(Exam Held On: 26-06-2011)
1. Which among the following is the largest software company in India ?
(a) Infosys
(b) TCS
(c) WIPRO
(d) HCL Tech
Ans: (b)
2. Which one of the following is different from the others from the point of view of ownership ?
(a) LIC Policy
(b) Bank Fixed Deposit
(c) Kisan Vikas Patra
(d) Debenture of a Company
Ans:(c)
3. In the Union Budget 2011 - 12, the effective rate of interest for farmers on timely repayment of the bank loan is
(a) 7 percent
(b) 6 percent
(c) 4 percent
(d) 3 percent
Ans: (c)
4. 'Athapoo ' is associated with which of the following festivals ?
(a) Dol Yatra
(b) Onam
(c) Pongal
(d) Vishwakarma Puja
Ans: (b)
5. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I List - II
A. Pandit Durgalal 1. Instrumental Music
B. Lalgudi Jayaraman 2. Dance
C. Bala Murali Krishna 3. Painting
D. Amrita Shergil 4. Vocal Music
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (a)
6. South Indian festival of 'Onam' is associated with which of the following ?
(a) Ram's victory over Rawan
(b) Durga's killing of Mahishasur
(c) Shiva Shakti
(d) Mahabali
Ans: (d)
7. Which of the following crops are grown mainly in the irrigated areas during Zaid ?
(a) Arhar and Gram
(b) Moong and Urad
(c) Rice and Millets
(d) Maize and Groundnut
Ans:(d)
8. The largest producer of Sugar in India is
(a) Bihar
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (c)
9. Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange for the import of goods ?
(a) Any Nationalised Bank
(b) Exchange Bank
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Ministry of Financer
Ans: (c)
10. A letter of credit has to be produced by
(a) an exporter
(b) an importer
(c) custom authorities
(d) shipping company
Ans: (d)
11. Which organisation promotes the foreign trade ?
(a) ECGC
(b) MMTC
(c) STC
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
12. The main source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India is
(a) Cess
(b) Foreign assistance
(c) Market borrowings
(d) Budgetary support of Union Government
Ans: (a)
13. Golden rice has the highest quantity of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
Ans: (a)
14. Which one of the following is useful in the treatment of scurvy disease ?
(a) Mango
(b) Papaya
(c) Aonla
(d) Ber
Ans: (c)
15. MODVAT is related to
(a) Excise duty
(b) Value Added Tax (VAT)
(c) Wealth Tax
(d) Income Tax
Ans: (b)
16. More than one-third of the crude steel production of the world comes from
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Russia
(d) U.S.A.
Ans: (a)
17. The Sun City is located in
(a) Italy
(b) Japan
(c) Mexico
(d) South Africa
Ans: (d)
18. The correct descending order of the leading producers of milk is
(a) China, India, Russia, U.S.A.
(b) India, U.S.A., China, Russia
(c) U.S.A., India, China, Russia
(d) India, China, U.S.A., Russia
Ans: (b)
19. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List - I List - II
(Iron-Steel Centre) (Country)
A. Hamilton 1. China
B. Birmingham 2. Canada
C. Essen 3. U.K.
D. Anshan 4. Germany
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (c)
20. Import procedure begins with
(a) Indent
(b) Mate's receipt
(c) Marine insurance
(d) Shipping bill
Ans: (b)
21. Private Sector Mutual Funds in india were permitted in
(a) 1964
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 2001
Ans: (b)
22. The State known as 'Garden of Spices' is
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b)
23. In India two largest producers of coal (2008 -09) are
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
(b) Chhattisgarh and Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
(d) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (d)
24. Which of the following towns lie in the National Capital Region ?
1. Ambala
2. Khurja
3. Karnal
4. Rohtak
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (d)
25. Coolgardie lies in the Australian province of
(a) New South Wales
(b) Northern Territory
(c) Queensland
(d) Western Australia
Ans: (d)
26. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I (Lake) List - II (City)
A. Erie 1. Duluth
B. Michigan 2. Detroit
C. Ontario 3. Gary
D. Superior 4. Hamilton
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: ?
27. In India the State with the largest area under very dense forests is
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Orissa
Ans: (b)
28. Which one of the following does NOT lie in Maharashtra ?
(a) Balaghat Range
(b) Harishchandra Range
(c) Mandav Hills
(d) Satmala Hills
Ans: (b)
29. Which one of the following is NOT the port town of Gujarat ?
(a) Jamnagar
(b) Okha
(c) Porbandar
(d) Veraval
Ans: ?
30. Who among the following has been awarded the prestigious Abel Prize for the year 2011 ?
(a) Isadore M. Singer
(b) John Griggs Thompson
(c) John Willard Milnor
(d) Peter D. Lax
Ans: (c)
31. Assertion (A): Kerala stands first in terms of human development index.
Reason (R) : Its unemployment rate is the highest in the country.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: ?
32. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Koyali - Gujarat
(b) Nagapattinam- Andhra Pradesh
(c) Numaligarh - Assam
(d) Manali - Tamil Nadu
Ans: (d)
33. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their forest-area and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Orissa
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3
Ans: (a)
34. According to the World Bank's Global Development Finance Report 2010 the correct descending order of the world's five most indebted countries is
(a) Russia, Brazil, China, Turkey, India
(b) Russia, China, Turkey, Brazil, India
(c) Russia, China, Brazil, India, Turkey
(d) Russia, Brazil, India, China,Turkey
Ans: (d)
35. In February 2011 India International Youth Film Festival was held in
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) New Delhi
Ans: (d)
36. At the 83rd Oscar Awards the best film award was won by
(a) Black Swan
(b) The Fighter
(c) The King's Speech
(d) The Social Network
Ans: (c)
37. The foundation stone of the third Indian Research Centre in Antarctica was laid by the name of
(a) Sarswati
(b) Bharti
(c) Anweshan
(d) Yamnotri
Ans: (b)
38. The author of the book "The Emperor of All Maladies A Biography of Cancer", for which 2011 Pulitzer Prize has been awarded, is
(a) Farid Zakariya
(b) Geeta Anand
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri
(d) Siddhartha Mukherjee
Ans: (d)
39. Who among the following film actors was given Mother Teresa Award in March 2011 ?
(a) Prem Chopra
(b) Rajesh Khanna
(c) Shammi Kapoor
(d) Shatrughan Sinha
Ans: (a)
40. Which one of the following Indian States has recently signed a $220 million agreement with the World Bank ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (a)
41. India has recently signed Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement with
(a) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Vietnam
Ans: (b)
42. Which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the highest literacy rate as per the provisional figures of 2011 Census?
