
Ans : (B)
135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
Ans : (A)
137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York
Ans : (B)
138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km
Ans : (A)
140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir
Ans : (B)
141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats
Ans : (C)
142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America
Ans : (A)
143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22
Ans : (D)
144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga
Ans : (D)
145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur
Ans : (A)
146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes
Ans : (A)
147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia
Ans : (B)
148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad
Ans : (A)
149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur
Ans : (C)
150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)

Uttarakhand PSC (J) (Pre.) Solved Paper 2010

(Exam Held on 7-3-2010)


PART–I
General Knowledge


1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Ans : (D)

2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (A)

3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
Ans : (B)

4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
Ans : (C)

5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
Ans : (B)

6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Anglo-Indian Community
(D) Parsi Community
Ans : (C)

7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age of—
(A) 58 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
Ans : (D)

8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly
(B) The State Cabinet
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Governor
Ans : (D)

9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu is related with—
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker under Article 105 of the Constitution
Ans : (C)

10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission
Ans : (A)


11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution
Ans : (A)

12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by—
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ?
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti
Ans : (B)

14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for—
(A) Words Words Words
(B) Wide Word Words
(C) World Wide Web
(D) When Where Why
Ans : (C)

15. To which of the following companies, the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
(B) TISCO
(C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

16. The Article of the Indian Constitution which automatically become suspended on Proclamation of Emergency is—
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
Ans : (B)

17. Which State in India implemented the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

18. In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’ ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
Ans : (B)

19. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’ takes place ?
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Inter-State Council
Ans : (A)

20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

21. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal
Ans : (B)

22. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (D)

23. In which of the following cases constitutionality of the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

24. How many times the emergency has been proclaimed in India on the ground of internal disturbance ?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Never
Ans : (A)

25. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India ?
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) Never
Ans : (D)

26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Governor of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
Ans : (C)

27. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged State of the Indian Territory ?
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (B)

28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament may admit a new State in the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1
(B) In Article 2
(C) In Article 3
(D) In Article 4
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State policy under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work
(C) Promotion of international peace and security
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor children upto fourteen years of age
Ans : (D)

30. The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San- Francisco on—
(A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
(C) January 26, 1946
(D) December 30, 1941
Ans : (A)

31. Where the head office of the United Nations is situated ?
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) The Hague
Ans : (C)

32. How many members are in the Security Council ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 15
Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following Article of United Nations Charter is related to the procedure of voting ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

34. Which one of the following is not one of the principal organ of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) International Labour Organization
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (C)

35. Two official languages of the United Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi
(B) English and German
(C) English and Urdu
(D) English and French
Ans : (D)

36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been taken from which one of the following ?
(A) The Constitution of Ireland
(B) The Constitution of United States of America
(C) The Constitution of Australia
(D) The Constitution of Canada
Ans : (A)

37. P’s passport was cancelled by the authority without giving him any reasonable opportunity of being heard which was mandatory. In such case—
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the authority has no obligation to act fairly
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in interest of security of India, no one can challenge the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued
Ans : (A)

38. The maximum period of continuation of emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is—
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
Ans : (A)

39. Which one of the following Schedule was added in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI
(C) Schedule XI
(D) Schedule IX
Ans : (C)

40. The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in—
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5)
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 126
Ans : (A)

41. Participation of workers in management of industries is provided under Indian Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A
(B) In Article 48 A
(C) In Article 43 A
(D) In Article 45
Ans : (C)

42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution by—
(A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (A)

43. Socialist and secular words were added in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 48th Amendment
Ans : (B)

44. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is not related to the environmental protection ?
(A) Article 48 A
(B) Article 51 A(i)
(C) Article 51 A(g)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans : (B)

45. In International Court of Justice, there are—
(A) President and 15 other members
(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : (D)

46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
(C) 14th July
(D) 26th November
Ans : (B)

47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Paris
Ans : (C)

48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
Ans : (C)

50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (D)


PART–II
Law


51. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by—
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

52. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
Ans : (C)

53. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
Ans : (A)

54. A decree may be executed by—
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : (D)

55. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of ‘Res Judicata’ is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
Ans : (D)