(a) Gautambuddh Nagar
(b) Ghaziabad
(c) Kanpur Nagar
(d) Lucknow
Ans: (b)
43. Thumri Singer Girija Devi belongs to
(a) Banaras Gharana
(b) Agra Gharana
(c) Kirana Gharana
(d) Lucknow Gharana
Ans: (a)
44. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I (District) List - II (Headquarters)
A. Jalaun 1. Akbarpur
B. Kanpur Dehat 2. Navgarh
C. Sant Ravidas Nagar 3. Padrauna
D. Kushinagar 4. Orai
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (a)
45. The first Woman General Secretary of SAARC, elected in January 2011, comes from
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Maldives
(d) Bhutan
Ans: (c)
46. The 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award has been given to
(a) Shabana Azmi
(b) Maulana Wahiduddin Khan
(c) Javed Akhtar
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
47. India in February 2011 signed Free Trade Agreement with
(a) Australia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Japan
(d) South Korea
Ans: (c)
48. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
List - I (City) List - II (Aerodrome)
A. Lucknow 1. Babatpur
B. Varanasi 2. Kheria
C. Kanpur 3. Amausi
D. Agra 4. Chakeri
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
Ans: (d)
49. The official bird of Uttar Pradesh is
(a) Peacock
(b) Saras
(c) Parrot
(d) Cuckoo
Ans: (b)
50. The most popular religious magazine 'Kalyan' is published from
(a) Mathura
(b) Rishikesh
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Varanasi
Ans: (c)
51. Which One of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Vrindavan Mandir - Mathura
(b) J.K. Temple - Lucknow
(c) Vishwanath Mandir - Varanasi
(d) Devipatan Mandir - Tulsipur
Ans: (b)
52. Which one of the following statements regarding uttar Pradesh, according to the provisional figures of 2011 Census is not correct?
(a) It accounts for 16.5 percent of the Country's population.
(b) It has the largest 'number of children in the country.
(c) Its decadal growth rate is 18.4%.
(d) Its Sex ratio is 908.
Ans: (c)
53. Famous Charkula dance is associated with
(a) Avadh
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Brijbhumi
(d) Rohilkhand
Ans: (c)
54. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University is located at
(a) Faizabad
(b) Meerut
(c) Kanpur
(d) Jhansi
Ans: (b)
55. The winner of All England Badminton championship.2011, Men's Singles Title, was
(a) Chen Jin
(b) Lee Chong Wei
(c) Lee Yong Dae
(d) Lin Dan
Ans: (b)
56. The Winner of Australian Open 2011, Men's Singles, was
(a) Andy Murray
(b) David Ferrer
(c) Novak Djkovic
(d) Roger Federer
Ans: (c)
57. The Captain of the Indian Hockey Team for Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament, 2011, was
(a) Arjun Halappa
(b) Rajesh Kumar
(c) Rajpal Singh
(d) Shivendra Singh
Ans: (a)
58. Farrukhabad is known for
(a) Carpet weaving
(b) Glassware
(c) Perfume Manufacture
(d) Hand Printing
Ans: (d)
59. In Which of the following crops Uttar Pradesh is not the largest producer in India?
(a) Polato
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
Ans: (b)
60. In ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 the "man of the tournament" was
(a) Kumar Sangakarra
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Tilakratne Dilshan
(d) Yuvraj Singh
Ans: (d)
61. The "Leures World Sportsman Year" award for 2010 was given to
(a) Lionel Massi
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Ronaldo
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
Ans: (b)
62. 'Smash' is assosiated with which of the following sports?
(a) Boxing
(b) Wrestling
(c) Football
(d) Volleyball
Ans: (d)
63. Bula Chaudhary is well-known in which of the following sports?
(a) Swimming
(b) Hockey
(c) Football
(d) Archery
Ans: (a)
64. Tejaswani Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned world championship in
(a) Athelatics
(b) Boxing
(c) Shooting
(d) Wrestling
Ans: (c)
65. The correct descending order of the four winners of the highest number of gold medals in the 34th National Games 2011 is
(a) Services, Manipur, Haryana, Maharashtra
(b) Services, Haryana, Manipur, Maharashtra
(c) Services, Manipur, Maharashtra, Haryana
(d) Services, Haryana, Maharashtra, Manipur
Ans: (a)
66. In the 34th National Games, 2011 which State. Won the team title in Badminton in Men's Section?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (a)
67. "Stanley Cup' is associated with
(a) Badminton
(b) Basketball
(c) Golf
(d) Ice Hockey
Ans: (d)
68. If COMPUTER IS Coded as RFUYQNPC, the code for MEDICINE will be
(a) MFEDJJOE
(b) MFEJDJOE
(c) EOJDEJFM
(d) EOJDJEFM
Ans: (d)
69. Introducing a girl Mohan said. "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law." How is Mohan related to that girl?
(a) Brother
(b) father
(c) Husband
(d) Uncle
Ans: (b)
70. The following series has a wrong number:
1 12 65 264 795 1590 1593
The wrong number is
(a) 65
(b) 264
(c) 795
(d) 1590
Ans: (d)
71. Govind is 3 years older than his wife Shyama and four times as old as his son Raghu. If Raghu becomes 15 years old after 3 years, what is the present age of Shyama ?
(a) 60 years
(b) 51 years
(c) 48 years
(d) 45 years
Ans: (d)
72. Ten years ago Ram's age was half of Moti's age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what is the total of their present ages?
(a) 25
(b) 28
(c) 32
(d) 35
Ans: (d)
73. Sonu bought a watch with 30 percent discount on the labelled price. He sold it With 20 percent profit on the labelled price. Approximately, what was his percentage of profit on the price he bought?
(a) 50
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 85
Ans: (c)
74. Which one of the following will come next in the series given below?
LXF MTJ NPN OLR
(a) PHV
(b) PPV
(c) PTV
(d) PJW
Ans: (a)
75. There are four prime numbers. The product of first three is 385 and the product of the last three is 1001. First and the last numbers are respectively:
(a) 5, 11
(b) 5, 13
(c) 7, 11
(d) 7, 13
Ans: (b)
76. If the number 1 X 5 X 01 is divisible by 11, then X is equal to
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 3
Ans: (c)
77. Avinash spent 2/5 of his income for a month on rent and 3/4th of the remainder on other expenses. The balance of Rs.180 he put in his savings account. How much was his income for the month?