56. Right to lodge a ‘caveat’ has been provided under—
(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Ans : (B)

57. Arrest of a person in execution of a decree has been provided—
(A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : (D)

58. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or amend the proceedings to—
(A) Either party
(B) To plaintiff only
(C) To defendant only
(D) To only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant
Ans : (A)

59. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‘Mesne Profit’ ?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
Ans : (D)

60. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with—
(A) Appeal to Supreme Court
(B) Appeal by indigent person
(C) Appeal against orders
(D) Appeal from appellate decrees
Ans : (D)

61. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit—
(A) For partition
(B) For partnership
(C) For possession and mesne profit
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

62. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in—
(A) District Court
(B) The court of lower grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

63. Pleading has been defined in—
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : (A)

64. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest ?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1
(B) Order 2, Rule 2
(C) Order 1, Rule 8
(D) Order 1, Rule 9
Ans : (C)

65. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
Ans : (D)

66. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with ‘Revision’ ?
(A) Section 110
(B) Order VI, Rule 13
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 120
Ans : (C)

67. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides a protection to the members of Armed Forces from arrest ?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
Ans : (B)

68. In a summary trial the maximum period of imprisonment is—
(A) Not exceeding three months
(B) Not exceeding six months
(C) Not exceeding one year
(D) Not exceeding two years
Ans : (A)

69. Which of the following are liable under Section 125(1)(d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for payment of maintenance to their parents, who are unable to maintain themselves ?
(A) Sons only
(B) Daughters only
(C) Sons and daughters both
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

70. Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines—
(A) Bailable offence
(B) Non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable offence
(D) Non-cognizable offence
Ans : (C)

71. Who can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

72. The procedure of trials held before the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of Criminal Procedure under—
(A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Sections 220 to 224
(C) Sections 225 to 237
(D) Sections 238 to 245
Ans : (C)

73. On being submitted the sentence of death by Court of Sessions, the High Court may—
(A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Annul the conviction
(C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

74. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines the term—
(A) Investigation
(B) Charge
(C) Inquiry
(D) Offence
Ans : (A)

75. Which ‘Section’ of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for prosecution for offences against marriage ?
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

76. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that “no statement made by any person to a police officer if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it” ?
(A) Section 161
(B) Section 162
(C) Section 163
(D) Section 164
Ans : (B)

77. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment—
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

78. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for anticipatory bail ?
(A) Section 436
(B) Section 438
(C) Section 439
(D) Section 437
Ans : (B)

79. In which of the following cases some important principles regarding the defence of unsoundness of mind were propounded ?
(A) Mc’Naughten Case
(B) R. V. Prince
(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen
(D) Reg V. Govinda
Ans : (A)

80. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘affray’ ?
(A) Section 159
(B) Section 160
(C) Section 161
(D) Section 148
Ans : (A)

81. ‘A’ attempts to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hand into ‘Z’s’ pocket. ‘A’ fails in his attempt as ‘Z’ had nothing in his pocket. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
Ans : (B)

82. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious liability ?
(A) Section 120A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 159
Ans : (C)

83. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal
Ans : (C)

84. Which one of the following Provisions of the Indian Penal Code defiens ‘Unlawful Assembly’ ?
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 142
(C) Section 146
(D) Section 149
Ans : (A)

85. The maxim ‘Ignorantia facit excusat’ relates to—
(A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

86. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “nothing is an offence which is done by accident” ?
(A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

87. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional as violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 314
Ans : (B)

88. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for abetment to commit suicide ?
(A) Section 306
(B) Section 307
(C) Section 308
(D) Section 309
Ans : (A)

89. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mc’Naughten’s case—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(B) D.P.P. V. Beard—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(C) Basudeo V. State—Section 86 of I.P.C.
(D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal —Section 79 of I.P.C.
Ans : (B)

90. How many kinds of hurts are included under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (D)

91. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for cheating ?
(A) Section 415
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 416
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

92. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable ?
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278
(C) Section 279
(D) Section 280
Ans : (A)

93. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the offence is punishable ?
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death
(C) Waging war against Government of India
(D) Theft
Ans : (C)