(a) Rs. 1,200
(b) Rs. 1,400
(c) Rs. 1,600
(d) Rs. 1,800
Ans: (b)
78. The author of 'Green Development' is
(a) M.J. Bradshaw
(b) M. Nicolson
(c) R.H. Whittakar
(d) W.M. Adams
Ans: (d)
79. The missing number in the following series:
0, 4, 18, 48, ? 180 is
(a) 58
(b) 68
(c) 84
(d) 100
Ans: (d)
80. Man as started a business investing Rs. 42,000. After 7 months, Kamal joined him with a capital of Rs. 50,000. At the end of the year, the total profit was Rs. 30,160. What is Kamal's share in the profit?
(a) Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 20,160
(c) Rs. 10,160
(d) Rs. 8,000
Ans: (a)
81. The surface area of a cube is 384 m2 Its volume will be
(a) 512m3
(b) 516m3
(c) 1032m3
(d) 216m3
Ans: (a)
82. The World Water Conservation Day is observed on
(a) 28 February
(b) 22 March
(c) 5 June
(d) 11 July
Ans: (b)
83. The Periyar Game Sanctuary is renowned by
(a) Lions
(b) Spotted deers
(c) Tigers
(d) Wild Elephants
Ans: (c)
84. Which one of the following cities has the largest slum population?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Surat
Ans: (c)
85. Which one of the following is the most urbanized country of West Asia?
(a) Israel
(b) Kuwait
(c) Qatar
(d) Saudi Arabia
Ans:(b)
86. Which of the following countries suffer from the acid rains?
1. Canada
2. France
3. Norway
4. Germany
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
87. The World Tiger Summit 2010 was held at
(a) Bangkok
(b) Nairobi
(c) New Delhi
(d) Petersburg
Ans: (d)
88. The author of 'Nuclear, Reactor Time Bomb' is
(a) C.C. Park
(b) E. P. Odum
(c) S. Polasky
(d) Takashi Hirose
Ans: (d)
89. Which one of the following States India has recorded the maximum increase in literacy rate during 2001-2011?
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (a)
90. As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census the second most populous State of India is
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal
Ans: (c)
91. Which of the following statements are correct according to the provisional figures of Census of India 2011?
Use the code given below to select the correct answer:
1. The lowest population is found in Lakshadweep.
2. Chandigarh has the highest population density.
3. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density.
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli has the highest decadal growth of population.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 4
Ans: (d)
92. According to the provisional figures of Census 2011 arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh In descending order of their population size and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. Allahabad
2. Azamgarh
3. Ghaziabad
4. Lucknow
Code:
(a) 1,3,2,4
(b) 1,4,3,2
(c) 2,3,1,4
(d) 4,1,2,3
Ans: (a)
93. According to the provisional figures of 2011 Census the lowest sex ratio in India is found in
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Haryana
Ans: (b)
94. The first Gupta ruler who issued coins was
(a) Srigupta
(b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Chandragupta II
Ans: (d)
95. The Prince who was responsible for the death of his father was
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Chandapradyota
(c) Prasenjit
(d) Udayana
Ans: (a)
96. Who among the following was the earliest Sufi Saint to have settled at Ajmer?
(a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Sheikh Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Qaki
(c) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti
Ans: (a)
97. With which Mughal General did Shivaji sign the famous 'Treaty of Purandhar in 1665 A.D?
(a) Jaswant Singh
(b) Jai Singh
(c) Shaishta Khan
(d) Diler Khan
Ans: (b)
98. During the 13th and 14th Centuries A.D. the Indian peasants did not cultivate
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Ans: (d)
99. The writer of Mahabhasya 'Patanjali ' was a contemporary of
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Pushyamitra Sunga
(d) Chandragupta I
Ans: (c)
100. Gautama Buddha had attained Mahaparinibban in the State of
(a) Anga
(b) Magdha
(c) Malla
(d) Vatsa
Ans: (c)
101. Buddha had delivered Maximum sermons at
(a) Vaishali
(b) Sravasti
(c) Kaushambi
(d) Rajgriha
Ans: (b)
102. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. Vikrarn Samvat began in 58 BC.
2. Saka Samvat began in 319 AD.
3. Gupta era began in 319 AD.
4. The era of Muslim rule in India began in 1192 AD.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
103. Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Mir Qasim
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Tipu Sultan
Ans: (d)
104. Who among the following was the one to have escaped being hanged in the 'Kakori Conspiracy Case'?
(a) Ashfaqullah Khan
(b) Rajendra Lahiri
(c) Ram Prasad Bismil
(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ans: (d)
105. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (b)
106. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the Brahmins also?
(a) Balban
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Allauddin Khilji
(d) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Ans: (b)
107. Who among the following was the founder of Agra?
(a) Balban
(b) Bahlol Lodhi
(c) Sikandar Lodhi
(d) Firoz Tughlaq
Ans: (c)
108. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Ajmer-Quuwal-al-Islam
(b) Jaunpur - Atala Mosque
(c) Malwa - Jahaz Mahal
(d) Gulbarga - Jama Masjid
Ans: (a)
109. Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang ?
(a) Kunwar Singh
(b) Nana Saheb
(c) Tatiya Tope
(d) Mangal Pandey
Ans: (c)
110. Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905) ?
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) C. R. Das
(c) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans: (a)
111. Who among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground activities during the 'Quit India Movement' ?
(a) J.B. Kriplani
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Achyut Patwardhan
(d) Jai Prakash Narayan
Ans: (c)
112. Arrange the following In the chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. The August Offer
2. The Cabinet Mission Plan
3. The Cripps Mission Plan
4. The Wavell Plan
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans: (c)
113. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
(a) Champaran
(b) Chauri Chaura
(c) Bardoli
(d) Dandi
Ans: (a)
114. The only session of the Indian National Congress addressed by Mahatma held at
(a) Amravati
(b) Belgaum
(c) Karachi
(d) Nagpur
Ans: (b)
115. Who among the following had moved the Non co-operation resolution in the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in 1920 ?
(a) C.R. Das
(b) Annie Besant
(c) B.C. Pal
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya
Ans:(a)
116. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Durga Das : The Life of Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Louis Fischer: India From Curzon to Nehru and After
(c) Frank Moraes: Jawahar Lal Nehru - A Biography
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad : India Divided
Ans: (c)
117. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?