94. Adultery is an offence committed—
(A) With the consent of a married woman
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband
(D) With the consent of a minor girl
Ans : (A)

95. How many exceptions have been provided for the offence of defamation under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

96. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State related to—
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C.
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

97. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence ?
(A) Jaidev Vs. State
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer
Ans : (A)

98. ‘A’ enters ‘Z’ house through a window. Here ‘A’ commits—
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
(A) R. Vs. Prince
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
Ans : (D)

100. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be, not free consent ?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 89
Ans : (B)

101. Point out incorrect response. The following are modes of abetment—
(A) Instigation
(B) Engaging in conspiracy
(C) Aiding
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. In which of the following cases the principles relating to the defence of intoxication were laid down ?
(A) Mc’ Naughten Case
(B) Director of Public Prosecution Vs. Beard
(C) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
(D) R. Vs. Prince
Ans : (B)

103. ‘A’ administers poisonous drug to a woman ‘B’ to cause miscarriage. It is found that ‘B’ was not pregnant. In this case—
(A) ‘A’ is not guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of murder
(D) ‘A’ is guilty of no offence
Ans : (B)

104. Which is the secondary source of Muslim Law under the following ?
(A) Custom
(B) Ijmaa
(C) Qiyas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

105. Which of the following modifies the application of Muslim Law ?
(A) Shariat Act, 1937
(B) Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939
(C) Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

106. Which of the following Muslim Laws applies in India ?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
(B) Muslim Law of Evidence
(C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
Ans : (D)

107. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as source of Muslim Law ?
(A) Imam Abu Hanifa
(B) Imam Yusuf
(C) Imam Jafer
(D) Imam Ahmad
Ans : (A)

108. Under Muslim Law, marriage is—
(A) An institution legalising male and female conjugal relations
(B) A civil contract
(C) Sunnet
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

109. Who can be a guardian in minor’s marriage in Sunni Law ?
(A) Mother in the presence of father
(B) Grand-mother in the presence of mother
(C) Maternal uncle in the presence of real uncle
(D) Father
Ans : (D)

110. Under the following which is absolute incapacity for marriage?
(A) Consanguinity
(B) Affinity
(C) Fosterage
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

111. Which is a relative incapacity for marriage ?
(A) Marriage with wife’s sister when wife is alive
(B) Marriage with fifth woman in the presence of four wives
(C) Absence of required number of witnesses at the time of marriage
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

112. Mahar-e-Misl determined on what ground ?
(A) Personal characteristics of wife such as age, extraordinary beauty
(B) Her father’s family social status
(C) Dower paid to women in her husband’s family
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

113. What are the wife’s rights when husband does not pay the dower ?
(A) Refuse consummation
(B) File suit for recovery of dower
(C) Keep possession over dead husband’s property
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

114. In the absence of mother, which of the following females has the first priority to have the custody of a Muslim child ?
(A) Father’s mother
(B) Mother’s mother
(C) Sisters
(D) Maternal aunt
Ans : (B)

115. A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four, if a Muslim marries a fifth wife such a marriage shall be—
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Irregular
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans : (C)

116. In Sunni-te Law, the guardian of the minor’s property is—
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Mother’s mother
(D) Father’s father
Ans : (B)

117. After divorce a Muslim woman—
(A) Can not remarry
(B) Can remarry immediately
(C) Can marry only after completion of ‘Iddat’ period
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

118. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage ?
(A) Two males
(B) One male and two females
(C) No witness is required
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (C)

119. In Shia School of Muslim Law the amount of Mehar is—
(A) Not legally fixed
(B) 10 dirhams
(C) 100 dirhams
(D) 500 dirhams
Ans : (A)

120. Doctrine of ‘cy-pres’ is related with—
(A) Marriage
(B) Dower
(C) Gift
(D) Wakfs
Ans : (D)

121. The term ‘Musha’ under Muslim Law means—
(A) Divided property
(B) Joint property
(C) Separate property
(D) Undivided share in property
Ans : (D)

122. A Sunni Muslim performs marriage during the period of ‘Iddat’, the marriage is—
(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Irregular
(D) Voidable
Ans : (C)

123. A Muslim mother is entitled to the custody of her female child until she attains—
(A) The age of 7 years
(B) Puberty
(C) Age of 11 years
(D) Age of 15 years
Ans : (B)

124. Dissolution of Muslim marriage by agreement is known as—
(A) Talaq in ahsan
(B) Illa
(C) Zihar
(D) Khula
Ans : (D)

125. Which ‘Wasiyat’ is invalid in Muslim Law ?
(A) Wasiyat made in favour of religious school
(B) Wasiyat made to the killer of legator
(C) Wasiyat made for charity
(D) Wasiyat made to a nonmuslim
Ans : (B)

126. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under the ‘Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act’, 1939 ?
(A) Absence of husband for four years or more
(B) Imprisonment of husband for two years
(C) Failure of husband to maintain his wife
(D) Impotency of husband
Ans : (B)

127. Which of the following statement is not correct with regard to Muslim Law ?
(A) Nephew gets twice the share of niece
(B) Son gets twice the share of a daughter
(C) Brother gets twice the share of a sister
(D) Widower gets twice the share of a widow
Ans : (A)

128. What is right of ‘Pre-emption’ ?
(A) A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant possession
(B) A right to purchase property in preference to other person
(C) A right to presume adversely
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

129. Rule against perpetuity will not be applicable in—
(A) Perpetual transfer for gift
(B) Personal contracts
(C) Vested interest
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

130. Under the Provisions of Transfer of Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested interest—
(A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
(C) 12 days after his birth
(D) 18 years after his birth
Ans : (A)

131. Which one of the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines “Transfer of Property” ?
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 6
Ans : (C)

132. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, defines ‘Notice’ ?
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 5
(D) Explanation II of Section 3
Ans : (B)

133. The Privy Council decision in Tilakdhari Lal V. Khedan Lal relates to—
(A) Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act
(B) Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act
(C) Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act
(D) Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act
Ans : (A)

134. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Oral transfer—Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act
(B) Rule against perpetuity—Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act
(C) Doctrine of election—Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act
(D) Transfer by Ostensible Owner—Section 40 of the Transfer of Property Act
Ans : (D)

135. Which one of the following Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act relates to ‘usufructuary mortgage’ ?
(A) Section 58 (a)
(B) Section 58 (b)
(C) Section 58 (d)
(D) Section 58 (e)
Ans : (C)

136. Which one of the following cases does not pertain to the doctrine of ‘part performance’ ?
(A) Arrif Vs. Jadu Nath
(B) Prabodh Kumar Vs. Dantmara Tea Co.
(C) Sardar Govind Rao Mahadik Vs. Devi Sahai
(D) Ram Baran Prasad Vs. Ram Mohit Hazra
Ans : (D)

137. Which Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act defines ‘lease’ ?
(A) Section 105
(B) Section 106
(C) Section 107
(D) Section 108
Ans : (A)

138. The provision of fraudulent transfer is given in—
(A) Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(B) Section 50 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(C) Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(D) Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Ans : (D)

139. The gift of future property is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Conditionally void
Ans : (A)

140. Which Section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 was amended in the year 2002 ?
(A) Section 106
(B) Section 100
(C) Section 108
(D) Section 110
Ans : (A)

141. The rule of lis pendens applies when—
(A) The suit or proceeding in which right to immovable property is indirectly in question
(B) A suit or proceeding in which right to immovable property is pending between two persons and one of them sells the property
(C) The suit or proceeding is pending in a court which does not have jurisdiction
(D) Litigation is not bonafide but collusive
Ans : (B)

142. Transfer of Property Act came into force on—
(A) July 01, 1882
(B) August 01, 1882
(C) September 01, 1882
(D) October 01, 1882
Ans : (A)

143. In the Transfer of property Act, immovable property does not include—
(A) Building
(B) Land
(C) Pond
(D) Standing timber
Ans : (D)

144. Which of the following properties cannot be transferred ?
(A) Share in copyright
(B) Interest in mortgaged property
(C) Right to future maintenance
(D) Immovable property
Ans : (C)

145. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act deals with “effect of holding over a lease” ?
(A) Section 114 A
(B0 Section 115
(C) Section 115 A
(D) Section 116
Ans : (D)

146. In which of the following conditions the lease can be terminated ?
(A) Efflux of time
(B) On termination of lessor’s interest or power
(C) On merger
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