(a) James Watt: Steam Engine
(b) A. G. Bell : Telephone
(c) J. L. Baird : Television
(d) J. Perkins : Penicillin
Ans: (d)
118. Who among the following had started 'Mitra Mela' Association ?
(a) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakna
Ans: (b)
119. The statement "I am a socialist and a republican and am no believer Kings and Princes" is associated with
(a) Narendra Dev
(b) Achyut Patwardhan
(c) Jai Prakash Narayan
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans: (d)
120. Who among the following had led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi.
(a) Balgangadhar Tilak
(b) Ajit Singh
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Syed Haider Raza
Ans: (C)
121. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Silver iodide - Horn Silver
(b) Silver chloride - Artificial rain
(c) Zinc phosphide - Rat poison
(d) Zinc sulphide - Philosopher's wool
Ans: (c)
122. Which one of the following gases is essential for photosynthesis process ?
(a) CO
(b) Co2
(c) N2
(d) O2
Ans: (b)
123. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I List - II
A. Morphine 1. Antiseptic
B. Sodium 2. Alloy
C. Boric Acid 3. Analgesic
D. German Silver 4. Kerosene oil
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (d)
124. Which one of the following human organs is most susceptible to harmful radiations ?
(a) Eyes
(b) Heart
(c) Brain
(d) Lungs
Ans: (a)
125. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full size image of a person is equal to
(a) the height of the person
(b) half the height of the person
(c) one-fourth the height of the person
(d) double the height of the person
Ans: (b)
126. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloons because it
(a) is cheaper
(b) is less dense
(c) has greater lifting power
(d) does not form an explosive mixture with air.
Ans: (d)
127. Which one of the following is NOT formed in our body ?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Protein
(c) Enzyme
(d) Hormone
Ans: (a)
128. Anosmia is
(a) loss of the sense of taste.
(b) loss of the sense of smell.
(c) loss of the sense of touch.
(d) loss of the sense of heat.
Ans: (b)
129. Assertion (A) : If somebody stops taking green vegetables he will suffer from night blindness.
Reason (R) : He will suffer from Vitamin A deficiency.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: ?
130. Insectivorous fish used for mosquito control is
(a) Hilsa
(b) Labeo
(c) Gambusia
(d) Mystus
Ans: (c)
131. With which of the physiological process Thrombin is associated ?
(a) Excretion
(b) Blood clotting
(c) Reproduction
(d) Growth
Ans: (b)
132. AIDS is caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Helminth
(d) Virus
Ans: (d)
133. Which of the following is NOT the normal function of the human kidney ?
(a) Regulation of water level in the blood.
(b) Regulation of sugar level ill the blood.
(c) filter out urea.
(d) Secretion of several hormones.
Ans: (d)
134. Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the following parts of a traditional camera ?
(a) Film
(b) Lens
(c) Shutter
(d) Cover
Ans: (b)
135. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor?
(a) Thorium
(b) Graphite
(c) Radium
(d) Ordinary water
Ans: (b)
136. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
(a) killing the germs
(b) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions
(c) destroying enzyme action.
(d) sealing the food with a layer of ice.
Ans: (b)
137. Electric bulb filament is made of
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Lead
(d) Tungsten
Ans: (d)
138. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the vehicles?
(a) Plane
(b) Convex
(c) Concave
(d) Inverted
Ans: (b)
139. Which one of the following is a part of Infotech Terminology?
(a) Protocol
(b) Login
(c) Archie
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)
140. Inventor and founder of www is
(a) Timbernrus
(b) N. Russel
(c) Lee N. Fiyong
(d) Bill Gates
Ans: (a)
141. Amniocentosis is a method used to determine the
(a) foetal sex
(b) kind of Amino acids
(c) sequence of Amino acids in protein
(d) type of hormones
Ans: ?
142. BMD testing is done to diagnose
(a) Dengue
(b) Malaria
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) AIDS
Ans: (c)
143. The principle 'of 'Black hole' was enunciated by
(a) C.V. Raman
(b) H.J. Bhabha
(c) S. Chandrashekhar
(d) H. Khurana
Ans: (c)
144. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) National Security Advisor
Ans: (a)
145. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?
(a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government.
(b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet.
(c) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House.
(d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular Chamber.
Ans: (c)
146. Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of
(a) 1987
(b) 1988
(c) 1989
(d) 1990
Ans: (c)
147. Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council?
(a) 168
(b) 169
(c) 170
(d) 171
Ans: (b)
148. Missile' Astra' is a
(a) land to land missile
(b) land to air missile
(c) air to air missile
(d) water to land missile
Ans: (c)
149. Indane gas is a mixture of
(a) butane and hydrogen
(b) butane and oxygen
(c) butane and propane
(d) methane and oxygen
Ans: (c)
150. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit language the status of the second 'official language of the State?
(a) Bihar
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Ans: (d)
Wednesday, June 29, 2011
Monday, June 27, 2011
Sunday, June 26, 2011
Thursday, June 23, 2011
Wednesday, June 22, 2011
Thursday, June 16, 2011
KERALA CIVIL SERVICE DEPUTY COLLECTOR (EXECUTIVE) EXAM PAPER
KERALA CIVIL SERVICE DEPUTY COLLECTOR (EXECUTIVE) EXAM PAPER
(Exam Held On: 09-04-2011) BOOKLET CODE : A
1. Name of the Egyptian President against whom people of Egypt revolted in 2011:
A. Hosni Mubarak
B. Pervez Musharraf
C. Omar Suleiman
D. Ahmed Shafeeque
2. Name the person who commissioned theVallarpadam International Container Transshipment Terminal
A. Vayalar Ravi
B. Dr. Man Mohan Singh
C. A. K. Antony
D. G K Vasan
3. The Malayalam literature who received Jnan pith Award in 2007 :
A. Sugatha Kumari
B. Vijayalakshmi
C. O.N.V Kurup
D. Balachandran Chullikkad
4. In which of the following cities was the Indian Biodiversity Congress(2010) held?
A. Chennai
B. Chandigarh
C. Mumbai
D. Thiruvananthapuram
5. _____________ sector has established itself as the biggest contributor to the State’s GDP as per Kerala State’s Economic Review
A. Secondary Sector
B. Primary Sector
C. Tertiary Sector
D. None of these
6. Name the most significant characteristic of National Integration:
A. Social homogeneity
B. Unity
C. Economic identity
D. National loyalty
7. “The principle of respect for all life and the practice of non-injury to living thing’s is known in India as :
A. Ahimsa
B. Tolerance
C. Patience
D. None of These
8. NCW means :
A. National Commission For Women
B. National Commission For Workers
C. National Council For Workers
D. None of these
9.The Servants of India Society (1905) was formed to train people to serve the country by :
A. Tilak
B. Gandhiji
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Gopalakrishna Gokhale
10. Who is popularly called “Vaikkom Hero” ?
A. R. K. Dhadabai
B. E V Ramaswami
C. C.N. Annadurai
D. Mannath Padmanabhan
11. Who founded the Indian National Congress?
A. Motilal Nehru
B. A.O. Hume
C. Lajpat Rai
D. Gokhale
12. Zionisn is a world movement of :
A. Hindus
B. Buddhists
C. Christians
D. Jews
13. Jallianwalla bagh is situated in :
A. Delhi
B. Mysore
C. Amritsar
D. Lahore
14. The first war of Indian independendance started at :
A. Mumbai
B. Chennai
C. Delhi
D. Meerut
15. “Life Divine” was written by :
A. Gandhiji
B. Tilak
C. Vivekananda
D. Aurobindo Ghosh
16. Name the “Land of the Morning Calm” :
A. Norway
B. Japan
C. Korea
D. Thailand
17. Sahyadri ranges refer to :
A. Eastern ghats
B. Western ghats
C. Saptura ranges
D. Siwaliks
18. The line beyond which snow never melts is
A. Latitude
B. Longitude
C. Snow line
D. Meridian
19. Gir Forest is in :
A. Karnataka
B. Bihar
C. Gujarat
D. Himachal Pradesh
20. A fountain of hot water issuing from a hole which extends deep into earth’s crust is called :
A. Delta
B. Canyon
C. Volcano
D. Geyser
21. Universal Adult Franchise creates :
A. economic equality
B. social equality
C. political equality
D. cultural equality
22. Who is the guardian of Fundamental rights in India ?
A. Judiciary
B. Legislature
C. Executive
D. Political parties
23 The year in which Panchayati Raj was introduced in India :
A.1960
B.1959
C. 1961
D. 1949
24. Which article of the constitution provides for the formation of the Finance Commission ?
A. Article 300
B. Article 280
C. Article 250
D. Article 290
25. The Gevernor can nominate to the Legislative Council of his state one member from this community :
A. Jewish
B. Muslim
C. Anglo-Indian
D. Parsi
26. Right to Information Act (RTI) became effective in India on 15th June :
A. 2001
B. 2003
C.2004
D.2005
27. Universal Declaration of human rights was passed by the U.N. General Assembly on :
A. 10.12.1948
B. 13.11.1947
C. 9.12.1948
D. 12.12.1946
28. The proclamation of emergency brings automatic suspension of the right to :
A. Freedom speech
B. Constitutional remedies
C. Freedom of religion
D. All of these
29. The concept of Fundamental right has it’s basis in the :
A. Constitution of the USA
B. Constitution of Russia
C. Irish Constitution
D. Canadian Constitution
30. The chairman of the UPSC is appointed by the :
A. Cabinet
B. President
C. Supreme Court
D. Prime Minister
31. Kerala is the first state in India to launch a Pension Scheme for farmers namely :
A. Kissan Abhiman
B. Farmer’s Pension
C. Agricultural Pension
D. Pension to Agricultural Labourer
32. According to 2001 census, the state having highest urban population is :
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Maharashtra
D. Uttar Pradesh
33.The district in Kerala which has got the highest density of popular as per 2001 census :
A. Ernakulam
B. Alappuzha
C. Thrissur
D. Idukki
34. The Union Territory in India with the highest population :
A. Puducherry
B. Delhi
C. Chandigarh
D. Daman and Diu
35. IRDP means :
A. Indian Rural Development Programme
B. Indian Regional Development Programme
C. Integrated Rural Development Programme
D. International Rural Development Project
36. Third World Countries are :
A. Developed countries
B. Developing countries
C. African countries
D. None of these
37. The definition of the “Urban Poor” according to the Planning Commission in India in terms of the colorie intake with respect to daily consumption is :
A. less than 2100 calories
B. less than 2000 calories
C. less than 2200 calories
D. None of these
38. The fraction of all families (or all individuals) that fall below the poverty line is called :
A. Poverty rate
B. Absolute poverty
C. Relative poverty
D. None of These
39. Economic development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own need is:
A. Human Development
B. Economic progress
C. Sustainable development
D. Static development
40. The state where the largest number of people living below the poverty line is found in India
A. Rajasthan
B. Delhi
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bihar
41. Earth Day is celebrated in :
A. 22nd April
B. 22nd May
C. 23rd April
D. 22nd March
42. The kyoto protocol is an international agreement linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on
A.Climate change
B. International trade
C. Global investment
D. Education
43. Pearl fishing is done extensively in :
A. Gulf of Mannar
B. Konkan Coast
C. Malabar Coast
D. Coromandel Coast
44. Which ocean’s name means “Peaceful”?
A. Artic Ocean
B. Antartic Ocean
C. Pacific Ocean
D. Indian Ocean
45. The district in Kerala where black soil is seen most:
A. Wayanad
B. Kannur
C. Kasargod
D. Palakkad
46. The genetic material of a cell is in :
A. DNA
B. Protoplasm
C. Cytoplasm
D. Ribosome
47. who was the first to perform the surgery of human heart transplant?
A. David Baltimore
B. Dr.Christian Bernard
C. Dr. James D. Watson
D. Dr. Mathew Philip
48. The organ which is primarly concerned with immunity :
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lymphatic tissue
D. Thyroid
49. Which branch of medicine was Rabindranath Tagore good at ?
A. Ayurveda
B. Homeopathy
C. Allopathy
D. None of these
50. The alloy of steel used in making automobile parts is :
A. stainless steel
B. nickel steel
C. tungsten steel
D. chromium steel
51.Either the Prime Minister or his ministers ………. blamed for the 2010 Commonwealth Games Scam. (to be)
A. is
B. are
C. has been
D. have been
52. Nepalese climber Min Bahadur Sherchan is the oldest man to scale Mt. Everest.(Comparative degree)
A. Nobody is older than Min Bahadur Sherchan to scale Mt. Everest
B. No climber is as old as Min Bahadur Sherchan to scale Mt. Everest.
C. The Nepalese climber Min Bahadur Sherchan is older than any other climber to scale Mt. Everest
D. Mt.Everest is as old as Min Bahadur Sherchan who climbed it
53. I am the messenger of India’s ancient thoughts world over, …………? (Question tag)
A. Aren’t I?
B. amn’t I?
C.isn’t I ?