147. The doctrine of “lis pendens” is explained in famous case of —
(A) Bellamy Vs. Sabine
(B) Musahur Sahu Vs. Hakim Lal
(C) Muhammad Shafi Vs. Muhammad Sayed
(D) Tulk V. Moxhay
Ans : (A)

148. Transfer of a right to enjoy the immovable property for a certain time is—
(A) Mortgage
(B) Agreement to lease
(C) Licence
(D) Lease
Ans : (D)

149. In case of gift, the donee dies before acceptance, then—
(A) Gift is voidable
(B) Gift is valid
(C) Gift is void
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

150. The mortgagor’s right to redeem the mortgaged property accrues—
(A) At any time after the mortgage
(B) At any time after the mortgage money has become due
(C) At any time when the mortgagor wants
(D) At any time mortgagee demands the money
Ans : (B)

151. Which one of the following mortgages does not require writing and registration ?
(A) Usufructuary mortgage
(B) Simple mortgage
(C) English mortgage
(D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
Ans : (D)

152. Which of the following is included in the term ‘living person’ under Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act ?
(A) A company
(B) An association
(C) Body of individuals
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

153. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in the property is—
(A) Limited
(B) Absolute
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

154. Which statement is not correct ?
(A) Some facts are relevant but not admissible
(B) Some facts are admissible but not relevant
(C) All relevant facts are admissible
(D) All admissible facts are not relevant
Ans : (C)

155. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with “Doctrine of confirmation by subsequent facts” ?
(A) Section 27
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 102
(D) Section 165
Ans : (A)

156. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is not on ‘shifting of burden of proof’ ?
(A) Section 101
(B) Section 102
(C) Section 105
(D) Section 108
Ans : (A)

157. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of ‘Res ipsa loquitor’ ?
(A) Section 102
(B) Section 104
(C) Section 106
(D) Section 108
Ans : (C)

158. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides for admissibility of secondary evidence ?
(A) Section 60
(B) Section 61
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 65
Ans : (D)

159. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act says “facts admitted need not be proved” ?
(A) Section 18
(B) Section 21
(C) Section 55
(D) Section 58
Ans : (D)

160. Section 113-B, ‘presumption as to dowry death’ was added to the Indian Evidence Act in—
(A) 1986
(B) 1983
(C) 1961
(D) 1962
Ans : (A)

161. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Child witness : Section 118
(B) Dumb witness : Section 120
(C) Hostile witness : Section 154
(D) Expert witness : Section 45
Ans : (B)

162. The illustration that, “A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved that A said, ‘B and I murdered C’,” relates—
(A) Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (A)

163. Identification parade is relevant under—
(A) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)

164. Which of the following Sections was amended by the Indian Technology Act, 2000 ?
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 17 of the Indian Evidence act
(C) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)

165. Section 113–A of the Indian Evidence Act was added in—
(A) Year 1982
(B) Year 1983
(C) Year 1988
(D) Year 1980
Ans : (B)

166. The Indian Evidence Act deals with—
(A) ‘presumptio juris’ only
(B) ‘presumptio huminis’ only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

167. Indian Evidence Act deals privilege—
(A) As a right only
(B) As a duty only
(C) As a right and duty both
(D) Neither as a right nor as a duty
Ans : (C)

168. Facts supporting or rebutting the opinion of the experts are relevant under—
(A) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 51 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)

169. Which one of the following cases does not relate to ‘dying declaration’ ?
(A) Queen Emperess V s . Abdullah
(B) Pakala Narayan Swamy Vs. King Emperor
(C) Zafar Vs. State of U.P.
(D) Ratangond Vs. State of Bihar
Ans : (C)

170. Case of Pakala Narayan Swami Vs. King Emperor is related with—
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 21(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (C)

171. Who amongst the following is an expert under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) Hand-writing expert
(B) Finger print expert
(C) Ballistics expert
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

172. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of ‘Res Gestae’ is given ?
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 2
(D) Section 15
Ans : (B)

173. Under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, the ‘admission’ is—
(A) Written only
(B) Oral only
(C) Both written or oral
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

174. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act relates to accomplice ?
(A) Section 30
(B) Section 133
(C) Section 134
(D) Section 29
Ans : (B)

175. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, ‘privilege’ is available to—
(A) Judges
(B) Advocates
(C) Magistrates
(D) Husband and Wife
Ans : (D)

176. In which of the following cases hearsay evidence is not admissible ?
(A) Statement of experts expressed in treaties, if the author is dead or cannot be found
(B) Where eye-witness told the facts to another person, statement of that person
(C) If the statement is of a deceased person, when it related to cause of his death
(D) If the statement is part of the transaction-in-issue
Ans : (B)

177. Which one of the following is not a document under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) An inscription on a stone of a building
(B) A photograph
(C) A printout of a message sent through mobile or computer
(D) A knife recovered by police from the possession of an accused and produced in the court
Ans : (D)

178. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that contents of the document must be proved by primary evidence ?
(A) Section 61
(B) Section 62
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 64
Ans : (D)

179. A Hindu couple having the decree of judicial separation wants to live together—
(A) They can live together
(B) They cannot live together
(C) They can live together after re-marriage
(D) They can live together only after the permission of the court
Ans : (A)

180. ‘A’, a Hindu male, having undivided interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property dies leaving behind two sons and one daughter. The daughter is entitled to the following share in the property—
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/9
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

181. Hindu law does not apply to a person who is a Hindu by—
(A) Birth
(B) Conversion
(C) Re-conversion
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

182. Who is a Hindu among following ?
(A) A legitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(B) An illegitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(C) An illegitimate child of Hindu male and Parsi female and who was brought up as a Hindu
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

183. ‘Dayabhaga’ is authored by—
(A) Vijnaneshwara
(B) Yagyavalkya
(C) Jimutavahana
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

184. Vijnaneshwara is a famous commentator of—
(A) Manu Smriti
(B) Narad Smriti
(C) Yagyavalkya Smriti
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

185. In regard to a Hindu marriage, ‘Sapinda relationship’ of any person is counted upto—
(A) Fifth generation in the line of ascent through father only
(B) Third generation in the line of ascent through mother only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

186. Pre-martial relation of a spouse is a statutory ground for—
(A) Judicial separation
(B) Divorce
(C) Nullity of marriage
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

187. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a female child of 13 years of age. The adoption is—
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Void
Ans : (D)

188. Order of succession under the Hindu Succession Act of a male Hindu dying intestate is as follows—
(A) Agnates, Cognates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(B) Cognates, Agnates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(C) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Agnates, Cognates
(D) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Cognates, Agnates
Ans : (C)

189. Provisions of Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 corresponds to—
(A) Section 36 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(B) Section 36 of the Indian Divorce Act, 1869
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

190. Consent theory of divorce was introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the year—
(A) 1979
(B) 1976
(C) 1964
(D) 1956
Ans : (B)

191. “A person is not disqualified from succeeding to any property on the ground of any disease, defect or deformity” is provided under—
(A) Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(B) Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(C) Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

192. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with “Restitution of Conjugal Rights” ?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 11
Ans : (B)

193. If parties to a Hindu marriage are sapinda to each other, the marriage is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

194. A Hindu married woman of 32 years of age adopts a male child of 8 years with the consent of her husband. The adoption is—
(A) Valid
(B) Not valid
(C) Voidable at the option of husband
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

195. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two sons, one daughter and widow. His property shall devolve to—
(A) Sons only
(B) Sons and daughter only
(C) Widow only
(D) Sons, daughter and widow all
Ans : (D)

196. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who amongst the following is not in Class I heir ?
(A) Father
(B) Mother
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
Ans : (A)

197. Under Mitakshara School Coparcenary interest devolves by—
(A) Representation
(B) Survivorship
(C) Obstructed heritage
(D) Unobstructed heritage
Ans : (B)

198. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following is not entitled to adopt ?
(A) An unmarried person
(B) Husband with the consent of wife
(C) Wife who is divorced
(D) Husband without the consent of wife
Ans : (D)

199. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the provision relating to registration of marriage is given ?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 5
Ans : (A)

200. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a petition of divorce by mutual consent ?
(A) Section 13–A
(B) Section 13–B
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 9
Ans : (B)