D. am I?
54 . India will be the largest economy ……… 2050 ……….. china and the U. S. (Preposition)
A.by, after
B. after, with
C. in, after
D. from, with
55.By age four, Varsha won ………. brown belt, …………… first degree in Karate.(articles)
A.the, the
B. a, the
C. an, the
D. the, a
56. The minister sought to introduce an amendment to the Bill. (Passive)
A.The Bill sought to introduce an amendment by the minister
B. An amendment to the Bill was sought to be introduced by the minister
C. The minister introduced an amendment to the Bill
D. An amendment to the Bill is being introduced by the minister
57. Anamika said, “God spared our lives because he wants us to do something meaningful’.(Reported Speech)
A. Anamika said that God had spared their lives because he wanted them to do something meaningful
B.Anamika said that God spares their lives because he wants them to do something meaning ful
C. Anamika said that God spared their lives because he had wanted them to do something meaningful
D. Anamika said that God spares our lives because he wants us to do something meaningful
58.My aunt gave the baby a beautiful rattle. (Mark the D.O. and Indir. O)
A. baby, rattle
B. rattle, baby
C. aunt, baby
D. baby, beautiful
59. If I had won the lottery, ………. a millionaire. (Conditional)
A. I will become
B. I had become
C. I would have become
D. I would become
60.I was happy ………. the appointment. (infinitive of ‘accept’)
A. to accept
B. to be accepting
C. to have accepted
D. accepting
61. I met J.K. Rowling ………… they say is the richest person in the world. (relative clause)
A. who
B. whose
C. whom
D.which
62. The student leader expalined why he had to leave the panel discussion forum. (adverbial of ‘anger’)
A.The student leader explained why he had to leave angrily the panel discussion forum
B.The student leader explained why he had to leave the panel discussion forum angrily
C. The student leader explained angrily why he had to leave the panel discussion forum
D. The student leader explained why he had angrily to leave the panel discussion forum
63. She _____________ tomorrow to attend the wedding.(modal verb)
A. will come
B. comes
C. seems to come
D. just comes
64. I have never met Osama bin Laden___________do I wan to.(neg. conjunction)
A. nor
B. neither
C. or
D. either
65. It was not difficult to park the car infront of the theatre.(gerund)
A. There was no difficulty in parking the car in front of the theatre
B. It was not difficult to do the parking in front of the theatre
C. To park the car in front of the theatre was not difficult
D. Parking in front of the theatre the car was not difficult
66. Give the Plural form:
Sheep
A. Sheeps
B. Sheepes
C. sheep
D. sheepz
67. Change the Gender:
Goose
A. geese
B. geeses
C. gander
D. gossen
68. Use of Prefix and Suffix:
Forget
A. unforgettable
B. unforgetting
C. disforgetting
D. misforgettable
69. Give the Synonym:
Predict
A. premonition
B. foretell
C. aver
D. pronounce
70. Give the Antonym:
Hereditary
A. acquired
B. ancestral
C. bequeathed
D. possessed
71. Meaning of two confusable words :
Premier/Premiere
A. Prime Minister /1st performance
B. Minister/ Reality show
C. Diplomat/Cricket
D. Male/Female
72.Use of Collective noun :
Fish
A. school of fishes
B. Flock of fishes
C. herd of fishes
D. pool of fishes
73. Use of Homonyms:
Bald
A. bawled
B. bold
C. balled
D. bohld
74. Phrasal Verb :
To shrung one’s shoulders
A. to show disapproval
B. to approve
C. to wash one’s hands
D. to deny
75. Meaning of these foreign words :
Modulus operandi
A.operation
B. treatment
C. way to doing things
D. means and end
76. In a family, Reshma is elder sister of Ragini. Soni is Reshma’s daughter and Saloni is Soni’s cousin. Ragini’s mother is Rajini. Ramani is the sister in law of Reshma. who is soni’s grand mother?
A. Ramani
B. Rajini
C. Reshma
D. Saloni
77.Find the odd one out in the sequence of numbers
2,5,10,17,26,37,50,64
A.50
B.26
C.37
D. 64
78. If ‘+’ is denoted as ‘x’,'-’ as ‘/’, ‘x’ as ‘-’ and ‘/’ as ‘+’. What is the value of 10+5-3/1×7=
A.12
B. -6
C. 13
D. zero
79. Find the next letter in the sequence
A,D,I, P……
A. H
B. Y
C.W
D.X
80. If A=2, M=26 and Z=52, then BET=
A. 44
B. 54
C. 64
D. 72
81. Find the value of the following
x(x-a)(x-b)(x-c)…..(x-z)
A.xn -(a+b+…..+z)
B.x2+ax3+bx4+…..
C.zero
D. cannot be determined
82. Poles are arranged in straight line with 1 metre gap between them. How many poles will be there in a straight line of 30 metres?
A.31
B.30
C.32
D.29
83.A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then, turning to his right, he walks 30 metres. Then turning to his left, he walks 20 metres, again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres. How far is he from his initial position?
A. 20 metres
B. 30 metres
C. 60 metres
D. none of these
84. Find the odd one out in the sequence of numbers
25,27.30,35,42,53,65
A.30
B. 42
C. 53
D.65
85. Fill up the next letter in the particular series
B,C,E,G,K,M,……
A.V
B.W
C.Q
D.R
86. ELFA,GLHA,ILJA,……..,MLNA
A)OLPA
B)KLMA
C)LLMA
D)KLLA
87.There are 3 friends, A, B, and C. Each of them is wearing another person’s hat and riding cycle of the third person. (i.e.None of them is using their own hat and cycle) If A is wearing B’s hat and riding C’s cycle, who is riding A’s cycle?
A. A
B. B
C.C
D. can’t be determined
88. A 1 km long train passes through a tunnel of 1 km length at a speed of 1 km per minute. How much time will it take to pass through it completely?
A. 1 min
B. 2 min
C. 5 min
D. 0.5 min
89. In a particular language GREET is coded as FQDDS, how is FORD coded in that language?
A. FQSD
B. ENQC
C. ENRC
D. FNRC
90. P,Q,R and S are playing a game of carom. P,R and S,Q are partners. S is to the right of R. If R is facing west, then Q is facing?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
91. What is the angle between the minute hand and hour hand of a clock at half past two
A. 105 degree
B. 103 degree
C. 110 degree
D. 90 degree
92. A is two years older than B, who is twiceas old as C. If total ages of A, B and C be 27, how old is B.
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
93. A vendor bought 3 chocolates for 1 rupee. For how much chocolate should he sell, to gain a profitof 50%?
A. 50 ps
B. 75 ps
C1 Re
D. 1.50 Rs
94. If a/3=b/4=c/7, then (a+b+c)/c=:
A. 7
B. 2.
C. 1/2
D. 1/7
95. A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error?
A. 45%
B. 86%
C. 36%
D. 64%
96. A number of marble slabs of size 20 cm x 20 cm required to pave the floor of a square room of side 3 meter is:
A. 100
B. 150
C. 225
D. 250
97. 75% of a number is addedto 75, then the result is the number itself. What is the number?
A. 50
B. 60
C. 300
D. 400
98. A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C together can do it in 15 days and C and A together in 20 days. If A,B,C work together, they will complete the work in:
A. 5 days
B.10 days
C. 12 days
D.47/3days
99. The prices of scooter and TV are in a ration 7:5 . If scooter costs Rs.8,000 more than TV set, then price of TV set is :
A.20,000
B.24,000
C.28,000
D.32,000
100. At what rate percent of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 12 years?
A.33/4%
B.25/3%
C. 17/2%
D.19/2%
Monday, June 13, 2011
UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper II
UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper II 2011 Solutions
SET - B
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET
2. ENCOLDE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C, OR D AT THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUESTIONS FROM 73 TO 80, WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER.
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will
be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
PAPER-II
Directions for the following 4 (four) items :
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples.
As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit.
1. The passage mentions that "this world is evidently not meant for them". It refers to people who (b)
1. seek freedom from foreign domination.
2. live in starvation and misery.
3. become revolutionaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
2. Consider the following assumptions : (a)
1. A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.
2. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.
3. Subject peoples may become other-worldly.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
3. The passage thematically centres on (a)
(a) the state of mind of oppressed people
(b) starvation and misery
(c) the growth of civilization
(d) body, mind and spirit of people in general
4. According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused (c)
(a) by the impact of foreign domination.
(b) by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness.
(c) due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.
(d) due to one's inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given below the figure.
During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
(a) A only (b) B only
(c) B and C
(d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase
6. Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ? (b)
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
7. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief ? (c)
(a) C (b) D
(c) E
(d) The curve does not indicate the treatment
8. There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C ? (a)
(a) 24 (b) 12
(c) 10 (d) 8
9. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follows : Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being Rs. 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ? (b)
(a) Rs. 4950 (b) Rs. 4250
(c) Rs. 3600 (d) Rs. 650
10. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :
In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other, S is the direction of a beam of light falling on the mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be
(a) Perpendicular to the direction S. (c)
(b) At 45° to the direction S.
(c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
(d) At 60° to the direction S.
11. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows : (a)
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
12. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :
A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square ? (d)
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
Read each of the following two passages and answer the items thai follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.
The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.
This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, 'who need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food.
13. According to the passage : (a)
1. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
2. Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.
3. The Government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.
4. There is a need to change the size of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on (d)
(a) Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.
(b) Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.
(c) Controlling the distribution of manufactured goods.
(d) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society,
15. What constitutes an enabling Government ?
1. A large bureaucracy.
2. Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives.
3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise.
4. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (c)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
16. Why is the State unable to deliver "all that is needed" ?
1. It does not have sufficient bureaucracy. (d)
2. It does not promote inclusive growth.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ? (d)
(a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be remembered.
(b) The Government needs to make available more schools and health services.
(c) The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.
(d) There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.
Passage-2
The concept of 'creative society' refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The upsurge of the peasants and tribals, the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women's movements in the developing -eountries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country.
18. What does the author imply by "creative society" ?
1. A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek incentive.
2. A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm.
3. A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised.
4. A society where the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (c)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
19. What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements ?
1. Aggressiveness and being incendiary.
2. Instigation by external forces.
3. Quest for social equality and individual freedom.
4. Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (c)
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements : (c)
1. To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements.
2. To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. Consider the following three statements :
1. Only students can participate in the race.
2. Some participants in the race are girls.
3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ? (c)
(a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
(b) All students are invited for coaching.
(c) All participants in the race are students.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Directions for the following 2 (two) items :
Each of the following two items consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set of statements :
22. Examine the following statements : (a)
1. All animals are carnivorous.
2. Some animals are not carnivorous.
3. Animals are not carnivorous.
4. Some animals are carnivorous.
Codes :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
23. Examine the following statements : (c)
1. All trains are run by diesel engine.
2. Some trains are run by diesel engine.
3. No train is run by diesel engine.
4. Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
Codes :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
24. Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries. Which one of them indicates the declining population ? (c)
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
25. The following figure has four curves namely A, B, C and D. Study the figure and answer the item that follows. (d)
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
The following pie charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Based on these, answer the two items that follow the charts.
Distribution of diseases in Town - A
Distribution of diseases in Town - B
26. Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes ? (d)
(a) Town A
(b) Town B
(c) Same in Town A and Town B
(d) No inference can be drawn
27. What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs ? (b)
(a) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A.
(b) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.
(c) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B.
(d) No inference can be drawn.
28. Consider the following Velocity — Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks.
(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0.
(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units.
Directions for the following 5 (five) items :
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
Now India's children have a right-to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether it will remain on paper or become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary – a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child's right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India's history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is "symptomatic of a deeper turmoil" in society which is compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.
29. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements : (d)
1. When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.
2. Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. According to the passage, what could be the traditional obstacles to the education of girls? (b)
1. Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.
2. The traditional way of thinking about girls' role in society.
3. The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
4. Improper system of education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements : (d)
1. Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.
2. For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage ? (d)
(a) India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.
(b) Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.
(c) The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.
(d) The system of education should address the issue of Right to Education.
33. Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage ? (d)
(a) The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
(b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education.
(c) The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive.
(d) There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood.
Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
34. How is D related to E ? (a)
(a) Husband (b) Son
(c) Father (d) Wife
35. Who are the females in the group ? (c)
(a) C and E (b) C and D
(c) E and A (d) D and E
36. Whose wife is the teacher ? (d)
(a) C (b) D
(c) A (d) B
Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were undecided. (b)
37. How many females voted for the proposal ?
(a) 430 (b) 600
(c) 624 (d) 640
38. How many males were undecided ? (a)
(a) 31 (b) 227
(c) 426 (d) 581
39. How many females were not in favour of the proposal ?
(a) 430 (b) 496 (a)
(c) 586 (d) 1226
40. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z ? (c)
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
Directions for the following 6 (six) items :
Read each of the following two passages and answer- the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost.
The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth's ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel. These modifications have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development. The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity.
41. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements. Expanding human population has an adverse effect on : (c)
1. Spiritual fulfilment
2. Aesthetic enjoyment
3. Potable fresh water
4. Production of food and fibre
5. Biodiversity
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
42. The passage mentions that "some people have actually been harmed by these changes". What does it imply ? (a)
1. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people:
2. Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre.
3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications in the Earth's ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above
43. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements : (b)
1. It is imperative to modify the Earth's ecosystems for the well being of mankind.
2. Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-2
A moral act must be our own act; must spring from our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear in mind the distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king's moral act. But if the messenger were to carry out the king's order considering it to be his duty, his action would be a moral one. How can a man understand morality who does not use his own intelligence and power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current ? Sometimes a man defies convention and acts on his own with a view to absolute good.
44. Which of the following statements best describe/describes the thought of the writer ? (d)
1. A moral act calls for using our discretion.
2. Man should react to a situation immediately.
3. Man must do his duty.
4. Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
45. Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action, according to the writer ?
(a) It is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors. (b)
(b) It is an action based on our sense of discretion.
(c) It is a clever action based on the clarity of purpose.
(d) It is a religious action based on understanding.
46. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current." Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this ? (b)
1. A person does not use his own reason.
2. He is susceptible to influence/pressure.
3. He cannot withstand difficulties/ challenges.
4. He is like a log of wood.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
47. Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B and C running side by side for a 30 km race.
With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements : (b)
1. The race was won by A.
2. B was ahead mark of A up to 25 km
3. C ran very slowly from the beginning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following figures : (c)
What is the missing number ?
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10
49. Study the following figure : (c)
A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the lines. How many different routes can he adopt ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
50. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows : (c)
What is the total number of triangles in the above grid ?
(a) 27 (b) 26
(c) 23 (d) 22
51. A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively (d)
(a) 15 and 35 (b) 35 and 15
(c) 30 and 20 (d) 25 and 25
52. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?
(a) 25 m 20 cm (b) 50 m 40 cm (a)
(c) 75 m 60 cm (d) 100 m 80 cm
53. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour ? (b)
(a) 8 : 5 (b) 5 : 8
(c) 4 : 5 (d) 1 : 2
54. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30O student play football and 10% students play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ? (b)
(a) 25 (b) 20
(c) 18 (d) 15
55. A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for (b)
(a) 2 days (b) 3 days
(c) 4 days (d) 5 days
Directions for the following 4 (four) items :
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species.
A study at the University of Washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
56. What is the crux of the passage ? (c)
(a) Sea star has a preferred prey.
(b) A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.
(c) Keystone species ensures species diversity.
(d) Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.
57. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements : (a)
1. Mussels are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.
2. The survival of sea stars if generally determined by the abundance of mussels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ? (d)
1. Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
2. Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
3. Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
59. Consider the following assumptions : (a)
1. The food chains/food web in an ecosystem are influenced by keystone species.
2. The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
3. If the keystone species is completely removed from an .ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
60. Consider the following argument : (b)
"In order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor."
Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?
(a) Some Mathematicians are not teachers.
(b) Some teachers are not Mathematicians.
(c) Teachers are not poor,
(d) Poets are not teachers.
61. A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points. If shell exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests ? (d)
(a) N + 20 (b) N + 10
(c) N + 4 (d) N + 5
62. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married, what fraction of the females is single ? (d)
(a) 2/7 (b) 1/3
(c) 3/7 (d) 2/3
63. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A's being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D's house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C's house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ? (c)
(a) C and D live on the same street.
(b) C's house faces south.
(c) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart.
(d) None of the above
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items :
The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage-I
He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tired with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had.
64. When the night fell, he slept (b)
(a) in the open field
(b) under a pile of dry grass
(c) in a farmer's cottage
(d) under a tree
65. He soon fell asleep because (a)
(a) he was exhausted
(b) he was all alone
(c) he had not slept for days
(d) he was very frightened
66. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements : (a)
1. He was walking through the countryside.
2. The cottagers and farmers gave him enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-II
I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred to me. Had I packed my toothbrush ? I don't know how it is, but I never do know whether I've packed my toothbrush.
My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I'm travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I haven't packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration, and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at the last moment and carry it to the railway station, wrapped up in my pocket-handkerchief.
67. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was (a)
(a) unpleasant (b) sad
(c) fantastic (d) amusing
68. What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling ? (b)
(a) Going to railway station
(b) Forgetting the toothbrush
(c) Packing his bag
(d) Bad dreams
69. His toothbrush is finally (c)
(a) in his bag
(b) in his bed
(c) in his handkerchief
(d) lost
Passage-III
In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
70. Female polar bears give birth during (d)
(a) spring (b) summer
(c) autumn (d) winter
71. Mother bear (b)
(a) takes sides over cubs
(b) lets the cubs fend for themselves
(c) feeds only their favourites
(d) sees that all cubs get an equal share
72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : (d)
1. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability of prey.
2. Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find- most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.
Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.
73. You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him/her. You would (a)
(a) send a written reply explaining the fact.
(b) seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation.
(c) admit your fault to save the situation.
(d) put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing.
74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would (b)
(a) sell the property at a cheap price to him.
(b) go to the police for necessary action.
(c) ask for help from your neighbours.
(d) negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.
75. You have to accomplish a very important task for your Headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the task. You would (c)
(a) ask for an extension of deadline.
(b) inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time.
(c) suggest alternate person to Headquarters who may do the needful.
(d) stay away till you recover.
76. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would (a)
(a) let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter.
(b) ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.
(c) not pay attention to allegations.
(d) stop undertaking any initiative till the matter is resolved.
77. You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would (b)
(a) reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.
(b) accept the lowest price.
(c) refer the matter to the Government and wait.
(d) threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence.
78. You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the Gram Pradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurized by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would (c)
(a) initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either.
(b) arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area.
(c) ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency,
(d) arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area.
79. You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would (a)
(a) ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station.
(b) assure residents of an enquiry into the matter.
(c) ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made.
(d) continue with the project and ignore their complaint.
80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. You would
(a) call the in-laws for an explanation. (d)
(b) counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance.
(c) take action after her parents approach you.
(d) ask her to lodge a complaint with the police.